23
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TEST BOOKLET Days 61 to 64 (100 Questions SET) Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode clearly the test book series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the OMR Answer sheet. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to ll in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator Only the Answer Sheet, You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong answers THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION UPSC PRELIMS 2019 REVISION TESTS INSIGHTSIAS

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Page 1: DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO ... · regarding Sabarimala Temple 1. The temple complex is located inside Periyar Tiger Reserve. 2. The devotees usually follow

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

Days 61 to 64 (100 Questions SET)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR

ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode clearly the test book series A, B, C

or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the

OMR Answer sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the

Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.

DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four

responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you

feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any

case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator Only the Answer Sheet, You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for Wrong answers

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be

deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that

question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION

UPSC PRELIMS 2019 REVISION TESTS

INSIGHTSIAS

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www.insightsactivelearn.com Insights IAS

www.insightsonindia.com PRELIMS 2019

INSIGHTS IAS REVISION QUESTIONS FOR UPSC PRELIMS – 2019

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part

of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC Civil Services

Examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair

by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are

carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their

knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent

guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed

to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted

by UPSC.

These questions are based on this Revision Timetable which is

posted on our website (www.insightsonindia.com). Every year thousands

of candidates follow our revision timetable – which is made for SERIOUS

aspirants who would like to intensively revise everything that’s important

before the exam.

Those who would like to take up more tests for even better

preparation, can enroll to InsightsIAS Prelims Mock Test Series – 2019.

Every year toppers solve our tests and sail through UPSC civil services

exam. Your support through purchase of our tests will help us provide

FREE content on our website seamlessly.

Wish you all the best!

Team InsightsIAS

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Questions – (Day 61)

1. Jayaprakash Narayan’s concept of Total

Revolution was aimed at

(a) Exposing the totalitarian nature of the

incumbent government

(b) Removing landlessness from rural areas

completely by Bhoodan and forced

acquisitions

(c) Bringing a change in the existing society

in tune with the ideals of the Sarvodaya

(d) Strengthening the local self-governing

institutions on Gandhian lines enabling

them to counter increasing

centralization in governance.

2. Who among the following was/were not

associated with Brahmo Samaj ?

1. Keshab Chandra Sen

2. Raja Rammohan Roy

3. Debendranath Tagore

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

3. Consider the following statements with

reference to leadership role played by

prominent personalities during the 1857

Revolt

1. Nana Saheb led the rebels in Kanpur

2. Kunwar Singh, the zamindar of

Jagdishpur, led the revolt in Barielly

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The partition of Bengal was annulled in

1911 by the British because

1. They wanted to curb revolutionary

terrorism

2. Muslim leaders had protested sharply

against a division of Bengal.

3. A divided Bengal was becoming

difficult to administer.

Choose the correct statements using the codes

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

5. The Swaraj Party was formed by members

of the Indian National Congress who

(a) Were unable to get elected to the

provincial legislative councils

(b) Opposed Gandhi's suspension of the

Non-cooperation movement in response

to the Chauri Chaura tragedy

(c) Did not approve of the rural reform

agenda of INC

(d) Were against Indian forces supporting

the British in the First World War

6. Gandhiji decided to launch “Individual

Satyagraha” due to dissatisfaction with

(a) Government of India Act, 1935 which

eroded autonomy of local bodies

(b) Religious intolerance in the countryside

(c) August offer made by the British during

the course of the Second World War

(d) State of untouchables in the country

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7. The Congress ministers resigned in the

seven provinces in 1939 because

(a) The Congress could not form

government in the remaining provinces.

(b) There were widespread communal

disturbances in the provinces

(c) To protest the government’s declaration

about India’s participation in the Second

World War without consulting Indian

people.

(d) Emergence of Leftist groups like

Forward Bloc, Congress Socialist Party,

and Communist Party threatened the

Congress

8. The Round Table Conference (1930–32)

was conducted based on a provision under

which of these acts ?

(a) Councils Act, 1892

(b) Government of India Act, 1919

(c) Councils Act, 1861

(d) Defence of India Act, 1905

9. The Rani Jhansi Regiment, the Women’s

Regiment of Azad Hind Fauj, was placed

under whose command ?

(a) Usha Mehta

(b) Anne Mascarene

(c) Aruna Asaf Ali

(d) Lakshmi Sehgal

10. Which one of the following animal was

not represented in the seals and terracotta art

of the Harappan culture ?

(a) Cow

(b) Elephant

(c) Rhinoceros

(d) Tiger

11. Who among the following presided over

the Buddhist Council held during the reign of

Kanishka at Kashmir ?

(a) Parsva

(b) Nagarjuna

(c) Sudraka

(d) Vasumitra

12. Consider the following organisations

1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for

Research and Exploration

2. Heavy Water Board

3. Indian Rare Earths Limited

4. Uranium Corporation of India

Which of these is/are under the Department

of Atomic Energy ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. Consider the following statements about

the minorities India:

1. The Government of India has notified

only five communities, namely,

Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists

and Zoroastrians as Minorities

2. The Union Government set up the

National Commission for Minorities

(NCM) under the National

Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.

3. Government of India constituted

Sachar Committee to prepare a report

on the social, economic and

educational status of the Muslim

community of India.

4. The Constitution of India recognizes

and protects religious and linguistic

minorities

Which of these statements are correct ?

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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14. London branch of the All ­India Muslim

League was established in 1908 under the

presidency of

(a) Agha Khan

(b) Ameer Ali

(c) Liaquat Ali Khan

(d) M.A. Jinnah

15. Consider the following statements

1. Bandicoot is India’s first manhole

cleaning robot is an exoskeleton robot

which cleans manholes without the

need for humans to enter the pit.

2. ICESat-2 is NASA’s satellite mission

for measuring ice sheet elevation and

sea ice thickness.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements

regarding Green Agriculture project

1. The project aims to transform

agricultural production to generate

global environmental benefits by

addressing biodiversity conservation,

land degradation etc.,

2. It is being funded by the Global

Environment Facility.

3. It is jointly implemented by the

ministry of agriculture and farmer

welfare and ministry of environment,

forest and climate change

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. Consider the following statements

1. Mt Everest Friendship Exercise is a

military exercise between Nepal and

India.

2. Dollex 30 is an index which translates

the rupee returns on the BSE Sensex

basket into dollars based on prevailing

exchange rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

18. Consider the following pairs

List I List II

1. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary

- Gujarat

2. Bhandavgarh National Park

- Madhya Pradesh

3. Raiganj Wildlife Sanctuary

- West Bengal

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

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19. Consider the following statements

regarding Payments Council of India

1. It was formed under the aegis of

IAMAI in the year 2013 catering to the

needs of the digital payment industry.

2. The Council was formed inter-alia for

the purposes of representing the

various regulated non-banking

payment industry players, to address

and help resolve various industry level

issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. Consider the following statements

regarding ‘Group – 4’ (G4)

1. G4 nations are group of four countries

which support each other’s bids for

permanent seats on the United

Nations Security Council.

2. G4 nations includes Brazil, India,

South Africa and Japan

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. Consider the following statements

regarding Sabarimala Temple

1. The temple complex is located inside

Periyar Tiger Reserve.

2. The devotees usually follow a Vratham

(41-day austerity period) prior to the

pilgrimage.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Green Room Meetings, sometime seen in

the news, is related to the affairs of

(a) G-20

(b) UNSC

(c) WTO

(d) World Economic Affairs

23. Consider the following statements about

Agmark Certification Scheme.

1. Directorate of Marketing & Inspection

(DMI) is implementing the scheme.

2. The Scheme is mandatory for all

agricultural commodities.

3. Consumers not satisfied with the

quality of agricultural produce

certified under Agmark, can make a

complaint to the Consumer Disputes

Redressal Commission.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 3

b) 1 only

c) 1, 2

d) 2, 3

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24. Consider the following statements

1. Serious Fraud Investigation Office

(SFIO) falls under the jurisdiction of

the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. The Central Bureau of Investigation

(CBI) is the premier investigating

agency under the jurisdiction of the

Ministry of Home Affairs

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Consider the following statements

regarding Legal Entity Identifier

1. The Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) is a

20-character, alpha-numeric code

based on the ISO 17442 standard

developed by the International

Organization for Standardization

(ISO).

2. LEI improves the quality and accuracy

of financial data systems for better

risk management.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Day 62)

26. Which among the following is is/are

correct with respect to the Cabinet Mission

plan, 1946 ?

1. It suggested the setting up of an

interim government.

2. It rejected the demand of Pakistan

and recommended union of India.

3. It recognized Indian right to cede

from Commonwealth.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 1, and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

27. Bengalee, Hitabadi, and Sanjibani were:

(a) Revolutionary groups emerged during

‘Quit India’ movement

(b) Books written by Dadabhai Naoroji

(c) Newspapers and journals of nationalist

leaders

(d) Parallel governments formed during

‘Quit India’ movement

28. With reference to Ahmedabad Mill strike,

consider the following statements:

1. It was related to a dispute between the

workers and the mill owners

regarding wages and bonus related

issues of labors.

2. It was the first instance of a hunger-

strike by Gandhiji in India.

3. It led to the formation of Textile

Labour Association.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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29. Which of the following initiatives

was/were undertaken by Gandhiji during his

stay in South Africa ?

1. Campaign against restriction on

Indian migration.

2. Campaign against poll tax and

invalidation of Indian marriages.

3. Setting up Natal Indian Congress.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

30. With reference to participation of women

from the north-eastern part of India in

Freedom Struggle, consider the following

statements

1. Kanaklata Baruah was a leader in

Assam during the Quit India

Movement.

2. Rani Gaidinliu demanded resurgence

of Zeliangrong religion and Naga self-

rule.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

31. The Non-alignment movement was

formed in the backdrop of

1. Cold war rivalry between US and

USSR

2. Decolonization of African nations

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. The title “Socrates of South Asia” is often

attributed to

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Gopalkrishna Gokhale

(c) Pandit Nehru

(d) Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy

33. In the Modern History of India, Aruna

Asif Ali was associated with which of the

following ?

1. Quit India Movement

2. Salt Satyagraha

3. National Federation of Indian Women

Select the correct answer using the codes

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. With reference to pre-independent

history of India, what was Komagata Maru ?

(a) It was an Indian steamship that sailed to

Japan carrying Muslim passengers.

(b) It was a Japanese steamship that sailed

to Canada carrying immigrants from

Punjab.

(c) It was a Canadian steamship that sailed

to Japan carrying Indian labourers.

(d) It was an Indian steamship that sailed to

Canada carrying people from Punjab.

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35. With reference to Sister Nivedita,

consider the following statements.

1. She became the first Western woman

to be received into an Indian monastic

order.

2. She served as the President of

Ramakrishna Mission.

3. She termed the teachings of Buddhists

as Anti-Vedic and regressive.

Select the correct answer using the codes

below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

36. Which one of the following statements is

not correct ?

(a) The statue of Gomateshvara at

Sravanabelagola represents the last

Tirthankara of Jains

(b) India’s largest Buddhist monastery is in

Arunachal Pradesh

(c) The Khajuraho temples were built under

Chandela Kings

(d) The Hoyasalesvara temple is dedicated to Siva

37. World Development Report is an annual

publication of

(a) United Nations Development

Programme

(b) International Bank of Reconstruction

and Development

(c) World Trade Organisation

(d) International Monetary Fund

38. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment

deals with the

(a) Continuation of reservation for

backward classes in government

employment.

(b) Free and compulsory education for all

children between the age of 6 and 14

years

(c) Reservation of 30 percent posts for

women in government recruitments

(d) Allocation of a greater number of

parliamentary seats

39. During the Indian freedom struggle, the

Khudai Khidmatgars, also known as Red

Shirts are

(a) series of violent movements of Pashtun

tribes in Indian sub-continent.

(b) the adoption of terrorist tactics and

methods for terrorizing and finally

ousting the colonial rulers

(c) the adoption of communist

revolutionary Ideology for political and

social reform

(d) Pashtun non-violent movement against

the British Empire by the Pashtun

people of the North-West Frontier

Province

40. Shinkansen Technology, recently seen in

the news, is related to

(a) Genetic Engineering

(b) Cyber Physical System

(c) Artificial Intelligence

(d) Railways

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41. Consider the following statements

1. Cyclone-30 is an initiative by Ministry

of Earth Science for early detection of

cyclone in Indian Ocean.

2. Wind Augmentation Purifying Unit is

an air pollution control device

developed by Central Pollution

control board.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Consider the following statements

regarding SATAT initiative

1. It is launched by ministry of

Petroleum & Natural Gas to promote

compressed bio-gas as an alternative

and green transport fuel.

2. Compressed Bio-Gas networks can be

integrated with city gas distribution

(CGD) networks to boost supplies to

domestic and retail users in existing

and upcoming markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. Consider the following statements

regarding Economic Advisory Council

1. It is an independent body which

provides advice on economic issues to

the government, specifically to the

Finance Minister.

2. It is a non-statutory and non-

permanent body.

3. It can advise government on suo-motu

basis and advice is binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

44. Which of the following are the functions

of Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

1. To decide all cases of disagreement

relating to appointments between the

Department or Ministry concerned

and the Union Public Service

Commission.

2. To decide cases relating to lateral shift

of officers serving on Central

deputation.

3. To decide cases relating to inter-cadre

deputation or transfer of All India

Services Officers

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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45. Consider the following statements

regarding Global Polio Eradication Initiative

1. The Global Polio Eradication

Initiative is a public-private

partnership led by national

governments.

2. The World Health Organization,

Rotary International, the United

Nations Children’s Fund and the Bill

& Melinda Gates Foundation are its

partners.

3. Its goal is to eradicate polio worldwide

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

46. Consider the following statements

regarding Environment Pollution Control

Authority (EPCA)

1. EPCA is Supreme Court mandated

body tasked with taking various

measures to tackle air pollution in the

National Capital Region (NCR).

2. It enforces graded response action

plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the

pollution levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Consider the following statements

regarding International Civil Aviation

Organization

1. It is a non-governmental

organisation.

2. It codifies the principles and

techniques of international air

navigation and fosters the planning

and development of international air

transport to ensure safe and orderly

growth

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements

1. Uniting for Consensus developed in

the 1990s in opposition to the possible

expansion of permanent seats in the

United Nations Security Council.

2. It was formed under the leadership of

Italy and Pakistan is a member of it.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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49. Consider the following pairs

List I List II

1. Bhashan Char - Bangladesh

2. Yazidis - Yemen

3. Tashkent - Kazakhstan

Which of the pairs given above is/are

matched correctly ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) None

50. Consider the following statements

regarding Global Solar Atlas

1. It is launched by World Bank group

2. The primary aim of this is to provide

quick and easy access to solar resource

data globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

(Day 63)

51. Consider the following statements

regarding Hyper Loop Technology

1. It is a transportation system where a

pod-like vehicle is propelled through a

near vacuum tube connecting cities at

speeds matching that of an aircraft.

2. India’s first Hyperloop route will be

coming up in Maharashtra.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Consider the following statements

regarding NASA Balloon Mission

1. This mission includes launching of a

huge balloon up to 50 miles above the

earth surface.

2. The aim of the mission is to analyze

the prospects of providing digital

service in the remote areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. Consider the following statements

regarding Thermal Battery Technology

1. Thermal batteries operate on thermal

energy which is the energy created by

temperature differences.

2. The thermal batteries can be used in

electric vehicles.

3. The world’s first-ever thermal battery

plant is inaugurated in Andhra

Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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54. Consider the following statements

regarding ISRO’s Young Scientist Programme

1. It primarily aims to imparting basic

knowledge on Space Technology,

Space Science and Space Applications

to the younger ones with the intent of

arousing their interest in the emerging

areas of Space activities.

2. It is proposed to select 3 students each

from each State/ Union Territory to

participate in this programme

covering CBSE, ICSE and State

syllabus.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

55. Consider the following statements

regarding GSAT -7A

1. GSAT-7Ais a communication satellite

designed specifically for military

operations.

2. GSAT-7A is similar to Indian navy’s

GSAT-7 and the Indian Air Force will

be the sole operator of the satellite.

3. It is the 50th Indian communication

satellite.

Which of the above statements given above

is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

56. Consider the following statements about

Chang’e-4 mission.

1. It is the first probe ever to explore the

dark side of the Moon.

2. The mission in China’s first lunar

mission.

3. The mission aims to deliver samples of

Moon rock and soil to Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Consider the following statements

regarding InSight Mission of NASA.

1. InSight mission is a robotic lander

designed to study the deep interior of

the planet Mars.

2. It seeks to gather information about

the presence of life on Mars.

3. This is the first time a robotic lander

dug this deep into the martian crust.

Which of the above statements given above

is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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58. In which of the following areas Block

Chain Technology has applications ?

1. Insurance

2. Internet of Things

3. Supply Chain Management

4. Cross border Payments

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

59. Zearalenone, often seen in news, is

related to

(a) Viral infection which typically spread by

mosquitoes.

(b) Newly identified population of

ultraviolet stars.

(c) A chronic neurodegenerative disease.

(d) A fungal toxin infesting cereals.

60. Consider the following statements about

Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT)

1. PCT gives patent protection for an

invention simultaneously in large

number of countries.

2. The application for patent protection

by a country must be filed by the

department responsible for

intellectual property rights relating to

patents.

3. PCT is administered by World Trade

Organisation (WTO).

Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

61. The waterfall Victoria is associated with

the river

(a) Amazon

(b) Missouri

(c) St Lawrence

(d) Zambezi

62. Consider the following statements

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of

the Parliament in India is sanctioned

under Article 108 of the Constitution

2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and

Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961

3. The second joint sitting was held on

1978, following rejection by the Rajya

Sabha of the Banking Service

Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977.

Which of these statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following statements

1. Bhutan has least population among

SAARC countries

2. Russia has observer status in SAARC.

3. Afghanistan is the second largest

country in terms of area in SAARC

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

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64. Among the following cities, which one is

nearest to the Tropic of Cancer ?

(a) Delhi

(b) Kolkata

(c) Jodhpur

(d) Nagpur

65. Which one of the following countries is

land locked ?

(a) Bolivia

(b) Peru

(c) Suriname

(d) Uruguay

66. Consider the following statements

regarding “India for Humanity” initiative

1. It is launched by External Affairs

Ministry to mark the 150th birth

anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.

2. It features a year-long series of

artificial limb fitment camps in a

number of countries spanning the

globe.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Consider the following statements

regarding the provisions of Protection of

Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

(POCSO)

1. It provides for the definition of sexual

abuse.

2. Police should contact Child Welfare

Committee (CWC) within 24 hours of

report of abuse.

3. It does not provide any period of

limitation for reporting the sexual

offence.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

68. World Economic Outlook is published by

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) OECD

(c) IMF

(d) G-20

69. Galo, Adi, Abor and Dufflas are the tribes

largely present in

(a) Assam

(b) Nagaland

(c) Mizoram

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

70. Consider the following pairs

List I List II

1. Mopin Festival - Tripura

2. Kharchi Puja - Arunachal Pradesh

3. Chapchar Kut - Mizoram

Which of the pairs is/are matched correctly ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

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71. Consider the following statements

1. The Like Minded-Group of

Developing Countries is a group of

developing countries who organize

themselves as a block negotiators in

international organizations such as

the United Nations and the World

Trade Organization.

2. BASIC are a bloc of four large newly

industrialized countries namely

Brazil, South Africa, India and China

formed by an agreement on 28

November 2009.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Recently, around 1000 petroglyphs has

been discovered making them one of the most

significant archaeological finds of recent past.

Where those particular petroglyphs are

located ?

(a) Burzahom

(b) Hampi

(c) Ratnagiri

(d) Ajmer

73. Which of the following agency release

House Price Index in India ?

(a) Housing and Urban Development

Corporation

(b) NITI Ayog

(c) Dewan Housing Finance Corporation

(d) Reserve Bank of India

74. Consider the following statements

regarding Hunar Haats

1. It provides a platform to artisans and

craftsmen to display their rich

heritage and skill.

2. Hunar Haats are organised by

Ministry of Culture.

3. National Minority Finance

Development Corporation provide

financial aid to the artisans and

craftsmen.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Consider the following statements

1. Kushmi scheme of Kerala provides

free sanitary napkins to school girls

across the state.

2. Dhola-Sadiya Bridge, the longest road

bridge of India is built on Lohit River.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

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(Day 64)

76. Consider the following statements

regarding CRISPR – CAS9 technology

1. It is a gene-editing technology that

can be used for the purpose of altering

genetic expression or changing the

genome of an organism.

2. The technology can be used for

targeting specific stretches of an

entire genetic code or editing the DNA

at particular locations.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

77. Recently, UNESCO has launched the

International Year of the Periodic Table. In

this context, consider the following

statements

1. Periodic table organizes all chemical

elements by the number of protons in

a given atom and other properties.

2. The International Union of Pure

Applied Chemistry is responsible for

maintaining the periodic table.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Consider the following statements

regarding Aditya-L1 Mission

1. It is the first Indian dedicated

scientific mission to study the Sun.

2. It will be launched into the Low Earth

Orbit by the launch vehicle PSLV-XL

with six payloads from Sriharikota.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

79. Consider the following statements

1. Project Dhoop is a unique initiative

launched by Ministry of Health and

Family Welfare to encourage schools

to shift their morning assembly to

around noon-time to ensure

maximum absorption of Vitamin D.

2. Vitamin D deficiency may cause

several problems including

Osteomalacia, Osteoporosis and

Rickets.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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80. Consider the following statements

1. Space commission of India is headed

by Prime Minister.

2. ISRO built India’s first satellite

Aryabhata was launched by an Indian-

made launch vehicle, SLV-3.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. In which of the following areas Nano

Technology has application ?

1. Food Safety Management

2. Fuel Cell

3. Sports

4. Electronics

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. Which of the following criteria a celestial

object must satisfy to term it as Planet ?

1. It needs to be in orbit around any

fully-fledged star.

2. It has cleared the neighborhood of

small objects around its orbit

3. It needs to have enough gravity to pull

itself into a spherical shape

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Consider the following statements about

Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs)

1. A FDC is a cocktail of two or more

active drug ingredients in a fixed ratio

of doses.

2. One of the main disadvantages of

FDCs is that they are not useful in the

treatment of infectious diseases like

HIV, malaria and tuberculosis.

3. In India FDCs are used very minimal

due to high cost of the drugs.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. Which of the following are the advantages

of Additive Manufacturing ?

1. Minimal wastage of raw material.

2. Easy production of complex designs

3. Low cost of labor.

4. Customization

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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85. ISRO had recently launched ‘South Asia

satellite’ with respect to this consider the

following statements

1. It is a geosynchronous

communication and meteorological

satellite.

2. It will be used by all the countries of

SAARC

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. With reference to ‘LED lamps’, which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. LEDs are extremely energy efficient

and consume very less power than

incandescent bulbs.

2. LED light bulbs release around 20%

heat energy, making them operate at

lower temperatures

3. LEDs have a longer lifetime, since

they don’t have a filament and are

solid.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. Which of the following nuclear reactors is

the Asia’s first research reactor ?

(a) Kamini

(b) CIRUS

(c) Apsara

(d) Dhruva

88. Which one of the following does not

border Panama ?

(a) Costa Rica

(b) Pacific Ocean

(c) Colombia

(d) Venezuela

89. Consider the following events

1. Fourth General election in India

2. Formation of Haryana State

3. Mysore named as Karnataka State

4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full

states

Which of the following is the correct

chronological order of the above ?

(a) 2-1-4-3

(b) 4-3-2-1

(c) 2-3-4-1

(d) 4-1-2-3

90. With reference to the ‘GSLV MKIII’

launch vehicle, consider the following

statements:

1. It is a three-stage heavy lift launch

vehicle developed by ISRO.

2. GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 ton

class of satellites into

Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit

(GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth

Orbit (LEO).

3. Crew module Atmospheric Re-entry

Experiment was carried out in this

flight.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

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91. Consider the following statements

regarding SPARC Scheme

1. It aims at improving the research

ecosystem of India’s higher

educational institutions.

2. It facilitates academic and research

collaborations between Indian

Institutions and the best institutions

in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither nor 2

92. Consider the following statements

regarding ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’

(ZBNF)

1. Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF)

is a farming practice that believes in

natural growth of crops without

adding any synthetic fertilizers and

pesticides or any other foreign

elements.

2. The word Zero Budget refers to the

zero net cost of production of all crops.

3. The father of ZBNF is MS

Swaminathan.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

93. Consider the following pairs

List I List II

1. Oorakam Hills - Tamil Nadu

2. Banni Grasslands - Assam

3. Sagar Island - West Bengal

Which of the pairs given above is/are

matched correctly ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Consider the following statements

regarding District Judge

1. The appointment, posting and

promotion of district judges in a state

are made by the state government in

consultation with the high court.

2. He should have been an advocate or a

pleader for seven years

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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95. Consider the following statements

1. Operation Chakravyuh is a strategy

where a dedicated set of officers

monitor the web, tracing the activities

of the youth who are in touch terror

operatives.

2. Global Counterterrorism Forum is an

informal, a-political, multilateral

counterterrorism (CT) platform that

has strengthened the international

architecture for addressing 21st

century terrorism.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

96. With reference to United Nations

Conference on Trade and Development

(UNCTAD), consider the following

statements

1. UNCTAD is a permanent

intergovernmental body established

by the United Nations General

Assembly in 1964.

2. It reports to the UN General Assembly

and the Economic and Social Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. With reference to the Higher Education

Finance Agency (HEFA), consider the

following statements

1. HEFA is a joint venture of Ministry of

HRD, GOI and Canara Bank with an

agreed equity participation in the

ratio of 60% and 40% respectively.

2. HEFA is registered under Section 8

under the Companies Act, 2013 as a

Union Government company and as

Non–deposit taking NBFC with RBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

98. Consider the following statements

1. The International Plant Protection

Convention (IPPC) aims prevent and

to control the introduction and spread

of pests of plants and plant products

of both cultivated and natural flora.

2. The Global Forest Resources

Assessment (FRA) reports on the

status and trends of the world’s forest

resources is published by FAO for

every 10 years

3. Global Alliance for Climate Smart

Agriculture (GACSA) is an inclusive,

voluntary and action- oriented multi-

stakeholder platform initiated by FAO

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

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99. Consider the following statements

1. Bhadawari, Surti and Mehsana are

indigenous cow breeds in Northern

parts of India.

2. India has second largest poultry

market in the world

3. A1 milk is largely produced by

indigenous cow breeds and highly

nutritious in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 only

100. Global Skills Park, first of its kind in

India, would be established in

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Andhra Pradesh

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INSIGHTSIAS - All India Open Mock for Prelims 2019!

InsightsIAS will conduct All India FREE Open Mock Test for Prelims – 2019 on 19 May 2019. The portal will be open till 30 May 2019 and on the same day we will announce All India Rank list.

We have carefully designed a question paper keeping in mind UPSC standard and also we are taking this opportunity to cover most important topics in the test. By giving this test you will be able to assess both your preparedness and also get sneak peek into most important topics that must be covered during last minute of your preparation.

As we expect large number of students to register and give this test, you will get a realistic idea about level of your preparation.

ONLINE REGISTRATIONS LINK : https://allindiatest.insightsactivelearn.com/subscribe

Offline Open Mock will be conducted Only at our Bangalore centre – anyways we don’t have centre anywhere else!

OFFLINE REGISTRATIONS LINK : https://offlineallindia.insightsactivelearn.com/

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