Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) … · 174) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinson's Disease because A) they are readily available

1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)

Chapter 3 The Cellular Level of Organization

Multiple Choice Questions

1) What is an advantage of the electron microscope over the compound light microscope?

A) It can function in complete darkness.

B) It is older, more reliable technology.

C) It is less expensive.

D) It allows much greater magnification of a specimen.

E) It is portable.

Answer: D

Learning Outcome: 3-1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

2) The smallest living unit within the human body is

A) a protein.

B) a cell.

C) a tissue.

D) an organ.

E) an organ system.

Answer: B


Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The cell theory includes all of these concepts except

A) each cell maintains homeostasis at the cellular level.

B) cells are the smallest units that carry out the essential functions of life.

C) cells are the building blocks of all organisms.

D) all cells come from the division of preexisting cells.

E) every cell is capable of living on its own if isolated from the body.

Answer: E



4) The only kind of cell in the body that is not produced by the division of preexisting cells is

A) a gamete (sperm or egg cell).

B) a neuron (nerve cell).

C) an osteocyte (bone cell).

D) none, because every cell is produced by the division of another cell.

E) a liver cell.

Answer: D




5) What would be an example of a cell maintaining homeostasis at the cellular level?

A) a cell of the intestine secretes digestive enzymes

B) a muscle cell contracts

C) a sperm fertilizes an egg

D) a cell takes up potassium to maintain the proper cytoplasmic potassium concentration

E) a cell divides to become two cells

Answer: D



6) Cytology is the study of

A) biological macromolecules.

B) causes and treatment of cancer.

C) the origins of life on Earth.

D) genes and their function.

E) the structure and function of cells.

Answer: E



7) ________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and

oocytes).

A) Core

B) Somatic

C) Corpus

D) Main

E) Primary

Answer: B



8) Most cells have only one

A) nucleus.

B) ribosome.

C) peroxisome.

D) lysosome.

E) mitochondrion.

Answer: A




9) The extracellular fluid in most tissues is called ________ fluid.

A) interstitial

B) cytosolic

C) cytoplasmic

D) outside

E) peripheral

Answer: A



10) What is a structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium?

A) cell wall

B) tissue

C) plasma membrane

D) skin

E) nucleus

Answer: C



11) If a hole is torn in a cell's plasma membrane, the cell will die because

A) it will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.

B) germs are attracted toward cytoplasm leaking from a cell.

C) it will not be able to undergo cell division.

D) its chromosomes will not be held in place.

E) cells can only make more plasma membrane during cell division.

Answer: A



12) What is the first part of the cell that is affected when the pH of extracellular fluid changes?

A) the nucleus

B) the nucleolus

C) the cytosol

D) the plasma membrane

E) the cytoskeleton

Answer: D




13) How is the plasma membrane involved in structural support of body tissues?

A) It has specialized connections to other cells or extracellular materials.

B) It primarily consists of fibrous proteins.

C) It is inflated by cytoplasm at high pressure.

D) Tissues are largely composed of empty plasma membranes left by dead cells.

E) It is hydrophobic, so it repels extracellular fluid and attracts the membranes of other cells.

Answer: A



14) Functions of the plasma membrane include all of the following except

A) separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid.

B) regulation of exchange of materials with the extracellular environment.

C) sensitivity to chemical changes in the extracellular fluid.

D) thermal insulation.

E) structural support.

Answer: D



15) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?

A) bind to ligands

B) regulate the passage of ions

C) act as carrier molecules for various solutes

D) act as anchors or stabilizers for the cell membrane

E) store cellular nutrients

Answer: E



16) Most of the surface area of a plasma membrane consists of

A) a protein bilayer.

B) a phospholipid bilayer.

C) carbohydrate molecules.

D) DNA.

E) cells.

Answer: B




17) The tails of a phospholipid molecule in a plasma membrane are

A) hydrophilic.

B) composed of amino acids.

C) hydrophobic.

D) facing the cytosol.

E) interlocked to provide membrane strength.

Answer: C



18) The plasma membrane does not include

A) integral proteins.

B) glycolipids.

C) phospholipids.

D) cholesterol.

E) silk mesh.

Answer: E



19) Identify the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane.

A) enables ions to pass

B) forms enzymes

C) reduces membrane fluidity and permeability

D) anchors the phospholipids

E) provides energy

Answer: C




Figure 3-1 The Plasma membrane

Use Figure 3-1 to answer the following questions.

20) What part of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

E) 6

Answer: B




21) Which structure is water most likely to pass through?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 8

Answer: B



22) Which structure has a "gate" to control transport?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 7

E) 8

Answer: E



23) Microfilaments are labeled

A) 1.

B) 2.

C) 3.

D) 5.

E) 6.

Answer: D



24) Membrane proteins perform all of the following functions except

A) anchoring the cell to other structures.

B) binding to extracellular ligands.

C) transporting solutes across the membrane.

D) catalyzing chemical reactions.

E) metabolizing glucose to gain energy.

Answer: E




25) Identify the mismatched pair.

A) receptor proteins—bind to extracellular ligands

B) channel proteins—provide passageway for ions

C) recognition glycoproteins and glycolipids—identify the cell as "self"

D) carrier proteins—allow a cell to move

E) enzymes—speed up chemical reactions

Answer: D



26) Proteins of the plasma membrane carry out all of the following functions except

A) binding to DNA to turn on genes.

B) sending and receiving signals to and from other cells.

C) transporting substances across the membrane.

D) anchoring the cell to external structures.

E) catalyzing chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of the membrane.

Answer: A



27) Receptor molecules on the surface of cells bind specific molecules called, in general,

A) recognizers.

B) binders.

C) ligands.

D) bonders.

E) reactants.

Answer: C



28) Water and small hydrophilic solutes

A) may pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.

B) cannot pass through a plasma membrane.

C) can dissolve holes in the plasma membrane.

D) may pass through channels in the plasma membrane.

E) do not mix with each other.

Answer: D


Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying


29) The watery component of the cytoplasm is called

A) cytosol.

B) protoplasm.

C) extracellular fluid.

D) interstitial fluid.

E) matrix.

Answer: A



30) Which of the following descriptors regarding cytoplasm is false?

A) contains less protein than extracellular fluid

B) the material that fills a cell

C) syrupy or gel-like consistency

D) includes cytoskeleton

E) includes cytosol

Answer: A



31) Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that accelerate metabolic reactions.

A) carbohydrates

B) enzymes

C) lipids

D) messengers

E) ions

Answer: B



32) Compared to the extracellular fluid, cytosol contains

A) a higher concentration of potassium ions.

B) a lower concentration of dissolved proteins.

C) almost no glycogen.

D) a higher concentration of amino acids.

E) almost no lipids.

Answer: A




33) The cytoplasm contains the fluid cytosol, insoluble inclusions, and the

A) microvilli.

B) nucleolus.

C) enzymes.

D) organelles.

E) cilia.

Answer: D



34) Masses of insoluble material that are sometimes found in cytosol are known as

A) colloids.

B) emulsifiers.

C) solutes.

D) crystals.

E) inclusions.

Answer: E



35) The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle.

A) filamentous

B) extracellular

C) interstitial

D) membranous

E) bound

Answer: D



36) ________ are compartments within the cell whose contents are isolated from the cytosol.

A) Cytoskeleton

B) Microvilli

C) Nonmembranous organelles

D) Membranous organelles

E) Ribosomes

Answer: D




37) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except

A) lysosomes.

B) cilia.

C) centrioles.

D) ribosomes.

E) cytoskeleton.

Answer: A



38) Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8).

1) mitochondrion 5) synthesizing molecules

2) centriole 6) liquid in cell

3) endoplasmic reticulum 7) provides cell with energy

4) cytosol 8) aids the formation of the spindle apparatus

A) 1 and 7, 2 and 6, 3 and 8, 4 and 5

B) 1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7

C) 1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6

D) 1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8

E) 1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7

Answer: C



39) Tubulin is to microtubules as actin is to

A) ribosomes.

B) microfilaments.

C) intermediate filaments.

D) flagella.

E) microvilli.

Answer: B



40) Microfilaments do not

A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins.

B) help determine the consistency of cytoplasm.

C) produce cell movement, with myosin.

D) consist of the protein called actin.

E) distribute chromosomes to opposite ends of a dividing cell.

Answer: E




41) Microfilaments

A) are usually composed of myosin.

B) are hollow, filamentous structures.

C) anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins of the cell membrane.

D) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions.

E) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome.

Answer: C



42) Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell

division?

A) microfilaments

B) intermediate filaments

C) thick filaments

D) microtubules

E) basal bodies

Answer: D



43) Which of following properties of microtubules is correct?

A) made of myosin

B) made of actin

C) found only in the terminal web

D) another term for microfilaments

E) interact with dynein and kinesin

Answer: E



44) Which of following properties of the cytoskeleton is incorrect?

A) supports organelles

B) controls cell shape

C) provides cell strength

D) connects cells to each other

E) moves organelles

Answer: D




Figure 3-2 The Anatomy of a Representative Cell

Use Figure 3-2 to answer the following questions:

45) The structure labeled "1" permits the cell to

A) attach to neighboring cells.

B) produce more cells.

C) increase its surface area for increased absorption.

D) swim in extracellular fluid.

E) trap bacteria.

Answer: C




46) Which structure organizes the mitotic spindle during cell division?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 5

E) 6

Answer: B



47) Synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids occurs in the structure labeled

A) 4.

B) 5.

C) 6.

D) 7.

E) 8.

Answer: D



48) Which organelle renews the cell membrane and modifies and packages proteins for

secretion?

A) 4

B) 5

C) 6

D) 7

E) 8

Answer: C



49) Which structure produces ATP for the cell?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 5

E) 6

Answer: C




50) Microvilli are found on cells of the inner surface of the small intestine, where they

A) slow the movement of food through the digestive tract.

B) increase the absorption of nutrients from digested food.

C) sense the presence of food in the digestive tract.

D) push food along the digestive tract.

E) protect the intestinal lining from irritants or toxins in the food.

Answer: B



51) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to

A) move.

B) synthesize proteins.

C) produce DNA.

D) metabolize sugars.

E) divide.

Answer: E



52) The ________ is the microtubule organizing center of the cell.

A) flagellum

B) ribosome

C) nucleus

D) centrosome

E) plasma membrane

Answer: D



53) Centrioles form the basal bodies that anchor microtubules within cilia and

A) flagella.

B) microfilaments.

C) microvilli.

D) ribosomes.

E) chromosomes.

Answer: A




54) Cilia and flagella contain nine pairs of ________ surrounding a central pair.

A) microvilli

B) microfilaments

C) microsomes

D) microtubules

E) intermediate filaments

Answer: D



55) Motile cilia move fluids across a cell's surface, while a flagellum

A) cools a cell.

B) is not motile.

C) fastens one cell to another.

D) propels a cell through fluid.

E) detects environmental stimuli.

Answer: D



56) ________ may be scattered in the cytoplasm or bound to endoplasmic reticulum.

A) Mitochondria

B) Ribosomes

C) Vesicles

D) Proteosomes

E) Nuclei

Answer: B



57) Ribosomes are composed of protein and

A) glycogen.

B) rRNA.

C) ATP.

D) DNA.

E) steroids.

Answer: B




58) The "r" in rRNA stands for

A) regeneration.

B) recurrence.

C) rebuilding.

D) ribosomal.

E) radiation.

Answer: D



59) ________ are responsible for identifying and digesting damaged or denatured proteins.

A) Peroxisomes

B) Proteasomes

C) Lysosomes

D) Endosomes

E) Nucleosomes

Answer: B



60) Proteosomes ________ proteins that have been damaged or denatured.

A) tag for destruction by a different organelle

B) break down

C) expel from the cell

D) repair

E) duplicate

Answer: B



61) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the

A) ribosomes.

B) rough ER.

C) smooth ER.

D) Golgi apparatus.

E) mitochondria.

Answer: C




62) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached

ribosomes?

A) rough endoplasmic reticulum

B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C) mitochondria

D) nucleoli

E) Golgi apparatus

Answer: A



63) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?

A) all forms of endoplasmic reticulum

B) simple endoplasmic reticulum

C) raised endoplasmic reticulum

D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E) rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: E



64) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for all of the following except

A) drug and toxin neutralization.

B) lipid synthesis.

C) modification of new proteins.

D) passing molecules to the Golgi apparatus.

E) housing the chromosomes.

Answer: E



65) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except

A) storage and release of calcium ions.

B) synthesis of protein.

C) synthesis of steroid hormones.

D) synthesis of triglycerides.

E) detoxification of drugs.

Answer: B




66) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth

endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells?

A) digestive enzymes

B) steroid hormones

C) protein hormones

D) transport proteins

E) antibodies

Answer: B



67) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false?

A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER.

B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER.

C) It produces lysosomes.

D) It supplies new membrane components.

E) It produces secretory vesicles.

Answer: B



68) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi

apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps?

1. Cisternae move from the forming face toward the maturing face.

2. Exocytosis

3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles.

4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face.

5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face.

6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins.

A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3

B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4

C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2

D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2

E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5

Answer: D



69) The ________ typically consists of five or six flattened membranous discs called cisternae.

A) centrioles

B) rough endoplasmic reticulum

C) Golgi apparatus

D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E) mitochondria

Answer: C




70) When activated, lysosomes function in

A) formation of new cell membranes.

B) synthesis of proteins.

C) digestion of materials.

D) synthesis of lipids.

E) cell division.

Answer: C



71) Macrophages are cells that engulf and consume germs or debris. What organelle must be

especially plentiful in these cells?

A) centrioles

B) lysosomes

C) mitochondria

D) ribosomes

E) nuclei

Answer: B



72) Peroxisomes

A) both generate and break down hydrogen peroxide.

B) pull the chromosomes toward the poles of a dividing cell.

C) manufacture proteins.

D) manufacture most of a cell's ATP.

E) contain the genetic information of a cell.

Answer: A



73) Organelles that break down fatty acids and hydrogen peroxide are

A) lysosomes.

B) peroxisomes.

C) endocytic vesicles.

D) nuclei.

E) toxisomes.

Answer: B




74) What is the source of new material for the plasma membrane?

A) microtubules

B) mitochondria

C) rough endoplasmic reticulum

D) ribosomes

E) Golgi apparatus

Answer: E



75) In addition to secreting products from the cell, vesicles produced by the Golgi apparatus can

A) house chromosomes.

B) produce ATP.

C) synthesize proteins.

D) add new material to the plasma membrane.

E) transport materials to the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: D



76) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is false?

A) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.

B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis.

C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.

D) The mitochondria produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation.

E) The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP.

Answer: D



77) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none.

This suggests that

A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived.

B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.

C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply.

D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand.

E) some cells are older than others.

Answer: B




78) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the

A) cytoplasm.

B) endoplasmic reticulum.

C) nucleus.

D) mitochondria.

E) cilia.

Answer: D



79) Most of a cell's DNA is located in its

A) ribosomes.

B) lysosomes.

C) Golgi apparatus.

D) nucleus.

E) nucleolus.

Answer: D



80) The control center for cellular operations is the

A) nucleus.

B) mitochondria.

C) Golgi apparatus.

D) endoplasmic reticulum.

E) ribosome.

Answer: A



81) A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, it

A) can repair itself readily.

B) is malformed.

C) can only divide once more.

D) will be a long-lived cell.

E) cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.

Answer: E




82) The nucleus is surrounded by the

A) plasma membrane.

B) membranous sac.

C) phospholipid bilayer.

D) nuclear envelope.

E) chromosome shield.

Answer: D



83) Which organelle is more prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein?

A) nucleus

B) nucleolus

C) chromosome

D) proteasome

E) mitochondria

Answer: B



84) The components of ribosomes are formed within

A) the endoplasmic reticulum.

B) Golgi complexes.

C) lysosomes.

D) mitochondria.

E) nucleoli.

Answer: E



85) Histones are found in

A) nucleosomes.

B) proteasomes.

C) lysosomes.

D) vesicles.

E) endosomes.

Answer: A




86) Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.

A) RNA; carbohydrates

B) DNA; lipids

C) DNA; proteins

D) water; RNA

E) RNA; proteins

Answer: C



87) In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as

A) histones.

B) histiocytes.

C) chromatin.

D) chromaffin.

E) genes.

Answer: C



88) How do chromosomes become visible under a light microscope as a cell prepares to divide?

A) The cell becomes flat and thin, and its internal structures become easier to see.

B) Thin strands of chromatin coil tightly and then coil again.

C) DNA is thicker after it has replicated.

D) Chromosomes become more intensely colored before cell division.

E) Chromosomes are created before cell division, and then broken down afterward.

Answer: B



89) Each triplet of bases in a gene corresponds to

A) one amino acid in a protein.

B) one DNA nucleotide.

C) one protein.

D) one mRNA.

E) one chromosome.

Answer: A




90) The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins

are

A) chromosomes.

B) genes.

C) ribosomes.

D) codons.

E) RNA.

Answer: B



91) A gene is a set of specific instructions that

A) produces amino acids for proteins.

B) copies DNA strands for mitosis.

C) controls the process of mitosis.

D) indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule.

E) directs carbohydrate synthesis.

Answer: D



92) Which of the following is false about DNA fingerprinting?

A) determined by analyzing proteins

B) unique to each individual with the exception of identical twins

C) used extensively during crime scene investigations

D) may be obtained from blood, semen, hair, and other tissues

E) based on short tandem repeats (STRs) in the DNA

Answer: A



93) The "m" in mRNA stands for

A) messenger.

B) modifier.

C) metabolic.

D) molecular.

E) matching.

Answer: A




94) The enzyme ________ is required for the synthesis of mRNA.

A) RNA polymerase

B) deoxyribase

C) phosphatase

D) RNA synthetase

E) ribase

Answer: A



95) The process of forming mRNA is called

A) replication.

B) transcription.

C) translation.

D) ribolation.

E) auscultation.

Answer: B



96) The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment.

A) neocodon

B) intron

C) histone

D) promoter

E) boosting

Answer: D



97) Thymine is replaced by which nitrogen base in RNA?

A) ribose

B) uracil

C) guanine

D) thymine is not replaced in RNA

E) cytosine

Answer: B




98) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is

A) ATC.

B) TAG.

C) UAG.

D) AUG.

E) AUC.

Answer: C



99) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be

A) edited to remove introns.

B) edited to remove exons.

C) transported into the cytoplasm.

D) edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm.

E) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus.

Answer: D



100) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through

A) carrier proteins.

B) gap junctions.

C) nucleosides.

D) gap lines.

E) nuclear pores.

Answer: E



101) mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm.

A) carbohydrates

B) lipids

C) proteins

D) phospholipids

E) salts

Answer: C




102) A molecule of ________ contains all the codons needed to produce a particular

polypeptide.

A) rRNA

B) mRNA

C) dRNA

D) tRNA

E) cRNA

Answer: B



103) The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called

A) replication.

B) transcription.

C) translation.

D) mitosis.

E) auscultation.

Answer: C



104) The anticodon for the triplet UCA is

A) AGU.

B) AGC.

C) TCA.

D) TGT.

E) AGT.

Answer: A



105) During protein synthesis, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each

tRNA has a(n) ________ that binds to the next codon in the mRNA.

A) enzyme

B) nucleotide

C) anticodon

D) promotor

E) transporter

Answer: C




106) Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide

chain by

A) aRNA.

B) mRNA.

C) rRNA.

D) tRNA.

E) pRNA.

Answer: D



107) The "t" in tRNA stands for

A) translate.

B) transport.

C) transfer.

D) transcribe.

E) transmit.

Answer: C



108) What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis?

1. mRNA is produced in nucleus.

2. Ribosome moves along mRNA.

3. DNA uncoils for transcription.

4. Polypeptide is produced.

5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome.

6. mRNA moves to ribosome.

A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4

B) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5

C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6

D) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4

E) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6

Answer: A



109) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called

________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________.

A) replication; transcription; translation

B) interphase; replication; active transport

C) replication; translation; transcription

D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis

E) reproduction; duplication; initiation

Answer: A




110) Permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more

genes are called

A) interferons.

B) mutations.

C) reconstructions.

D) polymorphs.

E) changelings.

Answer: B



111) The ________ of a cell membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross.

A) thickness

B) pliability

C) density

D) permeability

E) charge

Answer: D



112) Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but

not others.

A) impermeable

B) doubly amphipathic

C) hydrophilic

D) selectively permeable

E) hydrophobic

Answer: D



113) A cell can increase how fast a substance diffuses across its plasma membrane by inserting

channels, which modify the

A) distance across the membrane.

B) concentration gradient of the substance.

C) size and mobility of the substance.

D) membrane's permeability to the substance.

E) charge of the substance.

Answer: D




114) The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low

concentration is an example of

A) osmosis.

B) active transport.

C) diffusion.

D) facilitated transport.

E) filtration.

Answer: C



115) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal

breathing. Under these circumstances, in the lungs

A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.

B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood.

C) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.

D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood.

E) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged.

Answer: A



116) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the

following except

A) the availability of ATP.

B) the presence of membrane channels for the substance.

C) its charge of the substance.

D) its concentration gradient.

E) its lipid solubility.

Answer: A



117) There is a direct correlation between the potency of a general anesthetic such as ether and

its ability to

A) dissolve in water.

B) dissolve in lipids.

C) bind to proteins.

D) interact with carbohydrates.

E) bind to DNA.

Answer: B




118) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through

A) channels formed by integral membrane proteins.

B) peripheral proteins.

C) lipid channels.

D) peripheral carbohydrates.

E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane.

Answer: A



119) Which of the following best describes osmosis?

A) active transport of water across the cell membrane

B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration

C) movement of water into a solute

D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively

permeable membrane

E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy

Answer: D



120) Imagine a beaker divided down the center by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to

water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2

contains the same volume of pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation?

A) Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2.

B) Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1.

C) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 1.

D) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 2.

E) The volume of liquid remain equal on both sides.

Answer: C



121) A blood cell undergoes crenation when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution.

A) isotonic

B) hypertonic

C) hypotonic

D) merotonic

E) homotonic

Answer: B




122) Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution.

A) isotonic

B) hypertonic

C) hypotonic

D) merotonic

E) homotonic

Answer: C



123) If the amount of chloride ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would

initially occur?

A) The blood osmotic pressure will increase.

B) The blood osmotic pressure will decrease.

C) The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same.

D) The blood hydrostatic pressure will increase.

E) The blood hydrostatic pressure will decrease.

Answer: A



124) If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases

and the concentration of other solutes remains constant,

A) the cells will shrink.

B) the cells will swell.

C) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic.

D) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic.

E) the cells will not change.

Answer: B



125) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called

A) merotonic.

B) hypertonic.

C) isotonic.

D) hypotonic.

E) homotonic.

Answer: D




126) A patient suffers blood loss and is given IV fluids that contain an impermeable

carbohydrate called dextran, which serves to ________ leading to an increase in blood volume.

A) provide nutrition

B) increase the osmolarity of the blood

C) increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

D) decrease the osmolarity of the blood

E) reduce blood clotting

Answer: B



127) In ________, one substance is transported into the cell and another is transported out.

A) cotransport

B) ditransport

C) countertransport

D) protransport

E) throughtransport

Answer: C



128) Assume that the import of a particular amino acid across the plasma membrane is observed

(1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a different but similar

amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the

membrane is most likely by

A) osmosis.

B) diffusion.

C) facilitated diffusion.

D) active transport.

E) pinocytosis.

Answer: C



129) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their

concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called

A) osmosis.

B) facilitated diffusion.

C) active transport.

D) endocytosis.

E) exocytosis.

Answer: B




130) Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that

A) facilitated diffusion consumes ATP.

B) facilitated diffusion moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher

concentration.

C) the rate of facilitated diffusion is limited by the number of available carrier proteins.

D) facilitated diffusion never eliminates the concentration gradient.

E) facilitated diffusion does not rely on carrier proteins.

Answer: C



131) Membrane-bound proteins that use metabolic energy to move ions across the plasma

membrane are called ________ pumps.

A) channel

B) receptor

C) active

D) motor

E) ion

Answer: E



132) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration

gradient is called

A) active transport.

B) passive transport.

C) facilitated transport.

D) osmosis.

E) diffusion.

Answer: A



133) Secondary active transport

A) is not carried out by membrane proteins.

B) is not directly linked to the hydrolysis of ATP.

C) does not link the pumping of one substance to the concentration gradient of another.

D) does not require the cell to invest energy, either directly or indirectly.

E) cannot move a substance against its concentration gradient.

Answer: B




134) An extracellular cation whose concentration gradient drives the secondary active transport

of many different solutes is

A) sodium.

B) calcium.

C) potassium.

D) chloride.

E) glucose.

Answer: A



135) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, one abundant type of exchange pump ejects

________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions.

A) potassium; calcium

B) sodium; calcium

C) potassium; sodium

D) sodium; potassium

E) calcium; sodium

Answer: D



136) All of the following membrane transport mechanisms are passive processes except

A) diffusion.

B) facilitated diffusion.

C) vesicular transport.

D) osmosis.

E) movement of water.

Answer: C



137) The intake of materials from the extracellular fluid using vesicles is called

A) osmosis.

B) exocytosis.

C) facilitated transport.

D) endocytosis.

E) an ion exchange pump.

Answer: D




138) Endocytosis is a

A) method for transporting substances into the cell.

B) method for metabolizing within the cytosol.

C) form of anabolism.

D) viral infection.

E) method for packaging secretions.

Answer: A



139) Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A) is a type of secretion.

B) imports target molecules after they bind to membrane proteins.

C) does not require energy from the cell.

D) can only move a substance down its concentration gradient.

E) imports extracellular fluid, including all of its dissolved molecules.

Answer: B



140) A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates

A) pinocytosis.

B) receptor-mediated exocytosis.

C) exocytosis.

D) phagocytosis.

E) receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Answer: D



141) The electric potential difference across the cell membrane is known as

A) the membrane potential.

B) the membrane difference.

C) the cellular potential.

D) the cellular difference.

E) the plasmalemma potential.

Answer: A




142) The membrane potential in an undisturbed cell is called its

A) quiet potential.

B) inactive state.

C) passive state.

D) resting membrane potential.

E) interphase.

Answer: D



143) In a series of measurements of resting membrane potentials, the following values were

recorded. Which one is likeliest to be an error?

A) -10 mV

B) -20 mV

C) -40 mV

D) -70 mV

E) +100 mV

Answer: E



144) The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the unequal distribution of

________ across the membrane.

A) carbohydrate molecules

B) water molecules

C) cations and anions

D) acids and bases

E) phospholipids and proteins

Answer: C



145) Which of these substances could be driven across a membrane by the resting membrane

potential?

A) H2O

B) O2

C) glucose

D) Na+

E) CO2

Answer: D




146) The genetically programmed death of cells is called

A) differentiation.

B) replication.

C) apoptosis.

D) metastasis.

E) mitosis.

Answer: C



147) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not

A) maintain the integrity of the nuclear envelope.

B) form complementary strands of DNA during replication.

C) link segments of DNA together.

D) form spindle fibers.

E) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase.

Answer: B



148) In DNA replication,

A) 23 copies are made of each chromosome.

B) one new copy is made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome remains intact.

C) two new copies are made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome is destroyed.

D) two copies are made of each chromosome, and each copy contains one of the DNA strands

from the original chromosome.

E) the chromosome is copied to RNA, which is then copied to DNA for a new chromosome.

Answer: D



149) When is DNA replicated?

A) interphase

B) anaphase

C) metaphase

D) telophase

E) interkinesis

Answer: A




150) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares

for division is called

A) prophase.

B) metaphase.

C) interphase.

D) telophase.

E) anaphase.

Answer: C



151) The process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division is called

A) replication.

B) repetition.

C) recurrence.

D) remodeling.

E) reassembling.

Answer: A



152) A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase.

A) Go

B) G1

C) G2

D) Gm

E) S

Answer: E



153) Before a cell divides, its DNA must be replicated to

A) provide a backup copy of DNA in case the original DNA is damaged during mitosis.

B) replace the DNA lost during transcription.

C) supply each new cell with a full set of the genetic material.

D) replace genetic instructions used by the original cell.

E) use as an energy source during cytokinesis.

Answer: C




154) The proper distribution of a somatic cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is

accomplished by the process of

A) cytosis.

B) mitosis.

C) cytokinesis.

D) phoresis.

E) meiosis.

Answer: B



155) During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes at the start of

A) prophase.

B) metaphase.

C) interphase.

D) telophase.

E) anaphase.

Answer: E



156) During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms,

and cytokinesis occurs.

A) anaphase

B) prophase

C) interphase

D) telophase

E) metaphase

Answer: D



157) During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has

A) a different number of chromosomes than the original cell.

B) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell.

C) the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.

D) a lesser number of chromosomes than the original cell.

E) half as many chromosomes as the original cell.

Answer: C




158) The correct order of phases in the cell cycle is

A) prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase.

B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase, and prophase.

C) interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase.

D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

E) metaphase, anaphase, interphase, prophase, and telophase.

Answer: D



159) If an animal cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes

would each daughter cell have?

A) 9

B) 36

C) 23

D) 18

E) It varies, but the total number in the two daughter cells will always add up to 18.

Answer: D



160) Which phase of the cell cycle has the biggest extremes in duration?

A) S phase

B) G0 phase

C) G1 phase

D) G2 phase

E) V phase

Answer: B



161) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase

A) are stem cells.

B) do not exhibit cytokinesis.

C) have brief life spans.

D) are reproductive cells.

E) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase.

Answer: A




162) Special cells called ________ cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division.

A) cytogenic

B) mother

C) stem

D) root

E) omnipotent

Answer: C



163) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called

A) cytosis.

B) mitosis.

C) cytokinesis.

D) phoresis.

E) meiosis.

Answer: C



164) During growth, a tissue increases in size by

A) increasing the size of its cells.

B) increasing the osmolarity of its tissue fluid to draw in water.

C) increasing its rate of cell division.

D) dilating blood vessels to increase its blood supply.

E) recruiting cells from surrounding tissues.

Answer: C



165) A chemical from outside a cell that promotes cell division is called a

A) nutrient.

B) promoter.

C) mutagen.

D) telomere.

E) growth factor.

Answer: E




166) Cyclin, a protein that becomes more abundant as the cell cycle proceeds,

A) delays cytokinesis.

B) activates repressor genes.

C) triggers DNA replication.

D) damages telomeres.

E) takes part in triggering mitosis.

Answer: E



167) When telomeres get too short after repeated cell divisions,

A) the cell dies.

B) the cell becomes cancerous.

C) the cell stops dividing.

D) the chromosomes uncoil.

E) the cell divides more frequently.

Answer: C



168) An alternate term for tumor is

A) neoplasm.

B) cytoplasm.

C) benign malignancy.

D) primary metastasis.

E) nucleoplasm.

Answer: A



169) Cancer cells

A) are indistinguishable from normal body cells.

B) have a slow mitotic rate.

C) may exhibit metastasis.

D) do not form neoplasms.

E) generally form benign tumors.

Answer: C




170) A(n) ________ is a mutated regulatory gene that causes cancer.

A) neogene

B) plasmogene

C) toxogene

D) oncogene

E) monogene

Answer: D



171) ________, which is usually inactive in adult cells, is active in 90% of cancer cells.

A) Phagocytosis

B) Apoptosis

C) The p53 gene

D) Telomerase

E) DNA polymerase

Answer: D



172) The process by which cells become specialized is called

A) determination.

B) cytokinesis.

C) mutation.

D) differentiation.

E) distinction.

Answer: D



173) Different cell types in the body

A) produce exactly the same proteins.

B) have different genes.

C) are identical except for their superficial appearance.

D) have the same genes, but different sets of genes are inactivated.

E) have the ability to take on the characteristics of each other or any cell in the body.

Answer: D




174) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinson's Disease because

A) they are readily available.

B) they divide quickly.

C) they are young and vigorous.

D) they have not yet differentiated.

E) they are taken from the brain of the embryo.

Answer: D



In-Text Figure Based Questions

1) What are the three different components that make up the cytoskeleton in all body cells?

(Figure 3-3)

A) thick filaments, thin filaments, intermediate filaments

B) microfilaments, microvilli, villi

C) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules

D) thick filaments, thin filaments, microvilli

E) microtubules, macrotubules, tubules

Answer: C



2) What are the two reactants shown here that are necessary for energy production? What are the

three products shown here as a result of this reaction? (Figure 3-9)

A) oxygen and ATP; carbon dioxide, pyruvate, and water

B) oxygen and carbon dioxide; pyruvate, carbon dioxide, and water

C) water and pyruvate; oxygen, carbon dioxide, and ATP

D) oxygen and pyruvate; carbon dioxide, ATP, and water

E) carbon dioxide and pyruvate; oxygen, ATP, and water

Answer: D



3) How is DNA organized in the nucleus when the cell is prepared for division? How is DNA

organized in the nucleus when the cell is not dividing? (Figure 3-11)

A) tightly coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin

B) tightly coiled as chromatin; loosely coiled as chromosomes

C) loosely coiled as chromosomes; tightly coiled as chromatin

D) loosely coiled as chromatin; tightly coiled as chromosomes

E) loosely coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin

Answer: A




4) How do small water-soluble molecules and ions diffuse across the plasma membrane? How do

lipid-soluble molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane? (Figure 3-15)

A) diffuse by osmosis; diffuse by carrier-mediated transport

B) diffuse by endocytosis; diffuse by pinocytosis

C) diffuse by carrier-mediated transport; diffuse by passive transport

D) diffuse directly through the plasma membrane; diffuse through membrane channels

E) diffuse through membrane channels; diffuse directly through the plasma membrane

Answer: E



5) Describe the concentration of the intracellular fluid relative to the extracellular fluid in parts b

and c. (Figure 3-17)

A) hypotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid

B) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid

C) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid

D) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid

E) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; isotonic to the extracellular fluid

Answer: B



6) In the facilitated diffusion of glucose, what determines the direction in which glucose

molecules will be transported? (Figure 3-18)

A) the amount of ATP available inside the cell versus outside the cell

B) the amount of sodium available to bind inside the cell versus outside the cell

C) the concentration gradient

D) the voltage of the membrane

E) the tonicity of the cell

Answer: C



7) What provides the energy for the sodium-potassium exchange pump? (Figure 3-19)

A) breaking the high energy bond of ADP

B) the concentration gradient of sodium

C) the concentration gradient of potassium

D) breaking the high energy bond of ATP

E) the voltage of the cell

Answer: D




Essay Questions

1) Describe the ways that proteins of the plasma membrane allow a cell to control its internal

environment or interact with its external environment.

Answer: Carrier proteins and channels help control the cell's internal environment by allowing

specific materials to enter the cell. Anchoring proteins connect the cell's cytoskeleton to

extracellular proteins or to other cells. Recognition proteins allow immune cells to identify the

cell. Receptor proteins allow the cell to respond to external signals such as hormones. Finally,

enzymes can carry out chemical reactions inside or outside the cell, depending on which face of

the membrane they are attached to.



2) Which organelles are involved in membrane flow? Trace the route of a single integral

membrane protein from formation to incorporation into the plasma membrane.

Answer: All membranous organelles are involved in membrane flow. Those most directly

associated are the ER, Golgi apparatus, secretory vesicles, and plasma membrane. A membrane

protein would be synthesized in the RER, then flow through the cisternae to a transport vesicle.

There the protein will be moved to the forming face of the Golgi apparatus, where it will slowly

travel upward toward the maturing face, usually becoming modified along the way. Once

reaching the maturing face of the Golgi apparatus, the protein would be embedded in the

membrane of a secretory vesicle and transported to the plasma membrane. There the vesicle will

fuse with the membrane, inserting the protein in the cell membrane.



3) What organelles would be enhanced in a cell that produces digestive enzymes and secretes

them into the intestine? Why?

Answer: Digestive enzymes are proteins, and they are produced at a high rate while a meal is

being digested. Organelles that would be enhanced include the nucleus, which would have larger

or more numerous nucleoli for making ribosomes; a larger number of ribosomes for making

proteins; increased rough ER, where proteins to be secreted are made; more numerous or larger

Golgi apparatus, where proteins are packaged for secretion; and more secretory vesicles to carry

the enzymes to the surface of the cell.



4) Differentiate between transcription and translation.

Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a

complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA

strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.




5) When a person receives intravenous fluids to help build up blood volume, why is it important

for the fluid to be isotonic?

Answer: Intravenous fluids must be isotonic to prevent the cells from losing or gaining water. If

the solution was hypertonic, the cells of the body would lose water, shrink, and possibly be

harmed. On the other hand, the introduction of hypotonic fluid would cause the cells to swell and

tissues to rupture.



6) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs.

Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference

in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration

(or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower

to higher tonicity).



7) During kidney dialysis, a person's blood is passed through a bath that contains several ions

and molecules. The blood is separated from the dialysis fluid by a membrane that allows water,

small ions, and small molecules to pass, but does not allow large proteins or blood cells to pass.

What should the composition of dialysis fluid be for it to remove urea (a small molecule without

changing the blood volume (removing water from the blood)?

Answer: For the dialysis fluid to remove urea without removing water, it should not contain

urea. Because urea is a small molecule, it will diffuse through the dialysis membrane from an

area of high concentration (the blood to an area of low concentration (the dialysis fluid). To

prevent an associated osmotic water movement, the dialysis fluid should have an osmotic

concentration similar to that of blood plasma, but with higher concentrations of solutes such as

bicarbonate ions or glucose. As urea diffuses into the dialysis fluid, glucose and bicarbonate

diffuse into the blood; as a result, the solute concentrations remain in balance and no osmotic

water movement occurs.



8) A) What are the similarities between facilitated diffusion and active transport? B) What are

the differences?

Answer: A) Both processes use carrier proteins and exhibit saturation. B) Facilitated diffusion is

driven by a concentration gradient, does not consume ATP, and so is "passive," whereas active

transport is active, consumes ATP, and moves a substance up its concentration gradient.




9) Tell how a carcinogen can cause cancer, and describe the progression of cancer.

Answer: Some carcinogens directly cause rapid cell division and others are mutagens that may

mutate a gene that regulates cell growth, differentiation, or division. Cancer begins with

increased cell division to produce a cluster of cells called a tumor or neoplasm. These cells

change their appearance, lose their response to certain inhibitory signals, and may acquire other

mutations. Malignancy occurs as cells from the tumor invade surrounding tissues. Metastasis

occurs when these cells enter the circulatory system and start tumors in distant regions of the

body. Angiogenesis is the growth of blood vessels into the region of the tumor. Tumors can

disrupt normal function by failing to carry out their regular functions, physically interfering with

normal tissue, outcompeting normal tissues for nutrients, or overproducing their normal

products, such as hormones.



Documents

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) … · 174) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinson's Disease because A) they are readily available