CAPM Exam Prep-Questions 2010

Certified Associate in Project ManagementSample Questions

Herbert G. Gonder, PMPOliver F. Lehmann, PMP

Oliver F. Lehmann, PMP www.oliverlehmann.com Munich, Bavaria, Germany This document may be freely distributed and the questions may be used in other materials as long as this copyright attribution remains unchanged.

CAPM Test Questions Test Version based on PMBOK Guide 4th Edition

Questions in the real exam: 150 Scoring questions: 135 Non-scoring questions (pre-test): 15 Questions in this prep test: 162

______________ Your result:

______________ correct answers

Prep test passed: (121 or more) Prep test not passed: (120 or less)

Prep test questions provided by: Oliver F. Lehmann, PMP Contact: www.oliverlehmann.com CAPM Credential Handbook: www.pmi.org/PDF/pdc_capmhandbook.pdf

Contents:

Questions: ........................................ Q - 1 to Q - 88 Answers: ............................................. A - 1 to A 5

2009, Herbert G. Gonder, Oliver F. Lehmann, Germany

PMI, CAPM, PMBOK and PMP are marks of the Project Management Institute, Newtown Square, PA, USA, which are registered in the USA and in other nations.

CAPM Preparation

Q - 1 www.oliverlehmann.com

Certified Associate in Project ManagementSample Questions

Herbert G. Gonder, PMPOliver F. Lehmann, PMP

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Chapter 1 Introduction

4%, PMBOK Guide pages 3 - 14

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nIntroduction

A Project is

a) an ongoing endeavor to create repetitive products, services, or results.

b) a unique service undertaken to create a temporary product or result.

c) a unique endeavor undertaken to create a temporary product, service, or result.

d) a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

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Introduction

What is true for the types of work in an organization?

a) The purpose of a project is to achieve its objective and then to end.

b) The purpose of a project is to attain its objective and then to obtain another one.

c) The purpose of a project is to constantly sustain the business.

d) The purpose of ongoing work is to conclude when its specific objectives have been attained.



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nIntroduction

The Project manager is the person

a) assigned by the performing organization to achieve the project objectives.

b) responsible for meeting the organizations strategic goals.

c) responsible for an organizations level of profitability.

d) responsible for an organizations overall productivity.

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Introduction

A Program is

a) a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way.

b) a project for which earned value management is used.

c) projects grouped together to facilitate effective management of their work to meet business objectives.

d) a way of effectively handling change control in a group of related projects.



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nIntroduction

The areas of expertise that a project manager should at least master does not include

a) General management knowledge and skills

b) Attitudes and leadership

c) Knowledge about project management

d) Tools for operational optimization

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Introduction

Enterprise environmental factors includes all of the following except

a) Organizational culture

b) Political climate

c) Physical environment

d) Work authorization system



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nIntroduction

A PMO (Project management office) is an organizational unit to

a) centralize and coordinate management of projects under its domain.

b) ensure proper payment of acquired project human resources.

c) ensure customer satisfaction during the handover of deliverables.

d) manage sub-project work under the domain of the project manager.

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Introduction

The Project manager is the person

a) Assigned by the Performing organization to ensure that the project meets the strategic plan goals.

b) Assigned by the Performing organization as the projects quality expert.

c) Assigned by the Performing organization as the projects technical expert.

d) Assigned by the Performing organization to achieve the project objectives.



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Chapter 2 Project Lifecycle and Organization


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Lifecycle and Organization

Projects and operations share the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a) Both are performed by people.

b) Both are ongoing and repetitive.

c) Both are constrained by limited resources.

d) Both are performed to achieve organizational objectives.



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nLifecycle and Organization

The Project life cycle

a) documents the costs caused by the project at certain point in time.

b) is presales, project execution, product handover and documentation.

c) is a technique especially for extreme programming and agile project management.

d) is a collection of sequential or overlapping Project phases.

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At the start of the project the level of uncertainty

a) is highest and decreases over the life of the project.

b) cannot be predicted unless the Project charter has been signed.

c) is lower than at the end of the project.

d) similar to the level of uncertainty at the end of the project.



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The ability of the stakeholders to influence the project

a) is always due to the soft skills of the project manager.

b) is highest at the start and gets progressively lower as the project continues.

c) does not change over time unless a change request has been initiated.

d) remains constant over the entire running time of the project.

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A Project phase is characterized by

a) a ringing bell at the moment of final completion.

b) the instruction email of the managing director.

c) the completion and approval of one or more deliverables.

d) reaching the predicted milestone in your project plan.



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The sequence of phases in a project life cycles is

a) often a basis for project governance.

b) necessarily sequential.

c) necessarily overlapping.

d) necessarily iterative.

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What is true for Stakeholders of a project?

a) All stakeholders belong to the performing organization.

b) The project team is not regarded as a key stakeholder.

c) Identifying stakeholders can be difficult but critical.

d) The sponsor of the project is not regarded as a key stakeholder.



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Projectized organizations

a) are those whose most resources are involved in project work.

b) usually lack skills and competence in project management.

c) usually have a strong hierarchically built functional organization.

d) give usually weak authority to their project managers.

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Which of the following is NOT typical for Weak matrix organizations?

a) The project managers role is part-time.

b) The project managers authority is high.

c) Resource availability is limited.

d) The project managers authority is limited.



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What is true on organizational cultures and styles?

a) They should be influenced by software that helps draw GANTT-Charts and PERT Networks and calculate Earned value.

b) They are mainly reflected in the schedule, which the project manager explains to team members in weekly review meetings.

c) They are emanating from the range of incentives and bonuses, which project team members will receive at the end of the project.

d) Cultures and styles may have a strong influence on a projects ability to meet its objectives.

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Chapter 3 Project Management Processes for a Project


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nProcesses for a Project

In order for a project to be successful, it is usually NOT necessary for a project team to

a) use a defined approach required to meet the project objectives.

b) buy highly sophisticated project management software and train project team members in its application.

c) comply with the requirements to meet the stakeholder needs and expectations.

d) balance the competing demands of scope, time, cost, quality, resources, and risk to produce the specified product.

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Processes for a Project

Project management is the application of

a) specific project management software in an enterprise environment.

b) motivational and developmental techniques to team-members and other stakeholders.

c) the chain of command in order to ensure timely completion of all project activities.

d) knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.



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The five Project management process groups are:

a) Planning, auditing, directing, monitoring, and closing.

b) Selling, planning, staffing, executing, and documenting.

c) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.

d) Initiating, executing, controlling, reviewing, and closing.

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A process is

a) a legal act where project managers are blamed in court for material or repudiatory breach of contract.

b) a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a pre-specified product, result, or service.

c) something mystical which is comprehensible only to well-trained experts from the project management disciple.

d) something that cannot be explained without a sound understanding of standardized project phase models.



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What is true for Project management processes?

a) They are limited to the processes of design, development, deployment and maintenance.

b) All processes described must always be applied uniformly in all projects without tailoring.

c) The project manager is responsible for determining which processes are appropriate for the project.

d) They are fully independent of the Product-oriented processes that may also be part of the project.

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The purpose of the Project management processes is to

a) initiate, plan, execute, monitor and control, and close a project.

b) safe as much money of the customer as possible.

c) please the stakeholders and sponsors.

d) show the project manager that he is in charge.



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The PMBOK Guide presents the project management processes as...

a) ...discrete elements with well defined interfaces.

b) stochastic elements with well defined interfaces.

c) ...unique black elements of process control graphs.

d) ...scatter diagrams and process flow charts.

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The application of Project management processes is...

a) ...only done at the beginning of a project when not much knowledge is available.

b) only done by project managers without experience and standing in the organization.

c) ...recommended but not necessary unless the management requires it.

d) ...iterative and many processes are repeated during the project.



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Project Management processes and product-oriented processes...

a) ...are both fully described in the PMBOK Guide, 4th edition.

b) overlap and interact throughout the life of a project.

c) ...do not show any differences.

d) ...are not described up to now.

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On each project the Project management process groups are...

a) ...usually performed in a random sequence or not at all.

b) are guides for applying appropriate project management knowledge and skills during the project.

c) ...performed in a very specific sequence decided in alignment with the progress of the current project phase.

d) ...performed in a sequence determined by the key stakeholder.



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What is true for Project management process groups and Knowledge areas?

a) The Project quality management Knowledge area includes most processes.

b) The Monitoring and controlling Process group includes most processes.

c) Each process is an element of exactly one Process group and one Knowledge area.

d) Process groups are another term for Project phases and should thus be done in sequence.

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The Process group that provides feedback to implement corrective or preventive action is:

a) Testing

b) Planning

c) Executing

d) Monitoring and Controlling



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In multi-phase projects, the processes defined in the process group would be...

a) ...done only once during the whole project.

b) ...normally repeated for each phase.

c) ...done only in the early phases.

d) ...done only in fixed price contracts.

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The Closing Process group consists of those processes...

a) ...performed to finalize all activities across all Project management process groups to formally complete the project, phase, or contractual obligations.

b) ...that signal to the team may come together again and have a night together at a post mortem project barbeque.

c) ...that support advertising of the product in order to let everyone know how successful and efficient the team worked.

d) ...that reward the customers for their investment, the patience with the team and the preparation to support change control.



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The processes of which Process group are often done external to the projects scope of control?

a) Planning

b) Testing

c) Initiating

d) Executing

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Which document formally authorizes the project?

a) Project scope statement

b) Project charter

c) Work breakdown structure

d) Cost management plan



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The Project scope statement is the primary output of which process:

a) Define Scope

b) Verify Scope

c) Create WBS

d) Define Activities

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Chapter 4 Project Integration Management


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nProject Integration Management

The Knowledge area of Project Integration Management includes the project management processes:

a) Define Activities, Create WBS.

b) Develop Project Charter, Define Scope.

c) Collect Requirements, Define Activities.

d) Develop Project Charter, Close Project or Phase.

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Project Integration Management

Which process uses Expert judgment?

a) Verify Scope

b) Develop Project Charter

c) Conduct Procurements

d) Report Performance



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Approved change requests may require:

a) Stakeholder expectations

b) Expert judgment

c) Implementation of preventive or corrective actions

d) Cost estimating

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The stimuli for chartering and authorizing a project include usually all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Customer needs

b) Business needs

c) Need for a new product, service or result

d) Project selection



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Application of additional padding material, due to a legally enacted emission protection regulation, which requires increased wall insulation for a building, is an example for a...

a) ...market demand.

b) ...business need.

c) ...social need.

d) ...legal requirement.

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Which document indicates that a project manager has been assigned and formally authorized to apply organizational resource to project activities?

a) Stakeholder register

b) Project management plan

c) Work breakdown structure

d) Project charter



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Which of the following is NOT an input for the process Develop Project Charter?

a) Project statement of work

b) Enterprise environmental factors

c) Organizational process assets

d) Requirements documentation

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A contract signed by an external customer

a) ...is developed concurrently to the Project charter.

b) ...is input to the Develop Project Charter process .

c) ...describes only the consideration on the contractor side.

d) ...lays down the organizational standard processes applied.



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The Business case is created as a result of one or more of the following EXCEPT:

a) Market demand

b) Enterprise environmental factors

c) Customer request

d) Organizational need

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In developing the Project charter, expert judgment may come from all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Industry groups

b) Other units within the organization

c) Project team and Project management team

d) Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors



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The Project statement of work

a) ...is a graphical description of products or services to be delivered by the project.

b) ...is commonly developed by the project team to document common understanding.

c) ...can be provided by a project initiator, sponsor, or the project customer.

d) ...can generally never be provided as a part of a bid document.

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Which process is used to implement approved change requests?

a) Perform Integrated Change Control

b) Verify Scope

c) Close Project or Phase

d) Direct and Manage Project Execution



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The Direct and Manage Project Execution process requires the project manager and the project team to perform multiple actions to perform work defined in the Project management plan EXCEPT...

a) Developing of a Project charter.

b) Performing activities to accomplish project requirements.

c) Implementing the planned methods and standards.

d) Managing sellers and suppliers.

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Deliverables are an outcome of which process?

a) Direct and Manage Project Execution

b) Develop Project Charter

c) Create WBS

d) Control Scope



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Approved change requests are...

a) ...the documented, authorized changes to expand or reduce project scope.

b) ...changes to enhance the profit of the performing organization.

c) ...activities delegated by the project manager to the project coordinator.

d) ...requested changes before a final decision on their rejection has been made.

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Concerning deliverables, which of the following statements is true?

a) Deliverables must be produced and provided to complete a process, phase or project .

b) Clearly defined deliverables are nice to have, but not necessary.

c) Responsible team-members perform without stated deliverables.

d) A deliverable is any item, which pleases the customer.



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A Configuration management plan documents...

a) ...how change management will be performed.

b) ...how changes will be monitored and controlled.

c) ...how configuration management will be performed.

d) ...none of the above.

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Chapter 5 Project Scope Management


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nProject Scope Management

Define Scope is the process of...

a) ...developing the Work breakdown structure.

b) ...developing a detailed description of the project and product.

c) ...creating the Project management plan.

d) ...creating the Project scope management plan.

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Project Scope Management

Create WBS is the process of...

a) ...subdividing the project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

b) ...preparing and performing the product acceptance and verifying the correct administrative closure of a project.

c) ...assigning work levels, resources, durations, budgets, and begin and end data to identified activities.

d) ...delegating schedule activities to project management team members, to departments or to contractors.



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In the project context, the term scope can refer to...

a) ...managing and controlling activities.

b) ...customer scope as well as to stakeholder scope.

c) ...product scope as well as to project scope.


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The Scope baseline of the project contains...

a) ...the approved detailed Project scope statement, WBS and its associated WBS dictionary.

b) ...a Preliminary scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary.

c) ...the customers wishes for additional scope during the time of project execution.

d) ...legal regulations and public standards on necessary scope elements.



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The Project scope statement includes, either directly, or by reference to other documents all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Product scope description

b) Product acceptance criteria

c) Project deliverables

d) The Project charter

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What is true for the Scope management plan?

a) The Scope management plan and the Project management planare independent from each other.

b) The Scope management plan and the Scope baseline are virtually the same.

c) The Scope management plan and the Scope statement are always not related.

d) The Scope management plan describes how the project scope will be managed and controlled.



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Product breakdown, systems analysis, requirements analysis and value engineering are included in what technique?

a) Forced identification

b) Project deliverables

c) Product analysis

d) Project constraints

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Constraints are analyzed for all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Completeness

b) Additional risks

c) Assumptions

d) Approved changes



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Which is a commonly used method for alternatives identification?

a) Factor analysis

b) Rule of seven

c) Brainstorming

d) Root-cause analysis

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All of the following are usually part of the Project scope statement EXCEPT:

a) Project deliverables

b) Project exclusions

c) Project documentation

d) Project constraints



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Which is an explicit statement that describes what is excluded from the project, in case of the assumption of a stakeholder that a particular product, service, or result might be a component of the project?

a) A project constraint

b) A project exclusion

c) A project deliverable

d) A project requirement

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The WBS is ...

a) ...deliverable oriented.

b) ...activity oriented.

c) ...result oriented.




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What is Decomposition?

a) The process of breaking down schedule activities into work packages.

b) The subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.

c) The aggregation of activities to more manageable units.

d) The process of fragmentation of activities to allow parallel processing.

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The lowest level of the WBS is called...

a) ...authorization level

b) ...cost account

c) ...deliverables

d) ...work packages



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What technique is usually applied if a deliverable in a WBS can only be decomposed in the future?

a) Prototyping

b) Quality function deployment

c) Cost accounting

d) Rolling wave planning

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All of the following are Group creativity techniques EXCEPT:

a) Brainstorming

b) Nominal group technique

c) Delphi technique

d) Estimation technique



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Approved changes can result from which of the following processes?

a) Control Scope

b) Define Scope

c) Create WBS

d) Collect Requirements

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Requirements documentation is input for which Project scope management processes?

a) Define Scope, Collect Requirements, Control Scope

b) Verify Scope, Define Scope , Collect Requirements

c) Define Scope, Create WBS, Verify Scope, Control Scope

d) Report Performance, Define Scope, Collect Requirements



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nCACACACAAACAAACACACAC

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Chapter 6 Project Time Management


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Project Time Management

All of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process EXCEPT:

a) Activity attributes

b) Activity list

c) Milestone list

d) Work breakdown structure



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nProject Time Management

What statement is true?

a) A Milestone may be mandatory or optional.

b) A Milestone is always a phase finish event.

c) Milestones are inputs to define activities.

d) Milestone is a term synonymous to Deadline.

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What is Rolling wave planning?

a) It is a way to earn additional revenues.

b) It is a signal for poor initial planning.

c) It is a form of progressive elaboration planning.

d) It is a method no longer in use today.



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Work and effort performed within a work package...

a) ...is not reported to the senior management.

b) ...is gathered in high level items called activities.

c) ...is further decomposed into single activities.

d) ...should be always contracted out to external vendors.

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The Activity list...

a) ...includes all Schedule activities that are required on the project.

b) ...does not include the Schedule activities that are required on the project.

c) ...does only include activities which are unrelated to the WBS work packages.

d) ...is always a personal list for the project managers eyes only.



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The Milestone list...

a) ...identifies all Work packages of the WBS.

b) ...is the list of Activity attributes.

c) ...identifies all Milestones.

d) ...is part of the project selection process.

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Which of the following is not among the Tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process?

a) Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

b) Dependency determination

c) Applying leads and lags

d) Critical chain method



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All of the following are inputs of the Sequence Activities process EXCEPT:

a) Project scope statement

b) Project charter

c) Activity list

d) Milestone list

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Which of the following is NOT an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process?

a) Activity resource requirements

b) Resource breakdown structure

c) Project document updates

d) Schedule network diagrams



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The Resource breakdown structure (RBS) is ...

a) ... a hierarchical structure of the identified resources.

b) ... a database showing human resources skills.

c) ... a breakdown of scope by assigned resources.

d) ... an output of the process Activity Sequencing.

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PDM stands for:

a) Power distance management

b) Precedence diagramming method

c) Project data management

d) Performance distribution method



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AON stands for:

a) Advanced online network

b) Annual order negotiation

c) Activity on node

d) Assessment of nonconformance

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PDM uses all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Finish-to-start relationships

b) Leads and lags

c) Dummy activities

d) Finish-to-finish relationships



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Dependency determination uses all of the following types of dependencies EXCEPT:

a) External dependencies

b) Mandatory dependencies

c) Discretionary dependencies

d) Relational dependencies

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All of the following are true EXCEPT: Precedence diagramming method (PDM)...

a) ... uses nodes to represent the dependencies.

b) ...may require application of leads and lags.

c) ...is a method used in Critical Path Method (CPM).

d) ...uses boxes or rectangles to represent activities.



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Common estimating methods in the process Estimate Activity Durations are all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Analogous estimating

b) Parametric estimating

c) Three-point estimates

d) Six-point estimates

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Analogous estimating...

a) ...means estimating by comparing with well designed experiments.

b) ...uses the activity dates taken from a previous project.

c) ...uses historical information and expert judgment.

d) ...does not need information from previous, similar projects.



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CPM stands for:

a) Change project manager

b) Critical path methodology

c) Cost performance measurement

d) Critical power maintenance

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Chapter 7 Project Cost Management


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nProject Cost Management

Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT:

a) Acquire project team

b) Estimate costs

c) Determine budget

d) Control costs

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Project Cost Management

Inputs for the Estimate Costs process are all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Scope baseline

b) Project schedule

c) Human resource plan

d) Resource calendars



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Vendor bid analysis is among the tools and techniques of which process?

a) Determine budget

b) Plan Costs

c) Control Costs

d) Estimate costs

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The Cost performance baseline is an output of which process?

a) Estimate costs

b) Determine budget

c) Control costs

d) Estimate activity durations



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The accuracy of Parametric estimating depends on the following EXCEPT:

a) Sophistication of the technique

b) Underlying data

c) Statistical relationship with historical data

d) Creation without inputs from external stakeholders

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Which process has Cost performance baseline (updates) as an output?

a) Estimate Costs

b) Determine Budget

c) Control Costs

d) Perform Integrated Change Control



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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is $10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent to Data date.

The Earned value (EV) of the project is:

a) $600

b) $3,000

c) $5,000

d) $6,000

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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is $10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent to data date.

The Actual cost (AC) to date for the project is:

a) $6,000

b) $2,400

c) $3,000

d) $5,000



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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is $10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The project has an Earned value of $3,500 and Actual costs of $4,500.

Which statement is correct?

a) The project is behind schedule.

b) The project is ahead of schedule.

c) The project is finished.

d) The project is on schedule.

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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is $10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The project has an Earned value of $3,500 and Actual costs of $4,500.

What is the Cost variance of the project?

a) - $1,000

b) $500

c) -500

d) $1,000



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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is $10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent.

If the company continues to spend money at the same rate, what will the project cost (EAC)?

a) $10,000

b) $20,000

c) $6,000

d) $4,000

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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is $10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent.

If cost variances of the future are expected at the same rate as they have occurred in the past, what is the Estimate to complete (ETC)?

a) $10,600

b) $14,000

c) $7,000

d) $2,400



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Examining project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating is called:

a) Variance analysis

b) Trend analysis

c) Earned value technique

d) Cost benefit analysis

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All of the following are outputs of the Control Costs process EXCEPT:

a) Project management plan updates

b) Organizational process assets updates

c) Work performance measurements

d) Work performance information



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Chapter 8 Project Quality Management


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Project Quality Management

Project Quality Management processes include all of the following processes EXCEPT:

a) Plan Quality

b) Perform Quality Assurance

c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

d) Perform Quality Control



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nProject Quality Management

Each process of Project Quality Management occurs ______ in every project and occurs ______ of the project phases, if the project is divided into phases.

a) At least once / in one or more.

b) At least twice / in one or more.

c) Sometimes / in all

d) At least once / in all

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Which of the following is true?

a) Quality is the degree of customer satisfaction achieved by meeting stated and implicit wishes.

b) Quality is the degree of stakeholder satisfaction achieved by meeting explicit requirements.

c) Quality is the degree to which a set of inherent requirements meets client needs.

d) Quality is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements.



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Which of the following statements about quality and grade is true?

a) Low quality may not always be a problem.

b) Projects should always deliver high grade.

c) Quality and grade are basically the same thing.

d) Low grade may not always be a problem.

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All of the following statements about precision and accuracy are true EXCEPT:

a) Precision means that the values of repeated measurements are clustered and have little scatter.

b) Accuracy means that the measured values are close to the true value.

c) Precision and accuracy are equivalent in that they are gained using the same methods.

d) The project management team must determine appropriate levels of precision and accuracy.



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Quality management recognizes the importance of each of the following EXCEPT:

a) Customer satisfaction

b) Inspection over prevention

c) Management responsibility

d) Continuous improvement

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Which of the following is a direct Input to the Perform Quality Assurance process?

a) Project scope baseline

b) Quality audits

c) Quality metrics

d) Process analysis



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One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that:

a) Quality is planned, desired, and built in not inspected in.

b) Quality is not planned, designed, and built in only inspected in.

c) Quality is planned, designed, and built in not inspected in.

d) Quality has to be planned, designed, built in, and inspected in.

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Which of the following is a direct input to Plan Quality?

a) Quality metrics

b) Quality management plan

c) Design of experiments

d) Cost performance baseline



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Which of the following is not among the tools and techniques of the Plan Quality process:

a) Cost-benefit analysis

b) Benchmarking

c) Brainstorming

d) Design of experiments

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The upper (UCL) and lower (LCL) control limits for repetitive processes are usually set at:

a) +/- 6 sigma

b) +/- 3 sigma

c) +/- 2 sigma

d) +/- 1 sigma



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Chapter 9 Project Human Resources Management


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Project Human Resources Management

The project management team is...

a) a supervising or controlling team.

b) a subset of the project team.

c) the project team contingency.

d) none of the above.



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nProject Human Resources Management

All of the following are processes of Project Human Resource management EXCEPT:

a) Develop Human Resource Plan

b) Select Sellers

c) Develop Project Team

d) Manage Project Team

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All of the following are direct inputs to the Develop Human Resource Plan process EXCEPT:

a) Enterprise environmental factors

b) Organizational process assets

c) Project scope statement

d) Activity resource requirements



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Which of the following is not a subset of the Human resource plan:

a) Roles and responsibilities

b) Project organization charts

c) Pre-assignment

d) Staffing management plan

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Examples of Enterprise environmental factors that can influence the Develop Human Resource Plan process are all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Estimating techniques

b) Organizational structure

c) Personnel administration policies

d) Existing human resources



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OBS stands for:

a) Organizational breakdown structure

b) Organizational billing system

c) Open bargaining subject

d) Operational break-even status

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RACI is an acronym for:

a) Resource, accountability, consult, inform

b) Responsible, accountable, consult, inform

c) Resource, acquirable, consult, instruct

d) Responsible, accountable, confirm, inform



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All of the following are inputs to the Develop Project Team process EXCEPT:

a) Performance reports

b) Project staff assignments

c) Project management plan

d) Resource calendars

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Co-location strategies can include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Conveniences that enhance communication

b) A team meeting room

c) Building virtual teams

d) Places to post schedules



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The evaluation of a teams effectiveness can include indicators such as the following EXCEPT:

a) Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform assignments more effectively.

b) Improvements in competencies that help the team perform better as a team.

c) Reduced staff turnover rate.

d) Participation in regular after work parties and other socializing events.

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Chapter 10 Project Communications Management


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nProject Communications Management

Which of the following is NOT a process of Project Communications Management?

a) Manage Stakeholder Expectations

b) Plan Communications

c) Distribute Information

d) Manage Project Team

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Project Communications Management

Acknowledgement means that...

a) ...the receiver signals receipt of the message, but not necessarily agreement with the message.

b) ...the receiver signals receipt of the message, and necessarily agreement with the message.

c) ...the receiver chooses writing-style to document the reception of the message, and the agreement with the message.

d) ...the receiver nods to the message, and agrees with the message.



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In the communication model, who is responsible for encoding the initial message?

a) The receiver

b) The receiver and the sender

c) The sender

d) The receiver or the sender

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The process Plan Communications uses the following inputs EXCEPT:

a) Enterprise environmental factors

b) Organizational process assets

c) Stakeholder management strategy

d) Human resource calendar



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Stakeholder communication requirements are provided in the output of which process?

a) Report Performance

b) Develop Human resource plan


d) Plan Communications

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You have to coordinate 10 team members. How many Communication channels are there on your project during that time?

a) 10

b) 45

c) 50

d) 100



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Expert judgment is among tools and techniques of which process?

a) Performance Reporting

b) Communications Planning

c) Identify Stakeholders

d) Manage Stakeholders

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Communication activity includes all of the following potential dimensions EXCEPT:

a) internal

b) formal

c) messy

d) written



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All of the following are outputs of the Report Performance process EXCEPT:

a) Performance reports

b) Organizational process assets updates

c) Change requests

d) Implemented corrective actions

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Which is not an example of Writing styles?

a) Active versus passive voice

b) Sentence structure

c) Face-to-face meetings

d) Word choice



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Communication technology is a tool and technique of which process?

a) Report Performance

b) Plan Communications


d) Manage stakeholder expectations

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Chapter 11 Project Risk Management


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nProject Risk Management

A project risk is a(n) _______ event or condition that, if it occurs, has a __________________ effect on at least one project objective.

a) Certain / negative or positive

b) Uncertain / negative and positive

c) Uncertain / negative or positive

d) Unkown / neither negative nor positive

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Project Risk Management

Which is used as tool and technique for the process Plan Risk Management?

a) Tornado diagramming

b) Decision tree analysis

c) Monte-Carlo simulation

d) Planning meetings and analysis



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Against risks for which it may not be cost-effective or possible to develop a proactive response a prudent response can be...

a) To allocate a contingency reserve

b) To build reserves

c) To do nothing

d) To ask your sponsor

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Which document is established and updated along the Project Risk Management processes from Identify Risks through Plan Risk Responses and Monitoring and Control Risks ?

a) List of risk triggers

b) Risk register

c) Risk mitigation

d) Decision tree



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The Output of the process Plan Risk Management will be summarized in?

a) The quality baseline

b) The project scope management plan

c) The risk management plan

d) In none of the above

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An item typically included in the Risk management plan is:

a) Potential responses

b) Identified risks

c) Risk management methodology

d) Root causes



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In relation to the process Risk Management Planning, RBS stands for:

a) Reserve budget settlement

b) Risk brain storming

c) Risk baseline support

d) Risk breakdown structure

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Information gathering techniques used during the process Identify Risks include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Brainstorming

b) Delphi technique

c) Interviewing

d) Assumptions analysis



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Typical Diagramming techniques used for the process Identify Risks include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) System or process flow charts

b) Cause-and-effect diagrams

c) Influence diagrams

d) Delphi technique

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The process Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes:

a) Risk urgency assessment

b) Sensitivity analysis

c) Checklist analysis

d) Probability distribution



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Data developed during the process Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis often leads to what type of probability distributions?

a) S-curves

b) 4-peak distributions

c) Continuous distributions

d) Tornado distributions

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Commonly used Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Sensitivity analysis

b) Expected monetary value analysis

c) Decision tree analysis

d) Assumptions analysis



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Strategies for negative risks or threats include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Convince

b) Avoid

c) Transfer

d) Mitigate

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Examples of risk mitigation include:

a) Building a prototype

b) Contingencies

c) Insurance

d) Warranties



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All of the following strategies are strategies for positive risks or opportunities EXCEPT:

a) Exploit

b) Share

c) Transfer

d) Enhance

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The process Monitor and Control Risks includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Risk reassessments

b) Risk audits

c) Technical performance measurements

d) Modeling and simulation



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All of the following are updated during the process Monitor and Control Risks EXCEPT:

a) Risk register

b) Risk audit

c) Organizational process assets

d) Project management plan

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Chapter 12 Project Procurement Management


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nProject Procurement Management

All of the following are tools and techniques of the process Plan Procurements EXCEPT:

a) Make-or-buy analysis

b) Expert judgment

c) Advertising

d) Contract types

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Project Procurement Management

All of the following are arrangements under which the buyer must precisely specify the product or services being procured EXCEPT:

a) Firm fixed price contracts

b) Fixed price incentive fee contracts

c) Fixed price with economic price adjustment contracts

d) Cost plus award fee contracts



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Your company is in the process of selling consulting services to a new buyer. The contract type with lowest risk for your company in this situation is:

a) Firm fixed price

b) Time and material

c) Cost plus fixed fee

d) Cost plus incentive fee

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Source selection criteria are input to which process?

a) Plan procurements

b) Conduct procurements

c) Administer procurements

d) Close procurements



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A Bidder conference is typically held during what process?

a) Close Procurements

b) Plan Procurements

c) Administer Procurements

d) Conduct Procurements

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All of the following are tools and techniques to select a seller EXCEPT:

a) Proposal evaluation techniques

b) Contract change control system

c) Independent estimates

d) Bidder conference



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The Contract change control system...

a) ...is an input to the Plan Procurements process.

b) ...requests changes to the project management plan.

c) ...lists the types of contract to be used.

d) ...defines the processes by which the procurement can be modified.

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A Contract change control system is often among the tools and techniques in what process?

a) Plan procurements

b) Conduct procurements

c) Administer procurements

d) Select sellers



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Updates in Organizational process assets in the Administer Procurements process contain all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Correspondence

b) Payment schedules and requests

c) Seller performance evaluation documentation

d) Requested changes

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Depending on contract terms and conditions, early termination of a contract may occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a) Default of either party

b) Completion of the project

c) Mutual agreement

d) Convenience



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A Procurement audit is often held during what process?

a) Verify Scope

b) Verify Product

c) Close Contract

d) Close Procurements

CAPM Prep Questions

Answers

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

1 3 d 51 4 a 51 5 a 131 6 a 91 7 d 131 8 c 141 9 a 111 10 d 13

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

2 12 b 222 13 d 152 14 a 172 15 b 172 16 c 192 17 a 202 18 c 242 19 a 302 20 b 282 21 d 27

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

3 23 b 373 24 d 373 25 c 393 26 b 373 27 c 383 28 a 393 29 a 393 30 d 393 31 b 383 32 b 393 33 c 433 34 d 593 35 b 413 36 a 643 37 c 453 38 b 453 39 a 49

2009 A - 1Herbert G. Gonder, PMPOliver F. Lehmann, PMP

Germany

CAPM Prep Questions

Answers

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

4 41 d 714 42 b 744 43 c 854 44 d 774 45 d 754 46 d 734 47 d 744 48 b 144 49 b 754 50 c 774 51 c 754 52 d 994 53 a 834 54 a 844 55 a 854 56 a 874 57 c 82

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

5 59 b 1125 60 a 1165 61 c 4565 62 a 4565 63 d 1155 64 d 1265 65 c 1145 66 d 1125 67 c 1145 68 c 1155 69 b 1155 70 a 1165 71 b 1185 72 d 1185 73 d 1205 74 d 1085 75 a 1285 76 c 104


Germany

CAPM Prep Questions

Answers

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

6 78 d 1336 79 a 1366 80 c 1356 81 c 1336 82 a 1356 83 c 1366 84 d 1366 85 b 1366 86 d 1426 87 a 1456 88 b 1386 89 c 1386 90 c 138, 1406 91 d 139, 1406 92 a 1386 93 d 149, 1506 94 c 1496 95 b 138

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

7 97 a 1657 98 d 1697 99 d 1697 100 b 1757 101 d 1727 102 c 1887 103 b 1827 104 a 1827 105 a 1827 106 a 1827 107 b 1847 108 b 1847 109 b 1867 110 d 180


Germany

CAPM Prep Questions

Answers

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

8 112 c 1898 113 a 1898 114 d 1908 115 d 1908 116 c 1908 117 b 190, 1918 118 c 2028 119 c 1908 120 d 1918 121 c 1918 122 b 196

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

9 124 b 2159 125 b 2159 126 c 2179 127 c 222, 2239 128 a 2199 129 a 2209 130 b 2219 131 a 2309 132 c 2349 133 d 235

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

10 135 d 24310 136 a 25510 137 c 25510 138 d 25310 139 d 25710 140 b 25310 141 c 25010 142 c 24510 143 d 26610 144 c 25810 145 b 244


Germany

CAPM Prep Questions

Answers

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

11 147 c 27511 148 d 27911 149 a 30411 150 b 27411 151 c 27711 152 c 27911 153 d 28711 154 d 286, 28711 155 d 28711 156 a 28911 157 c 29711 158 d 298, 29911 159 a 303, 30411 160 a 30411 161 c 304, 30511 162 d 30811 163 b 308

Chapter SlideRight

answer

PMBOK Guide, page

12 165 c 31712 166 d 322-32412 167 c 32312 168 b 32912 169 d 32912 170 b 331, 33212 171 d 33812 172 c 33512 173 d 34012 174 b 34212 175 d 342


Germany

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CAPM Exam Prep-Questions 2010