Exam Code: 156-215.13 Exam Name: Check Point Certified ... · PDF fileCheckPoint.Passguide.156-215.13.v2014-11-08.by.George.359q Number : ... You installed Security Management Server

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CheckPoint.Passguide.156-215.13.v2014-11-08.by.George.359q

Number: 156-215.13Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 40.5


Exam Code: 156-215.13

Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA


Installation

QUESTION 1The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one SecurePlatform server working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows2008 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Distributed InstallationB. Stand-Alone InstallationC. Hybrid InstallationD. Unsupported configuration

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 2The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server as the SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform asboth Security Management Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Stand-Alone InstallationB. Distributed InstallationC. Unsupported configurationD. Hybrid Installation

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 7 workstation as the SmartConsole, one GAiA device working as SecurityManagement Server, and a third server running SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):


A. Unsupported configurationB. Stand-Alone InstallationC. Hybrid InstallationD. Distributed Installation



QUESTION 4The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server as SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a secondserver running SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Stand-Alone Installation.B. Distributed Installation.C. Hybrid Installation.D. Unsupported configuration.

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A. SecureClientB. Security GatewayC. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.D. SmartConsole

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 6Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R76 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he doesnot include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?


A. Three machinesB. One machineC. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposesD. Two machines



QUESTION 7Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?

A. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.B. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process.

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 8You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for this particular server. How many can you create duringinstallation?

A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management ServerB. OneC. As many as you wantD. Only one with full access and one with read-only access



QUESTION 9During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time verification?

A. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboardB. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfigC. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the GatewayD. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUI



QUESTION 10How can you recreate the Security Administrator account, which was created during initial Management Server installation on SecurePlatform?


A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.B. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.C. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be

prompted to create a new account.D. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password.



QUESTION 11When Jon first installed his new security system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his Security Gateway. How could Jon configure DNS servers now that hisSecurity Gateway is in production?

A. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces > Domain Name Servers.B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.C. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration > Domain Name Servers.D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.



QUESTION 12The London Security Gateway Administrator has just installed the Security Gateway and Management Server. He has not changed any default settings. As he triesto configure the Gateway, he is unable to connect. Which troubleshooting suggestion will NOT help him?

A. Check if some intermediate network device has a wrong routing table entry, VLAN assignment, duplex-mismatch, or trunk issue.B. Verify that the Rule Base explicitly allows management connections.C. Test the IP address assignment and routing settings of the Security Management Server, Gateway, and console client.D. Verify the SIC initialization.

Correct Answer: B


Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 13You need to completely reboot the Operating System after making which of the following changes on the Security Gateway? (i.e. the command cprestart is notsufficient.)

1. Adding a hot-swappable NIC to the Operating System for the first time.


2. Uninstalling the R75 Power/UTM package.

3. Installing the R75 Power/UTM package.

4. Re-establishing SIC to the Security Management Server.

5. Doubling the maximum number of connections accepted by the Security Gateway.

A. 2, 3 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 3, 4, and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5



QUESTION 14


The Security Gateway is installed on SecurePlatform R76 The default port for the Web User Interface is ____________.

A. TCP 443B. TCP 4433C. TCP 18211D. TCP 257


Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:


SIC

QUESTION 1Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key onthe Gateway's side with the command cpconfig and put in the same activation key in the Gateway's object on the Security Management Server. Unfortunately, SICcannot be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?

A. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig.B. The installed policy blocks the communication.C. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated.D. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.



QUESTION 2You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

.


In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SICActivation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of aworking connection, you receive this error message:


What is the reason for this behavior?

A. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.B. The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.C. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup > Initialize).D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.



QUESTION 3John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R76 Security Management Server and a new R76 Gateway. He now wants to establish SICbetween them. After entering the activation key, he gets the following message in SmartDashboard -

"Trust established"

SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won't install and interface fetching does not work. What might be a reason for this?

A. It always works when the trust is establishedB. This must be a human error.C. SIC does not function over the network.D. The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.



QUESTION 4The SIC certificate is stored in the directory _______________.


A. $CPDIR/confB. $FWDIR/databaseC. $CPDIR/registryD. $FWDIR/conf



QUESTION 5

You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway. After the SIC reset operation is complete, the policy that will be installed is the:

A. Default filter.B. Last policy that was installed.C. Standard policy.D. Initial policy.



QUESTION 6Chris has lost SIC communication with his Security Gateway and he needs to re-establish SIC.



What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?

A. 3, 1, 4, 2B. 2, 3, 1, 4C. 5, 1, 2, 4D. 5, 1, 4, 2

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 7Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?

A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.




QUESTION 8Secure Internal Communications (SIC) is completely NAT-tolerant because it is based on:

A. SIC names.B. MAC addresses.C. IP addresses.D. SIC is not NAT-tolerant.



QUESTION 9You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the SecurityGateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushingSIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5



QUESTION 10How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security Management Server and Security Gateway?

A. From the Security Management Server's command line, type fw putkey -p <shared key> <IP Address of Security Gateway>.


B. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Security Management Server Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). Then retype the activation key on theSecurity Gateway from SmartDashboard.

C. Use SmartUpdate to retype the Security Gateway activation key. This will automatically sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.D. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway

object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC).



QUESTION 11Over the weekend, an Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new R76 Security Gateway using GAiA. You want to confirm communicationbetween the Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Security Policy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy?

A. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the new Security Gateway.B. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on both the

Security Gateway and the Management Server.C. You first need to initialize SIC in SmartUpdate.D. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on the

Security Management Server.




Smart Dashboard

QUESTION 1Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?

A. Security GatewayB. Management ServerC. Policy ServerD. SmartLSM



QUESTION 2You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software levelof each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost- effective way to upgrade yourGateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdateB. SmartView Tracker and SmartView MonitorC. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdateD. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker



QUESTION 3When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?

A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint fileB. User Name, Password, Management Server IP


C. Password, Management Server IPD. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP



QUESTION 4An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R76 Security Gateway over the weekend. He e-mailed you the SIC activation key.You want to confirm communication between the Security Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Policy. What might prevent you from installing thePolicy?

A. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on theSecurity Management Server.

B. You first need to create a new Gateway object in SmartDashboard, establish SIC via the Communication button, and define the Gateway's topology.C. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a policy install through it to the remote new Security Gateway appliance. Resolve by running the

command fw unloadlocal on the local Security Gateway.D. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the R75 Security Gateway appliance in order to remove the restrictive default policy.



QUESTION 5Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources' servers should have its own Policy Package.These rules must be installed on this machine and not on the Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?

A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.B. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on

Target.C. When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after


selecting Policy > Install on Target.D. In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.



QUESTION 6Review the rules. Assume domain UDP is enabled in the impled rules.

What happens when a user from the internal network tries to browse to the internet using HTTP? The user:

A. is prompted three times before connecting to the Internet successfully.B. can connect to the Internet successfully after being authenticated.C. can go to the Internet, without being prompted for authentication.D. can go to the Internet after Telnetting to the client authentication daemon port 259.



QUESTION 7Which rule is responsible for the installation failure?


A. Rule 3B. Rule 4C. Rule 5D. Rule 6








QUESTION 9Where is the fingerprint generated, based on the output display?



A. SmartUpdateB. Security Management ServerC. SmartConsoleD. SmartDashboard




QUESTION 10What happens if you select Web Server in the dialog box?



A. An implied rule will be added allowing HTTP request from and to the host.B. Anti-virus settings will be applied to the host.C. An implied rule will be added allowing HTTP requests to the host.D. Web Intelligence will be applied to the host.



QUESTION 11When configuring the Check Point Gateway network interfaces, you can define the direction as

Internal or External.


What does the option Interface leads to DMZ mean?

A. Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating from this interface.


B. Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External.C. It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content ControlD. Select this option to automatically configure Anti-Spoofing to this net.



QUESTION 12What happens when you open the Gateway object window Trusted Communication and press and confirm Reset?

A. The Gateway certificate will be revoked on the Security Managment Server only.B. The Gateway certificate will be revoked on the Gateway only.C. Sic will be reset on the Gateway only.D. The Gateway certificate will be revoked on the Security Management Server and SIC will be reset on the Gateway.



QUESTION 13As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?

A. Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4.B. Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4.C. Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic.D. Nothing at all




QUESTION 14You review this Security Policy because Rule 4 is inhibited.

Which Rule is responsible?

A. Rule 1B. Rule 2C. Rule 3D. No rule inhibits Rule 4.




QUESTION 15Reviewing the Rule Base,

you see that ________ is responsible for the installation failure.





QUESTION 16Select the TRUE statements about the Rule Base shown?



1) HTTP traffic from webrome to websingapore will be encrypted.

2) HTTP traffic from websingapore to webrome will be encrypted.

3) HTTP traffic from webrome to websingapore will be authenticated.

4) HTTP traffic from websingapore to webrome will be blocked.

A. 1, 2, and 3B. 2 and 3C. 3 and 4D. 3 only



QUESTION 17In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs. What can you do to keep old log files, when free space fallsbelow 45 MB?

A. Do nothing. The Security Management Server automatically copies old logs to a backup server before purging.B. Use the command fwm logexport to export the old log files to another location.C. Configure a script to run fw logswitch and SCP the output file to a separate file server.D. Do nothing. Old logs are deleted, until free space is restored.



QUESTION 18


Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from _____________.

A. The ICA management toolB. SmartUpdateC. sysconfigD. SmartDashboard



QUESTION 19A marketing firm's networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking teamasks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check theseobjects and rules?

A. SmartView TrackerB. SmartView MonitorC. SmartDashboardD. SmartView Status



QUESTION 20Your company is running Security Management Server R76 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do youadd a new administrator account?

A. Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose AdministratorsB. Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New AdministratorC. Using the Web console on SecurePlatform under Product configuration, select AdministratorsD. Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig




QUESTION 21How does the button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page retrieve the address?

A. Route TableB. Address resolution (ARP, RARP)C. Name resolution (hosts file, DNS, cache)D. SNMP Get




Policy/Rule

QUESTION 1In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy > Global Properties > Firewall tab. In order for theSecurity Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the SecurityManagement Server on port ______.

A. 257B. 256C. 259D. 900



QUESTION 2A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?

A. Objects_5_0.CB. fwauth.NDBC. Rule Bases_5_0.fwsD. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate



QUESTION 3You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following would youchoose to do?


A. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.C. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.D. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.



QUESTION 4Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?

A. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.B. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.C. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.D. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.



QUESTION 5Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources' servers should have a unique Policy Package.These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?

A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after

selecting Policy > Install.C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule.D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 6A ___________ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.

A. CleanupB. StealthC. RejectD. IPS



Explanation:

QUESTION 7In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties> FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate tothe Security Gateway on port __________.

A. 259B. 256C. 80D. 900



QUESTION 8


To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP orSSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this?


A. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible.B. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. "HTTP_SSH") and define a

clause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Booleanoperator AND.

D. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action andselect Accept here.



QUESTION 9

What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?

A. Reset all connectionsB. Re-match connectionsC. Keep all connectionsD. Keep data connections




QUESTION 10What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

A. To permit implied rules.B. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted.C. To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway.D. To permit management traffic.



QUESTION 11Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?

A. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.B. Limit grouping to rules regarding specific access.C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.D. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule.



QUESTION 12Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?

A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rulesB. Grouping rules by date of creationC. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule


D. Grouping functionally related rules together




A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule BaseB. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rulesC. Grouping rules by date of creationD. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules




A. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rulesB. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup RuleC. Placing more restrictive rules before more permissive rulesD. Grouping authentication rules with QOS rules




QUESTION 15You would use the Hide Rule feature to:

A. View only a few rules without the distraction of others.B. Hide rules from read-only administrators.C. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack.D. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.



QUESTION 16You are a Security Administrator using one Security Management Server managing three different firewalls. One firewall does NOT show up in the dialog box whenattempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is a possible cause?

A. The firewall has failed to sync with the Security Management Server for 60 minutes.B. The firewall object has been created but SIC has not yet been established.C. The firewall is not listed in the Policy Installation Targets screen for this policy package.D. The license for this specific firewall has expired.



QUESTION 17You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a secondGateway.



What is TRUE about the new package's NAT rules?

A. NAT rules will be empty in the new package.B. Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.C. Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package.D. Only rule 1 will appear in the new package.




QUESTION 18Charles requests a Website while using a computer not in the net_singapore network.



What is TRUE about his location restriction?

A. As location restrictions add up, he would be allowed from net_singapore and net_sydney.B. It depends on how the User Auth object is configured; whether User Properties or Source Restriction takes precedence.C. Source setting in User Properties always takes precedence.D. Source setting in Source column always takes precedence.



QUESTION 19In the Rule Base displayed, user authentication in Rule 4 is configured as fully automatic.


Eric is a member of the LDAP group, MSD_Group. What happens when Eric tries to connect to a server on the Internet?

A. Eric will be blocked because LDAP is not allowed in the Rule Base.B. Eric will be authenticated and get access to the requested server.C. Eric will be dropped by the Stealth Rule.D. None of these things will happen.



QUESTION 20Which rule position in the Rule Base should hold the Cleanup Rule? Why?


A. Last. It explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic.B. First. It explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.C. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.D. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.



QUESTION 21The ____________ and ____________ rules are the two basic rules which should be used by all Security Administrators.

A. Cleanup; StealthB. Administrator Access; StealthC. Cleanup; Administrator AccessD. Network Traffic; Stealth



QUESTION 22When you change an implicit rule's order from Last to First in Global Properties, how do you make the change take effect?

A. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway.B. Select Install Database from the Policy menu.C. Reinstall the Security Policy.D. Select Save from the File menu.

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 23When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?

A. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and selectDisable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.

B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).C. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules. Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).D. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.



Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION 24A Cleanup rule.

A. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.B. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.C. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.D. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.




QUESTION 25Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?

A. You create them in SmartDashboard.B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.C. Changes to the Security Gateway's default settings do not affect implicit rules.D. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.



QUESTION 26You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the

Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?

A. After Stealth RuleB. FirstC. Before LastD. Last



QUESTION 27All of the following are Security Gateway control connections defined by default implied rules, EXCEPT:

A. Exclusion of specific services for reporting purposes.B. Specific traffic that facilitates functionality, such as logging, management, and key exchange.C. Acceptance of IKE and RDP traffic for communication and encryption purposes.


D. Communication with server types, such as RADIUS, CVP, UFP, TACACS, and LDAP.



QUESTION 28What is a Consolidation Policy?

A. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.B. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.C. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.D. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.



QUESTION 29Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R76 Security Gateway?

A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.B. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.C. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.D. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.




NAT

QUESTION 1

Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both usingautomatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server isdropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?

A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.B. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.C. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.D. Routing is not configured correctly.



QUESTION 2You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway's external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. Youenable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?

A. Two, one for outbound, one for inboundB. Only one, inboundC. Only one, outboundD. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection



QUESTION 3Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point's Hide Network Address Translation method?


A. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP addressB. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translationC. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP addressD. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both

Source and Destination IP address translation



QUESTION 4Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internetconnectivity?

A. Static SourceB. Static DestinationC. Dynamic DestinationD. Hide



QUESTION 5NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?

A. HostB. HTTP Logical ServerC. Address RangeD. Gateway



Explanation


QUESTION 6Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IPaddress on your DMZ?

A. Hide Address TranslationB. Static Destination Address TranslationC. Port Address TranslationD. Dynamic Source Address Translation



QUESTION 7You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IPaddress. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewallexternal interface and the Internet.

What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?

A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.B. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.C. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.D. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall's external address.




QUESTION 8After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to thatmachine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?

A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal - Network defined by IP andMask. Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.

B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology toExternal.

C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External. Change topology toOthers +.

D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal - Network defined by IPand Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.



QUESTION 9Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?


A. Translate destination on client-sideB. Enable IP Pool NATC. Allow bi-directional NATD. Automatic ARP configuration



Explanation


QUESTION 10Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router.You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services.Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?

A. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.B. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule.C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.D. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.



QUESTION 11You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses.Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway's external interface.


What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers' public IP addresses?

A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.B. When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.C. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.D. When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ's interface.



QUESTION 12An internal host initiates a session to and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of ____________.

A. None of theseB. source NATC. destination NAT


D. client side NAT



QUESTION 13A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiatingpacket will translate the _________.

A. source on client sideB. source on server sideC. destination on client sideD. destination on server side



QUESTION 14A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiatesa session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?

A. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.B. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.C. Nothing else must be configured.D. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.




Explanation:

QUESTION 15When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?

A. The destination port is modified.B. Nothing happens.C. The destination is modified.D. The source port is modified.



QUESTION 16Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?

A. Post-inboundB. EitherboundC. InboundD. Outbound



QUESTION 17You are MegaCorp's Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, whileothers use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the rule order if both methods are used together? Give the best answer.

A. The Administrator decides the rule order by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.B. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.C. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.


D. The rule position depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.



QUESTION 18Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:

1) NAT decision is based on the destination port.

2) Both Source and Destination IP's have to be translated.

3) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway.

4) NAT should be performed on the server side.

A. 2 and 3B. 1, 3, and 4C. 1 and 2D. 2 and 4



QUESTION 19In order to have full control, you decide to use Manual NAT entries instead of Automatic NAT rules. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. When using Static NAT, you must enter ARP entries for the Gateway on all hosts that are using the NAT Gateway with that Gateway's internal interface IPaddress.

B. When using Static NAT, you must add proxy ARP entries to the Gateway for all hiding addresses.


C. If you chose Automatic NAT instead, all necessary entries are done for you.D. When using Dynamic Hide NAT with an address that is not configured on a Gateway interface, you need to add a proxy ARP entry for that address.



QUESTION 20After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is thelikely source of the issue?

A. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet.B. It is due to NAT.C. An IPSO ACL has blocked the packet's outbound passage.D. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.



QUESTION 21Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R76 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do youconfigure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?

A. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.D. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.




QUESTION 22You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R76 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site toaccess your intranet Web server. To limit the partner's access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:

1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

- Allow bi-directional NAT

- Translate destination on client side

Do the above settings limit the partner's access?

A. No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.B. Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.C. Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.D. No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.



QUESTION 23You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the defaultsettings in Global Properties / NAT.)

When you run fw monitor on the R76 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in themonitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?

A. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machineB. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine


C. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machineD. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine



QUESTION 24You have configured Automatic Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box Translate destination on client site from Global Properties > NAT.Assuming all other NAT settings in Global Properties are selected, what else must be configured so that a host on the Internet can initiate an inbound connection tothis host?

A. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway's external interface.B. No extra configuration is needed.C. The NAT IP address must be added to the external Gateway interface anti-spoofing group.D. A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway's internal interface.



QUESTION 25You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows:


"web_public_IP" is the node object that represents the new Web server's public IP address. "web_private_IP" is the node object that represents the new Web site'sprivate IP address. You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.

When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet you see the error "page cannot be displayed". Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?

A. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the Web server's private IP address.B. There is no ARP table entry for the protected Web server's public IP address.C. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.D. There is no NAT rule translating the source IP address of packets coming from the protected Web server.



QUESTION 26You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp's Check Point Firewall. You need to allow two NAT rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give theBEST answer.

A. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (bidirectional NAT).B. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using Manual NAT (bidirectional NAT).


C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.D. No, it is not possible to have more than one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares it

against the first rule in the Rule Base, then the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule.



QUESTION 27Which of these Security Policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?

A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible.B. Using domain objects in rules when possible.C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.D. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base.



QUESTION 28Your perimeter Security Gateway's external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:


RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.200.200.5.

The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.

Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?

A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.

B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address. Add anARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.

C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IPaddress 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.

D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following:Original source - group object; Destination - any; Service - any; Translated source - 200.200.200.5; Destination - original; Service - original.




Explanation:

QUESTION 29In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.B. The Security Gateway's ARP file must be modified.C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.D. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.



QUESTION 30What is the default setting when you use NAT?

A. Source Translated on Client sideB. Source Translated on both sidesC. Destination Translated on Client sideD. Destination Translated on Server side



QUESTION 31Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output,


select the statement that is true about NAT.

A. This is an example of Hide NAT.B. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.C. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.




Smart Tracker

QUESTION 1You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsoleapplication should you use to confirm your suspicions?

A. SmartDashboardB. SmartView TrackerC. SmartUpdateD. SmartView Status



QUESTION 2You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsoleapplication should you use to confirm your suspicions?

A. SmartDashboardB. SmartView TrackerC. SmartUpdateD. SmartView Status



QUESTION 3Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

A. SmartView MonitorB. SmartReporter


C. WebUID. SmartView Tracker



QUESTION 4You are using SmartView Tracker to troubleshoot NAT entries. Which column do you check to view the NAT'd source port if you are using Source NAT?

A. XlateDPortB. XlateSrcC. XlateDstD. XlateSPort



QUESTION 5You are troubleshooting NAT entries in SmartView Tracker. Which column do you check to view the new source IP?

A. XlateDstB. XlateSPortC. XlateSrcD. XlateDPort




QUESTION 6What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker menu?

A. Exported log entries are not viewable in SmartView Tracker.B. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel.C. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log.D. Current logs are exported to a new *.log file.



QUESTION 7By default, when you click File > Switch Active File in SmartView Tracker, the Security Management Server:

A. Purges the current log file, and prompts you for the new log's mode.B. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file.C. Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file.D. Prompts you to enter a filename, and then saves the log file.



QUESTION 8You are working with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole component can be used to monitor changes to rules or object properties made bythe other administrators?

A. Eventia TrackerB. SmartView MonitorC. Eventia MonitorD. SmartView Tracker




QUESTION 9Which SmartView Tracker mode allows you to read the SMTP e-mail body sent from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company?

A. Display Capture ActionB. This is not a SmartView Tracker feature.C. Display Payload ViewD. Network and Endpoint Tab



QUESTION 10

You can include External commands in SmartView Tracker by the menu Tools > Custom Commands.


The Security Management Server is running under SecurePlatform, and the GUI is on a system running Microsoft Windows. How do you run the commandtraceroute on an IP address?

A. There is no possibility to expand the three pre-defined options Ping, Whois, and Nslookup.B. Go to the menu Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Windows command tracert.exe to the list.


C. Use the program GUIdbedit to add the command traceroute to the Security Management Server properties.D. Go to the menu, Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Linux command traceroute to the list.



QUESTION 11Where is the easiest and BEST place to find information about connections between two machines?

A. On a Security Gateway Console interface; it gives you detailed access to log files and state table information.B. On a Security Management Server, using SmartView Tracker.C. All options are valid.D. On a Security Gateway using the command fw log.



QUESTION 12To reduce the information given to you in SmartView Tracker, what can you do to find information about data being sent between pcosaka and pctokyo?

A. Apply a source filter by adding both endpoint IP addresses with the equal option set.B. Use a regular expression to filter out relevant logging entries.C. Double-click an entry representing a connection between both endpoints.D. Press CTRL+F in order to open the find dialog, and then search the corresponding IP

addresses.




Explanation:

QUESTION 13Which R76 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway?

A. SmartView ServerB. SmartView TrackerC. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.D. SmartUpdate



QUESTION 14You have detected a possible intruder listed in SmartView Tracker's active pane. What is the fastest method to block this intruder from accessing your networkindefinitely?

A. In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Suspicious Activity Rules.B. Modify the Rule Base to drop these connections from the network.C. In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Block Intruder.D. In SmartDashboard, select IPS > Network Security > Denial of Service.



QUESTION 15Where can an administrator specify the notification action to be taken by the firewall in the event that available disk space drops below 15%?

A. SmartView Tracker > Audit Tab > Gateway CountersB. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > Threshold SettingsC. This can only be monitored by a user-defined script.


D. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > Thresholds



QUESTION 16Where are custom queries stored in R76 SmartView Tracker?

A. On the Security Management Server tied to the GUI client IP.B. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system shared by all users of that local PC.C. On the Security Management Server tied to the Administrator User Database login name.D. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system under the user's profile.



QUESTION 17How do you view a Security Administrator's activities with SmartConsole?

A. SmartView Tracker in the Network and Endpoint tabsB. Eventia SuiteC. SmartView Tracker in the Management tabD. SmartView Monitor using the Administrator Activity filter




QUESTION 18Which SmartView Tracker selection would most effectively show who installed a Security Policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network?

A. Network and Endpoint tabB. Custom filterC. Management tabD. Active tab



QUESTION 19You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log. How do you view Security Administrator activity?

A. SmartView Tracker in Network and Endpoint ModeB. SmartView Tracker in Management ModeC. SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs

on the Security Management Server's Operating System.D. SmartView Tracker in Active Mode



QUESTION 20Which of the following R76 SmartView Tracker views will display a popup warning about performance implications on the Security Gateway?

A. Audit TabB. All Records QueryC. Active TabD. Account Query




QUESTION 21While in SmartView Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 minutes, butcannot remember all the steps. What is the correct order of steps needed to set up the block?

1) Select Active Mode tab in SmartView Tracker.

2) Select Tools > Block Intruder.

3) Select Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker.

4) Set Blocking Timeout value to 60 minutes.

5) Highlight connection that should be blocked.

A. 3, 5, 2, 4B. 1, 5, 2, 4C. 1, 2, 5, 4D. 3, 2, 5, 4



Explanation:

QUESTION 22SmartView Tracker R76 consists of three different modes. They are:

A. Log, Track, and ManagementB. Log, Active, and Management


C. Network and Endpoint, Active, and ManagementD. Log, Active, and Audit



QUESTION 23What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?

A. Destination IP addressB. SIC revoke certificate eventC. Number of concurrent IKE negotiationsD. Most accessed Rule Base rule




A. Destination IP addressB. Most accessed Rule Base ruleC. Policy rule modification date/time stampD. Historical reports log





A. Administrator SmartDashboard logout eventB. SecurePlatform expert login eventC. Creation of an administrator using cpconfigD. FTP username authentication failure



QUESTION 26How do you use SmartView Monitor to compile traffic statistics for your company's Internet Web activity during production hours?

A. View total packets passed through the Security Gateway.B. Configure a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through

the Gateway.C. Use Traffic settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day.D. Select Tunnels view, and generate a report on the statistics.



Topic 3, Volume C

QUESTION 27In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?

A. Rule 0B. Blank field under Rule Number


C. Cleanup RuleD. Rule 1



QUESTION 28A third-shift Security Administrator configured and installed a new Security Policy early this morning. When you arrive, he tells you that he has been receivingcomplaints that Internet access is very slow. You suspect the Security Gateway virtual memory might be the problem. Which SmartConsole component would youuse to verify this?

A. SmartView TrackerB. This information can only be viewed with the command fw ctl pstat from the CLI.C. SmartView MonitorD. Eventia Analyzer



QUESTION 29You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the problematic host. Youwant to block this for an hour while you investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do

you achieve this?

A. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.B. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker.C. Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.D. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 30You are trying to save a custom log query in R76 SmartView Tracker, but getting the followingerror:

Could not save <query-name> (Error: Database is Read Only)

Which of the following is a likely explanation for this?

A. You do not have OS write permissions on the local SmartView Tracker PC in order to save the custom query locally.B. You do not have the explicit right to save a custom query in your administrator permission profile under SmartConsole customization.C. Another administrator is currently connected to the Security Management Server with read/write permissions which impacts your ability to save custom log

queries to the Security Management Server.D. You have read-only rights to the Security Management Server database.



QUESTION 31Which SmartConsole tool would you use to see the last policy pushed in the audit log?

A. SmartView TrackerB. SmartView StatusC. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.D. SmartView Server




Explanation:

QUESTION 32SmartView Tracker logs the following Security Administrator activities, EXCEPT:

A. Object creation, deletion, and editingB. Rule Base changesC. Administrator login and logoutD. Tracking SLA compliance



QUESTION 33Your company enforces a strict change control policy. Which of the following would be MOST effective for quickly dropping an attacker's specific active connection?

A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Policy installB. SAM - Suspicious Activity Rules feature of SmartView MonitorC. Block Intruder feature of SmartView TrackerD. Change the Rule Base and install the Policy to all Security Gateways



QUESTION 34Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete andvalid list.

A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdateB. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView MonitorC. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status


D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI



QUESTION 35Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspectinstalled a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?

A. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to aseparate log file for documentation.

B. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.C. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his wrongdoings.D. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert

action or customized messaging.



QUESTION 36You find a suspicious FTP site trying to connect to one of your internal hosts. How do you block it in real time and verify it is successfully blocked? Highlight thesuspicious connection in SmartView Tracker:

A. Log mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Log mode that the suspicious connection does not appear again in this SmartViewTracker view.

B. Active mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Active mode that the suspicious connection is listed in this SmartView Tracker view as"dropped".

C. Log mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Log mode that the suspicious connection is listed in this SmartView Tracker view as"dropped".

D. Active mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Active mode that the suspicious connection does not appear again in this SmartViewTracker view.





Identity Awareness

QUESTION 1Identity Awareness is implemented to manage access to protected resources based on a user's _____________.

A. Time of connectionB. Application requirementC. IdentityD. Computer MAC address



QUESTION 2Which of the following allows administrators to allow or deny traffic to or from a specific network based on the user's credentials?

A. Access RoleB. Access RuleC. Access PolicyD. Access Certificate



QUESTION 3John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to a set of designated IP addresses to minimize malwareinfection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

He has received a new laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address,but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a


static IP (10.0.0.19).

He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources, and installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location and installspolicy.

John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and was not able to connect to the HR Web server. What is the next BESTtroubleshooting step?

A. John should install the Identity Awareness AgentB. Investigate this as a network connectivity issueC. After enabling Identity Awareness, reboot the gatewayD. He should lock and unlock the computer



QUESTION 4John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infectionand unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but thatlimits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP(10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect.


How does he solve this problem?

A. John should lock and unlock the computerB. Investigate this as a network connectivity issueC. John should install the Identity Awareness AgentD. The firewall admin should install the Security Policy



QUESTION 5John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infectionand unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but thatlimits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP(10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

What should John do when he cannot access the web server from a different personal computer?

A. John should lock and unlock his computerB. John should install the Identity Awareness AgentC. Investigate this as a network connectivity issueD. The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC




QUESTION 6Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because theiPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the CaptivePortal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R76 Firewall Rule Base.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:

1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.

2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.

3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action.

Ms. McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?

A. Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule "Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal"B. Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPadC. Have the security administrator reboot the firewallD. Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role



QUESTION 7When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

A. Prompts the user to enter credentials.B. Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway.C. Requires client and server side software.D. Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software.




QUESTION 8Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed?


A. BridgeB. High AvailabilityC. Load SharingD. Fail Open



QUESTION 9Identity Awareness can be deployed in which of the following modes?

A. RouterB. DetectC. Load SharingD. High Availability

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 10What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.D. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.



QUESTION 11What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.D. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.



QUESTION 12Which of the following is an authentication method used by Identity Awareness?


A. Captive PortalB. PKIC. SSLD. RSA



QUESTION 13What is the purpose of an Identity Agent?

A. Manual entry of user credentials for LDAP authenticationB. Audit a user's access, and send that data to a log server C. Disable Single Sign OnD. Provide user and machine identity to a gateway



QUESTION 14What type of traffic can be re-directed to the Captive Portal?

A. FTPB. All of the aboveC. SMTPD. HTTP




QUESTION 15The Captive Portal tool:

A. Allows access to users already identified.B. Acquires identities from unidentified users.C. Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.D. Is only used for guest user authentication.



QUESTION 16Captive Portal is a __________ that allows the gateway to request login information from the user.

A. LDAP server add-onB. Transparent network inspection toolC. Separately licensed featureD. Pre-configured and customizable web-based tool



QUESTION 17Complete this statement from the options provided. Using Captive Portal, unidentified users may be either; blocked, allowed to enter required credentials, orrequired to download the _____________.

A. ICA Certificate


B. SecureClientC. Full Endpoint ClientD. Identity Awareness Agent



QUESTION 18Users with Identity Awareness Agent installed on their machines login with __________, so that when the user logs into the domain, that information is also used tomeet Identity Awareness credential requests.

A. ICA CertificatesB. Key-loggingC. SecureClientD. Single Sign-On



QUESTION 19Which of the following methods is NOT used by Identity Awareness to catalog identities?

A. AD QueryB. GPOC. Captive PortalD. Identity Agent




QUESTION 20When using AD Query to authenticate users for Identity Awareness, identity data is received seamlessly from the Microsoft Active Directory (AD). What is NOT arecommended usage of this method?

A. Leveraging identity in the application control bladeB. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)C. Identity-based auditing and loggingD. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network



QUESTION 21The Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). What is not a recommended usage of this method?

A. Leveraging identity for Data Center protectionB. Protecting highly sensitive serversC. When accuracy in detecting identity is crucialD. Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)



QUESTION 22Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?

A. According to the Firewall PolicyB. From the Internet


C. Through internal interfacesD. Through all interfaces



QUESTION 23How granular may an administrator filter an Access Role with identity awareness?

A. Windows DomainB. AD UserC. Radius GroupD. Specific ICA Certificate



QUESTION 24Can you use Captive Portal with HTTPS?

A. No, it only works with FTPB. YesC. No, it only works with FTP and HTTPD. No, it only works with HTTP




QUESTION 25Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

A. LDAP Server Object > General PropertiesB. Gateway Object > General PropertiesC. Policy > Global Properties > Identity AwarenessD. Security Management Server > Identity Awareness



QUESTION 26How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

A. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on all interfaces.B. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for an external interface.C. Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.D. No action is necessary. This access is available by default.



QUESTION 27To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role?

A. TrackB. ActionC. SourceD. User




QUESTION 28To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role?

A. TrackB. UserC. DestinationD. Action



QUESTION 29What command with appropriate switches would you use to test Identity Awareness connectivity?

A. test_adB. test_ldapC. test_ad_connectivityD. test_ldap_connectivity



QUESTION 30What gives administrators more flexibility when configuring Captive Portal instead of LDAP query for Identity Awareness authentication?


A. Captive Portal is more secure than standard LDAPB. Captive Portal is more transparent to the userC. Nothing, LDAP query is required when configuring Captive PortalD. Captive Portal works with both configured users and guests



QUESTION 31Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

A. Captive PortalB. TACACSC. Check Point PasswordD. Windows password



QUESTION 32Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

A. TACACSB. Check Point PasswordC. Windows passwordD. LDAP

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)


Explanation



Smart Monitor

QUESTION 1How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?

A. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.C. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.



QUESTION 2

True or False? SmartView Monitor can be used to create alerts on a specified Gateway.

A. False, alerts can only be set in SmartDashboard Global Properties.B. True, by choosing the Gateway and selecting System Information.C. False, an alert cannot be created for a specified Gateway.D. True, by right-clicking on the Gateway and selecting Configure Thresholds.



QUESTION 3Which R76 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway?

A. SmartUpdateB. SmartView StatusC. SmartView Monitor


D. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.



QUESTION 4Which R76 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy install?

A. SmartView MonitorB. SmartView StatusC. SmartView TrackerD. SmartDashboard



QUESTION 5Where can an administrator configure the notification action in the event of a policy install time change?

A. SmartDashboard > Policy Package ManagerB. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > ThresholdsC. SmartDashboard > Security Gateway Object > Advanced Properties TabD. SmartView Monitor > Gateways > Thresholds Settings




QUESTION 6Your Security Gateways are running near performance capacity and will get upgraded hardware next week. Which of the following would be MOST effective forquickly dropping all connections from a specific attacker's IP at a peak time of day?

A. Change the Rule Base and install the Policy to all Security GatewaysB. SAM - Suspicious Activity Rules feature of SmartView MonitorC. SAM - Block Intruder feature of SmartView TrackerD. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Policy install



QUESTION 7You start to use SmartView Monitor to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic.


Unfortunately, you get the message:

"There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor."

What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.

A. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.B. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.C. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.D. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.




QUESTION 8You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.

Unfortunately, you get the message.


"There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor."

What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic?


Give the BEST answer.

A. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.B. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.C. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.D. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.



QUESTION 9Which R75 component displays the number of packets accepted, rejected, and dropped on a specific Security Gateway, in real time?


A. SmartView MonitorB. SmartView StatusC. SmartEventD. SmartUpdate



QUESTION 10You want to configure a mail alert for every time the policy is installed to a specific Gateway.Where would you configure this alert?

A. In SmartView Monitor, select Gateway > Configure Thresholds and in SmartDashboard select Global Properties > Log and Alerts > Alert Commands.B. In SmartView Monitor, select Gateway > Configure Thresholds.C. In SmartDashboard, select Global Properties > Log and Alerts > Alert Commands.D. You cannot create a mail alert for Policy installation.




Smart Update

QUESTION 1Your bank's distributed R76 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licensesthat will expire within the next 30 days?

A. SmartView TrackerB. SmartPortalC. SmartUpdateD. SmartDashboard



QUESTION 2Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting Packages > Distribute Only and choosing the targetGateway, the:

A. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.B. selected package is copied from the CD-ROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.C. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.D. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.



QUESTION 3Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting Packages > Distribute and Install Selected Package andchoosing the target Gateway, the:

A. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.


B. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.C. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.D. selected package is copied from the SmartUpdate PC CD-ROM directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.



QUESTION 4What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new packages with SmartUpdate?

A. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database ServerB. A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade packageC. SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PCD. SmartUpdate GUI PC



QUESTION 5What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate R76?

A. Reboot GatewayB. Fetch sync statusC. Get all Gateway DataD. Preinstall verifier




QUESTION 6What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?


A. TCP 8080B. HTTPS 443C. HTTP 80D. CPMI 200



QUESTION 7You are a Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (Hotfix Accumulator) to ten Security Gateways at five geographically separate locations. What isthe BEST method to implement this HFA?

A. Send a CD-ROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it.B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely.C. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update.D. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, initiate a remote installation command and monitor the installation

progress with SmartView Monitor.

Correct Answer: B




QUESTION 8What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R76?

A. cpinfoB. fw stat -lC. upgrade_exportD. remote_uninstall_verifier



QUESTION 9Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R76?

A. SecurePlatform WebUIB. cpinfoC. IP Appliance VoyagerD. snapshot



QUESTION 10If a Security Gateway enforces three protections, LDAP Injection, Malicious Code Protector, and Header Rejection, which Check Point license is required inSmartUpdate?


A. SmartEvent IntroB. IPSC. SSL: VPND. Data Loss Prevention



QUESTION 11If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on GAiA, how is the system recovered?

A. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and re-attempt the upgrade.B. GAiA will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.C. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>.D. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file name>.




VPN

QUESTION 1You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What musthappen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?

A. Active-X must be allowed on the client.B. The SNX client application must be installed on the client.C. SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.D. An office mode address must be obtained by the client.



QUESTION 2You have a mesh VPN Community configured to create a site-to-site VPN.


Given the displayed VPN properties, what can you conclude about this community?

A. Change the data-integrity setting for this VPN Community because MD5 is oncompatible with AES.B. Changing the setting Perform key exchange encryption with from AES-256 to 3DES will enhance the VPN Community's security , and reduce encryption

overhead.C. The VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption using the longest key Security Gateway R76 supports.D. Changing the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with from AES-128 to 3Des will increase the encryption overhead.




QUESTION 3How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Aggressive Mode?

A. 1B. 12C. 6D. 3



QUESTION 4When using vpn tu, which option must you choose if you only want to clear phase 2 for a specific IP (gateway)?

A. (8) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given User (Client)B. (5) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given peer (GW)C. (6) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given User (Client)D. (7) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given peer (GW)



QUESTION 5When using vpn tu, which option must you choose if you want to rebuild your VPN for a specific IP (gateway)?


A. (6) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given User (Client)B. (7) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given peer (GW)C. (8) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given User (Client)D. (5) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given peer (GW)



QUESTION 6What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?

A. All VPN traffic is tunneled through UDP port 4500.B. VPN authentication and encrypted traffic are tunneled through port TCP 443.C. Only ESP traffic is tunneled through port TCP 443.D. Only Main mode and Quick mode traffic are tunneled on TCP port 443.




QUESTION 7If you were NOT using IKE aggressive mode for your IPsec tunnel, how many packets would you see for normal Phase 1 exchange?

A. 9B. 6C. 3D. 2



QUESTION 8How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?

A. 6B. 12C. 1D. 3



QUESTION 9Which of the following actions take place in IKE Phase 2 with Perfect Forward Secrecy disabled?

A. Peers authenticate using certificates or preshared secrets.B. The DH public keys are exchanged.


C. Each Security Gateway generates a private Diffie-Hellman (DH) key from random pools.D. Symmetric IPsec keys are generated.



QUESTION 10Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPsec Security Association (SA)?

A. vpn tuB. vpn ipsecC. vpn debug ipsecD. fw ipsec tu



QUESTION 11How many packets are required for IKE Phase 2?


A. 12B. 2C. 6


D. 3



QUESTION 12Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

A. Each side generates a session key from its private key and the peer's public key.B. Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.C. Peers agree on integrity method.D. Peers agree on encryption method.



QUESTION 13Your company has two headquarters, one in London, and one in New York. Each office includes several branch offices. The branch offices need to communicatewith the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for establishingVPN Communities for this company? VPN Communities comprised of:

A. Two star and one mesh Community: One star Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the Community center, and its branches as satellites. Themesh Community includes only New York and London Gateways.

B. Three mesh Communities: One for London headquarters and its branches, one for New York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New Yorkheadquarters.

C. One star Community with the option to mesh the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the mesh centerGateways option checked; all London branch offices defined in one satellite window, but, all New York branch offices defined in another satellite window.

D. Two mesh and one star Community: One mesh Community is set up for each of the headquarters and its branch offices. The star Community is configured withLondon as the center of the Community and New York is the satellite.




QUESTION 14Your company has two headquarters, one in London, one in New York. Each of the headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need tocommunicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration forestablishing VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprisedof:

A. Three star Communities: The first one is between New York headquarters and its branches.The second star Community is between London headquarters and its branches. The third star Community is between New York and London headquarters but itis irrelevant which site is "center" and which "satellite".

B. One star Community with the option to mesh the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the "mesh centerGateways" option checked; all London branch offices defined in one satellite window; but, all New York branch offices defined in another satellite window.

C. Two mesh and one star Community: Each mesh Community is set up for each site between headquarters their branches. The star Community has New York asthe center and London as its satellite.

D. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches; one for New York headquarters and its branches; and one for London and New Yorkheadquarters.



QUESTION 15Match the terms with their definitions:


A. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1C. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4D. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1




Commands

QUESTION 1How can you reset the Security Administrator password that was created during initial Security Management Server installation on SecurePlatform?

A. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the Password portion of the file. Then log in to theaccount without a password. You will be prompted to assign a new password.

B. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and edit the cpconfig administrator.C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password.D. As expert user Type fwm -a, and provide the existing administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password.



QUESTION 2Match the following commands to their correct function.

Each command has one function only listed.


A. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4B. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5D. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5



QUESTION 3Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?

A. fw verB. fw statC. fw printverD. cpstat -gw



QUESTION 4Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the Security Policy name and timestamp currently installed on a firewall module?

A. fw statB. fw ctl pstatC. fw verD. cpstat fwd



Explanation


QUESTION 5Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?

A. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newerSecurity Gateway version.

B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.C. This command is no longer supported in GAiA.D. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting.



QUESTION 6What are you required to do before running the command upgrade_export?

A. Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server.B. Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.C. Close all GUI clients.D. Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.



QUESTION 7A snapshot delivers a complete SecurePlatform backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in /var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you


restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz?

A. As expert user, type the command revert --file MySnapshot.tgz.B. As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz.C. As expert user, type the command snapshot - R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.D. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file.

Then, provide the correct file name.



QUESTION 8What is the primary benefit of using the command upgrade_export over either backup or snapshot?

A. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will take a much shorter amount of time.B. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where

backup and snapshot will not.C. upgrade_export has an option to back up the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup and snapshot will not.D. upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is not available.



QUESTION 9What is the syntax for uninstalling a package using newpkg?

A. -u <pathname of package>B. newpkg CANNOT be used to uninstall a packageC. -i <full pathname of package>D. -S <pathname of package>




QUESTION 10Your network is experiencing connectivity problems and you want to verify if routing problems are present. You need to disable the firewall process but still allowrouting to pass through the Gateway running on an IP Appliance running IPSO. What command do you need to run after stopping the firewall service?

A. ipsofwd on adminB. ipsofwd slowpathC. fw fwd routingD. fw load routed



QUESTION 11Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on SecurePlatform from the command line?

A. cpconfigB. ifconfigC. dhcp_cfgD. sysconfig



QUESTION 12


The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties and testing. He managed to lock himself out of hisaccount. How can you unlock this account?

A. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.B. Type fwm lock_admin -u <account name> from the Security Management Server command line.C. Type fwm unlock_admin -u from the Security Gateway command line.D. Type fwm unlock_admin from the Security Management Server command line.



QUESTION 13The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of theiraccounts. How should you unlock these accounts?

A. Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.B. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.C. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.D. Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.



QUESTION 14You are the Security Administrator for ABC-Corp. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on SecurePlatform. You are concerned that the system might not beretaining your entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on SecurePlatform. Where can youview them? Give the BEST answer.



A. /etc/conf/route.CB. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethxC. /etc/sysconfig/netconf.CD. /etc/sysconfig/network



QUESTION 15Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75 configuration?

A. Execute command upgrade_exportB. Database Revision ControlC. Policy Package ManagementD. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server



QUESTION 16Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of a R76 configuration?


A. cpinfo -recoverB. fwm dbimport -p <export file>C. upgrade_importD. cpconfig



QUESTION 17Which of the following is NOT useful to verify whether or not a Security Policy is active on a Gateway?

A. fw ctl get string active_secpolB. cpstat fw -f policyC. Check the Security Policy name of the appropriate Gateway in SmartView Monitor.D. fw stat



QUESTION 18The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

A. Address translationB. Log Consolidation EngineC. User data base corruptionD. Phase two key negotiation

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 19Which of the following can be found in cpinfo from an enforcement point?

A. Policy file information specific to this enforcement pointB. The complete file objects_5_0.cC. VPN keys for all established connections to all enforcement pointsD. Everything NOT contained in the file r2info



QUESTION 20What happens when you run the commanD. fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?

A. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.B. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked with the need to change the Security Policy.C. Connections from the specified source are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.D. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.



QUESTION 21How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?


A. fw delete all.all@localhostB. fw unload policyC. fwm unloadlocalD. fw unloadlocal



QUESTION 22How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?

A. clish -c show routing active enableB. ipsofwd listC. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forwardD. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward



QUESTION 23Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?

A. fw tab -s <tablename>B. fw tab -t <tablename>C. fw tab -x <tablename>D. fw tab -a <tablename>



Explanation


QUESTION 24Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?

A. infoCPB. cpinfoC. infoviewD. fw cpinfo



QUESTION 25Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?

A. fw mergeB. fw tab -uC. fw shutdownD. fwm policy_print <policyname>



QUESTION 26You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speedand duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of anEthernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.


A. eth_setB. mii_toolC. ifconfig -aD. ethtool



QUESTION 27Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?

A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forwardB. ipsofwd on adminC. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forwardD. clish -c set routing active enable



QUESTION 28Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What canbe done to unlock Peter's

account? Give the BEST answer.

A. It is not possible to unlock Peter's account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter's help.B. You can unlock Peter's account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.C. You can unlock Peter's account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.


D. You can unlock Peter's account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server



QUESTION 29Which command allows Security Policy name and install date verification on a Security Gateway?

A. fw ver -pB. fw stat -lC. fw show policyD. fw ctl pstat -policy



Explanation:

QUESTION 30What command syntax would you use to turn on PDP logging in a distributed environment?

A. pdp tracker onB. pdp log=1C. pdp track=1D. pdp logging on




QUESTION 31The R76 fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

A. User data base corruptionB. Traffic issuesC. Phase two key negotiationD. Log Consolidation Engine



QUESTION 32Where can you find the Check Point's SNMP MIB file?

A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mibB. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mibD. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.



QUESTION 33You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need totake regarding timeout?

A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.




QUESTION 34ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:

A. Export setupB. Time & DateC. DHCP Server configurationD. GUI Clients



QUESTION 35Which of the following options is available with the SecurePlatform cpconfig utility?

A. Time & DateB. GUI ClientsC. DHCP Server configurationD. Export setup




QUESTION 36Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?

A. cpstat - date.cpstat.txtB. fw cpinfoC. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txtD. diag



QUESTION 37Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from

the remote Security Management Server.D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a

SecurePlatform Security Gateway.



QUESTION 38How can you activate the SNMP daemon on a Check Point Security Management Server?

A. Using the command line, enter snmp_install.B. Any of these options will work.C. In SmartDashboard, right-click a Check Point object and select Activate SNMP.


D. From cpconfig, select SNMP extension.




Troubleshooting

QUESTION 1The Tokyo Security Management Server Administrator cannot connect from his workstation in Osaka.

Which of the following lists the BEST sequence of steps to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Call Tokyo to check if they can ping the Security Management Server locally. If so, login to sgtokyo, verify management connectivity and Rule Base. If this looksokay, ask your provider if they have some firewall rules that filters out your management traffic.

B. Verify basic network connectivity to the local Gateway, service provider, remote Gateway, remote network and target machine. Then, test for firewall rules thatdeny management access to the target. If successful, verify that pcosaka is a valid client IP address.

C. Check for matching OS and product versions of the Security Management Server and the client. Then, ping the Gateways to verify connectivity. If successful,scan the log files for any denied management packets.

D. Check the allowed clients and users on the Security Management Server. If pcosaka and your user account are valid, check for network problems. If there areno network related issues, this is likely to be a problem with the server itself. Check for any patches and upgrades. If still unsuccessful, open a case withTechnical Support.




QUESTION 2You receive a notification that long-lasting Telnet connections to a mainframe are dropped after an hour of inactivity. Reviewing SmartView Tracker shows thepacket is dropped with the error:

"Unknown established connection"

How do you resolve this problem without causing other security issues? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Increase the service-based session timeout of the default Telnet service to 24-hours.B. Increase the TCP session timeout under Global Properties > Stateful Inspection.C. Create a new TCP service object on port 23 called Telnet-mainframe. Define a service-based session timeout of 24-hours. Use this new object only in the rule

that allows the Telnet connections to the mainframe.D. Ask the mainframe users to reconnect every time this error occurs.



QUESTION 3One of your remote Security Gateway's suddenly stops sending logs, and you cannot install the Security Policy on the Gateway. All other remote Security Gatewaysare logging normally to the Security Management Server, and Policy installation is not affected. When you click the Test SIC status button in the problematicGateway object, you receive an error message. What is the problem?

A. There is no connection between the Security Management Server and the remote Gateway.Rules or routing may block the connection.

B. The time on the Security Management Server's clock has changed, which invalidates the remote Gateway's Certificate.C. The Internal Certificate Authority for the Security Management Server object has been removed from objects_5_0.C.D. The remote Gateway's IP address has changed, which invalidates the SIC Certificate.




QUESTION 4Your customer, Mr. Smith needs access to other networks and should be able to use all services. Session authentication is not suitable. You select ClientAuthentication with HTTP. The standard authentication port for client HTTP authentication (Port 900) is already in use. You want to use Port 9001 but are havingconnectivity problems. Why are you having problems?


A. The Security Policy is not correct.B. You can't use any port other than the standard port 900 for Client Authentication via HTTP.C. The service FW_clntauth_http configuration is incorrect.D. The configuration file $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf is incorrect.



QUESTION 5When using SecurePlatform, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the networkthe old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?

A. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.c and put the new MAC address in the fieldB. As expert user, issue these commands:

# IP link set eth0 down# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56# IP link set eth0 up

C. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.


D. As expert user, issue the command:# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56



Explanation:

QUESTION 6You have installed a R76 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway objectand Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is theproblem?

A. The new Gateway's temporary license has expired.B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.




Backup/Restore

QUESTION 1Your primary Security Gateway runs on SecurePlatform. What is the easiest way to back up your Security Gateway R76 configuration, including routing and networkconfiguration files?

A. Using the native SecurePlatform backup utility from command line or in the Web based user interface.B. Copying the directories $FWDIR/conf and $FWDIR/lib to another location.C. Using the command upgrade_export.D. Run the pre_upgrade_verifier and save the .tgz file to the directory /temp.



QUESTION 2You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R76 GAiA Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do youuse?

A. GAiA back up utilitiesB. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commandsC. Database Revision ControlD. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf



QUESTION 3You are running a R76 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall versioninstalled. What back up method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?


A. manual backupB. snapshotC. upgrade_exportD. backup



QUESTION 4Before upgrading SecurePlatform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the CheckPoint configuration as well as the system configuration.

An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problem after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex staticrouting configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?

A. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the boot menu of GAiA.B. A backup cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the file netconf.C.D. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).



QUESTION 5You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R71 to R76. Prior to upgrading, you want to back up the Gateway should there be any problems with theupgrade. Which of the following allows for the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?

A. upgrade_exportB. snapshot


C. backupD. database revision



QUESTION 6Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?

A. Strong data encryptionB. Centralized managementC. Scalability to accommodate user groupsD. Strong authentication



QUESTION 7Which of the following is NOT true for Clientless VPN?

A. User Authentication is supported.B. Secure communication is provided between clients and servers that support HTTP.C. The Gateway accepts any encryption method that is proposed by the client and supported in the VPN.D. The Gateway can enforce the use of strong encryption.




QUESTION 8You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities should you do first?

A. Manually import your partner's Access Control List.B. Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List.C. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA.D. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA).



QUESTION 9Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies. Your manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policyto benefit from the new features. This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would you start such a migration?


A. This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.B. This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified mode Gateway does not work.C. Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then migrate Gateway per Gateway.D. You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all Gateways at the same time.




Explanation:

QUESTION 10

Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner site gives you his VPN settings and you notice that hesetup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES 256 for IKE phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup?

A. All is fine as the longest key length has been chosen for encrypting the data and a shorter key length for higher performance for setting up the tunnel.B. All is fine and can be used as is.C. The two algorithms do not have the same key length and so don't work together. You will get the error .... No proposal chosen....D. Only 128 bit keys are used for phase 1 keys which are protecting phase 2, so the longer key length in phase 2 only costs performance and does not add security

due to a shorter key in phase 1.



QUESTION 11Why are certificates preferred over pre-shared keys in an IPsec VPN?

A. Weak security: PSKs can only have 112 bit length.B. Weak Security: PSK are static and can be brute-forced.C. Weak scalability: PSKs need to be set on each and every Gateway.D. Weak performancE. PSK takes more time to encrypt than Diffie-Hellman.



QUESTION 12What is a possible reason for the IKE failure shown in this screenshot?


A. Mismatch in preshared secrets.B. Mismatch in Diffie-Hellman group.C. Mismatch in VPN Domains.D. Mismatch in encryption schemes.




QUESTION 13When using an encryption algorithm, which is generally considered the best encryption method?

A. DESB. CAST cipherC. AESD. Triple DES



QUESTION 14Which do you configure to give remote access VPN users a local IP address?

A. Office mode IP poolB. Encryption domain poolC. NAT poolD. Authentication pool




QUESTION 15You plan to create a backup of the rules, objects, policies, and global properties from an R76 Security Management Server. Which of the following backup andrestore solutions can you use?

1) Upgrade_export and upgrade_import utilities

2) Database revision control

3) SecurePlatform backup utilities

4) Policy package management

5) Manual copies of the $CPDIR/conf directory

A. 2, 4, and 5B. 1, 3, and 4C. 1, 2, and 3D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5



QUESTION 16When restoring R76 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?

A. LicensesB. SIC CertificatesC. Global propertiesD. Route tables




QUESTION 17Your organization's disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the new distributed R76 installation benefits. Your plan mustmeet the following required and desired objectives:

Required ObjectivE. The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired ObjectivE. The R76 components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up at least once a week.

Desired ObjectivE. Back up R76 logs at least once a week.

Your disaster recovery plan is as follows:

- Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers.

- Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the files created by the command upgrade_export.

- Configure the GAiA back up utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.

- Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.

- Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.

- Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.

Upon evaluation, your plan:

A. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.B. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.C. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.D. Does not meet the required objective.



QUESTION 18


Suppose the Security Gateway hard drive fails and you are forced to rebuild it. You have a snapshot file stored to a TFTP server and backups of your SecurityManagement Server. What is the correct procedure for rebuilding the Gateway quickly?

A. Run the command revert to restore the snapshot. Reinstall any necessary Check Point products. Establish SIC and install the Policy.B. Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., SecurePlatform). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Revert

to the stored snapshot image, and install the Security Policy.C. Run the command revert to restore the snapshot, establish SIC, and install the Policy.D. Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., SecurePlatform). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server.

Reinstall any necessary Check Point products and previously applied hotfixes. Revert to the stored snapshot image, and install the Policy.




Authentication

QUESTION 1As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this?Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

A. in the user object's Authentication screen.B. in the Gateway object's Authentication screen.C. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.D. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.



QUESTION 2The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of thefollowing should you remember?

A. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.B. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.C. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.D. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security

Server.



QUESTION 3Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, using an LDAP server.

A. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.


B. Enable User Directory in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.C. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP resource object.



QUESTION 4You cannot use SmartDashboard's User Directory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?

1) Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system.

2) Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard's User Manager from connecting to the LDAP server.

3) Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has root permission (or at least write permission Administrative access) in the LDAP Server's access controlconfiguration.

A. 2 and 3B. 1 and 3C. 1 and 2D. 1, 2, and 3



QUESTION 5Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens by default.

A. 80, 256B. 8080, 529C. 259, 900


D. 256, 600



QUESTION 6What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?

A. 264B. 259C. 900D. 23



QUESTION 7Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow the Telnetservice to itself from any location. How would you configure authentication on the Gateway? With a:

A. Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900B. Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign onC. Client Authentication for fully automatic sign onD. Session Authentication rule




QUESTION 8Which authentication type permits five different sign-on methods in the authentication properties window?

A. Manual AuthenticationB. Client AuthenticationC. Session AuthenticationD. User Authentication



QUESTION 9Which Client Authentication sign-on method requires the user to first authenticate via the User Authentication mechanism, when logging in to a remote server withTelnet?

A. Agent Automatic Sign OnB. Partially Automatic Sign OnC. Standard Sign OnD. Manual Sign On



QUESTION 10Which Security Gateway R76 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The:

A. Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the Client Authentication rule Source.B. Refreshable Timeout setting, in Client Authentication Action Properties > Limits.C. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled.D. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment.




QUESTION 11All R76 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers can NOT perform authentication?

A. RLOGINB. HTTPC. SMTPD. FTP



QUESTION 12Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R76 uses to validate connection attempts? Select the response below that includes theMOST complete list of valid authentication methods.

A. User, Client, SessionB. Proxied, User, Dynamic, SessionC. Connection, User, ClientD. User, Proxied, Session




QUESTION 13Security Gateway R76 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the response below that contains the MOST correct list of supportedservices.

A. FTP, HTTP, TELNETB. SMTP, FTP, TELNETC. SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNETD. FTP, TELNET



QUESTION 14With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R76 user definitions on a(n) _________ Server.

A. NT DomainB. SecureIDC. RadiusD. LDAP



QUESTION 15The User Directory Software Blade is used to integrate which of the following with Security Gateway R76?

A. Account Management Client serverB. RADIUS serverC. LDAP server


D. UserAuthority server



QUESTION 16If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?


A. Domain name resolutionB. Overlapping VPN DomainsC. Connectivity between the R76 Gateway and LDAP serverD. Secure Internal Communications (SIC)



QUESTION 17Which type of R76 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?

A. FTP Security ServerB. SMTP Security ServerC. HTTPS Security ServerD. HTTP Security Server




QUESTION 18You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard?

A. All usersB. Internal user GroupC. A group with generic userD. LDAP Account Unit Group



QUESTION 19For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?

A. FTPB. TelnetC. HTTPSD. SSH



QUESTION 20


Which of the following objects is a valid source in an authentication rule?

A. User@NetworkB. Host@AnyC. User@AnyD. User_group@Network



QUESTION 21You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication.Choose the BEST reason why.

A. Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.B. You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.C. Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.D. You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.



QUESTION 22Which authentication type requires specifying a contact agent in the Rule Base?

A. Session AuthenticationB. User AuthenticationC. Client Authentication with Partially Automatic Sign OnD. Client Authentication with Manual Sign On

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 23What is the difference between Standard and Specific Sign On methods?

A. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate foreach service and each host to which he is trying to connect.

B. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate foreach service specifically defined in the window Specific Action Properties.

C. Standard Sign On requires the user to re-authenticate for each service and each host to which he is trying to connect. Specific Sign On allows the user to signon only to a specific IP address.

D. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows, but re-authenticate for each host to which he is trying toconnect. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate for each service.



QUESTION 24Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

A. Users, User GroupsB. Networks, HostsC. Users, NetworksD. Templates, Users




QUESTION 25

How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R76 Security Gateway?

A. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap.B. By installing a Security Policy.C. By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard.D. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out.



QUESTION 26Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do youneed in the Client Authentication rule in R76?

A. All UsersB. External-user groupC. A group with a generic userD. LDAP group



QUESTION 27Assume you are a Security Administrator for ABCTech. You have allowed authenticated access to users from Mkting_net to Finance_net. But in the user'sproperties, connections are only permitted within Mkting_net. What is the BEST way to resolve this conflict?

A. Select Intersect with user database or Ignore Database in the Action Properties window.B. Permit access to Finance_net.C. Select Ignore Database in the Action Properties window.


D. Select Intersect with user database in the Action Properties window.



QUESTION 28For remote user authentication, which authentication scheme is NOT supported?

A. Check Point PasswordB. TACACSC. SecurIDD. RADIUS



QUESTION 29What mechanism does a gateway configured with Identity Awareness and LDAP initially use to communicate with a Windows 2003 or 2008 server?

A. RCPB. LDAPC. WMID. CIFS




QUESTION 30Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate via LDAP?

A. Windows logon passwordB. Active Directory Server objectC. WMI objectD. Check Point Password



QUESTION 31Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP?

A. Domain Admin passwordB. Check Point PasswordC. Windows logon passwordD. WMI object



QUESTION 32Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP?

A. WMI objectB. Check Point PasswordC. Domain Admin usernameD. Windows logon password




QUESTION 33What command syntax would you use to see accounts the gateway suspects are service accounts?

A. pdp check_logB. adlog check_accountsC. pdp show serviceD. adlog a service_accounts



QUESTION 34Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?

A. Client AuthenticationB. Session AuthenticationC. User AuthenticationD. Cleanup



QUESTION 35


Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen -


After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the commandline. What happens to the user? The:

A. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.B. user is prompted from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication.C. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.D. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.




Exam O

QUESTION 1Message digests use which of the following?

A. SHA-1 and MD5B. IDEA and RC4C. SSL and MD4D. DES and RC4



QUESTION 2Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

A. DESB. IDEAC. MD5D. 3DES



QUESTION 3Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

A. Asymmetric encryptionB. Symmetric encryption


C. Certificate-based encryptionD. Dynamic encryption



QUESTION 4A digital signature:

A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.D. Decrypts data to its original form.



QUESTION 5UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.

A. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tablesB. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IPC. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IPD. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL




"Certification Depends on Only One Thing" - www.actualanswers.com 5 Checkpoint 156-215.13 Exam

QUESTION 6The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?

A. Physical and DataB. Session and TransportC. Data link and NetworkD. Presentation and Application



QUESTION 7Which operating systems are supported by a Check Point Security Gateway on an open server? Select MOST complete list.

A. Check Point GAiA and SecurePlatform, and Microsoft WindowsB. Check Point GAiA and SecurePlatform, IPSO, Sun Solaris, Microsoft WindowsC. Check Point GAiA, Microsoft Windows, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Sun Solaris, IPSOD. Sun Solaris, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Check Point SecurePlatform, IPSO, Microsoft Windows



QUESTION 8Where is the IPSO Boot Manager physically located on an IP Appliance?

A. On the platform's BIOS


B. In the directory /nvramC. On an external jump driveD. On built-in compact Flash memory



QUESTION 9How is wear on the flash storage device mitigated on diskless appliance platforms?

A. The external PCMCIA-based flash extension has the swap file mapped to it, allowing easy replacement.

B. A RAM drive reduces the swap file thrashing which causes fast wear on the device.C. Issue FW-1 bases its package structure on the Security Management Server, dynamically loading when the firewall is booted.D. PRAM flash devices are used, eliminating the longevity.



QUESTION 10Your R76 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every48 hours. How do you create this schedule?

A. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object's Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log

switch, and select the Time object.C. On a SecurePlatform Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility.D. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select

the Time object.

Correct Answer: B




QUESTION 11Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall.How do you configure this?

A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, anadministrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.

B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select

Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.



QUESTION 12What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?

A. ipsoinfoB. cpinfoC. uag-diagD. CST




QUESTION 13Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

A. NetworkB. Security Management objectC. HostD. Security Gateway



QUESTION 14Spoofing is a method of:

A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.B. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.D. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.



QUESTION 15When you use the Global Properties' default settings on R76, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic?



A. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange informationB. RIP trafficC. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security GatewayD. SmartUpdate connections



QUESTION 16Which item below in a Security Policy would be enforced first?

A. Network Address TranslationB. Security Policy First ruleC. Administrator-defined Rule BaseD. IP spoofing/IP options



QUESTION 17Your shipping company uses a custom application to update the shipping distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notifyremote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateway's Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Since you are


responsible for multiple sites, you want notification by a text message to your cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following wouldwork BEST for your purpose?

A. SmartView Monitor ThresholdB. SNMP trapC. Logging implied rulesD. User-defined alert script



QUESTION 18A client has created a new Gateway object that will be managed at a remote location. When the client attempts to install the Security Policy to the new Gatewayobject, the object does not appear in the Install On check box. What should you look for?

A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) not configured for the object.B. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Security Gateway option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the

Security Gateway object.C. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway option from the Network Objects dialog box.D. Anti-spoofing not configured on the interfaces on the Gateway object.



QUESTION 19A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard connections to the stand-alone installation of R76. After running thecommand fw unloadlocal, you are able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes. Which of the following change is the most likely cause of theblock?

A. A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R76 Gateway.B. The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN Gateway.


C. The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it.D. The Allow Control Connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.



QUESTION 20When configuring anti-spoofing on the Security Gateway object interfaces, which of the following is NOT a valid R76 topology configuration?

A. SpecificB. ExternalC. Not DefinedD. Any




QUESTION 21You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The POP3 rule is disabled.B. The POP3 rule is hidden.C. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R75.D. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.








QUESTION 23You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users andadd a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile, youdecide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

A. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.B. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.C. Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users.D. Restore the entire database, except the user database.



QUESTION 24Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?


A. upgrade_export/upgrade_importB. dbexport/dbimportC. Database Revision ControlD. Policy Package management



QUESTION 25Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. Whatoccurs with the remote Gateway after reboot?

A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through theGateway.

B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through theGateway.

C. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security ManagementServer is not available.

D. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic.



QUESTION 26How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped or accepted by a rule in the SecurityPolicy?

A. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.B. Pop-up alert scriptC. SNMP trap alert scriptD. User-defined alert script




QUESTION 27Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?

A. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13B. 1, 2, 8, 10, 11C. 5, 6, 9, 12, 13D. 2, 4, 7, 10, 11




QUESTION 28You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R76 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration ofyour Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?

A. Database Revision ControlB. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/confC. upgrade_export commandD. SecurePlatform backup utilities



QUESTION 29Which R76 feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier Security Policy versions without changing object configurations?

A. Policy Package managementB. Database Revision ControlC. upgrade_export/upgrade_importD. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport




QUESTION 30What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

A. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.B. Define two log servers on the R76 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use

SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.C. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a

secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.D. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R76 Gateway object.



QUESTION 31An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R76 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule forGRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GREtraffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).

Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.

If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.

Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?

A. The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartViewTracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of theday.

B. The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R75 Security Gatewaycannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.

C. The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.D. The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.




QUESTION 32Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to operate correctly?

A. 256B. 514C. 258D. 257



QUESTION 33You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp and would like to view network activity using SmartReporter. You select a standard predefined report. As you cansee here, you can select the london Gateway.


When you attempt to configure the Express Report, you are unable to select this Gateway.


What is the reason for this behavior? Give the BEST answer.

A. You must enable the Eventia Express Mode on the london Gateway.B. You must enable Monitoring in the london Gateway object's General Properties.C. You have the license for Eventia Reporter in Standard mode only.D. You must enable the Express Mode inside Eventia Reporter.



QUESTION 34


You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you would like to see how often the particular rules match.Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.

A. In the SmartView Tracker, if you activate the column Matching Rate.B. It is not possible to see it directly. You can open SmartDashboard and select UserDefined in the Track column. Afterwards, you need to create your own

program with an external counter.C. In SmartReporter, in the section Firewall Blade - Activity > Network Activity with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.D. SmartReporter provides this information in the section Firewall Blade - Security > Rule Base Analysis with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.



QUESTION 35A company has disabled logging for some of the most commonly used Policy rules. This was to decrease load on the Security Management Server and to maketracking dropped connections easier. What action would you recommend to get reliable statistics about the network traffic using SmartReporter?

A. Configure Additional Logging on an additional log server.B. Turn the field Track of each rule to LOG.C. Network traffic cannot be analyzed when the Security Management Server has a high load.D. SmartReporter analyzes all network traffic, logged or not.



QUESTION 36Which feature in R76 permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period?

A. Block Port OverflowB. Suspicious Activity Monitoring


C. HTTP MethodsD. Local Interface Spoofing



QUESTION 37MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway. How do youapply the license?

A. Using each of the Gateways' IP addresses, and applying the licenses on the Security Management Server with the command cprlic put.B. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and applying the license locally with the command cplic put.C. Using your Security Management Server's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.D. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.




QUESTION 38Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She canSSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it. What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

A. She needs to edit /etc/scpusers and add the Standard Mode account.B. She needs to run sysconfig and restart the SSH process.C. She needs to run cpconfig to enable the ability to SCP files.D. She needs to edit /etc/SSHd/SSHd_config and add the Standard Mode account.




QUESTION 39An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:

A. The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of a Security Gateway. Each module's license has a unique IP address.B. A license can be taken from one Security Management Server and given to another Security Management Server.C. Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.D. Only one IP address is used for all licenses.



QUESTION 40You are running the license_upgrade tool on your SecurePlatform Gateway. Which of the following can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?

A. Perform the actual license-upgrade processB. View the status of currently installed licensesC. Simulate the license-upgrade processD. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository



QUESTION 41Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import process?


A. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited.B. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten.C. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted.D. It will conflict with any future upgrades when using SmartUpdate.



QUESTION 42Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R76 license?

A. SmartConsoleB. SmartUpdate upgrading/patchingC. Check Point GatewayD. Security Management Server



QUESTION 43Central license management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following functions?

1. Check for expired licenses.

2. Sort licenses and view license properties.

3. Attach both R76 Central and Local licesnes to a remote module.

4. Delete both R76 Local Licenses and Central licenses from a remote module.

5. Add or remove a license to or from the license repository.


6. Attach and/or delete only R76 Central licenses to a remote module (not Local licenses).

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5B. 2, 3, 4, & 5C. 2, 5, & 6D. 1, 2, 5, & 6



QUESTION 44Which command gives an overview of your installed licenses?

A. cplic printB. cplicenseC. fw lic printD. showlic



QUESTION 45Where are SmartEvent licenses installed?

A. Security GatewayB. Log ServerC. Security Management ServerD. SmartEvent server

Correct Answer: D




QUESTION 46Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

A. Source NetworkB. Source UserC. Source MachineD. Source Server



QUESTION 47In which Rule Base can you implement a configured Access Role?

A. DLPB. Mobile AccessC. FirewallD. IPS



QUESTION 48Access Role objects define users, machines, and network locations as:


A. One objectB. Credentialed objectsC. Separate objectsD. Linked objects



QUESTION 49Where do you verify that SmartDirectory is enabled?

A. Verify that Global Properties > SmartDirectory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checkedB. Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use SmartDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checkedC. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use SmartDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checkedD. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > SmartDirectory (LDAP) > Use

SmartDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked



QUESTION 50You install and deploy GAiA with default settings. You allow Visitor Mode in the Gateway object's Remote Access properties and install policy; but SecureClientrefuses to connect. What is the cause of this?

A. Set Visitor Mode in Policy > Global Properties > Remote-Access > VPN - Advanced.B. Office mode is not configured.C. You need to start SSL Network Extender first, then use Visitor Mode.D. The WebUI on GAiA runs on port 443 (HTTPS). When you configure Visitor Mode it cannot bind to default port 443, because it's used by another program

(WebUI). You need to change the WebUI port, or run Visitor Mode on a different port.

Correct Answer: D




QUESTION 51With deployment of SecureClient, you have defined in the policy that you allow traffic only to an encrypted domain. But when your mobile users move outside of yourcompany, they often cannot use SecureClient because they have to register first (i.e. in Hotel or Conference rooms). How do you solve this problem?

A. Allow traffic outside the encrypted domainB. Allow your users to turn off SecureClientC. Allow for unencrypted trafficD. Enable Hot Spot/Hotel Registration



QUESTION 52When attempting to connect with SecureClient Mobile you get the following error message:

The certificate provided is invalid. Please provide the username and password.

What is the probable cause of the error?

A. Your user configuration does not have an office mode IP address so the connection failed.B. There is no connection to the server, and the client disconnected.C. Your certificate is invalid.D. Your user credentials are invalid.





Documents

Exam Code: 156-215.13 Exam Name: Check Point Certified ... · PDF fileCheckPoint.Passguide.156-215.13.v2014-11-08.by.George.359q Number : ... You installed Security Management Server