D ownload from ↑ Powered By € JbigDeaL · Use of Calculators, Slide rules, ... (Hindi/English). ... 16. 13th Pravasi Bhartiya Divas was held in: (1) Ahmadabad, Gujarat

Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

8 1 4 9 7 2 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code- 29ME02S&TS01 (P–I) ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrkkj _____________________ dk fujhkd ds gLrkkj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be

in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

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APTITUDE1. A line on a meteorological map joining places of equal

rainfall is called: (1) Isoclinic (2) Isobar (3) Isogenic (4) Isohyet

1. ekSle lEcfU/kr uD'ks ij leku o"kkZ ds LFkkuksa dks tksM+us okyh ,d

js[kk gS] tks dgykrh gS%

(1) vkblksDyhfud (2) vkblksckj

(3) vkblkstsfud (4) vkblksgkbV

2. It is an industrial process of producing ammonia by the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst: (1) Solvay Process (2) Bayer Process (3) Haber Process (4) Bessemer Process

2. mRçsjd dh mifLFkfr esa ;g gkbZMªkstu ds lkFk ukbZVªkstu dh vfHkfØ;k

kjk veksfu;k cukus dk ,d vkS|ksfxd çØe gS%

(1) lkYos çØe (2) cs;j çØe (3) gScj çØe (4) cslsej çØe

3. Which country emerged as third largest economy of the world in 2011 in terms of the purchasing power parity according to world Bank report released on 29th April, 2014: (1) Japan (2) China (3) India (4) Russia

3. 29 vçSy] 2014 dks çdkf”kr fo”o cSad fjiksVZ ds vuqlkj Ø; “kfä

lerk ds en esa 2011 esa fo”o dk rhljh lcls cM+h vFkZO;oLFkk ds

:i esa dkSu&lk ns”k mHkjk%

(1) tkiku (2) phu (3) Hkkjr (4) :l

4. In Indian constitution “Directive Principles of State Policy” is mentioned in Part: (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

4. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku esa ßjkT; uhfr ds funsZ”kd fl)kUrÞ dks fdl Hkkx esa

bafxr fd;k x;k gS%

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

5. Name one famous poet of Delhi Sultanate who was adorned with title of “The Parrot of Hindustan”: (1) Zia–Uddin Barani (2) Utbi (3) Alberuni (4) Amir Khusro

5. fnYyh lYrur dk ,d çfl) dfo ftls ßfgUnqLrku dk rksrkÞ dh

mikf/k ls uoktk x;k%

(1) ft+;k&míhu cjkuh (2) mRch (3) vycs:uh (4) vehj [kqljks

6. Nearly how many Kgs of manganese is required to manufacture one tonne of steel? (1) 10 kgs (2) 20 Kgs (3) 50 Kgs (4) 100 kgs

6. ,d Vu LVhy cukus esa yxHkx fdrus fdyksxzke eSXuht+ dh vko”;drk

gksrh gS\

(1) 10 fdyksxzke (2) 20 fdyksxzke (3) 50 fdyksxzke (4) 100 fdyksxzke

7. India’s first dedicated military satellite? (1) GSAT–12 (2) GSAT–7 (3) GSAT–1 (4) GSAT–8

7. lsuk dks lefiZr Hkkjr dk igyk mixzg gS\

(1) GSAT–12 (2) GSAT–7 (3) GSAT–1 (4) GSAT–8

8. Blue Vitriol is another name for: (1) Copper sulphate (2) Lead sulphide (3) Iron sulphate (4) Silver Nitrate

8. uhyk FkksFkk dk nwljk uke gS%

(1) rkez lYQsV (2) yhM lYQkbZM (3) ykSg lYQsV (4) jtr ukbZVªsV

9. Calorimeter measures: (1) Quantity of heat (2) Quantity of calories in diet (3) Heat radiation (4) None of these

9. dSyksjhehVj ekiu djrk gS%

(1) m’ek dk ifjek.k

(2) vkgkj esa dSyksjh dk ifjek.k

(3) m’ek dh fofdj.k

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

10. A red rose appear black when seen in blue light, because: (1) The red rose reflects blue light (2) The red rose reflects red light (3) The red rose absorbs blue light (4) The red rose actually turns black

10. yky xqykc] uhyh jks'kuh esa ns[kus ij dkyk fn[kkbZ nsrk gS D;ksafd%

(1) yky xqykc uhyh jks'kuh ijkofrZr djrk gS

(2) yky xqykc yky jks'kuh ijkofrZr djrk gS

(3) yky xqykc uhyh jks'kuh 'kksf"kr djrk gS

(4) yky xqykc okLro esa dkyk gks tkrk gS

11. The World Yoga Day will be celebrated on: (1) December 21 (2) June 21 (3) November 14 (4) None of these

11. fo”o ;ksxk fnol fdl fnu euk;k tk;sxk%

(1) fnlEcj 21 (2) twu 21 (3) uoEcj 14 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

SET01P1 [8 1 4 9 7 2 ] E02S&T [A–1]Download from www.JbigDeaL.in Powered By © JbigDeaL


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12. The latest addition in fundamental duties under Article–51A of the constitution of India is: (1) Providing opportunities for the education to the child or

ward between the age of six and fourteen years (2) Safeguarding public property (3) Protecting and safeguarding natural environment (4) Defending the country and rendering national service

when called upon

12. Hkkjr ds lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn&51A ds vUrxZr ekSfyd dÙkZO;ksa esa gky

gh esa fdls tksM+k x;k gS%

(1) N% ,oa pkSng o’kZ dh mez ds e/; okys cPpks vFkok vkfJr dks

f”kkk ds volj çnku djuk

(2) lkoZtfud lEifÙk dh lqjkk djuk

(3) çkÑfrd okrkoj.k dk lajk.k ,oa lqjkk djuk

(4) ns”k dh jkk djuk ,oa jk’Vª lsok ds fy, tc Hkh cqyk, tk,]

lsok çnku djuk

13. Stepwell Rani-Ki-Vav was approved as a world heritage site by the unesco recently. It is located at: (1) Rajasthan (2) Gujarat (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Maharastra

13. LVsiosy jkuh&dh&oko vHkh gky gh esa ;wusLdks kjk fo”o dh /kjksgj

LFky ds :i esa eatwj fd;k x;kA ;g fLFkr gS%

(1) jktLFkku (2) xqtjkr (3) e/; çns”k (4) egkjk’Vª

14. Which bank has recently launched first contactless debit and credit cards in India? (1) HDFC Bank (2) ICICI Bank (3) State Bank of India (4) Punjab National Bank

14. Hkkjr esa fdl cSad us vHkh gky gh esa lEidZ jfgr MsfcV ,oa ØsfMV

dkMZ “kqHkkjEHk fd;k%

(1) ,p-Mh-,Q-lh- cSad (2) vkbZ-lh-vkbZ-lh-vkbZ- cSad

(3) Hkkjrh; LVsV cSad (4) iatkc us”kuy cSad

15. The first district of India with complete rural broad band coverage? (1) Salem (2) Idukki (3) Gandhinagar (4) Vishakhapatnam

15. Hkkjr dk igyk ftyk ftlesa lEiw.kZ xzkeh.k czksMcSaM dojst gS%

(1) lsye (2) bnqDdh (3) xka/khuxj (4) fo”kk[kkiV~ue

16. 13th Pravasi Bhartiya Divas was held in: (1) Ahmadabad, Gujarat (2) Gandhinagar, Gujarat (3) Vadodara, Gujarat (4) Surat, Gujarat

16. rsgjok¡ çoklh Hkkjrh; fnol dgk¡ vk;ksftr fd;k x;k%

(1) vgenkckn] xqtjkr

(2) xk¡/khuxj] xtjkr

(3) oM+ksnjk] xqtjkr

(4) lwjr] xqtjkr

17. Youngest in the world who set a world record by swimming in 1°C temperature at Antarctic Ocean: (1) Lewis Pugh (2) Lynne Cox (3) Charu Sharma (4) Bhakti Sharma

17. fo”o dk lcls de vk;q okyk ftlus vUVkfVZd egklkxj esa 1°C

rkiØe ij rSj dj fo”o fdrÊeku cuk;k%

(1) ysfol iqx (2) ysuh dkWDl (3) pk: “kekZ (4) HkfDr “kekZ

18. Consider the following statements about GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) system. 1. It offers free enhanced Satellite navigation signals

over India which are ten times more precise than GPS.

2. It was jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.

Which of the above statements are correct.

(1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2

18. GAGAN ¼th-ih-,l- ,MsM th;ks vkX;qesUVsM usohxs”ku½ ra= ls

lEcfU/kr fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj djsaA

1. ;g Hkkjr ij eq¶r c<+h gqbZ lsVsykbZV usohxs”ku rjaxksa dks çnku

djrk gS tks th-ih-,l- ls nl xquk T;knk ifj”kq) gksrh gSaA

2. ;g ISRO ,oa NASA kjk la;qä :i ls fodflr dh xbZ gSaA

mi;qZä esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; gSA

(1) dsoy 1 (2) dsoy 2 (3) 1 ,oa 2 nksuksa (4) u rks 1 u gh 2

19. Sixty men can build a wall in 40 days, but though they begin the work together, 5 men quit every ten days. The time needed to build the wall is: (1) 47.5 days (2) 45 days (3) 49.5 days (4) 51 days

19. 60 O;fä ,d nhokj 40 fnuksa esa cuk ldrs gSaA ;|fi os dk;Z ,d lkFk gh vkjEHk djrs gSa] 5 O;fä çR;sd 10 fnu ij NksM+dj pys tkrs gSaA rks nhokj cukus esa fdruk le; yxsxk%

(1) 47.5 fnu (2) 45 fnu (3) 49.5 fnu (4) 51 fnu

20. Gudia purchased a watch at 9/10th of its selling price and sold it at 8% more than it selling price. Her gain is? (1) 18% (2) 20% (3) 10% (4) None of these

20. xqfM+;k us ,d ?kM+h blds foØ; ewY; ds 9/10 nj ij [kjhnk ,oa blds foØ; ewY; ls 8% T;knk ij csp fn;kA rks mldk ykHk fdruk

gqvk\

(1) 18% (2) 20% (3) 10% (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha



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21. A man buys two chairs for a total cost of Rs.800/-. By

selling one at 43 of its cost price and the other at

34 of

its cost price he loses Rs. 25/-. What did he pay for the chairs: (1) Rs. 500, 300 (2) Rs. 400, 400 (3) Rs. 600, 200 (4) Rs. 700, 100

21. ,d vkneh nks dqflZ;k¡ :- 800/- dh dqy ykxr ij [kjhnrk gSA

ykxr ewY; ds 43 ij ,d dks cspus ij rFkk nwljs dks ykxr ewY; ds

34ij cspus ij mls :- 25/- dk uqdlku gksrk gSA rks dqflZ;ksa ds

fy, mlus D;k Hkqxrku fn;k%

(1) :- 500, 300 (2) :- 400, 400 (3) :- 600, 200 (4) :- 700, 100

22. A sphere of radius x is melted and its volume is divided into two equal parts. One part is cast into a cylinder of height 10 cm. and second a cone of the same height. The ratio of the cylinder radius to the cone radius is: (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 2 (4) None of these

22. ,d xksyk] ftldh f=T;k x gS] dks xykdj blds ifjek.k dks nks leku Hkkxksa esa foHkä dj fn;k tkrk gSA ,d Hkkx dks 10 ls-eh- Å¡pkbZ okys flysUMj esa <kyk tkrk gS rFkk nwljs dks mruh gh Å¡pkbZ

okys ,d “kadq esaA rks flysUMj dh f=T;k ls “kadq dh f=T;k dk

vuqikr gksxk%

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

23. After getting two successive discounts, a shirt with a list price of Rs. 150 is available at Rs. 105. If the second discount is 12.5%, find the first discount: (1) 22% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 15%

23. nks Øfed NwV nsus ij ,d deht dk ewY; 105 #- gks tkrk gS tc fd mldk vafdr ewY; 150 #- gSA ;fn nwljk NwV 12.5% gS rks

igyk NwV gksxk%

(1) 22% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 15%

24. The ratio of two numbers is 4:5. When the first is increased by 20% and the second is decreased by 20%, the ratio of the resulting numbers is: (1) 6:5 (2) 5:4 (3) 5:6 (4) 4:5

24. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 4:5 gSA tc çFke esa 20% dh o`f) dh

tkrh gS ,oa nwljs dks 20% ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks ifj.kker% la[;kvksa

dk vuqikr gksxk%

(1) 6:5 (2) 5:4 (3) 5:6 (4) 4:5

25. Two numbers are such that the ratio between them is 3:5. If each is increased by 20, the ratio between the new numbers so formed is 7:9. Find the original numbers: (1) 9, 15 (2) 24, 40 (3) 27, 45 (4) 15, 25

25. nks la[;k,a ,slh gSa fd muds chp dk vuqikr 3:5 gSA ;fn çR;sd dks 20 c<+k;k tkrk gS] rks fufeZr u;h la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 7:9 gSA ekSfyd la[;k Kkr djsa%

(1) 9, 15 (2) 24, 40 (3) 27, 45 (4) 15, 25

26. The average score of Sachin Tendulkar in IPL 15 Matches is 70 runs and the average score in Border Gavaskar Trophy T–20 Matches is 45 runs in 7 matches. If he has played 10 more International T–20 matches and his overall average score in all T–20 Matches was 73 runs. What was his total score in 10 International T–20 Matches: (1) 990 (2) 971 (3) 982 (4) None of these

26. IPL ds 15 eSpksa esa lfpu rsUnqydj dk vkSlr ju 70 gS ,oa ckWMZj xokLdj VªkWQh T–20 ds 7 eSpksa esa mudk vkSlr ju 45 gSA ;fn mUgksaus 10 vkSj vUrjkZ’Vªh; T–20 eSp [ksys ,oa mudk dqy vkSlr

cuk;s x;s ju lHkh T–20 eSpksa esa 73 ju FkkA rks mudk 10 vUrjkZ’Vªh; T–20 eSpksa esa dqy cuk;s x;s ju fdrus Fks%

(1) 990 (2) 971 (3) 982 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

27. The lengths of the sides of an isosceles triangle are in the ratio 3:3:5. The lengths of the equal sides of the triangle is 6.6 cm. What is the perimeter of the triangle? (1) 24.2 cm (2) 25.0 cm (3) 23.5 cm (4) 24.0 cm

27. ,d lefckgq f=Hkqt dh Hkqtkvksa dk vuqikr 3:3:5 gS A cjkcj Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ 6.6 lseh- gS A bl f=Hkqt dk ifjeki gksxk & (1) 24.2 lseh- (2) 25.0 lseh- (3) 23.5 lseh- (4) 24.0 lseh-

DIRECTIONS: A piece of wire 132 cm long is bent successively in the shape of an equilateral triangle, a square, a circle and a regular hexagon.

28. The largest area is included when the wire is bent into the shape of a: (1) Circle (2) Hexagon (3) Square (4) Triangle

funsZ'k% 132 lseh- yEcs rkj ds ,d VqdM+s dks Øeokj leckgq f=Hkqt] ,d oxZ] ,d o`Ùk ,oa fu;fer "kMHkqt ds :i esa eksM+k tkrk gSA

28. lokZf/kd ks=Qy blesa lfEefyr gksrk gS tc rkj dks bl :i esa eksM+k

tkrk gS%

(1) o`Ùk (2) "kMHkqt (3) oxZ (4) f=Hkqt



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INSTRUCTIONS: In this question a piece of paper is folded and then cut as shown below. The dotted lines shown are the portion which have been folded. The curve arrow shows the directions of folding. And the number of scissors beneath the figure show the number of portions cut. From the given responses, indicate how it will appear when opened. The opening is in the same order as folding.

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa dkxt ds VqdM+s dks eksM+dj dkVk x;k gS] tSlk fd uhps n”kkZ;k x;k gSA fcUnq js[kk,a eksM+s gq, Hkkx dks çnf”kZr djrh gSaA oØkRed

rhj eqM+s Hkkx dh fn”kk dks n”kkZrk gSA fp= ds uhps nh xbZ dSafp;k¡ dVs gq, Hkkx dh la[;kvks dks n”kkZrh gSaA mÙkj fodYiksa esa ls ;s crk,a fd bl çfØ;k ds

vuqlkj bls [kksyus ij ;g dSlk fn[ksxkA eksM+us ds Øekuqlkj gh [kksyus dk Øe gksxkA

29. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

29. (1) (2) (3) (4)

30. If BAD is written as YZW and SAME as HZNV, then LOVE will be coded as: (1) ROWN (2) OJUC (3) OLEV (4) NOPL

30. ;fn BAD dks YZW fy[kk tkrk gS ,oa SAME dks HZNV fy[kk tkrk gS] rks LOVE dk dksM D;k gksxk\

(1) ROWN (2) OJUC (3) OLEV (4) NOPL

31. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code? (1) EOJDJEFM (2) EOJDEJFM (3) MFEJDJOE (4) MFEDJJOE

31. fdlh fuf”pr dksM esa COMPUTER dks RFUVQNPC fy[kk tkrk

gSA rks mlh dksM esa MEDICINE dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\

(1) EOJDJEFM (2) EOJDEJFM (3) MFEJDJOE (4) MFEDJJOE

DIRECTIONS: In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

32. 18, 119, 708, 3534, 14136, 42405 (1) 708 (2) 14136 (3) 119 (4) 3534

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr la[;k Ja[kyk esa ,d la[;k xyr gSA xyr la[;k dks

Kkr djsaA

32. 18, 119, 708, 3534, 14136, 42405 (1) 708 (2) 14136 (3) 119 (4) 3534

33. Pick the odd one out. (1) Hear (2) Smell (3) Taste (4) Talk

33. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vlaxr dks pqfu,%

(1) lquuk (2) lw?k¡uk (3) Lokn ysuk (4) ckrphr djuk

34. In a row of 16 boys, when Ashish was shifted two places towards the left, he became 7th from left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row? (1) 10th (2) 12th (3) 9th (4) 8th

34. 16 yM+dks dh ,d drkj esa tc vk”kh’k dks ck;ha rjQ nks LFkku

LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS rks og ck;sa Nksj ls 7ok¡ gks tkrk gSA drkj esa nkfgus Nksj mldh iwoZor fLFkfr D;k Fkh\

(1) 10th (2) 12th (3) 9th (4) 8th

35. A child walks 25 feet towards North, turns right and walks 40 feet, turns right again and walks 45 feet. He then turns left and walks 20 feet. He turns left again walk 20 feet. Finally, he turns to his left to walk another 20 feet. In which direction is the child from his starting point? (1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South

35. ,d ckyd 25 QhV mÙkj dh rjQ pyrk gS ,oa fQj nkfgus eqM+dj 40 QhV pyrk gS] iqu% nkfgus eqM+dj 45 QhV pyrk gSA rc og ck;sa eqM+dj 20 QhV pyrk gSA og iqu% ck;sa eqM+dj 20 QhV pyrk gSA vUrr% og vius ck;sa eqM+dj 20 QhV vkSj pyrk gSA çkjEHk

fcUnq ls ckyd fdl fn”kk dh rjQ gS\

(1) iwjc (2) if”pe (3) mÙkj (4) nfk.k

36. There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on a table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following books touches the surface of the table? (1) C (2) B (3) A (4) E

36. A, B, C, D ,oa E ik¡p fdrkcsa ,d est j[kh tkrh gSaA ;fn A dks

E ds uhps j[kk tkrk gS ,oa C dks D ds Åij j[kk tkrk gSA B dks

A ds uhps j[kk tkrk gS ,oa D dks E ds Åij j[kk tkrk gS rks

dkSu&lh fdrkc est dh lrg Nwrh gS\

(1) C (2) B (3) A (4) E

37. If C = 24 and HOT = 38, then FEAR = ? (1) 68 (2) 55 (3) 78 (4) 46

37. ;fn C = 24 ,oa HOT = 38] rks FEAR = \

(1) 68 (2) 55 (3) 78 (4) 46



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38. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take cold drink while 9 take only cold drink not green coconut drink. How many persons in this group take only green coconut drink but not cold drink. (Every person take drink either cold drink or green coconut or both): (1) 27 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 22

38. 36 O;fä;ksa ds lewg esa] 16 yksx dksYM fMªad ysrs gSa tc fd 9 yksx dsoy dksYM fMªad ysrs gSa] ukfj;y ikuh ughaA bl lewg esa fdrus

O;fä ,sls gSa tks dsoy ukfj;y ikuh ysrs gSa] dksYM fMªad ugha ¼çR;sd

O;fä fMªad ysrk gS pkgs og dksYM fMªad gks ;k ukfj;y ikuh ;k nksuksa½%

(1) 27 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 22

39. You are project head of a Government company and there is an emergent need of good numbers of diploma civil engineers at the contract site. The H R department has authorised you to recruit the staff for work site. The recruitment is to be done through walk ins and You anticipate a large turn out of candidates. Besides the work site, you also sit in the corporate office of the company. How will you proceed to recruit the staff? (1) Advertise the post for walk in and call the candidates

at the corporate office address for a walk in interview at a particular date.

(2) Advertise the post for walk in and call the candidates at work site address for a walk in interview at a particular date

(3) Advertise the post for walk in and call the candidates anytime anywhere.

(4) Consult the administration department for place of interview and advertise the post for walk ins and ask the candidates to send resume first by a specified date and time and then arranging for walk in date and time for the candidates in a particular schedule.

39. vki ,d ljdkjh dEiuh ds ifj;kstuk çeq[k gSa ,oa lafonk LFky ij

vPNh la[;k esa fMIyksek flfoy baftfu;lZ dh rRdkfyd t:jr gSA ekuo

lalk/ku foHkkx us vkidks dk;Z LFky ij HkrÊ djus ds fy;s vf/kÑr fd;k

gSA HkrÊ okd bu ds ek/;e ls gksuk gS ,oa vki vH;fFkZ;ksa dh vf/kd

la[;k vuqekfur djrs gSaA dk;Z LFky ds vykok vki fuxfer dk;kZy; esa

Hkh cSBrs gSaA vki LVkQ ds p;u ds fy;s dSls vkxs c<+sxsa\

(1) ôkd&bu* ds fy, in dk foKkiu nsaxs vkSj fdlh [kkl rkjh[k

dks ôkd&bu* baVjO;w ds fy, mEehn~okjksa dks fuxfer dk;kZy; ds

irs ij cqyk,axs (2) ôkd&bu* ds fy, in dk foKkiu nsaxs ,oa mEehn~okjksa dks dk;Z

LFky ds irs ij fdlh [kkl rkjh[k dks ôkd&bu* baVjO;w ds fy,

cqyk,axs

(3) ôkd&bu* ds fy, in ds okLrs foKkiu nsaxs vkSj vH;fFkZ;ksa dks

fdlh Hkh le; dgha ij Hkh vkeaf=r djsaxs

(4) ç”kklfud foHkkx ls lkkkRdkj ds LFkku ds fy;s lykg ekxsxsa ,oa

ôkd&bu* ds fy, in dk foKkiu nsaxs rFkk vH;fFkZ;ksa dks ,d

fufnZ’V frfFk ,oa le; ij viuk thou lkj çLrqr djus dks

dgsaxsA rr~i”pkr~ fof”k’V lwph cukdj vH;fFkZ;ksa dks fufnZ’V frfFk

,oa le; ij cqyk,axsA

40. You are a departmental head of a government organisation. The HR department has assigned you a task of paper setting for the purpose of career promotional test. One of your colleague’s who has helped you always is seeking your help as his son is also appearing for the career promotional test. What shall be your decision? (1) You will help him (2) You regret that you are not able to help. (3) You will report the matter to the higher authorities. (4) You will persuade your colleague that you can not do

so and you have to follow the process in all fairness.

40. vki ,d ljdkjh foHkkx esa foHkkxh; çeq[k gSaA ekuolalk/ku foHkkx us

vkidks dSfj;j çeks”kuy ijhk.k gsrq isij lsfVax dk dk;Z lkSaik gSA

vkidk ,d lgdeÊ ftlus vkidh ges”kk en~n dh gS] og vkils

vius iq=] tks fd dSfj;j çeks”kuy ijhkk esa cSB jgk gS] ds fy;s

en~n ek¡x jgk gSA vkidk fu.kZ; D;k gksxk\

(1) vki mldh en~n djsaxsA

(2) vkidks nq%[k gS fd vki mldh en~n djus esa vleFkZ gSaA

(3) vki mPp vf/kdkfj;ksa dks bl ekeys dh lwpuk nsaxsA

(4) vki vius lgdeÊ dks euk ysaxs fd vki ,slk ugha dj ldrs

D;ksafd vkidks bl çfØ;k dks lEiw.kZ fu’ikrk ls vuqlj.k djuk

gSA

41. You are head of an organisation where labour union is very active. You come across a situation where union leaders are making dharna outside your office alongwith a large number of agitated labourers and insisting on to meet you: (1) You will call the police immediately. (2) You will ask your HR head to contact the Union

leaders and pacify them. (3) You will instruct HR Head to apprise the situation to

police authorities immediately and will ask him to address the labourers to control the situation.

(4) You will first instruct HR head to apprise the situation to top police authorities and request them to deploy police personnel as soon as possible and further ask HR head to remain in talks with union leaders and pacify them telling that they are arranging an immediate meeting with the head of the organisation.

41. vki ,d laxBu ds çeq[k gSa tgk¡ etnwj laxBu dkQh lfØ; gSA

vki ,slh ifjfLFkfr esa vk tkrs gSa tc etnwj la?k ds usrk vkids

dk;kZy; ds ckgj dkQh Hkkjh la[;k esa mRrsftr etnwjksa ds lkFk /kjuk

çn”kZu dj jgs gSa ,oa vki ls feyus ds fy;s tksj Mky jgs gSa%

(1) vki rqjar gh iqfyl cqyk,axsA

(2) vki vius ekuolalk/ku çeq[k dks dgsaxs fd og la?k ds usrkvksa

ls lEidZ djds mUgsa “kkUr djsaA

(3) vki ekuolalk/ku çeq[k dks “kh?kz gh iqfyl vf/kdkfj;ksa dks ?kVuk

dk C;ksjk nsaxs ,oa ekuolalk/ku çeq[k dks fLFkfr ij fu;a=.k

djus ds fy;s etnwjksa dks lEcksf/kr djus ds fy;s dgsaxsA

(4) vki loZçFke ekuo lalk/ku çeq[k dks “kh’kZ iqfyl vf/kdkfj;ksa

dks ?kVuk ds ckjs esa crkdj muls “kh?kzkfr”kh?kz iqfyl dk çca/k

djus dks dgsaxs ,oa ekuolalk/ku çeq[k dks la?k ds usrkvksa ls

ckrphr djds mUgsa “kkUr djrs gq, ;g crkus dks dgsxsa fd og

laxBu çeq[k ls “kh?kz gh mudh eqykdkr dk çca/k dj jgs gSaA



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42. Your boss allots a work and ask you to complete the work in the time bound manner but you assess that it is difficult to finish the work in time bound manner. (1) You will persuade the boss to extend the time (2) Will start the work immediately under intimation to

your boss and first send him assessment of time plan very minutely for each activity putting contingency time in place and send the finish schedule time as per plan and if required would request for extension

(3) Will take help of outsiders and colleagues to finish the work

(4) Will deny him for doing the work straightway as the time is very less

42. vkidk vf/kdkjh vkidks ,d dke lkSairk gS vkSj vkidks bl dke dks

le;c) <ax ls iwjk djus dks dgrk gS ysfdu vkidks yxrk gS fd

bl dke dks le;c) <ax ls iwjk djuk dfBu gS%

(1) vki vius vf/kdkjh ls le; c<+kus ds fy, vuqjks/k djsaxs

(2) vius vf/kdkjh dks lwfpr djrs gq, dke rRdky “kq: dj nsaxs

vkSj vkdf’edrk le; j[krs gq, igys izR;sd fØ;kdyki ds fy,

cgqr ckjhdh ls rS;kj fd, x, le; ;kstuk dk vkdyu mls

izLrqr djsaxsA ;kstuk ds vuqlkj vafre le;&lwph Hkstsaxs vkSj

;fn t:jr gqbZ rks le; esa o`f) ds fy, vuqjks/k djsaxs

(3) dke dks iwjk djus ds fy, ckgjh yksxksa vkSj lgdfeZ;ksa dh lgk;rk ysaxs

(4) D;ksafd le; cgqr de gS blfy, dke djus ls lh/ks gh badkj dj nsaxsA

43. You are a team leader supported by three subordinates. The characteristics of three subordinates (Ram, Shyam, Ashok and Rajiv) are as under: A. If Ram is assigned the work, he gives 40% weight-age

to planning part of the work and gives 60% weight-age to execution part of the work.

B. If Shyam is assigned the work, he gives 60% weight-age to planning part of work and gives 40% weight-age to execution part of work.

C. If Ashok is assigned the work, he gives no weight-age to planning part but gives 100% weight-age to execution part.

D. If Rajiv is assigned the work, he gives 100 % weight-age to planning part but gives no weight-age to execution.

If you have to choose two subordinates for the said work, which combination of subordinates will you choose:

(1) Shyam and Ashok (2) Ram and Shyam (3) Ram and Ashok (4) Shyam and Rajiv

43. rhu v/khuLFkksa ds Vhe dk vki usr`Ro dj jgs gSaA rhuksa v/khuLFkksa

¼jke] “;ke] v”kksd ,oa jktho½ dh vfHkyk.krk,a fuEu gSa%

A. ;fn jke dks dk;Z lkSaik tkrk gS rks og dk;Z ds fu;kstu djus

ds Hkkx dks 40% egRo nsrk gS ,oa 60% egRo dk;Z ds

fu’iknu djus okys Hkkx dks nsrk gSA

B. ;fn “;ke dks dk;Z lkSaik tkrk gS rks og dk;Z ds fu;kstu djus

ds Hkkx dks 60% egRo nsrk gS ,oa 40% egRo dk;Z ds


C. ;fn v”kksd dks dk;Z lkSaik tkrk gS rks og dk;Z ds fu;kstu djus

ds Hkkx dks dksbZ egRo ugha nsrk gS ijUrq 100% egRo dk;Z ds


D. ;fn jktho dks dk;Z lkSaik tkrk gS rks og dk;Z ds fu;kstu djus

okys Hkkx dks 100% egRo nsrk gS ,oa dk;Z ds fu’iknu djus

okys Hkkx dks dksbZ egRo ugha nsrk gSA

;fn vkidks rFkkdfFkr dk;Z ds fy;s nks v/khuLFkksa dk p;u djuk gS]

rks v/khuLFkksa ds fdl la;qXe dks pqusxsaA

(1) “;ke ,oa v”kksd (2) jke ,oa “;ke (3) jke ,oa v”kksd (4) “;ke ,oa jktho

DIRECTIONS: The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated readership of 3 daily newspapers (H.T, TOI & Statesman) in Delhi. The total readership and advertising cost for each of these papers is as below.

Newspaper Readership (Lakhs)

Advertising cost (Rs per sq cm)

H.T. 8.7 6000 TOI 9.1 6500 Statesman 5.6 5000

The total population of the city is approximately 14 million. The common readership (in lakhs) indicated in the Venn diagram

44. The number of people (in lakhs) who read only one

newspaper is: (1) 23.4 (2) 17.4 (3) 11.9 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% uhps fn;k x;k osu Mk;xzke fnYyh esa rhu nSfud lekpkj i=ksa ¼,p-

Vh-] Vh-vks-vkbZ- ,oa LVsV~leSu½ ds vuqekfur ikBdksa dh la[;k n”kkZrk gSA

dqy ikBdksa ,oa foKkiu ykxr çR;sd lekpkj i= ds fy, uhps fn;k x;k gSA

lekpkj i= ikBd

¼yk[k esa½ foKkiu ykxr

(Rs per sq cm) ,p-Vh- 8.7 6000 Vh-vks-vkbZ- 9.1 6500 LVsV~leSu 5.6 5000

“kgj dh dqy tula[;k yxHkx 14 fefy;u gSA osu Mk;xzke esa bafxr mHk;fu’B ikBd ¼yk[kksa esa½ n”kkZ;k x;k gS&

44. yksxksa dh la[;k ¼yk[kksa esa½ tks dsoy ,d lekpkj&i= i<+rs gSa%

(1) 23.4 (2) 17.4 (3) 11.9 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

45. A tired lady slept at 07:45 PM. If she rose at 12 noon, for how many hours did she sleep? (1) 12 hours 15 minutes (2) 4 hours 15 minutes (3) 6 hours 45 minutes (4) 16 hours 15 minutes

45. ,d Fkdh gqbZ efgyk 7.45 PM ij lks xbZA ;fn og 12 cts fnu esa mBrh gS rks og fdruh nsj lksbZ\

(1) 12 ?kaVs 15 feuV (2) 4 ?kaVs 15 feuV (3) 6 ?kaVs 45 feuV (4) 16 ?kaVs 15 feuV



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TECHNICAL APTITUDE

46. The transfer function, aS

s)s(T+

= is that of a:

(1) Low-pass filter (2) Notch filter (3) High-pass filter (4) Band-pass filter

46. aS

s)s(T+

= vkarfjd Qyu blds fy, gS%

(1) yks&ikl fQYVj

(2) [kkap fQYVj

(3) gkbZ&ikl fQYVj

(4) cSaM&ikl fQYVj

47. The degenerate modes in waveguide are characterized by:

(1) Same cut-off frequencies but different field distributions (2) Same cut-off frequencies and same field distributions (3) Different cut-off frequencies but same filed distributions (4) Different cut-off frequencies and different field

distributions

47. rjax iFkd esa viHkz’V voLFkk,a n”kkZrs gSa%

(1) leku dV&vkQ vko`fRr;ka ysfdu fHkUu ks= forj.k

(2) leku dV&vkQ vko`fRr;ka vkSj leku ks= forj.k

(3) fHkUu dV&vkQ vko`fRr;ka ysfdu leku ks= forj.k

(4) fHkUu dV&vkQ vko`fRr;ka vkSj fHkUu ks= forj.k

48. The “accuracy” of a measuring instrument is determined by the:

(1) Clossness of the value indicated by it to the correct value of the measured

(2) Repetability of the measured value (3) Speed with which the instrument’s reading

approaches the final value (4) Least change in the value of the measure and that

could be detected by the instrument

48. ,d ekih ;a= dh “kq)rk dk fu/kkZj.k gksrk gS%

(1) blds kjk fn[kkbZ xbZ eku ds lgh eku ds ukius ds djhc

(2) ekid eku dh iqujkorhZ

(3) ftl xfr ls midj.k dh ikB~;kad vafre eku rd igqaprh gS

(4) de ls de ekud ikB~;kad vkSj ftls midj.k ds kjk lalwpd

fd;k tk lds

49. Wagner’s earth devices are used in ac bridge circuits to:

(1) Eliminate the effect of earth capacitance (2) Eliminate the effect of inter-component capacitance (3) Eliminate the effect of stray electrostatic fields (4) Shield the bridge elements

49. oSxulZ tehuh fo/kkvksa dks ,lh fczt ifjiFk esa mi;ksx djrs gSa%

(1) tehuh /kkfjrk ds izHkko dks fuf’Ø; djus esa

(2) vkarfjd ?kVd /kkfjrk ds izHkko dks fuf’Ø; djus esa

(3) vokafNr fLFkj oS|qr ks=ksa ds izHkko dks fuf’Ø; djus esa

(4) fczt rRoksa ds ifjjk.k esa

50. An angular position to be measured using a transducer. Which of the following types of transducers can be used for this purpose?

(1) Circular potentiometer (2) LVDT (3) E-pick off (4) Synchro

50. ,d dks.kh; fLFkfr dks ikjkarfj= dks iz;ksx djds ukiuk gSA fuEu esa ls

dkSu izdkj ds ikjkarfj= dks bl iz;ksx ds fy, bLrseky fd;k tk

ldrk gS%

(1) o`Rrh; foHkoekih

(2) ,yohMhVh

(3) bZ&fid vkWQ

(4) rqY;d

51. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is:

(1) PPM (Pulse Position Modulation) (2) PAM (Pulse Amplitude Modulation) (3) PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) (4) PDM (Pulse Duration Modulation)

51. fMftVy nwjfefr esa fof”k’V :i ls iz;qDr dksfMax iz.kkyh gksrh gS%

(1) PPM ¼iYl iksft”ku eSfiax½ (2) PAM ¼iYl vk;ke eSfiax½

(3) PCM ¼iYl dksM ekM~;wys”ku½ (4) PDM ¼iYl vof/k ekM~;wys”ku½

52. The carrier mobility in a semiconductor is 0.4 m2/Vs. Its diffusion constant at 300 K will be (in m2/s):

(1) 0.43 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.01

52. ,d v)Zpkyd esa okgd xfr”khyrk 0.4 m2/Vs gSA 300 K ij bldk folj.k fLFkjkad gksxk (in m2/s)%

(1) 0.43 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.01



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53. In microwave communication links, when fading due to rain attenuation occurs, the techniques adopted for solving the problem would include:

(1) Antenna replacement and feed correction (2) Amplitude trimming and phase correction (3) Polarization shifting and code diversity (4) Path diversity and frequency diversity

53. lwerjax lapkj fyad dk] tc o’kkZ kh.ku gksus ij Xykuu gksus yxrk

gS leL;k dks gy djus ds fy, viuk, tkus okys rduhdksa esa “kkfey

gS%

(1) ,sasVhuk izfrLFkkiu vkSj QhM vk”kks/ku

(2) vk;ke fVªfeax rFkk izkoLFkk vk”kks/ku

(3) /kzqohdj.k varj.k rFkk dksM fofo/krk

(4) ekxZ fofo/krk rFkk vko`fRr fofo/krk

54. In microwave communication, sometime, microwave signals reach large distances by following the earth’s curvature. This phenomenon is called:

(1) Tropospheric castter (2) Faraday effect (3) Ionospheric reflection (4) Ducting

54. lwerjax lapkj esa dHkh&dHkh lwerjax flXuy i`Foh dh oØrk dk

vuqlj.k djrs gq, cM+h nwfj;ksa rd igqap tkrs gSaaA ;g ?kVukØe

dgykrk gS%

(1) VksiksLQhfjd dSLVj

(2) QSjkMs izHkko

(3) vk;uksLQhfjd ijkorZu

(4) MfDVax

55. The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number (3E 8)16 is:

(1) 1000 (2) 982 (3) 768 (4) 323

55. ‘kksM”k vk/kkjh la[;k (3E 8)16 dk n”keyo lerqY; gS% (1) 1000 (2) 982 (3) 768 (4) 323

56. An interrupt in which the external device supplies its address as well as the interrupt request, is known as:

(1) Vectored interrupt (2) Maskable interrupt (3) Polled interrupt (4) Non-maskable interrupt

56. ,d varjk;u ftlesa ckg~; ;qfDr viuk irk vkSj lkFk gh varjk;u

vuqjks/k dh vkiwfrZ djrh gS dgykrk gS%

(1) lfnf”kr varjk;u

(2) vkoj.k;ksX; varjk;u

(3) iksYM varjk;u

(4) xSj&vkoj.k;ksX; varjk;u

57. In a transistor amplifier, the reverse saturation current ICO:

(1) Doubles for every 10°C rise in temperature (2) Doubles for every 1°C rise in temperature (3) Increases linearly with temperature (4) Doubles for every 5°C rise in temperature

57. ,d VªkaftLVj ,sEIyhQk;j esa izfrykseh lar`fIr /kkjk ICO%

(1) rkieku esa izfr 10°C dh o`f) ds lkFk nqxquh gks tkrh gS


(3) rkieku ds lkFk jSf[kd n`f’V ls c<+rh gS


58. A transconductane amplifier has

(1) High input impedance and low output impedance (2) Low input impedance and high output impedance (3) High input and output impedances (4) Low input and output impedances

58. varjkpkydrk ,sEIyhQk;j esa gksrk gS%

(1) mPp bUiqV izfrck/kk rFkk U;wu fuxZe izfrck/kk

(2) U;wu bUiqV izfrck/kk rFkk mPp fuxZe izfrck/kk

(3) mPp bUiqV rFkk fuxZe izfrck/kk,a

(4) U;wu bUiqV rFkk fuxZe izfrck/kk,a

59. A transistor is operated as a non saturated switch to eliminate:

(1) Storage time (2) Turn-off time (3) Turn-on time (4) Delay time

59. ,d VªkaftLVj fuEu dk foyksiu djus ds fy, ,d vlar`Ìr fLop ij

dke djrk gS%

(1) HkaMkj.k le;

(2) VuZ vkQ le;

(3) VuZ vku le;

(4) foyac le;



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60. The 8086 arithmetic instructions work on: 1. Signed and unsigned numbers 2. ASCII data 3. Unpacked BCD data Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: (1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3

60. 8086 xf.krh; vuqns”k fuEu ij dk;Z djrs gSa%

1. gLrkkfjr rFkk vukgLrkkfjr la[;k,a

2. ASCII MkVk 3. vUiSDM BCD MkVk uhps fn, x, dksMksa dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%

dksM%

(1) 1 rFkk 2 (2) 2 rFkk 3 (3) 1 rFkk 3 (4) 1, 2 rFkk 3

61. Which one of the following types of noise gains importance at high frequency? (1) Shot noise (2) Random noise (3) Impulse noise (4) Transit-time noise

61. fuEu esa ls jo dh dkSulh dksfV dks mPp vko`fRr ij egRo izkIr gksrk

gS\

(1) iViV jo

(2) ;kn`fPNd jo

(3) vkosx jo

(4) laØe.k jo

62. For 10-bit PCM system, the signal to quantization noise ratio is 62 dB. If the number of bits is increased by 2, then the signal to quantization noise ratio will:

(1) Increase by 6 dB (2) Increase by 12 dB (3) Decrease by 6 dB (4) Decrease by 12 dB

62. 10-bit PCM iz.kkyh ds fy, DokaVhdj.k jo vuqikr dk flXuy 62 dB gSA ;fn fcVksa dh la[;k esa 2 dh o`f) dj nh tkrh gS rks

DokaVhdj.k jo vuqikr dk flXuy%

(1) 6 dB c<+ tk,xk (2) 12 dB c<+ tk,xk (3) 6 dB ?kV tk,xk (4) 12 dB ?kV tk,xk

63. TWT is preferred over a magnetron in a radar transmitter because of its:

(1) Larger efficiency (2) Wider bandwith (3) Lower noise (4) Larger duty cycle

63. jSMkj VªkUlehVj esa eSXusVªkWu ij TWT dks çkFkfedrk nh tkrh gS D;ksafd blesa gksrh gS%

(1) viskkÑr vf/kd nkrk

(2) vf/kd pkSM+h cSUMfoFk

(3) viskkÑr de jo

(4) vf/kd cM+k M;wVh pØ

64. In troposcatter communication, the preferred antenna is of the following type:

(1) Helical (2) Rhombic (3) Conical (4) Parabolic

64. VªksiksLdsVj lapkj esa fuEukfdar esa ls fdl çdkj ds ,UVsuk dks

çkFkfedrk nh tkrh gS%

(1) dqaMfyuh

(2) leprqHkZth ,UVsuk

(3) “kaDokdkj ,UVsuk

(4) ijoyf;d ,UVsuk

65. Radar detection is limited to line of sight because:

(1) Of curvature of the earth (2) The waves are not reflected by the ionosphere (3) Long wavelengths are used (4) All of the above

65. jsMkj lalwpu n`f"V js[kk rd lhfer gS%

(1) i`Foh dh oØrk ds dkj.k

(2) D;ksafd vk;u eaMy ds kjk rjaxksa dks ijkofrZr ugha fd;k tkrk gS

(3) D;ksafd yEcs rjax nS/;ks± dks ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS

(4) mi;qZä lHkh

66. The Fourier transform of δ(t–nτ) is: ∑+∞

∞=

=–n

(t)x

(1) Constant (2) An impulse at t = 0 (3) A series of impulses (4) None of these

66. δ(t–nτ) dk Qksfj, :ikUrj gS% ∑+∞

∞=

=–n

(t)x

(1) fLFkj

(2) t = 0 ij vkosn

(3) vkosxksa dh ,d Ja[kyk




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67. Which of the following statement is false?

Fourier analysis shows that a saw tooth wave consists of: (1) Fundamental and sub harmonic sine waves (2) A fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of

harmonics (3) Fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose

amplitude decreases with harmonic number (4) Sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough

to ignore in practice.

67. fuEukafdr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gSA

Qksfj;s fo'ys"k.k n'kkZrk gS fd vkjk nkarh rjax esa gksrs gSa%

(1) ekSfyd rFkk milaéknh lkbu rjaxsa

(2) ,d ekSfyd lkbu rjax rFkk vfuf'pr la[;k esa léknh

(3) ekSfyd rFkk léknh lkbu rjaxs ftuds vk;ke léknh la[;k ds

lkFk de gksrs gSa

(4) t;koØh; oksYVrk ftuesa ls dqN brus de gSa fd O;ogkfjd :i

ls budh miskk gks ldrh gS


The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to: (1) Its resistance (2) Its temperature (3) Boltzmann’s constant (4) The bandwidth over which it is measured

68. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gSA

,d çfrjks/kd kjk mRié rkih; jo oksYVrk dk oxZ buesa ls fdlds

lekuqikrh gS%

(1) bldk çfrjks/k

(2) bldk rkieku

(3) cksYV~teSu fLFkjkad

(4) cSUM dh pkSM+kbZ ftlds Åij bls ekik tkrk gS


If the intermediate frequency is very high then the: (1) Image frequency rejection is very good (2) The local oscillator need not be extremely stable (3) The selectivity will be poor (4) Tracking will be improved

69. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gSA

;fn e/;orÊ vko`fÙk cgqr vf/kd gks rks

(1) çfrfcEc vko`fÙk vLohdj.k cgqr vPNk gS

(2) LFkkuh; nksfy= dks vR;f/kd LFkk;h gksus dh vko';drk ugha gS

(3) p;ukRedrk de gksxh

(4) Vªsfdax esa lq/kkj gksxk

70. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of:

(1) √2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8

70. ;fn ,d jMkj ra= esa ,UVsuk O;kl dks 4 ds xq.kkad kjk c<+k;k tkrk gS rks vf/kdre ifjlj buesa ls fdl xq.kkad kjk c<+ tk,xk%

(1) √2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8

71. The coho in the MTI radar operates at the:

(1) Intermediate frequency (2) Transmitted frequency (3) Received frequency (4) Pulse repetition frequency

71. MTI jMkj esa COHO dk;Z djrk gS%

(1) e/;orÊ vko`fÙk ij

(2) çsf"k= vko`fÙk ij

(3) çkIr vko`fÙk ij

(4) Lian iqujkorZ vko`fÙk ij

72. A solution to the “blind speed” problem is to:

(1) Change the Doppler frequency (2) Vary the PRF (3) Use monopulse (4) Use MTI

72. ^vU/k xfr* leL;k dk gy gS%

(1) MkWIyj vko`fÙk dks cny nsuk

(2) PRF esa cnyko djuk (3) ,dy LiUn ç;ksx djuk

(4) MTI dk ç;ksx djuk

73. For a bit – rate of 8 Kbps, the best possible values of the transmitted frequencies in a coherent binary FSK system are:

(1) 16 KHz and 20 KHz (2) 20 KHz and 32 KHz (3) 20 KHz and 40 KHz (4) 32KHz and 40 KHz

73. 8 Kbps dh fcV&xfr ds fy, ,d lalDr fpj FSK iz.kkyh esa laØfer vko`fRr;ksa ds okLrs loksZRre laHkkfor eku gS%

(1) 16 KHz and 20 KHz (2) 20 KHz and 32 KHz (3) 20 KHz and 40 KHz (4) 32KHz and 40 KHz



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74. If the sampling time is less than the Nyquist interval, then: (1) Bandwidth increases (2) Channel capacity increases (3) Guard time reduces (4) Simpler filters may be used to obtain the original

signal

74. ;fn izfrp;u le; ukbfDoLV varjky ls de gS rks%

(1) cSaMfoM~Fk c<+ tkrh gS

(2) pSuy kerk c<+ tkrh gS

(3) xkMZ le; ?kV tkrk gS

(4) ewy flXuy izkIr djus ds fy, vf/kd ljy fQYVjksa dk iz;ksx

fd;k tk ldrk gS

75. A TEM wave guide is incident normally upon a perfect conductor. The E and H field at the boundary will be respectively: (1) Minimum and minimum (2) Maximum and maximum (3) Minimum and maximum (4) Maximum and minimum

75. ,d TEM iFkd lk/kkj.kr% ,d iw.kZ pkyd ij vkifrr gksrk gSA

lhek ij E vkSj H ks= gksaxs Øe”k% (1) U;wure rFkk U;wure

(2) vf/kdre rFkk vf/kdre

(3) U;wure rFkk vf/kdre

(4) vf/kdre rFkk U;wure

76. In a series RLC High Q circuit, the current peaks at a frequency: (1) Equal to the resonant frequency. (2) Greater than the resonant frequency. (3) Less than the resonant frequency. (4) None of these.

76. ,d Js.kh RLC mPp Q ifjiFk esa] /kkjk fuEu vko`fRr ij f”k[kj ij

gksrh gS%

(1) vuquknh vko`fRr ds lerqY;

(2) vuquknh vko`fRr ls vf/kd

(3) vuquknh vko`fRr ls de


77. In a broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the: (1) Local oscillator operates below the signal frequency (2) Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency (3) Local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF (4) RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above the

carrier frequency

77. ,d izlkj.k lqij gSVjksMkbu izkid esa%

(1) LFkkuh; nksfy= flXuy vko`fRr ls uhps dke djrk gS

(2) feDlj bUiqV vo”; gh flXuy vko`fRr ds lkFk leLofjr fd;k

tkuk pkfg,

(3) LFkkuh; nksfy= dh vko`fRr lkekU;r% IF dh nqxquh gksrh gS (4) RF ,EIyhQk;j lkekU;r% okgd vko`fRr ls 455 KHz Åij

dke djrk gS

78. An FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The wave in the output in tripler will have a modulation index of: (1) mf/3 (2) mf(3) 3 mf

(4) 9mf

78. ekM~;wys”ku lwpdkad mf ls ;qDr ,d FM flXuy ,d vko`fRr f=xq.kd

esa ls xqtkjk tkrk gSA f=xq.kd esa fuxZe esa rjax dk ekM~;wys”ku

lwpdkad gksxk%

(1) mf/3 (2) mf(3) 3 mf

(4) 9mf

79. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity, the line is terminated in: (1) A short circuit (2) A complex impedance (3) An open circuit (4) A pure reactance

79. feF;k dFku dh igpku djsaA ,d lapj.k ykbu ij SWR vuar gS]

ykbu fuEu esa lekIr gksrh gS%

(1) ,d y?kqiFk

(2) ,d tfVy izfrck/kk

(3) ,d eqDr ifjiFk

(4) ,d “kq) izfr?kkr

80. JFET in properly biased condition acts as a: (1) Current controlled current source (2) Voltage controlled voltage source (3) Voltage controlled current source (4) Impedance controlled current source

80. leqfpr :i ls vfHkur fLFkfr esa JFET fuEu :i esa dke djrk gS% (1) /kkjk fu;af=r /kkjk lzksr

(2) oksYVrk fu;af=r oksYVrk lzksr

(3) oksYVrk fu;af=r /kkjk lzksr

(4) izfrck/kk fu;af=r /kkjk lzksr

81. Zener diode is used for: (1) Rectification(2) Amplification(3) Stabilization(4) None of the above

81. thuj Mk;ksM fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, ç;qä gksrk gS\

(1) fn"Vdj.k

(2) ço/kZu

(3) LFkk;hdj.k

(4) mi;qZä dksbZ ugha



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82. The width of depletion layer of a junction:

(1) Is independent of applied voltage(2) Is increased under reverse bias(3) Decreases with light doping(4) Increases with heavy doping

82. fdlh lfU/k ¼taD'ku½ dh vok; ijr dh pkSM+kbZ%

(1) ç;qä oksYVrk ls Lora= gS

(2) çrhi vfHkufr ¼fjolZ ck;l½ ds vUrZxr c<+kbZ tkrh gS

(3) vYieknu ¼Mksfiax½ ls ?kVrh gS

(4) vf/kd eknu ls c<+rh gS

83. For a transistor to act as current amplifier:

(1) Both its emitter–base junction and collector–base junction are forward biased.

(2) Both its emitter–base junction and collector–base thin junction are reverse biased.

(3) Its emitter base junction is forward biased while collector–base junction is reverse biased

(4) Its emitter–base junction is reverse biased while collector–base junction is forward biased.

83. /kkjk ço/kZd ds :i esa fØ;k djus gsrq VªkaftLVj ds fy,%

(1) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k vkSj laxzkgh vk/kkj laf/k] nksuksa

vxzfnf'kd vfHkufr ds gksrs gSa

(2) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k vkSj laxzkgh vk/kkj ruq laf/k] nksuksa

i'pfnf'kd vfHkufr ds gksrs gSa

(3) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k vxzfnf'kd vfHkufr ¼ck;l½ dh]

tcfd laxzkgh vk/kkj laf/k i'pfnf'kd vfHkufr dh gksrh gS

(4) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k i'p fnf'kd vfHkufr dh tcfd

laxzkgh vk/kkj laf/k vxzsfnf'kd vfHkufr dh gksrh gSa

84. A MOSFET can be used as:

(1) Resistor (2) Capacitor (3) Switch (4) All the above

84. MOSFET dks fuEu esa ls fdldh rjg ç;ksx fd;k tk ldrk gS\

(1) çfrjks/kd

(2) la/kkfj=

(3) fLop

(4) mi;qZä lHkh

85. The operating pointing in an amplifier is selected in the middle of active region, so that the current:

(1) Requires a small dc voltage bias (2) Requires a high dc voltage bias (3) Gives a distortion less output (4) Keeps the operating point stable.

85. fdlh ço/kZd ¼,sEIyhQk;j½ esa çpkyu fcUnq dk p;u lfØ;k ks= ds

e/; esa fd;k tkrk gS rkfd /kkjk%

(1) dks de dc oksYVrk ck;l ¼vfHkufr½ dh vko';drk gks

(2) dks vf/kd dc oksYVrk ck;l ¼vfHkufr½ dh vko';drk gks

(3) foÑfr foghu fuxZr ¼vkmViqV½ ns lds

(4) çpkyu fcUnq dks fLFkj j[k lds

86. By introducing negative feedback in an amplifier there is increase in:

(1) Noise level (2) Harmonic distortion (3) Bandwidth (4) Gain

86. fdlh ço/kZd esa _.kkRed iquZHkj.k çoZfrr djus ls fuEu esa ls fdlesa

o`f) gksrh gS\

(1) jo Lrj

(2) gkseksZfud foÑfr

(3) cSaM pkSM+kbZ

(4) yfC/k ¼gain½

87. A common collector amplifier has:

(1) High voltage gain but low current gain (2) Low voltage gain and low current gain (3) High output impedance but low input impedance (4) Low output impedance but high input impedance

87. lk/kkj.k laxzgh ço/kZd esa gksrh gS%

(1) mPp oksYVrk yfC/k fdUrq fuEu /kkjk yfC/k

(2) fuEu oksYVrk yfC/k fdUrq fuEu /kkjk yfC/k

(3) mPp vkmViqV çfrck/kk fdUrq fuEu buiqV çfrck/kk

(4) fuEu vkmViqV çfrck/kk fdUrq mPp buiqV çfrck/kk

88. By introducing voltage–series negative feedback in an amplifier: (1) Both its input impedance and output impedance

increase (2) Both its input impedance and output impedance

decrease (3) Its input impedance increases but output impedance

decrease (4) Its input impedance decreases but output impedance

increases

88. fdlh ço/kZd esa oksYVrk lhjht _.kkRed QhMcSd çofrZr djus ls%

(1) bldh buiqV çfrck/kk ,oa vkmViqV çfrck/kk nksuksa c<+ tkrh gS

(2) bldh buiqV çfrck/kk vkSj vkmViqV çfrck/kk nksuksa ?kV tkrh gSa

(3) bldh buiqV çfrck/kk c<+ tkrh gS fdUrq vkmViqV çfrck/kk ?kV

tkrh gS

(4) bldh buiqV çfrck/kk ?kV tkrh gS fdUrq vkmViqV çfrck/kk c<+

tkrh gS



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89. The purpose of capacitor in a transistor amplifier is to:

(1) To protect the transistor (2) Cool the transistor (3) Couple or bypass a.c component (4) Provide biasing

89. VªkaftLVj ço/kZd esa la/kkfj= ¼dSisflVj½ dk ç;kstu%

(1) VªkaftLVj dh jkk djuk gS

(2) VªkaftLVj dks BaMk djuk gS

(3) a.c. vo;o ¼daiksusUV½ dks ;qfXer djuk vFkok miekxZ.k djuk

gS

(4) vfHkufr ¼ckbflax½ çnku djrh gS

90. In a fixed bias circuit, the operating point shifts towards: (1) Higher value of IB

(2) Lower value of IB(3) Zero value of IB

(4) Does not shift at all.

90. fdlh fLFkj ck;l ifjiFk esa çpkyu fcUnq fdl vksj foLFkkfir

¼shift½ gksrk gS\ (1) IB ds mPp eku (2) IB ds fuEu eku (3) IB ds 'kwU; eku (4) fdlh rjg foLFkkfir ugha gksrk

91. A depth upto about 0.1 µm can be precisely controlled by: (1) Epitaxy (2) Diffusion (3) Ion implantation (4) Chemicalvapour deposition

91. yxHkx 0.1 µm dh xgjkbZ dks Bhd&Bhd fdlds kjk fu;af=r fd;k

tk ldrk gS\

(1) vf/kLrjh

(2) folj.k

(3) vk;u jksi.k

(4) jklk;fud ok"i&fuksi.k

92. By the term modulation is meant: (1) Impressing a carrier signal on the amplitude, phase or

frequency of the message. (2) Impressing the message signal on the amplitude, the

phase or the frequency of the carrier (3) Mixing the message signal with the carrier signal. (4) None of the above.

92. ekMqyu in ls D;k vfHkçk; gS\

(1) dks.kkad ¼vk;ke½ dyk ij okgd ladsr vFkok lans'k dh vko`fÙk

dks vkjksfir djuk

(2) dks.kkad ¼vk;ke½] dyk ij lans'k ladsr vFkok okgd dh vko`fÙk

dks vkjksfir djuk

(3) okgd ladsrksa ds lkFk lans'k ladsrksa dks fefJr djuk

(4) mi;qZä dksbZ ugha

93. In DSB–SC transmission, the frequency which is not transmitted is: (1) The upper side frequency (2) The lower side frequency (3) Audio frequency (4) Carrier frequency

93. DSB–SC lapkj.k esa ftl vko`fÙk dks lapkfjr ugha fd;k tkrk gS]

mls dgrs gSa%

(1) Åijh fn'kk dh vko`fÙk

(2) fupyh fn'kk dh vko`fÙk

(3) JO; vko`fÙk

(4) okgd vko`fÙk

94. In a certain transmitter, the unmodulated carrier power is 1000 W and it is modulated with a sinusoidal signal with a depth of modulation of 50%. The total power in the modulated wave will be: (1) 1000 W (2) 1125 W (3) 1200 W (4) 1500 W

94. fdlh çsf"k= ¼VªkalehVj½ esa vu ekMqfyr okgd 'kfä 1000 w gS vkSj

;g 50% ekMqyu dh xgjkbZ ls T;koØh; ladsr ds lkFk ekMqfyr gSA

rks crkb, fd ekMqfyr rjax esa dqy fdruh 'kfä gksxh%

(1) 1000 W (2) 1125 W (3) 1200 W (4) 1500 W

95. The disadvantage of FM over AM is:

(1) High modulating power is required (2) High transmitter power is required (3) Large bandwidth is needed (4) Noise is high for high frequency signals.

95. AM ds Åij FM dh D;k gkfu;k¡ gksrh gS%

(1) mPp çek=dh ¼Modulating½ 'kfä dh vko';drk gksrh gS

(2) mPp çf"k= ¼Transmitter½ 'kfä dh vko';drk gksrh gS

(3) cM+s cSaM foLrkj dh vko';drk gksrh gS

(4) mPp vko`fÙk ladsrksa ds fy, jo Å¡pk gksrk gS

96. The effect of increasing the gain of a system on location of the roots of characteristic equation is: (1) The roots move away from zero (2) The roots move away from the poles (3) Position of the roots not affected (4) The roots are stationary

96. vfHkyk.ku lehdj.kksa ds ewy ¼roots½ LFkkuksa ij fdlh i)fr dh

c<+rh yfC/k dk çHkko gksxk fd%

(1) ewy] 'kwU; ls nwj gks tk,axs

(2) ewy] /kzqoksa ls nwj gks tk,axs

(3) ewyksa dh vofLFkfr çHkkfor ugha gksxh

(4) ewy vpy gS



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97. The algebraic sum of the angles of vectors drawn from all poles and zeros to a point on root locus is:

(1) Odd multiples of 180° (2) Even multiples of 180° (3) Odd multiples of 90° (4) Even multiples of 90°

97. ewy fcUnq iFk fdlh fcUnq ij lHkh iksyksa vkSj 'kwU;ksa ls [khaps x,

lfn'kksa ¼osDVjksa½ ds dks.kksa dk chth; ;ksx gksxk%

(1) 180° ds fo"ke xq.kt (2) 180° ds le&xq.kt (3) 90° ds fo"ke xq.kt (4) 90° ds le&xq.kt

98. The closed loop transfer function of the speed control unit has:

(1) 1–pole and no zeroes (2) 1–pole and 1–zero (3) 2–poles and no zeros (4) 2–poles and 1–zero

98. pky fu;a=.k ;wfuV ds lao`Ùk ywi vUrj.k Qyu esa gksrs gSa%

(1) 1 iksy vkSj dksbZ 'kwU; ugha

(2) 1 iksy vkSj 1 'kwU; (3) 2 iksy vkSj dksbZ 'kwU; ugha

(4) 2 iksy vkSj 1 'kwU;

99. The potentiometers used for error detection in the position control system need to have:

(1) Same values and same resolution (2) Same values only (3) Same resolution only (4) None of the above restrictions

99. fLFkfr fu;a=.k ra= esa =qfV dk irk yxkus ds fy, ç;qä foHkoekih dks

t:jr gksxh%

(1) ,d leku eku vkSj fo;kstu ¼foHksnu½ dh

(2) dsoy ,d&leku eku dh

(3) dsoy ,d&leku fo;kstu dh

(4) mi;qZä fdlh çfrca/k dh ugha

100. The open loop response of the temperature control system is very slow. This is because:

(1) The open loop pole is near the jω–axis (2) The open loop pole is far from the jω–axis (3) Complex conjugate poles have large damping ratio. (4) System bandwidth is large.

100. rki fu;a=d ra= dh foo`Ùk ywi vuqfØ;k cgqr /kheh gS] D;ksafd%

(1) foo`Ùk ywi iksy jω–axis ds fudV gS (2) foo`Ùk ywi iksy jω–axis ls nwj gS (3) lfEeJ la;qXeh iksyksa dk cM+k voeanu vuqikr gS

(4) ra= dk cSaM&foLrkj cM+k gS

101. Integral control:

(1) Reduces low frequency gain and improves steady state performance

(2) Increases low frequency gain and improves steady state performance

(3) Reduced high frequency gain and improves transient performance

(4) Increases high frequency gain and improves transient performance

101. lekdy fu;a=.k% (1) fuEu vko`fÙk yfC/k dks ?kVkrk gS vkSj LFkkbZ n'kk fu"iknu dks

lq/kkjrk gS

(2) fuEu vko`fÙk yfC/k dks c<+krk gS vkSj LFkkbZ n'kk fu"iknu dks

lq/kkjrk gS

(3) mPp vko`fÙk yfC/k dks ?kVkrk gS vkSj vYi LFkkbZ n'kk fu"iknu

dks lq/kkjrk gS

(4) mPp vko`fÙk yfC/k dks c<+krk gS vkSj vYi LFkkbZ n'kk fu"iknu

dks lq/kkjrk gS

102. Lead network causes the root locus diagram of a system to:

(1) Shift to the left (2) Shift to the right (3) Remain unchanged but increase the value of gain on it (4) Converge to its centroid

102. vxzxkeh ¼yhM½ usVodZ ds dkj.k fdlh ra= dk ewy fcUnq vkjs[k%

(1) ckb± vksj foLFkkfir ¼f'k¶V½ gks tkrk gS

(2) nkb± vksj foLFkkfir ¼f'k¶V½ gks tkrk g

(3) vifjofrZr jgrk gS fdUrq blesa yfC/k dk eku c<+krk gS

(4) blds dsUæd dh vksj vfHklfjr gksrk gS

103. A sinusoidal signal is an analog signal, because:

(1) It can have a number of values between the negative and the positive peaks

(2) It is negative for one half of the cycle (3) It is positive for one half of the cycle (4) It has negative as well as positive voltages

103. T;koØh; ladsr ,d vuq:i ladsr gS] D;ksafd%

(1) blesa _.kkRed vkSj /kukRed f'k[kjksa ds chp vusd eku gks

ldrs gSa

(2) ;g pØ ds vk/ks Hkkx rd _.kkRed gS

(3) ;g pØ ds vk/ks Hkkx rd /kukRed gS

(4) blesa /kukRed oksYVrk ds lkFk&lkFk _.kkRed oksYVrk gS



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104. The output of a gate is HIGH when at least one of its inputs is LOW. It is true for: (1) EX–OR (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) ORZ

104. xsV ¼kj½ dk vkmViqV rc mPp gksrk gS tc de ls de bldk ,d

buiqV fuEu ¼Low½ gksrk gSA ;g fdl ij lR; gS\

(1) EX–OR (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) OR

105. Karnaugh map is used: (1) To minimize the number of FLIP–FLOPS in a digital

circuit (2) To minimize the number of gates only in a digital

circuit (3) To minimize the number of gates and the fan–in

requirements of the gates in a digital circuit (4) To design gates

105. dkjukQ ekufp= fdl fy, ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\ (1) fdlh vadh; ifjiFk esa FLIP-FLOPS ¼f¶yi& ¶yksi½ dh

la[;k U;wure djus ds fy,

(2) fdlh vadh; ifjiFk esa dsoy xsVksa ¼kjksa½ dh la[;k U;wure

djus ds fy,

(3) fdlh vadh; ifjiFk esa xsVksa vkSj xsVksa dh vko';drk esa QSu dh

la[;k U;wure djus ds fy,

(4) xsVksa dks vfHkdfYir djus ds fy,

106. A combinational circuit: (1) Always contains memory elements (2) Never contains memory elements (3) May sometimes contain memory elements (4) Contains only memory elements

106. la;qä ifjiFk esa%

(1) lnSo Le`fr ?kVd vUrfoZ"V gksrk gS

(2) Le`fr ?kVd dHkh Hkh vUrfoZ"V ugha gksrk gS

(3) Le`fr?kVd ;nk&dnk vUrfoZ"V gksrk gS

(4) dsoy Le`fr ?kVd vUrfoZ"V gksrk gS

107. The logic expression Y=Σm (0,3,6,7,10,12,15) is equivalent to: (1) Y=∏ M (0,3,6,7,10,12,15) (2) Y=∏ M (1,2,4,5,8,9,11,13,14) (3) Y=Σ m (1,2,4,5,8,9,11,13,14) (4) Y=Σ m (0,3,10,12)

107. rdZ O;atd Y=Σm (0,3,6,7,10,12,15) fdlds cjkcj gS\

(1) Y=∏ M (0,3,6,7,10,12,15) (2) Y=∏ M (1,2,4,5,8,9,11,13,14) (3) Y=Σ m (1,2,4,5,8,9,11,13,14) (4) Y=Σ m (0,3,10,12)

108. Which of the following logic circuits takes data from a single source and distribute it to one of the several output lines? (1) Multiplexers (2) Data selector (3) Demultiplexer (4) Encoder

108. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rdZ ifjiFk ,dy lzksr ls vk¡dM+s ysrk gS

vkSj vusd vkmViqV ykbuksa esa ls fdlh ,d esa forfjr dj nsrk gS\

(1) cgq ladsrd

(2) vk¡dM+k ofj= ¼Selector½ (3) focgq ladsrd

(4) dksfM=

109. Which of the following logic has the fan–out of more than 50? (1) TTL (2) 4–ns ECL (3) RTL (4) CMOS

109. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl rdZ esa 50 ls vf/kd fuxZekad ¼QSu&vkmV½

gSa\

(1) TTL (2) 4–ns ECL (3) RTL (4) CMOS

110. How many 7490 are to be cascaded to count up to 999? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

110. 999 rd fxurh djus ds fy, fdrus 7490 dks lksikfur ¼dSLdsfMM½ fd;k tk,xk\

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

111. In sign magnitude numbers: (1) The leading bit stands for the sign (2) The leading bit is part of the magnitude. (3) The leading bit is always zero. (4) The leading bit is always one.

111. fpºu ifjek.k la[;kvksa esa%

(1) fpºuksa ds fy, vxzx ¼Leading½ fcV eku gksrh gS (2) vxzx fcV ifjek.k dk Hkkx gS

(3) vxzx fcV lnSo 'kwU; gksrh gS

(4) vxzx fcV lnSo 1 gksrh gS



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112. A 7477 decoder drives: (1) Seven segment display (2) Nixie tube (3) Relays (4) Diode matrix

112. 7477 fodksMd Mªkbo (1) lkr [kaMh; çn'kZ

(2) fufDl ¼Nixie½ V;wc (3) fjys

(4) Mk;ksM eSfVªDl ¼vkO;wg½

113. Which of the following flip–flops (FF) do not have race problem? (1) T–FF (2) D–FF (3) JK–FF (4) Master–Slave FF

113. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl f¶yi&¶ykWi esa jsl leL;k ugha gksrh\

(1) T–FF (2) D–FF (3) JK–FF (4) ekLVj&Lyso FF

114. In a broadside array, the maximum radiation occurs: (1) Along the array (2) Perpendicular to the array (3) At 45° to the array (4) None of these

114. ik'oZfHkeq[kh O;wg esa vf/kdre fofdj.k gksrk gS%

(1) O;wg ds lkFk&lkFk

(2) O;wg ds yEcor

(3) O;wg ds 45° ij (4) mi;qZä dksbZ ugha

115. A higher value of standing wave ratio indicates: (1) Least mismatch between line and load (2) Greater mismatch between line and load (3) Number of noded is equal to the number of antinodes (4) None of the above

115. vçxkeh rjax vuqikr dk mPp eku D;k lwfpr djrk gS\

(1) js[kk vkSj Hkkj ds chp U;wure csesy

(2) js[kk vkSj Hkkj ds chp Hkkjh csesy

(3) fuLianksa ¼uksMksa½ dh la[;k çLianksa ¼,sfUVukMksa½ ds cjkcj gS


116. A PIN diode is: (1) Suitable for use as a microwave switch (2) Often used as a microwave detector (3) A semiconductor point contact diode (4) A microwave mixer diode

116. fiu ¼PIN½ Mk;ksM

(1) lwe rjax fLop ds :i esa ç;ksx djus ds fy, mi;qä gS

(2) çk;% lwerjax lalwpd ds :i esa ç;qä gksrk gS

(3) ,d v/kZpkyd fcUnq laLi'kZ Mk;ksM gS

(4) ,d lwe rjax feJd Mk;ksM gS

117. Choke flange coupling has the advantage that it: (1) Increases the bandwidth of the system (2) Compensate for discontinuities at the joint (3) Is insensitive to frequencies (4) Helps in the alignment of the wave-guide

117. pksd ¶ySat ¼LQkj½ ;qXeu dks ,d ykHk gS fd ;g% (1) ra= dk cSaM&foLrkj c<+krk gS

(2) laf/k ij vlkarO;ksa ¼discontinuities½ dh kfriwfrZ ¼çfrdkj½

djrk gS

(3) vko`fÙk;ksa ds fy, vlaosfnr gS

(4) rjax iFkdksa ds lq;kstu ¼alignment½ esa enn djrk gS

118. The most serious drawback of IMPATT diode is its: (1) Low efficiency (2) High noise (3) Low power handling capacity (4) Inability to provide pulsed operation

118. bEiSV ¼IMPATT½ Mk;ksM dh çeq[k egRoiw.kZ deh ;g gS fd bldh% (1) bldh fuEu ¼vYi½ nkrk gS

(2) bldk jo vf/kd gS

(3) de 'kfä dks çgLru ¼handling½ djus dh kerk gS (4) LifUnr çpkyu ¼lafØ;k½ dks çnku djus dh vkerk gS

119. A parallel R,L,C circuit with R = 15 Ω, L = 30 m H and C = 83.3 µF is excited by a voltage source v(t) = 120 √2 cos (500 t + 90°). The magnitude of the current flowing out of the source is: (1) 10 A (2) 10√2 A (3) 20 A (4) None of these

119. R = 15 Ω, L = 30 m H rFkk C = 83.3 µF lfgr ,d lekukUrj R. L. C. ifjiFk oksYVrk lzksr v(t) = 120 √2 cos (500 t + 90°). kjk mÙksftr gksrk gSA rks lzksr ls çokfgr /kkjk dk ifjek.k D;k gS%

(1) 10 A (2) 10√2 A (3) 20 A (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

120. Which of the following represents linear system: (1) Y = mX + C (2) Y = mX (3) Y = C (4) None of these

120. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu jSf[kd rU= dk çfrfuf/kRo djrk gS%

(1) Y = mX + C (2) Y = mX (3) Y = C (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha



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egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zoskd dks lwfpr djsa

vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj-

mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk

fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k

tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. dk&fujhkd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrkkj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrkkj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijhkk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks

vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy

Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijhkk dk esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh

vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijhkk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zoskd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk

dks ijhkk dk ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax

ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= fHkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk

tk;sxkA dPps dk;Z ds fy,

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