6 READING PRACTICE TESTS FOR THE SSAT UPPER Unauthorized coping or reuse of any part of this eBook is illegal.Copyright September 2012 SSAT Upper Reading only!SSAT Upper Reading only!SSAT Upper Reading only! Word Count: 26,300 This Kindle eBook only contains SSAT Upper Level READING selections and questions. The actualSSAT Upper Level contains Math, Verbal and Writing sections as well, but this eBook does NOTcover those sections. This Kindle eBook is intended for use by current EIGHTH, NINTH and TENTH graders applyingfor private schools that require the SSAT Upper. SSAT Upper Level readings (40 Questions 40 Minutes) include narratives (excerpts from novels /short stories / poetry) and essays. Passages are also drawn from humanities (arts / biographies /poetry), social science (history / economics / sociology) and science (medicine / astronomy /zoology). The four main types of Reading questions are: Identifying the Main Idea ( Authors Purpose / Best Title ) Locating Details Drawing Inferences Identifying Tone or Mood In our experience, SSAT Upper Level reading selections and questions are comparable to high schoolgraduate equivalency and sometimes college entrance standardized reading tests. Therefore,students should take their time at first and always look back to the passage for answers. Withadequate practice, all students can become proficient at answering the main types of SSAT readingquestions. What is the purpose of these 6 SSAT Upper Level READING Practice Tests? A pervasive characteristic of SSAT private school admission exams is that they are very difficult,oftentimes featuring test questions one to four grade levels above your childs current public orprivate school curriculum. The SSAT targets a small, highly competitive group of students applyingfor top private schools across the nation. Using our years of experience developing training guides for a national test preparation company,weve created SSAT study materials that closely approximate the sequence, scope, phrasing and

difficulty level of actual exams. Weve accomplished this through years of meticulous research intoindividual SSAT test questions and through information acquired from former test participants. The practice tests, used at schools and tutorial centers, show you how to compute your childs RawScore and identify its corresponding Scaled Score which can be compared (if available) to theaverage SSAT scaled score ranges of students admitted to a top private school near you. Thousandsof applicants have worked through the 240 SSAT Upper Level Reading practice problems containedwithin this Kindle eBook to enhance their candidacies in the private school admission process. How do I use this Kindle eBook? Administer the practice tests to your child, keeping in mind the time constraints for each section.Students are PENALIZED one-fourth point for each incorrect response. Therefore, on an actualSSAT exam, all unsolvable questions should be skipped. Wild guessing is arguably the greatestcontributor to low scores. Some parents choose not to time their child at first. Instead, they allow for an adjustment period tobecome accustomed to the style and difficulty level of the Reading selections and questions. Haveyour child attempt all unfinished problems. The parent or tutor should review all incorrect responseswith the child. Use the Answer Keys at the beginning of this eBook to record the number of correct / wrongresponses for each practice test. This eBook shows you how to compute your childs Raw Score andthen identify the corresponding Scaled Score. To help parents gauge their childs standing, some topprivate schools provide average scaled score ranges for students admitted for the previous schoolyear. Parents should not overreact to lower-than-expected results. (Easy for us to say!) In addition toSSAT scores, most private schools take into account academic performance, teacher / counselor /coach recommendations, extracurricular activities and the personal interview / essay / portfolio intheir admissions decision. But, of course, high SSAT scores help immensely. Remember that everychild can improve his or her SSAT performance with the right mix of effort, instruction, materials,experience and encouragement! The RAW SCORE to SCALED SCORE Conversion Chart below is a best approximation orhappy medium based on thousands of student test results. For the actual SSAT, Raw to ScaledScore conversions can vary from test to test as there are harder and easier test months each witha different conversion formula. How do I calculate my childs RAW SCORE? RAW SCORE = Total Number Correct (Out of 40) Total Number Wrong Divided by 4

Reading Raw Score of 40 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 800Reading Raw Score of 38 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 770Reading Raw Score of 37 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 750Reading Raw Score of 36 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 730Reading Raw Score of 35 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 720Reading Raw Score of 34 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 710Reading Raw Score of 33 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 705Reading Raw Score of 32 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 700Reading Raw Score of 31 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 695Reading Raw Score of 30 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 690Reading Raw Score of 29 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 690Reading Raw Score of 28 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 690Reading Raw Score of 27 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 685Reading Raw Score of 26 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 680Reading Raw Score of 25 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 675Reading Raw Score of 24 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 670Reading Raw Score of 23 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 665Reading Raw Score of 22 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 660Reading Raw Score of 21 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 650Reading Raw Score of 20 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 640Reading Raw Score of 19 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 635Reading Raw Score of 18 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 630Reading Raw Score of 17 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 625Reading Raw Score of 16 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 620Reading Raw Score of 15 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 610Reading Raw Score of 14 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 600Reading Raw Score of 13 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 595Reading Raw Score of 12 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 590Reading Raw Score of 11 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 580Reading Raw Score of 10 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 570Reading Raw Score of 9 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 565Reading Raw Score of 8 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 560Reading Raw Score of 7 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 555Reading Raw Score of 6 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 550Reading Raw Score of 5 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 545Reading Raw Score of 4 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 540Reading Raw Score of 3 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 535Reading Raw Score of 2 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 530Reading Raw Score of 1 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 520Reading Raw Score of 0 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 510 ANSWER Key Reading Practice Test 1 (40 Questions: #1 thru #40) 1. B2. D

3. C4. E5. A 6. C7. C8. B9. E10. D 11. D12. A13. B14. E15. C 16. D17. E18. A19. C20. B 21. D22. E23. C24. A25. B 26. E27. D28. C29. B 30. D31. C32. D33. B34. E35. D 36. D37. D38. E39. C40. B

ANSWER Key Reading Practice Test 2 (40 Questions: #201 thru #240) 201. B202. D203. C204. A205. E 206. D207. C208. D209. B210. A 211. C212. D213. E214. B215. A 216. B217. C218. E219. A220. D 221. B222. A223. D224. C225. E 226. A227. E228. C229. D230. B 231. E232. A233. B234. C235. D

236. A237. D238. B239. E240. C ANSWER Key Reading Practice Test 3 (40 Questions: #301 thru #340) 301. B302. E303. D304. A305. C 306. D307. C308. E309. A310. B 311. C312. B313. E314. D315. A 316. D317. A318. B319. E320. C 321. E322. D323. A324. C325. B 326. D327. A328. C329. E330. B 331. D

332. B333. E334. C335. A 336. C337. A338. D339. E340. B ANSWER Key Reading Practice Test 4 (40 Questions: #401 thru #440) 401. C402. D403. B404. E405. C 406. B407. D408. A409. E410. C 411. C412. A413. E414. B415. D 416. E417. A418. C419. B420. D 421. D422. B423. E424. A425. C 426. B427. E

428. C429. D430. A 431. E432. B433. C434. D435. A 436. E437. D438. C439. B440. A ANSWER Key Reading Practice Test 5 (40 Questions: #501 thru #540) 501. A502. B503. C504. E505. D 506. A507. D508. C509. B510. E 511. B512. D513. B514. C515. E 516. E517. C518. B519. D520. A 521. A522. C523. B

524. E525. D 526. A527. C528. E529. D530. B 531. B532. E533. D534. C535. A 536. A537. D538. C539. E540. B ANSWER Key Reading Practice Test 6 (40 Questions: #601 thru #640) 601. A602. D603. E604. C605. B 606. E607. D608. E609. A610. C 611. D612. B613. A614. E615. C 616. D617. A618. E619. B

620. C 621. A622. C623. E624. D625. B 626. C627. E628. B629. A630. D 631. E632. B633. A634. C635. D 636. A637. E638. D639. B640. C SSAT UPPER LEVEL READING PRACTICE TEST #1 (40 Questions 40 Minutes) SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #1 thru #5)

A government office confirmed that the bird flu outbreak in a farm town in South Korea was ofthe H5 strain, but further tests are needed to determine whether it was the deadly N1 type. SouthKorea has had three outbreaks of the bird flu virus at chicken and quail farms. This has resulted in theslaughter of more than one million poultry in an attempt to keep the disease from spreading. Althoughsome complained, South Korean farmers have been largely cooperative in the governments decisionto cull the birds as the government later paid them for their losses.

Most of the 154 people who have died worldwide from the bird flu virus came into directcontact with infected birds. Experts fear the virus could mutate into a form that becomes easily passedamong people, potentially starting a human pandemic. Indonesia, which was the worst hit by the birdflu virus, initially protested against having to slaughter birds in infected areas and vaccinate flocks,citing a lack of funds. But it recently launched a large-scale public education campaign, including TVcommercials, urging people to wash their hands after coming into contact with poultry and to reportsick or dying birds to authorities. 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as being used to help stop the spread of the bird flu?

(A) Cleansing hands after touching poultry(B) Thoroughly cooking meat before eating(C) Telling authorities about sick or dying birds(D) Educating the public through the media(E) Slaughtering sick birds 2. The word cull at the end of the first paragraph most closely means (A) redirect(B) sanitize(C) devour(D) collect(E) verify 3. The style of the passage is most like that found in a (A) novel about the bird flu(B) agriculturalists diary(C) newspaper article(D) journal on pandemics(E) science textbook 4. According to the passage, Indonesia did which of the following? I. Complained about having to kill birdsII. Reported cases of the virus in two provincesIII. Used television to tell people about the bird flu (A) I only(B) II only(C) I and II only(D) II and III only(E) I and III only 5. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) the bird flu virus can change into a more deadly form(B) humid Southeast Asian weather helps spread the flu(C) radio messages are not as useful as TV commercials(D) the H5 strain spreads faster than the N1 strain(E) farmers should not accept help from the government GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION

SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #6 thru #10)

Historians place Caesar on the level of such military greats as Alexander the Great, Hannibal,Genghis Khan, Napoleon Bonaparte and Saladin. Although he suffered a few defeats, Caesarsbrilliance in war was highlighted by the conquering of Alesia during the Gallic War, the defeat ofPompeys numerically superior forces at Pharsalus during the Civil War, and the complete destructionof Pharnaces army at the Battle of Zela.

Caesars success on any land and under all weather conditions owes much to the strict but fairdiscipline of his soldiers. Their admiration and devotion to him were widely known due to hispromotion of those of skill over those of nobility. Additional factors that made him effective in warwere his armys advanced engineering abilities and the legendary speed with which he moved histroops. Caesars army sometimes marched as many as 40 miles a day. During an attack on one Galliccity built on a very steep and high plateau, Caesars engineers were able to tunnel through solid rock.They found the source of the spring that the town was drawing its water supply from, and redirected itto their own army. The town, cut off from their water supply, capitulated at once.-Wikipedia 6. The authors main goal in this passage is to (A) list several of Romes greatest military battles.(B) compare Caesar against other military masterminds.(C) report about Caesars great skill in war.(D) describe Caesars defeat of a Gallic city.(E) discuss the political motives of Caesar. 7. As used in the last line, capitulated most closely means (A) attacked(B) conquered(C) surrendered(D) abandoned(E) passed away 8. Which of the following is true regarding the battle of Pharsalus during the Civil War? (A) Pompeys body was never found.(B) Caesars army was outnumbered.(C) It was the last major conflict of the Civil War.(D) Caesar could not take full credit for this victory.(E) It occurred at the same time as the Battle of Zela. 9. According to the first few sentences of the second paragraph, Caesars policy of basing promotionon skill rather than social position (A) angered members of the Senate back in Rome.

(B) allowed his men to focus on war rather than politics.(C) was his most admirable quality as a military leader.(D) eased the suffering of the soldiers family in Rome.(E) helped gain him the favor and loyalty of his men. 10. According to the passage, Caesars engineers I. fought despite limited water supplies.II. were very highly skilled.III. once tunneled through solid rock. (A) II only(B) I and II only(C) I and III only(D) II and III only(E) I, II and III GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #11 thru #15)

On August 16, 1896, George Washington Carmack and two Indian friends in the Yukon pried agold nugget from the bed of Rabbit Creek, a tributary of Canadas Klondike River, and set in motionone of the most frenzied and famous gold rushes in history. Over the next two years, at least 100,000eager would-be prospectors from all over the world set out for the new gold fields with dreams of aquick fortune dancing in their heads. Only about 40,000 actually made it to the Klondike, and aprecious few ever found their fortune.

Swept along on this tide of gold seekers was a smaller and more clever group, also seekingtheir fortunes but in a far more practical way. They were the entrepreneurs, the people who madebusiness from Klondike fever.

George Carmack, the man who began it all, was neither a die-hard prospector nor a keenbusinessman. The California native was simply in the right place at the right time. Not that this son ofa Forty-Niner had anything against being rich. But, like most of the white men who drifted north in the1870s and 80s, he came as much for the solitude as for the gold.-Gary L. Blackwood 11. The entrepreneurs mentioned in the second paragraph most likely (A) wanted to explore the uncharted lands of the Yukon.(B) traveled with the gold seekers as guides.(C) knew all the hot spots for gold nuggets.(D) sold housing and prospecting tools to gold seekers.(E) were friends and relatives of George Carmack. 12. Which of the following will the author most likely discuss next?

(A) The history of gold in the Yukon.(B) A detailed life story of George Carmack.(C) The origins of Canadian exploration.(D) Why gold holds so much value.(E) The geography of Rabbit Creek. 13. This passage is primarily about (A) the early career of George Carmack.(B) a single discovery that started a gold rush.(C) techniques on how to find gold nuggets.(D) the history of gold prospecting in the U.S.(E) the people who journeyed to the Yukon. 14. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that George Carmack (A) later regretted discovering his famous gold nugget.(B) became known as a great Forty-Niner.(C) passed away either in the 1870s or 1880s.(D) continued to find gold for many years.(E) also came to Klondike to avoid crowded city life. 15. According to the passage, why did people travel to Klondike after Carmack found the nugget? I. They hoped to meet George Carmack.II. They wanted to make money off the prospectors.III. They also wanted to find gold. (A) III only(B) I and II only(C) II and III only(D) I and III only(E) I, II and III GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #16 thru #20) Ive come this far to freedom and I wont turn backIm climbing to the highway from my old dirt track

Im coming and Im goingAnd Im stretching and Im growing

And Ill reap what Ive been sowing or my skins not black

Ive prayed and slaved and waited and Ive sung my songYouve bled me and youve starved me but Ive still grown strong

Youve lashed me and youve treed meAnd youve everything but freed me

But in time youll know you need me and it wont be long. Ive seen the daylight breaking high above the boughIve found my destination and Ive made my vow;

so whether you abhor meOr deride me or ignore me

Mighty mountains loom before me and I wont stop now.-Naomi Long Madgett 16. Which of the following words best characterizes the poet? (A) furious(B) mournful(C) victorious(D) determined(E) obedient 17. In the poem, the narrators life can best be described as a(n) (A) brisk journey(B) cautionary tale(C) educational experience(D) hazardous highway(E) uphill climb 18. All of the following are used by the poet to overcome slavery EXCEPT (A) strength in numbers(B) belief in God(C) patience(D) keeping a merry heart(E) surviving physical hardship 19. The poet believes she will reach her goal because (A) there are many more slaves than slave owners.(B) the Civil War is finally coming to an end.(C) her oppressors will need her one day.(D) she will find safety behind mighty mountains.(E) the government will pass laws abolishing slavery.

20. The pattern of rhyme in this poem is most similar to: (A) Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday(B) apple, apple, banana, banana, apple(C) black, white, black, white, black(D) day, day, day, night, night(E) girl, boy, boy, girl, girl GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #21 thru #25)

As early as 1939, scientists Leo Szilard and Albert Einstein had urged President Franklin D.Roosevelt to begin government-sponsored research to develop an atomic bomb for the United States.They knew that the German effort, led by their former colleague, the brilliant Nobel laureate WernerHeisenberg, could be a great threat. As it turned out, Germany was unsuccessful, perhaps becauseAdolf Hitler was more interested in developing rockets than nuclear weapons. But that was in thefuture, and the only future the physicists in America could see at that point was the danger of aGerman atomic bomb.

In response to the plea of Einstein and Szilard, FDR initiated a modest program of uraniumresearch. By June 1940, interest in uranium had increased to the point that the president created alarger organization, the National Defense Research Committee. He named as director Vannevar Bush,the president of the Carnegie Institution in Washington, D.C. The slowly growing effort gained furtherstrength in 1941 from a startling British document. Based on British nuclear research, the reportstated that a very small amount of uranium could produce an explosion similar to that of severalthousand tons of TNT. Roosevelt responded by creating a still larger organization, the Office ofScientific Research and Development, which would mobilize scientific resources to create an atomicweapon.-Robert LaRue 21. As it is used in the last sentence, mobilize most nearly means (A) transport(B) investigate(C) clutter(D) assemble(E) construct 22. This passage is primarily concerned with (A) Szilard and Einsteins role in scientific research.(B) why Germany failed to build the atomic bomb.(C) various types of wartime organizations.(D) important decisions made by President Roosevelt.(E) the early background of a powerful weapon.

23. All of the following were motivating factors for America to build the atomic bomb EXCEPT: (A) A German bomb would be a direct threat to the U.S.(B) A report showed the bombs devastating effects.(C) Adolf Hitler made the atomic bomb a top priority.(D) An increased interest in the benefits of uranium.(E) Their chief enemy in war was also trying to build it. 24. It can be inferred that Leo Szilard and Albert Einstein (A) believed Heisenberg was a very good scientist.(B) upset President Roosevelt with their constant pleas.(C) directed the National Defense Research Committee.(D) were suspicious of other American scientists.(E) eventually gave up on atomic bomb research. 25. According to the passage, President Franklin D. Roosevelt (A) believed Adolf Hitler was not a major threat.(B) made atomic bomb research increasingly important.(C) attempted to accumulate large amounts of uranium.(D) was a close friend of Director Vannevar Bush.(E) was the United States president for about two years. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #26 thru #29)

It was Sunday afternoon. Beth was driving down the main street in her community. It would beone of the most difficult days to get through following the loss of Katie. Everywhere Beth looked,reminders of this special occasion, Mothers Day, decorated the fronts of stores, magazines andflower shops. They all exhibited heartwarming advertisements of ways to honor mothers. For Beth, amother who had gone through the pain of losing a daughter, these reminders continued to add hurt to asoul already grieving for a child she loved so much.

Inside her home, Beth swathed her left palm and fingers around Brads tiny cranium, andfinished tucking in her infant son. Brad was only nine months old, a stage when a young one is sovulnerable to the evils of the world, but Beth intuitively knew her second child would be safe. Shehad acquired this comforting through prayer. God had promised, she believed, that nothing wouldhappen to Brad. Her lone remaining child would see his ninth birthday and beyond. He wouldgraduate from high school, then college, and set off into the world. He would live on past the deathsof his parents.

Beth moved towards the carpeted staircase and walked downward upon its steps one by one.There were family pictures hanging on the wall, the times past they represented looking back upon heras she made the discomfiting descent to the living room. Why was the emotional pain of losing a child

so severe? Why had God fused a mothers love and a daughters trust through potent spiritualintimacy only to allow the severance of the bond with a single senseless gust of evil? Was this atest and if so, were Beth and Lono facing the consequences of a sin as King David had with themurder of Uriah? 26. In the last paragraph, Beth is (A) trying to forget painful times of the past.(B) hanging pictures of her daughter on the wall.(C) searching for the right grief counselor.(D) studying the history of King David and Uriah.(E) struggling with why she lost her daughter. 27. All of the following add to Beths hurt EXCEPT (A) memories evoked by pictures on the wall.(B) going through Mothers Day without her daughter.(C) guilty feelings from possible disobedience to God.(D) knowing her daughter will not graduate from school.(E) the lingering pain of losing a family member. 28. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) Beths daughter is older than nine years old.(B) Beth is a single parent with one son.(C) King David had also lost a child.(D) Mothers Day rarely falls on a Sunday.(E) Beths daughter has been missing for some time. 29. The question, Why had God fusedgust of evil? in the last paragraph refers to (A) the momentary victory of evil over motherly love.(B) a girls precious birth and later wasteful death.(C) similarities between royal and normal families.(D) the time it takes for emotional pain to subside.(E) the nature of bonds between mothers and daughters. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #30 thru #35)

After several turns, he sat down again. As he threw his head back in the chair, his glancehappened to rest upon a bell, a disused bell, which hung in the room, and communicated for somepurpose now forgotten with a chamber in the highest story of the building. It was with greatastonishment, and with a strange, inexplicable dread, that as he looked, he saw this bell begin to

swing. It swung so softly in the outset that it scarcely made a sound; but soon it rang out loudly, and sodid every bell in the house.

This might have lasted half a minute, or a minute, but it seemed an hour. The bells ceased asthey had begun, together. They were succeeded by a clanking noise, deep down below; as if someperson were dragging a heavy chain over the casks in the wine-merchants cellar. Scrooge thenremembered to have heard that ghosts in haunted houses were described as dragging chains.

The cellar-door flew open with a booming sound, and then he heard the noise much louder, onthe floors below; then coming up the stairs; then coming straight towards his door.

Its humbug still! said Scrooge. I wont believe it. His color changed though, when, without a pause, it came on through the heavy door, and

passed into the room before his eyes. Upon its coming in, the dying flame leaped up, as though itcried, I know him! Marleys Ghost! and fell again.-Charles Dickens 30. Most of the events in this passage take place as Scrooge is (A) reading a book in his den.(B) finishing work in his office.(C) working in a store full of bells.(D) sitting on a chair in his home.(E) visiting a house that is haunted. 31. All of the following contribute to the suspense of the story EXCEPT (A) clanking noises of a heavy chain being dragged.(B) the very loud sound of the cellar door opening.(C) faint cries from the highest story in the building.(D) something mysterious moving towards Scrooges door.(E) bells starting to ring all by themselves. 32. According to the passage, the first bell that began to swing (A) was used by Scrooge as a type of fire alarm.(B) rang loudly at first and then diminished in volume. (C) was apparently the only bell in the building.(D) had been used to communicate with another room.(E) was frantically shaken by Scrooge out of sheer fright. 33. According to the selection, which of the following probably affected Scrooge the most? (A) The clanking sound of chains in the wine cellar.(B) The sight of Marleys ghost passing through a door.(C) The report of ghosts living in haunted houses.(D) The deafening noise of bells stopping all at once.(E) An unidentified sound closing in on Scrooges location.

34. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) Marleys ghost has visited Scrooge many times.(B) the ringing of the bells lasted for about an hour.(C) Scrooges home would be an easy target for robbers.(D) Marley is the original owner of Scrooges home.(E) Scrooge does not reside in a one-story house. 35. All of the following words can be used to describe the mood of this passage EXCEPT: (A) mysterious(B) absorbing(C) escalating(D) dynamic(E) frightening GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #36 thru #40)

Miami, Puerto Rico and Bermuda are prime holiday destinations boasting sun, beaches andcoral seas. But between these idyllic settings, there is a dark side: countless ships and planes havemysteriously gone missing in the one and a half million square miles of ocean separating them. About60 years ago, the area was claiming about five planes every day and was nicknamed the BermudaTriangle by a magazine in 1964. Today, about that many planes disappear in the region each year andthere are a number of theories explaining what could be happening.

Twins George and David Rothschild are among the first passengers to have experienced bizarreeffects in the Bermuda Triangle. In 1952, when they were 19 years old, the two naval men had tomake an emergency trip home on a navy light aircraft, north over the Florida Keys, to attend theirfathers funeral. They had been flying for probably 20 or 30 minutes when all of a sudden the pilotyelled out that the instruments were dead and he became very frantic. The pilot had lost his bearings,and not only did he not know where he was, he also had no idea how much gas was left in the fueltanks. After what seemed like hours, they landed safely in Norfolk, on the Florida coast.

Some speculate that it had nothing to do with the location, but rather the instruments that wereavailable at the time. Pilot Robert Grant says that back in the 1940s, navigating a plane involved a lotof guesswork since they relied completely on a magnetic compass to guide them. Dead reckoningwas used, which means that pilots would trust their compass and then estimate how the wind wouldinfluence their planned flight path to remain on track. No matter what your mind tells you, you muststay on that course, says Grant. If you dont, and you start turning to wherever you think you shouldbe going, then youre toast.-Sandrine Ceurstemont 36. Which of the following is the best title for the selection?

(A) Perils of Miami, Puerto Rico, and Bermuda(B) The Rothschild Incident(C) Danger in the Open Seas(D) Mysteries of the Bermuda Triangle(E) Was it Location or Instruments? 37. The Rothschilds pilot became frantic for which of the following reasons? I. He did not know how much gas he had left.II. The plane had arrived in the wrong place.III. He lost his sense of direction. (A) I only(B) II only(C) I and II only(D) I and III only(E) II and III only 38. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next? (A) Other incidences of missing planes around the world.(B) The advantages of spending the holidays in Bermuda.(C) A detailed account of the Rothschild flight.(D) What pilots can do in the event of an emergency.(E) The weather conditions near the island of Bermuda. 39. This passage (A) establishes a debate and then shows both sides of the argument.(B) proposes a theory and then provides evidence on why it could be false.(C) introduces a phenomenon and then offers insight based on facts.(D) provides a conclusion and then moves on to different topics.(E) describes a historical problem and then presents a few modern-day solutions. 40. Dead reckoning as described in the last paragraph is most like (A) a chef looking for all the right ingredients for a very special dish.(B) a blind girl trying to find her way by the sound of her mothers voice.(C) a coach devising a strategy on how to win without his best player.(D) a politician searching for the proper words for a campaign speech.(E) a surgeon using a new medical procedure to save a patients life. STOP! DO NOT GO ON TO THE NEXT SECTION

SSAT UPPER LEVEL READING PRACTICE TEST # 2 (40 Questions 40 Minutes) SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #201 thru #205)

Dance schools often participate in dance competitions by sponsoring teams that go to regionaland national competitions. Competitive dancing requires many months of dedication practicing anddeveloping dance routines. During competitions, dancers perform in front of judges who evaluatetheir efforts and score each routine. The ranks awarded by different judges are combined into a finalscore, and medals or trophies are awarded accordingly.

Each routine is required to comply with certain rules. It must enter a category which isconsistent with the music, style, content, and dancers of the routine. A common limitation is thenumber of dancers. There are different categories for solos, duos & trios, small groups (4-9), largegroups (10-19), and super groups (20 or more). Other grouping factors include average age of thedancer, average number of hours a week the dancer dances, appropriate music, and style of dance.Routines which fail to comply with the requirements the competition has laid out will be disqualified.-Wikipedia 201. The authors main purpose for writing the passage is (A) to explain how dance schools help dancers.(B) to inform people about dance competitions.(C) to compare regional and national contests.(D) to describe the basic rules of dance routines.(E) to encourage dancers to enter tournaments. 202. It can be inferred that dance competitors who do not follow rules (A) are usually the most inexperienced dancers.(B) can still win but must forfeit prizes.(C) were not properly trained by dance schools.(D) can be eliminated from competition.(E) should be limited to the no rules category. 203. According to the passage, how are dance schools involved in dance competitions? (A) They provide judges for regional competitions.(B) They educate participants on tournament rules.(C) They help pay for travel to national contests.(D) They aid dancers in locating competitions.(E) They offer discounts on trophies and medals. 204. As it is used at the end of the first paragraph, the word accordingly most nearly means (A) appropriately(B) especially

(C) visibly(D) differently(E) hurriedly 205. According to the passage, dance competition rules are based on which of the following? I. Amount of practice hoursII. Size of the dance groupIII. The music must match the routine (A) II only(B) I and II only(C) II and III only(D) I and III only(E) I, II and III GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #206 thru #210)

Think Minnesota gets cold?Try Titan, another land of a thousand lakes. Saturns haze-shrouded moon is an exotic land of

liquid methane lakes. First spotted by the international Cassini spacecraft, the lakes explain theclouds that cover the mysterious Titan. At minus 290 degrees on its surface, Titans weather is achilly model of Earths climate, with methane rains and rivers falling and flowing into lakes, whichevaporate once more to form the moons clouds.

Confirmation of the lakes existence is the latest success in the Cassini mission, which arrivedat Saturn, the second-largest planet, in 2004. The spacecraft has provided information on Saturnsrings, discovered new moons and found an interesting watery geyser on the small moon Enceledus.Titan, whose atmosphere behaves in ways similar to Earths, is a great scientific opportunity.Seventeen more flybys of the moon are planned for 2006.

At 3,200 miles wide, Titan is the second-largest moon in the solar system. It has fascinatedscientists since its hazy atmosphere was photographed by Voyager probes in the early 1980s.Methane, which is known on Earth as natural gas, in Titans lakes fills a role played by oceans on ourplanet. The materials may be different, and certainly the temperatures, but a lot of the basic physicalprocesses, which control any weather cycle, are similar.-Dan Vergano 206. Titan and Earth have all of the following in common EXCEPT: (A) They both experience evaporation.(B) They both have an atmosphere.(C) They both have liquid lakes.(D) They both have their own moons.(E) They both have rainfall.

207. The primary purpose of the third paragraph (Confirmation of the lakes existence) is to (A) explain how lakes form on Titans surface.(B) clarify a few of the mysteries of Saturn rings.(C) describe the findings of a spacecraft mission.(D) compare the surface features of two moons.(E) understand how scientists study moons and planets. 208. In the last paragraph, the author uses an analogy to illustrate that methane in Titans lakes (A) are the source of Titans clouds.(B) can be photographed by Voyager probes.(C) are an essential part of Titans weather cycle.(D) serve a similar purpose to oceans on Earth.(E) are unlike the lakes of Minnesota. 209. It can be inferred from the text that scientists are interested in Titan because (A) its closeness to Earth allows for more missions.(B) it has similar atmospheric processes to Earth.(C) its unique climate helps predict weather on Earth.(D) it is the largest moon in the solar system.(E) it was formed in the same way as Earths moon. 210. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next? (A) The additional findings of a recent Titan flyby.(B) The differences between methane and natural gas.(C) The atmospheric conditions on Enceledus.(D) The technical framework of the Cassini spacecraft.(E) Climatic differences between Minnesota and Titan. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #211 thru #215) What is Weir Like? The skies they were ashen and sober;The leaves they were crisped and sereThe leaves they were withering and sere:It was night in the Lonesome October Of my most immemorial year;It was hard by the dim lake of Auber;

In the misty mid region of WeirIt was down by the dank tarn of Auber In the ghoul-haunted woodland of Weir -from Ulalume by Edgar Allen Poe 211. The author uses adjectives throughout the passage to (A) reveal his fondness of Auber.(B) foreshadow his death in October.(C) establish the mood of Weir.(D) hide the true feelings of the main character.(E) build to the climax of Ulalume. 212. The words ashen (line 1) and sere (line 2-3), respectively, most nearly mean (A) stormy and rough(B) pale and moist(C) distant and abundant(D) gray and dry(E) sunny and wrinkled 213. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT (A) nature displaying the changing of the seasons(B) an atmosphere of loneliness and silence(C) evidence that it is the end of the day(D) difficulty seeing things in the distance(E) the peacefulness and quiet of a nearby lake 214. The passage answers which of the following questions? I. What is the setting of the passage?II. When do these events happen?III. Why is the narrator going to this place? (A) II only (B) I and II only(C) I and III only(D) II and III only(E) I, II and III 215. The passage indicates that the speaker (A) is drawn to this place of uncertainty and anguish.

(B) will meet an old friend by the lake in the evening.(C) has never been to this isolated region before.(D) ignores the warnings of ghosts not to enter the forest.(E) cannot wait to pass through this frightening country. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #216 thru #220)

Its difficult to imagine road-building conditions any worse than those workers faced in 1942,when they began carving a supply route over the Canadian Rockies, through the Yukon Territory, allthe way to remote military outposts in Alaska. Men hired for this job will be required to work andlive under the most extreme conditions imaginable, read one recruitment notice. Temperatures willrange from 90 degrees above zero to 70 degrees below zero. Men will have to fight swamps, rivers,ice and cold. Mosquitoes, flies and gnats will not only be annoying but will cause bodily harm. If youare not prepared to work under these and similar conditions, do not apply.

The idea of laying a roadway to connect the United States with the continents far north canbe traced all the way back to the Yukon gold rushes of the 1890s. But it wasnt until the 1930s thatAlaskas territorial legislature commissioned a study of possible routesand it took the Japaneseattack on Pearl Harbor to finally get the work started. Once drawn into World War II, the U.S.government worried that Japan would follow the destruction of the U.S. Pacific fleet in Hawaii withan invasion of Alaska. Within a few weeks of the Pearl Harbor attack, President Franklin D.Roosevelt decided that plans for a highway to Alaska deserved re-examination.-J. Kingston Pierce 216. This passage deals primarily with the roads (A) route through the Yukon Territory.(B) history leading up to it being built.(C) construction from 1890 to 1942.(D) design by President Roosevelt.(E) building conditions in wintertime. 217. The far north mentioned at the beginning of the second paragraph most likely refers to (A) Japan(B) the Pacific(C) Alaska(D) the Yukon(E) Canada 218. All of the following are mentioned as working conditions of building the road in 1942 EXCEPT: (A) The insects were harmful.(B) The surface was not all land.

(C) The temperatures were extreme.(D) Workers had to live there.(E) The pay was not very good. 219. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) most of the road did not go through the U.S.(B) construction of the road never got started.(C) many men died while building the road.(D) the gold rushes helped to buy materials for the road.(E) Pearl Harbor was located near Alaskan posts. 220. The author would most likely agree that (A) a Japanese invasion of Alaska was highly unlikely.(B) Canada should have helped pay for the road.(C) the road was not worth risking human life.(D) a demand for gold first sparked interest in the road.(E) President Franklin D. Roosevelt acted too slowly. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #221 thru #225)

What constitutes an American? Not color nor race nor religion. Not the pedigree of his familynor the place of his birth. Not his social status nor his bank account. Not his trade nor his profession.An American is one who loves justice and believes in the dignity of man. An American is one whowill fight for his freedom and that of his neighbor. An American is one who will sacrifice property,ease and security in order that he and his children may retain the rights of free men.

Americans have always known how to fight for their rights and their way of life. Americans arenot afraid to fight. They fight joyously in a just cause.

We Americans know that freedom, like peace, is inseparable. We cannot retain our liberty ifthree-fourths of the world is enslaved. Brutality, injustice and slavery, if practiced as dictators wouldhave them, universally and systematically, in the long run would destroy us as surely as a fire ragingin our nearby neighbors house would burn ours if we didnt help to put out his.-Harold Ickes from What is an American? 221. According to the speaker, all of the following describes an American EXCEPT (A) his desire to go to war for a good reason.(B) his status in society.(C) his readiness to fight for his friends.(D) his love of justice.(E) his willingness to sacrifice for his family.

222. The authors tone can best be described as (A) blunt(B) ecstatic(C) argumentative(D) cunning(E) sad 223. This passage is primarily about (A) knowing how to identify an American imposter.(B) the brutality and injustices of world dictators.(C) rights contained in the Declaration of Independence.(D) what does and does not define an American.(E) the differences between Americans and foreigners. 224. In the last sentence, the speaker is urging Americans to (A) avoid out-of-control forest fires.(B) recognize the injustices practiced by dictators.(C) fight with partnering countries against evil.(D) realize that war is not the solution in the long run.(E) know that neighbors can sometimes be the enemy. 225. As it is used at the beginning of the last paragraph, the statement freedom, like peace, isinseparable means (A) you must fight for freedom in order to obtain peace.(B) freedom and peace are the same to true Americans.(C) free will is guaranteed to people who fight for it.(D) freedom and peace cannot be seen without sacrifice.(E) America is not free if most of the world is not free. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #226 thru #230)

Shortly Tom came upon the juvenile pariah of the village, Huckleberry Finn, son of the towndrunkard. Huckleberry was cordially hated and dreaded by all the mothers of the town, because hewas idle and lawless and vulgar and badand because all their children admired him so, anddelighted in his forbidden society, and wished they dared to be like him. Tom was like the rest of therespectable boys, in that he envied Huckleberry his gaudy outcast condition, and was under strictorders not to play with him. So he played with him every time he got a chance. Huckleberry wasalways dressed in the cast-off clothes of full-grown men, and they were in perennial bloom andfluttering with rags. His hat was a vast ruin with a wide crescent lopped out of its brim; his coat,

when he wore one, hung nearly to his heels and had the rearward buttons far down the back; but onesuspender supported his trousers; the seat of the trousers bagged low and contained nothing, thefringed legs dragged in the dirt when not rolled up.

Huckleberry came and went, at his own free will. He slept on doorsteps in fine weather and inempty hogsheads in wet; he did not have to go to school or to church, or call any being master or obeyanybody; he could go fishing or swimming when and where he chose, and stay as long as it suitedhim; nobody forbade him to fight; he could sit up as late as he pleased; he was always the first boythat went barefoot in the spring and the last to resume leather in the fall; he never had to wash, nor puton clean clothes; he could swear wonderfully. In a word, everything that goes to make life preciousthat boy had. So thought every harassed, hampered, respectable boy in St. Petersburg.-Mark Twain from The Adventures of Tom Sawyer 226. As it is used in the first line, pariah most nearly means (A) outsider(B) convict(C) adventurer(D) student(E) drifter 227. All of the following are true regarding items worn by Huckleberry Finn EXCEPT: (A) He sometimes rolled up his pants.(B) A part of his hat had been cut out.(C) His clothes had been worn by other people.(D) His pants were held up by one suspender.(E) He wore clothes he had made by himself. 228. The main purpose of this selection is to (A) explain why Finn was not like other children.(B) describe the dressing habits of a boy.(C) introduce a new boy character in a book.(D) portray Finn through the eyes of a mother.(E) show a different side of a boys personality. 229. The mothers in the town disliked and feared Huckleberry Finn for which of the followingreasons? I. The other children in the town looked up to him.II. He said things that were inappropriate.III. His club did not include all the children.IV. He did not follow the rules of the town. (A) I and II only

(B) II and III only(C) I, II and III only(D) I, II and IV only(E) II, III and IV only 230. In the second paragraph, which of the following is NOT mentioned? (A) Finn did not receive adult supervision.(B) Finn did not eat his meals in the correct area.(C) Finn did not follow a specific schedule.(D) Finn did not have to answer to anybody.(E) Finn did not always sleep in a bed. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #231 thru #235)

The Battle of Iwo Jima represented to the Americans the pinnacle of forcible entry from the sea.This particular amphibious assault was the ultimate storm landing, the Japanese phrase describingthe American propensity for concentrating overwhelming force at the point of attack. The hugestriking force was more experienced, better armed and more powerfully supported than any otheroffensive campaign to date in the Pacific War. The Fifth Fleet enjoyed total domination of air and seaaround the small, sulfuric island, and the 74,000 Marines in the landing force would muster a healthy3-to-1 preponderance over the Japanese garrison. Seizing Iwo Jima would be tough, plannersadmitted, but the operation should be over in a week, maybe less.

By all logic, the force invading Iwo Jima should have prevailed, quickly and violently. But theJapanese had also benefited from the prolonged island campaigns in the Pacific. Lieutenant GeneralTadamichi Kuribayashi commanded the 21,000 troops on the island. Formerly a cavalry officer,Kuribayashi was a savvy fighter, one who could pick up realistic lessons from previous combatdisasters. Significantly, Japanese forces on Iwo Jima would defend the island in depthfrom hiddeninterior positions, not at the waters edgeand they would avoid the massive, suicidal banzaiattacks. Kuribayashi figured if the garrison could maintain camouflage and fire discipline, husband itsresources and exact disproportionate losses on the invaders, maybe the Americans would lose heart.His senior subordinates may have grumbled at this departure from tradition, but Kuribayashis planmade intelligent use of Iwo Jimas forbidding terrain and his troops fighting skills.-Colonel Joseph H. Alexander 231. All of the following are mentioned as advantages the Americans had against the JapaneseEXCEPT: (A) The Americans had extensive experience in battle.(B) The Americans had powerful weapons.(C) The Americans outnumbered the Japanese.(D) The Americans had better air and sea support.(E) The Americans had better knowledge of Iwo Jima.

232. This passage is primarily about (A) a battle for an island in the Pacific Ocean.(B) how to engage the enemy in unfamiliar territory.(C) why Iwo Jima was important to the Americans.(D) General Kuribayashis military strategies.(E) the final battle in a very long war. 233. It is reasonable to assume from the passage that (A) Kuribayashi had the unanimous support of his men.(B) the Japanese put up a stronger fight than expected.(C) the Americans attacked with a few men at the start.(D) the Japanese were successful in defending Iwo Jima.(E) the Americans were hurt by suicidal banzai attacks. 234. According to the passage, the Japanese forces (A) initially engaged the Americans from the air and sea.(B) had more ammunition than the Americans.(C) fought from locations that were not in plain sight.(D) wanted the island for its sulfur deposits.(E) tried to evacuate before the arrival of the Americans. 235. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next? (A) The military history of General Kuribayashi(B) Other battles fought on the Pacific front(C) How marines prepare to fight on an island(D) The results of the Battle of Iwo Jima(E) The reasoning behind a storm landing GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #236 thru #240)

The Loch Ness is a lake in Scotland that holds the largest volume of freshwater in the UnitedKingdom. But rather than being known for its size, it is famous for the mysterious legend of the LochNess monster. For hundreds of years, people have reported catching a glimpse of a huge creature inthe lake while others have shared photos they claim to have taken of this sea creature. The legend isso great that even scientists have been intrigued and many have conducted experiments and come upwith theories to try and explain what people could be witnessing.

It has been proposed that Nessieas the Loch Ness monster is commonly calledcould be aprehistoric creature called a plesiosaur, an animal that spanned up to ten meters in length and has long

been considered to be extinct. Adrian Shine, the leader of a British team called the Loch NessProject, has spent over 30 years trying to rationally explain the monster sightings by researching theecology of the region. If in fact a large creature was living in the lake, there would have to beevidence of a food chain for it to survive. A creature like the Loch Ness monster would most likelyeat fish, which in turn would live off large quantities of microscopic animals called zooplankton.There would have to be enough zooplankton in the lake to support populations of larger animals.

A way of estimating the amount of zooplankton in the lake is to examine the quantities of greenalgaethe bottom rung of the food chainthat zooplankton feed from. Green algae needs some lightto thrive, and so by examining how deep down in the lake sunlight can penetrate, researchers canestimate the amount of green algae and following from this, the type of population that could besustained.-Sandrine Ceurstemont 236. Which of the following is the best title for the selection? (A) A Monster in the Lake?(B) The Mysteries of Scotland(C) What Could It Eat?(D) The Loch Ness Lake(E) Where is the Evidence? 237. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) green algae feed off of zooplankton.(B) the Loch Ness scientists work with dinosaur fossils.(C) Loch Ness is one of the smallest lakes in Scotland.(D) a plesiosaur was a creature that lived in the water.(E) Adrian Shine is not looking in the right places. 238. According to the passage, why are scientists studying green algae in Loch Ness lake? (A) To know if it is good bait for the Loch Ness monster.(B) To estimate the amount of zooplankton in the lake.(C) Because sunlight is required to view underwater life.(D) To prove that the food chain model is erroneous.(E) To study how smaller animals survive in the lake. 239. The hypothetical Loch Ness food chain mentioned in the passage includes which of thefollowing? I. Loch Ness monsterII. Green algaeIII. FishIV. Zooplankton

(A) I, II and III only(B) I, II and IV only(C) I, III and IV only(D) II, III and IV only(E) I, II, III and IV 240. Which of the following strengthens the legend of the Loch Ness monster? (A) Tourists have claimed to have photos of a creature.(B) A legitimate food chain exists in Loch Ness lake.(C) Scientists have conducted experiments in the lake.(D) The Loch Ness lake supports other aquatic life.(E) Experts have found fossils of the plesiosaur creature. STOP! DO NOT GO ON TO THE NEXT SECTION SSAT UPPER LEVEL READING PRACTICE TEST #3 (40 Questions 40 Minutes) SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #301 thru #305)

Backyard ponds and water gardens are for birds, butterflies, frogs, fishand you and yourfamily. These ponds are typically three to four feet in diameter, and may be built in barrels or otherpatio containers. Water is effective in drawing wildlife to your backyard, and is a natural, relaxingand scenic addition that can provide interest and enjoyment.

Consider locating your backyard pond where you can see it from a deck or patio. There, it canblend in with its natural surroundings. Slightly elevate the soil around the pond so excess water willflow away from the pond. Plan to landscape around the pond to provide a habitat for frogs and birdsthat need land and water. If you would like to use a pump to re-circulate water, be sure electricalservice is available in that area. Also, there will be less maintenance if your pond is not under a tree,and most aquatic plants will grow better in full sun.

If you do not have space in your yard for a built-in earthen pond, consider a tub pond or alarge water bowl. It can be placed on the patio and provide many of the same benefits as a built-inpond. There are numerous tub kits available that can be as simple as adding water, a pump and someplants. They can also be moved inside in the winter as long as good lighting is provided for plants.-National Association of Conservation Districts 301. According to the passage, all of the following are benefits of backyard ponds EXCEPT: (A) It will attract animal life to the yard.(B) It will increase the value of the home.(C) It will be fun and interesting for the family.(D) It will add to the beauty of the home.(E) It will be a natural home for various pets.

302. The second paragraph is most concerned with (A) why backyard ponds are so helpful.(B) how to build a backyard pond.(C) when to install the backyard pond.(D) the advantages of backyard ponds.(E) where to put a backyard pond. 303. According to the passage, a pump for the pond needs to go together with (A) directions on how to use the pump.(B) a tub or large water bowl.(C) animals that are not harmed by the device.(D) a power source that is nearby.(E) knowledge on how to fix the pump. 304. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that (A) there are alternatives to built-in ponds(B) tub kits are available on a limited basis.(C) water bowls are more expensive than built-in ponds.(D) earthen ponds are only good in the winter.(E) good lighting is not needed for earthen ponds. 305. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next? (A) The differences between tubs and water bowls(B) A detailed history of the water pump(C) Instructions on how to install a backyard pond(D) Food options for water-based animal life(E) Possible reasons why patios are good for pets GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #306 thru #310)

Thomas Edison created many inventions, but his favorite was the phonograph. While workingon improvements to the telegraph and the telephone, Edison figured out a way to record sound ontinfoil-coated cylinders. In 1877, he created a machine with two needles: one for recording and onefor playback. When Edison spoke into the mouthpiece, the sound vibrations of his voice would beindented onto the cylinder by the recording needle.

Mary had a little lamb were the first words that Edison recorded on the phonograph and hewas amazed when he heard the machine play them back to him. In 1878, Edison established acompany to sell his new machine.

Edison suggested other uses for the phonograph, such as: letter writing and dictation,

phonographic books for blind people, a family record (recording family members in their ownvoices), music boxes and toys, clocks that announce the time, and a connection with the telephone socommunications could be recorded.

The phonograph also allowed soldiers to take music off to war with them. During World War I,Edisons company created a special phonograph for the U.S. Army. Many Army units purchased thesephonographs because it meant a lot to the soldiers to have music remind them of home. In a recording,Edison himself reminded Americans of the enormous sacrifice made by the soldiers.-Americas Library 306. This passage is primarily about (A) the life of a great American inventor.(B) the many inventions of Thomas Edison.(C) the role of the phonograph in modern society.(D) the origin and uses of an invention.(E) how the phonograph changed World War I. 307. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) Edison sold many of the phonographs all by himself.(B) the phonograph was most important for letter writing.(C) the phonograph had a positive effect on U.S. troops.(D) Edison used tinfoil in the invention of the telephone.(E) Edison loved to read nursery rhymes as a child. 308. Edison believed that a phonograph could be used for each of the following reasons EXCEPT (A) to help disabled people.(B) to entertain children.(C) to announce the time.(D) to record voices.(E) to interpret languages. 309. Each of the following words may be used to describe Edison EXCEPT: (A) Submissive(B) Appreciative(C) Imaginative(D) Spontaneous(E) Predictive 310. According to the passage, needles were used to (A) create the telegraph, but not the telephone.(B) indent sound vibrations onto a cylinder.

(C) connect the mouthpiece to the playback button.(D) produce sound vibrations.(E) secure the tinfoil on each cylinder. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #311 thru #315)

In the 1950s, Native Americans struggled with the governments policy of moving them intocities where they might assimilate into mainstream America. Many had difficulties adjusting to urbanlife. When the policy was discontinued in 1961, the government noted that poverty and deprivationare common for Native Americans.

In the 1960s and 1970s, watching both Third World nationalism and the civil rights movement,Native Americans became more aggressive in fighting for rights. New leaders went to court to protecttribal lands or to recover those which had been taken away. In 1967, they gained victoriesguaranteeing long-abused land and water rights. The American Indian Movement helped directgovernment funds to Native-American organizations and assist neglected Native Americans in cities.

Confrontations became more common. In 1969 a landing party of 78 Native Americans tookover Alcatraz Island and held it until federal officials removed them in 1971. In 1973 AIM took overthe South Dakota village of Wounded Knee, where soldiers in the late 19th century had massacred aSioux camp. Militants hoped to dramatize the poverty and alcoholism in the reservation surroundingthe town. The episode ended after one Native American was killed and another wounded, with agovernmental agreement to re-examine treaty rights.-U.S. Dept. of State 311. According to the passage, all of the following were gained by Native Americans EXCEPT (A) a governmental review of treaty rights(B) financial support for Native American groups(C) equal opportunities in the military(D) help for uncared for city-based Native Americans(E) land and water rights 312. The word assimilate as used in the first sentence most closely means (A) struggle(B) adapt(C) learn(D) thrive(E) connect 313. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason militants took over Wounded Knee was (A) it was the next logical target after Alcatraz Island.(B) its location far away from South Dakota officials.

(C) they wanted to profit from alcohol sales in the town.(D) this town did not have a strong police presence.(E) it had historical meaning for Native Americans. 314. In the second paragraph, Native American leaders are described as (A) mistreated(B) disadvantaged(C) unforgiving(D) determined(E) violent 315. According to the passage, Native Americans fought for which of the following reasons? I. To battle poverty among their people.II. They were inspired by movements across the globe.III. To support Native Americans in foreign countries. (A) I and II only(B) II and III only(C) I and III only(D) I, II and III(E) II only GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #316 thru #320)

Life was exciting for Ensign Lee Royal in the summer of 1950. The Texan had recently

graduated from the U.S. Naval Academy and reported for duty on the most famous warship in theworld, the USS Missouri. Royal was a commissioned officer, a step up from the previous year whenhe had served on the same ship as a midshipman on a training cruise.

The Missouri had visited England during that cruise, and Royal and two classmates had beenbrave enough to go to Winston Churchills country home unannounced. The former British primeminister was very welcoming, taking the three young midshipmen on a tour and then presenting themwith books, cigars, and wine. An amazed bodyguard told them privately that Churchill had been muchmore hospitable to them than to many of his famous visitors.

By 1950, the Missouri was the U.S. Navys only active battleshipjust a decade after the navyhad considered battleships to be its foremost fighting ships. The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor in1941, however, had changed the situation. Soon aircraft carriers and submarines became the navysprimary offensive weapons. Battleships had been designed to fight gun duels against large surfacevessels, but those encounters rarely occurred in World War II. The U.S. entered the war with anumber of old, slow battleships, which were primarily used for shore attack and to support landings.-Paul Stillwell

316. All of the following are true regarding Ensign Lee Royal EXCEPT: (A) He was promoted while serving on the Missouri.(B) He received gifts from Winston Churchill.(C) He visited England while on a training cruise.(D) He fought for the United States during World War II.(E) His naval career had just begun in 1950. 317. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that Winston Churchill (A) did not offer books, cigars and wine to all his guests.(B) previously served in the United States Navy.(C) sent out invitations to Royal and his classmates.(D) employed more than one bodyguard.(E) was on vacation from his job as prime minister. 318. An underlying theme throughout the passage is (A) how World War II affected the U.S. Navy.(B) a famous U.S. naval warship.(C) an unexpected visit to a prime ministers home.(D) the early life of a naval officer.(E) American and English relations in the 1950s. 319. All of the following contributed to why the USS Missouri was the U.S. Navys only activebattleship in 1950 EXCEPT: (A) Battleships were rarely used in combat anymore.(B) Most of the wartime battleships were old and slow.(C) Submarines were more important during the war.(D) The surprise Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor.(E) Most battleships were converted to aircraft carriers. 320. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements? (A) The Navy is the most popular of the armed forces.(B) The U.S. should not have given up on battleships.(C) Ensign Lee Royal is not afraid to take risks.(D) Promotion in the Navy should be more difficult.(E) Winston Churchill should not have retired so young. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #320 thru #325)

What Happened to Ozymandias? I met a traveler from an antique landWho said: Two vast and trunkless legs of stoneStand in the desert, Near them, on the sand,Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frownAnd wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,Tell that its sculptor well those passions readWhich yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed:And on the pedestal these words appear:My name is Ozymandias, king of kings:Look on my works ye Mighty, and despair!Nothing beside remains. Round the decayOf that colossal wreck, boundless and bareThe lone and level sands stretch far away. -Percy Bysshe Shelley 321. The wrecked statue of Ozymandias indicates all of the following EXCEPT: (A) Ozymandias was sending a message to other kings.(B) Ozymandias was a merciless leader.(C) Ozymandias had great pride in his accomplishments.(D) Ozymandias intended for his legacy to last.(E) Ozymandias possessed great architectural skill. 322. Which statement would be most consistent with the message expressed in the poem? (A) It is wiser to build a house on rock than on sand.(B) He who lives by the sword, dies by the sword.(C) The bigger they are, the harder they fall.(D) Art and language outlast power and kingdoms.(E) The passage of time helps to heal old wounds. 323. The word them (line 8) most likely refers to (A) Ozymandias people(B) the travelers people(C) historians(D) builders of the statue(E) Ozymandias enemies 324. The destruction of the statue demonstrates which of the following?

I. The destructive power of historyII. The lasting influence of humans throughout timeIII. The temporary nature of political power (A) I only(B) I and II only(C) I and III only(D) II and III only(E) I, II and III 325. The poet most likely has a tourist tell the tale of Ozymandias statue in order to (A) show that Ozymandias sculpture is just one of many sculptures.(B) further reduce the power and influence of a great king.(C) describe the facial features of Ozymandias statue in greater detail.(D) strengthen the imagery of a country from ancient times.(E) narrate this story from the viewpoint of a foreigner. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #326 thru #330)

For the next eight or ten months, Oliver was the victim of a systematic course of treachery anddeception. He was brought up by hand. The hungry and destitute situation of the infant orphan wasduly reported by the workhouse authorities to the parish authorities. The parish authorities inquiredwith dignity of the workhouse authorities, whether there was no female then established in thehouse who was in a situation to impart to Oliver Twist, the consolation and nourishment of which hestood in need. The workhouse authorities replied with humility, that there was not. Upon this, theparish authorities magnanimously and humanely resolved, that Oliver should be farmed, or, in otherwords, that he should be dispatched to a branch-workhouse some three miles off, where twenty orthirty other juvenile offenders against the poor-laws, rolled about the floor all day, without theinconvenience of too much food or too much clothing, under the parental superintendence of anelderly female, who received the culprits at and for the consideration of sevenpence-halfpenny persmall head per week. Sevenpence-halfpennys worth per week is a good round diet for a child; agreat deal may be got for sevenpence-halfpenny, quite enough to overload its stomach, and make ituncomfortable. The elderly female was a woman of wisdom and experience; she knew what wasgood for children; and she had a very accurate perception of what was good for herself. So, sheappropriated the greater part of the weekly stipend to her own use, and consigned the rising parochialgeneration to even a shorter allowance than was originally provided for them. Thereby finding in thelowest depth a deeper still; and proving herself a very great experimental philosopher.-Charles Dickens 326. This selection is primarily about (A) the living conditions of a specific branch-workhouse.

(B) the early childhood and education of Oliver Twist.(C) the history of young orphans in the 19th century.(D) the circumstances of a young childs relocation.(E) the philosophy of a workhouse superintendent. 327. It can be inferred from the passage that sevenpence-halfpenny was (A) enough money to take care of a child for a week.(B) the weekly pay of the branch-workhouse overseer.(C) the cost of ownership of Oliver Twist.(D) just enough money to pay for food for one day.(E) used specifically to buy clothing for infant orphans. 328. According to the passage, the overseer of the branch-workhouse (A) was too young to handle the raising of children.(B) had a poor relationship with parish authorities.(C) secretly stole money that was meant for child care.(D) was trying to quit her job as a caregiver of children.(E) had a particular dislike for young Oliver Twist. 329. The style of the passage is most like that found in a (A) personal letter(B) diary of an orphan(C) history textbook(D) philosophers manual(E) novel about an orphan 330. In the last sentence, finding in the lowest depth a deeper still refers to the (A) great difficulty of adjusting to a branch-workhouse.(B) highly immoral nature of a womans actions.(C) amount of experience of an overseer of orphans.(D) experimental aspect of a womans philosophy.(E) extent to which orphaned children must suffer. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #331 thru #335)

Of all the men who wore blue uniforms in the Civil War, none felt more keenly the purpose ofhis mission than the African-American soldier. Every marching step, every swing of a pick and everyround fired at Confederate enemies gave him a chance to strike a blow against slavery and provehimself equal to his white comrades. U.S. Colored Troops were consistently good fighters,

performing well in every engagement in which they fought. Even their enemies had to grudginglyadmit that fact. One USCT member, William H. Carney, transcended good to become great, and wasthe first black U.S. soldier to earn the Medal of Honor.

On February 17, 1863, at age 23, Carney heeded the call for African Americans to join a localmilitia unit, the Morgan Guards, with 45 other volunteers from his hometown of New Bedford, Mass.That unit would later become Company C of the 54th Massachusetts Infantry Regiment.

There was something unique about the new regiment, commanded by Colonel Robert GouldShaw; it was an all-black unit with the exception of senior officers and a few seniornoncommissioned sergeants. The 54th Massachusetts was created to prove that black men could begood soldiers.-Thomas Hammond 331. The main focus of this passage is (A) how a few men changed the course of the Civil War.(B) the strengths and flaws of African-American soldiers.(C) the impact of the Civil War on American history.(D) the achievement of black soldiers in the Civil War.(E) the battles fought by a famous Civil War regiment. 332. According to the passage, the enemys attitude towards the U.S. Colored Troops may best bedescribed as (A) sarcastic exaggeration(B) reluctant respect(C) enthusiastic optimism(D) sincere criticism(E) angry condemnation 333. In the selection, all of the following questions are answered regarding William H. CarneyEXCEPT: (A) How old was he when he became a fighting man?(B) Was he a member of the U.S. Colored Troops?(C) Did he receive any awards for his actions in war?(D) How many men volunteered for the unit with him?(E) What rank did he hold in the infantry regiment? 334. According to the passage, the African-American soldier wanted to do well in the Civil War forwhich of the following reasons? I. To show he could fight as well as white soldiers.II. To find better jobs after the war.III. To help get rid of slavery.

(A) I only(B) I and II only(C) I and III only(D) II and III only(E) I, II and III 335. The passage implies that (A) the soldiers with blue uniforms were fighting against slavery.(B) Colonel Robert Gould Shaw was an African-American.(C) the Confederate army also had many African-American soldiers.(D) the Morgan Guards never met Company C of the 54th Massachusetts.(E) the Medal of Honor was given to only one soldier in the war. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 3 (for Questions #336 thru #340)

The energy crisis has rocketed from a textbook concept into the most pressing political issue ofour time. Future energy supplies are increasingly vulnerable and global consumption is expected toescalate dramatically, increasing by 71% in 2030 and continuing to rise. Energy shortages wouldhave a dramatic impact on every area of modern life: business, transport, food, health andcommunications. This looming crisis has drawn scientific minds and encouraged radical research intoother technologies, such as the once-neglected area of nuclear fusion.

Our sun is powered by nuclear fusion. Similar to traditional nuclear power, or fission, it canproduce huge amounts of carbon-neutral energy. But there is one vital difference: no dangerous, long-lasting radioactive waste. Waste from nuclear fusion is only radioactive for 5070 years, comparedto the thousands of years of radioactivity that result from fission. This is a long-term supply of energyfrom a small amount of fuel, and the by-products are harmless.

Raw materials for nuclear fusionwater and siliconare plentiful and widespread on Earth.This should prevent the situations where energy supplies can be threatened by political instability; asdemonstrated in January 2007 when Russia shut down a main oil pipeline to Europe after a politicalspat with Belarus.

Nuclear fusion could also help meet international climate change targets, such as those agreedby politicians in Washington last month. Current zero-carbon technologies are unlikely to meet ourenergy demands this century. Nuclear power is deeply unpopular while renewable energy sourceswind, solar and tidalyield relatively little energy for their high cost. But nuclear fusion couldrender carbon dioxide-producing fossil fuels obsolete by 2100.-Nigel Praities 336. According to the passage, an important difference between nuclear fusion and nuclear fission is (A) nuclear fusion produces both water and silicon.(B) nuclear fission contributed more to the energy crisis.(C) nuclear fusion has no harmful long-term side effects.

(D) nuclear fission will have a big impact on modern life.(E) one draws energy from the sun and the other doesnt. 337. The authors main purpose in this passage is to (A) show the advantages of an alternative energy source.(B) describe the escalation of the energy crisis.(C) compare the pros and cons of new energy sources.(D) explain how nuclear power will help in the future.(E) criticize an emerging trend in the energy crisis. 338. All of the following are mentioned as benefits of nuclear fusion EXCEPT: (A) It does not produce carbon dioxide.(B) The raw materials for it are abundant on Earth.(C) It will help meet environmental goals.(D) It will generate ideas for new technologies.(E) Its radioactive waste lasts must shorter than fission. 339. The author mentions a political spat with Belarus (third paragraph) in order to (A) determine how water and silicon are used in the process of nuclear fusion.(B) report about the political instability caused by the development of nuclear power.(C) illustrate the secondary role oil pipelines play to the actual oil reserves.(D) show how different countries can cooperate to solve energy-related problems.(E) provide an example of a situation that would not happen with nuclear fusion. 340. It can be inferred from the passage that nuclear fusion (A) will not become a reality in the next 50-70 years due to radioactive waste.(B) can produce more energy than wind, solar or tidal power at the same cost.(C) is not being used by many countries due to the high amount of fuel it consumes.(D) will use the power of the sun to eliminate energy shortages worldwide.(E) can produce carbon dioxide at a much lower cost than other fossil fuels. STOP! DO NOT GO ON TO THE NEXT SECTION SSAT UPPER LEVEL READING PRACTICE TEST #4 (40 Questions 40 Minutes) SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 4 (for Questions #401 thru #405)

No man can fully grasp how far and how fast we have come in the 50,000 years of mans

recorded history. We know very little about the first 40,000 years, except at the end of them advancedman had learned to use the skins of animals to cover them. Then about 10,000 years ago, man emergedfrom his caves to construct other kinds of shelter. Only 5,000 years ago man learned to write and use

a cart with wheels. Christianity began less than 2,000 years ago. The printing press came within thelast 1,000 years, and then less than 200 years ago, during this whole span of human history, the steamengine provided a new source of power. Newton explored the meaning of gravity. In the last century,electric lights and telephones and automobiles and airplanes became available. Only in the last 50years did we develop penicillin and television and nuclear power, and now if Americas newspacecraft succeeds in reaching Venus, we will have literally reached the stars.-John F. Kennedy from We choose to go to the moon 401. According to the speaker, man learned to write about how many years ago? (A) 300(B) 1,000(C) 5,000(D) 10,000(E) 20,000 402. The main idea of this passage is that (A) space travel has been a goal for a very long time.(B) man has learned from the past during each era.(C) 50,000 years has gone by in a blink of an eye.(D) mankind is learning at an increasingly faster rate.(E) certain inventions have changed the course of history. 403. The speakers tone can best be described as (A) serious(B) inspirational(C) casual(D) argumentative(E) nervous 404. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) Venus was discovered only a few years ago.(B) gravity has been studied for over ten thousand years.(C) most major events occurred earlier in human history. (D) Christianity had its origins about 1,000 years ago.(E) nuclear power came after electric and steam power. 405. In the selection, all of the following are mentioned as turning points in history EXCEPT (A) the invention of new power sources.(B) improvements in transportation.(C) the discovery of America.

(D) the start of Christianity.(E) faster ways of making books. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 4 (for Questions #406 thru #410) When large cruise ships get too close to harbor seals, the animals can become distressed. Astudy found that when large ships got closer than 1,600 feet, seals were more likely to jump off the icefloes. The closer the ships got, the more likely the seals were to dive into the water. One concern isthat if seals are routinely disturbed, it will drain their energy reserves, possibly resulting in lowerreproduction or reduced survival.

As a result, some cruise ship associations have practices in place to minimize the disturbanceof the animals. However, that is not always possible because of weather, navigational and otherreasons, including not being able to see the seals. Also, the more time ships spend in bays, thecloser the seals come to one another. Such huddling behavior is common among animals that feelthreatened.

Another study compared harbor seal numbers in Disenchantment Bay with those of Icy Bay, anearby glacial fjord with similar characteristics. The only major difference between the two bays isthat cruise ships do not visit Icy Bay. Both bays started out with roughly the same number of seals inMay. The study found that seal populations in Icy Bay increased from May to August, while inDisenchantment Bay, they peaked in June and then declined slightly.-Associated Press 406. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a fjord is a (A) type of glacier(B) body of water(C) harbor with animals.(D) series of piers.(E) haven for seals. 407. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage? (A) Disenchantment Bay is safer for seals than Icy Bay.(B) The disturbance of seals can happen to other species.(C) Man is a major factor in the extinction of animals.(D) Large cruise ships affect the welfare of harbor seals.(E) The closer a ship, the more likely the seal will jump. 408. What message is the author sending in the second paragraph when he says However, that isnotsee the seals.? (A) Despite efforts, avoiding seals is still difficult.(B) Weather is very unpredictable in coastal areas.

(C) Cruise ships must keep away from seals at all costs.(D) Weather and visibility should not be used as excuses.(E) No animal should come before passenger safety. 409. The author suggests which of the following in the last paragraph? (A) Icy Bay should harbor cruise ships, because few seals live there.(B) Cruise ships should not visit Disenchantment Bay during the summer.(C) Very few similarities exist between Icy Bay and Disenchantment Bay.(D) It is abnormal for seal population to increase between May and August.(E) Seal numbers fell off in Disenchantment Bay due to cruise ship activity. 410. According to the passage, large cruise ships getting too close to harbor seals is a concern forwhich of the following reasons? I. It hinders the seals ability to reproduce.II. The seals move to colder areas in the summer.III. Disturbing the seals could shorten their lifespan. (A) III only(B) I and II only(C) I and III only(D) II and III only(E) I, II and III GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 4 (for Questions #411 thru #415)

The Bay of Pigs Invasion was an unsuccessful attempt by United States-backed Cuban exiles tooverthrow the government of Cuban dictator Fidel Castro. Increasing conflict between the U.S.government and Castros regime led President Dwight D. Eisenhower to break off diplomaticrelations with Cuba in January 1961. Even before that, the Central Intelligence Agency had beentraining Cuban exiles for a possible invasion of the island. The invasion plan was approved byEisenhowers successor, John F. Kennedy.

On April 17, 1961 about 1300 exiles, armed with U.S. weapons, landed at the Bay of Pigs onCuba. Hoping to find support from the local population, they intended to cross the island to Havana. Itwas evident from the first hours of fighting, however, that the exiles were likely to lose. PresidentKennedy had the option of using the U.S. Air Force against the Cubans but decided against it.Consequently, Castros army stopped the invasion. By the time the fighting ended on April 19, ninetyexiles had been killed and the rest had been taken prisoner.

The failure of the invasion seriously embarrassed the young Kennedy administration. Somecritics blamed Kennedy for not giving it enough support and others for allowing it to take place at all.Private groups in the United States later ransomed the captured exiles. Additionally, the invasionmade Castro wary of the United States. From the Bay of Pigs on, Castro was convinced that the

Americans would try to take over Cuba again.-Americas Library 411. This passage deals primarily with (A) the consequences of mistakes in politics.(B) diplomatic relations between the U.S. and Cuba.(C) a failed U.S. raid on a foreign country.(D) the early history of a presidential administration.(E) an attempt to bargain with Fidel Castro. 412. The exiles mentioned in the first sentence refer to (A) former Cuban citizens(B) past employees of Fidel Castro(C) government officials(D) U.S. ambassadors to Cuba(E) residents of the Bay of Pigs 413. Based on the passage, all of the following led to the Bay of Pigs invasion EXCEPT (A) a desire to remove Fidel Castro from power.(B) the order of the invasion by President Kennedy.(C) the training of Cuban exiles by the CIA.(D) increased tension between Castro and Eisenhower.(E) the imprisonment of U.S. citizens by Cuba. 414. It can be inferred from the passage that the 1,300 exiles (A) were captured because they were not properly trained by the CIA.(B) did not receive as much assistance from the Cuban people as hoped.(C) fought bravely for about two months, but eventually yielded to the enemy.(D) were Cuban prisoners of war for many years before being killed.(E) never forgave President Kennedy for not providing aircraft support. 415. According to the passage, results of the invasion included which of the following? I. President Kennedys reputation was strengthened.II. The Cuban leader believed in a second attack.III. Money was paid to free the surviving exiles. (A) II only(B) I and II only(C) I and III only(D) II and III only

(E) I, II and III GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 4 (for Questions #416 thru #420) The Road Not Taken Two roads diverged in a yellow wood,And sorry I could not travel bothAnd be one traveler, long I stoodAnd looked down one as far as I couldTo where it bent in the undergrowth; Then took the other, as just as fairAnd having perhaps the better claim,Because it was grassy and wanted wear;Though as for that, the passing thereHad worn them really about the same, And both that morning equally layIn leaves no step had trodden blackOh, I kept the first for another day!Yet knowing how way leads on to way,I doubted if I should ever come back. I shall be telling this with a sighSomewhere ages and ages hence:Two roads diverged in a wood, and II took the one less traveled by.And that has made all the difference. -Robert Frost 416. The poem suggests that if the speaker had traveled the road not taken, his life would have been (A) easier(B) harder(C) similar(D) special(E) different 417. In lines 9-12, the author is most likely saying that (A) neither road is less traveled than the other.

(B) the goal is to find the road most people take.(C) stepping on leaves is like stepping on people.(D) travelers need to rest between making decisions.(E) hesitation can lead people in the wrong direction. 418. The poem focuses mainly on (A) hope for the future(B) the nature of the roads we travel(C) moments of decision(D) learning from past mistakes(E) the regret of wrong choices 419. The poet would most likely agree with all of the following EXCEPT: (A) People are free to choose, but really dont know their choices till later.(B) People should offer advice on which road to travel.(C) People cannot travel all the roads.(D) Our lives are a mixture of choice and chance.(E) Moments of decision, one after another, mark the passing of time. 420. It can be inferred from the last stanza (lines 16-20) that the speaker will one day (A) sigh that he even worried about the critical decisions in life.(B) be too old to remember choices made in the distant past.(C) yearn to go back in time and change the mistakes he made.(D) wonder what awaited him down the path he didnt choose.(E) rejoice at his life built on good and bad choices. GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION SSAT Upper Level Reading Practice Test 4 (for Questions #421 thru #425)

The free market system puts cooperation above competition, or rather, businesses cooperatefirst, compete second. A companys primary aim is to grow the market for its product, which it doesthrough advertising. An ad sells two things at the same time: first, it sells the product type, andsecond, it sells the companys brand. A car ad will first sell driving or the car, and then it will sell,say Fords version of the car. The effect of this is that, through advertising, com