Sample Paper PACE Medical AITS

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

PACE MEDICAL: DELHI / BHIWADI / MUMBAI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / KOLKATA / NASHIK / GOA / RAIBARELLY / NAGPUR / PUNE

Kalu Sarai : 011-41022929, 41657741 | Mayur Vihar : 011-22751870, 43095612

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PHYSICS 1. The correct statement from the following is (a) Average speed is equal to the magnitude of average velocity (b) Average velocity cannot be zero for moving body (c) The magnitude of average velocity is always less than or equal to the average

speed (d) Average velocity is not a vector quantity 2. A particle moves along a straight line with a constant acceleration a, the distance

covered by the particle in the nth second (a) does not depend on the initial velocity (b) does not depend on the constant acceleration

(c) is given by ( )= +01 2 – 12nx v a n (d) is given by ( )= +0

1 – 12nx v a n

3. A particle moving along the x-axis travels first 3m distance with velocity 3m/s and the second 3m distance with velocity 6m/s. The average velocity of the particle is

(a) 4 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 4.5 m/s (d) 6 m/s 4. A projectile is thrown up an inclined plane of angle β with a

velocity v0 at an angle α with the plane as shown in fig. Then time of flight of the particle is given by

(a) αβ

02 sinsinvg

(b) αβ

02 sincosvg

β

α

v0

(c) ( )α β

β

+02 sincos

vg

(d) ( )α β

β

+02 sinsin

vg

5. The correct statement related to a non uniform circular motion is

(a) tangential acceleration =rdvdt

(b) tangential acceleration =r

d vdt

(c) centripital acceleration =rdvdt

(d) acceleration is independent of radius of circle 6. The displacement time graph of a particle moving

along a straight line is shown in the given figure. The distance – time graph of the particle is

(a) (b)




3

(c) (d)

7. A projectile crosses two walls of equal

height H symmetrically as shown in figure. The time of flight is equal to

(a) 8 s (b) 9 s (c) 7 s (d) 10 s 8. If an external force F is applied at angle θ with the horizontal

as shown in the fig. The value of F for which frictional force between block and wall is zero is

(a) mg (b) θsin

mg

MθF

µ

Rough

(c) θcos

mg (d) mg cosθ

9. Two blocks m1 and m2 are placed in contact with each

other on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of frictionµ. A horizontal force F is applied on the block m1 as shown in the fig. The minimum value of F required to move the block m1 is

m2m1

F

µ

(a) µm1g (b) µm2g (c) µ(m1 + m2)g (d) µ(m1 – m2)g

10. A block of mass m moving with velocity v0 on a smooth horizontal surface strikes a spring of stiffness k as shown in the figure. The net work done on the block till it comes to rest is

(a) 20–mv (b) + 2

0mv

(c) 20

1–2mv (d) zero

11. The magnitude of the momentum of a particle varying with time is shown in figure. The variation of the force acting on the particle is shown as

(a) (b)




4

(c) (d)

12. In the fig. shown a rod of length L and mass M is lying

in the X-Y plane passing through the origin as its centre. The moment of inertia of the rod about X-axis is

(a) θ2

2cos12ML

(b) θ2

cos12ML

(c) θ2

sin12ML (d) θ

22sin

12ML

13. A spool is pulled vertically upward by a constant force F as shown

in the figure. Which of the following represents correct instantaneous direction of friction at the point of contact?

(a) (b)

(c) (d) Cannot be interpreted

14. A U-tube in which the cross-sectional area of the limb on the left is one quarter, the limb on the right contains mercury (density 13.6 g/cm3). The level of mercury in the narrow limb is at a distance of 36 cm from the upper end of the tube. What will be the rise in the level of mercury in the right limb if the left limb is filled to the top with water

(a) 1.2 cm (b) 2.35 cm (c) 0.56 cm (d) 0.8 cm

15. In the figure shown below, which of the diodes are forward biased?

Water

Mercury




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(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 5 (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4

16. The figure shows a container filled with a liquid of density ρ. It shows three points A, B and C lying along the same horizontal line. The correct statement about the pressure at the three points is

(a) PA < PC < PB (b) PA = PB = PC (c) PA = 0 (d) nothing can be said

17. The correct statement of continuity equation is (a) A1 V1 = A2 V2 for steady flow (b) ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2

for steady flow (c) ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2 for any flow (d) Both a & c 18. In the basic CsCl crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl– ions are

arranged in a bcc configuration as shown in the figure. The net electrostatic force exerted by the eight Cs+ ions on the Cl– ion is

(a) πε

2

20

1 44 3

ea

(b) πε

2

20

1 164 3

ea

(c) πε

2

20

1 324 3

ea

(d) zero

19. A spring of stiffness constant k is cut into two parts A & B of length lA : lB = 2 : 3. The stiffness constant of spring A is given by

(a) 53k (b) 5

2k

(c) k (d) none 20. A cube of side b and density ρ0 float on the

surface of a liquid of density ρ > ρ0 as shown in fig. If the cube is slightly pushed downward, and it oscillates simple harmonically, the period of oscillation is

(a) ρπ

ρ02 b

g (b) ρ

πρ02 bg




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(c) ρπ

ρ⎛ ⎞+⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠02 1 bg

(d) ρπ

ρ

⎛ ⎞+⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠02 1 b

g

21. The displacement of a particle is given by x = 3 sin (5 t)π + 4 cos (5 tπ ) The amplitude of particle is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7

22. If ru represent the instantaneous velocity of the particle and rv represents the velocity of disturbance, then correct relation between the two

(a) ⊥r ru v (b) r r

| |u v (c) =

r ru v (d) none

23. The correct expression for the intensity of a wave travelling along the taut string is

(a) ρω 2 212

v A (b) ρ ω2 212v A

(c) ρ ω2 2 212v A (d) ρ ω 21

2v A

24. Two vibrating tuning forks produce waves given by y1 = 4sin 500 πt, y2 = 2sin 506 πt. A person will hear

(a) 3 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 9 (b) 3 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 2 (c) 6 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 2 (d) 6 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 9

25. In the phenomenon of standing waves (a) Two waves moving in opposite direction but of same amplitude are

superimposed (b) Two waves moving in opposite direction may be of different amplitudes are

superimposed (c) Two waves with different frequencies superimposed (d) None

26. Identify the operation performed by the circuit given below (a) NOT (b) AND (c) OR (d) NAND

27. The effect of temperature on Maxwell speed distribution curve between number of molecules at a particular speed and speed is correctly show by (T1 > T2).

(a) (b)




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(c) (d)

28. The total degree of freedom of a CO2 gas molecule is (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) None

29. The figure shows PV diagram of a thermodynamic cycle. If TA, TB, TC, and TD are respective temperature at A, B, C, D. Then choose correct statement if TA = T0

(a) The maximum temperature during the cycle at c (b) TD = 3 T0 (c) TB = 2 T0 (d) All the above

30. A sphere, a cube and thin circular plate are heated to the same temperature. All are made of the same material and have equal masses. If t1, t2 and t3 are the respective time taken by the sphere, cube and the circular plate in cooling down to a common temperature, then

(a) t1 > t2 > t3 (b) t1 < t2 < t3 (c) t2 > t1 > t3 (d) t1 = t2 = t3

31. A concave lens of focal length forms an image which is ‘n’ times the size of the object. What is the distance of the object from the lens in term of f and n?

(a) ⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠1–nu fn

(b) ⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

1– nu fn

(c) u = nf (d) none

32. In a glass slab, the deviation produced (a) is diverging (b) converging (c) zero (d) depends on outside medium

33. Light ray is incident on a prism of angle A = 60º and µ = 2. Then angle of incidence at which emergent ray grazes the surface is

(a) ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

–1 3 – 1sin2

(b) ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

–1 1– 3sin2

(c) ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

–1 3sin2

(d) ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

–1 2sin3

34. In YDSE, if intensity of two slits S1 and S2 be I0 and 4 I0 respectively, the max

min

II

will be

(a) 4 (b) 53

(c) 9 (d) 3




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35. When ray of light travelling in air enters into a medium of refractive index µ (a) its speed decreases by µ (b) its frequency decreases by µ (c) its wavelength increases by µ (d) all the above

36. The radioactivity of a sample is I1 at a time t1 and I2 at a time t2. If the half-life of the sample is τ1/2, then the number of nuclei that have disintegrated in the time t2 – t1 is proportional to

(a) I1 t2 – I2t1 (b) I1 – I2

(c) τ1 2

1/2

–I I (d) (I1 – I2)τ1/2

37. An infinitely long straight wire carries a steady current I. Rod PQ is oriented perpendicularly to it and moves parallel to it with constant velocity v. Then

(a) Vp – Vq > 0 (b) Vp – VQ < 0

(c) Vp – VQ = 0 (d) Nothing can be said about the loop

38. L, C and R respectively represent inductance, capacitance and resistance. Which of the following combinations have the dimensions of frequency?

(a) RL

(b) 1RC

(c) RLC

(d) 1LC

39. In the circuit shown in figure. (a) The capacitance between a and b is zero (b) The capacitance between a and c is infinite (c) The capacitance between a and c is

+1 2

1 2

C CC C

(d) None of these

40. When a capacitor C is charged by a battery of emf E through a resistor R, Then

(a) If gets charged to a lesser magnitude of charge as compared to the situation without resistance

(b) It stores less amount of electrostatic energy

(c) It takes longer time to get completely charged (d) All the above are correct

41. Charge q is uniformly distributed along the circumference of a semi-circular ring of radius R. The E at O is

(a) 2

KqR

(b) 2

2KqR

+

++ +

+O

(c)

π 22KqR

(d) zero

42. The potential difference between the two points A and B in an electric field rE is

defined as




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(a) = ∫uurr

– – .B

A BA

V V E dl (b) = ∫uurr

– – .B

B AA

V V E dl

(c) Cannot be defined without specifying the point of zero potential (d) the derivative of electric field

43. The Correct Statement related to the charge on each plate is

(a) ε⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

0

2AA Eqd

(b) ε⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠03

2BA

q Ed

(c) ε⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠03

2CA

q Ed

(d) All the above

44. A charge q0 undergoes a displacement ( )=r ˆ ˆ3 – 4s i j m in the uniform field

( )=r ˆ ˆ3 – 4 /E i j N c

(a) The work done by electric field is + 25q0 (b) The work done by electric field is –25q0 (c) The work done by external force is + 25 q0 (d) The work done by external force is –25q0

45. A ray of light penetrates from a denser medium (µ) to a rarer medium air (µ = 1) at an angle θ as shown in the figure. Take critical angle

θµ

⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

–1 1sin .C The correct variation of angle of

deviation δ with respect to angle of incidence is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

46. The value of B at O in the adjacent figure is

(a) ( )µ µπ

0 0–4 2I I

inwardsR R

(b) ( )µ µπ

0 0–4 2I I

outwardsR R

(c) ( )µ µπ

+0 0

4 2I I

outwardsR R

(d) ( )µ04Iinwards

R R

0




10

47. If a sample of hydrogen gas is excited to the third excited state, the number of distinct photons emitted are

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

48. X rays are produced when a stream of fast moving electron (a) is passed through a tube containing hydrogen gas (b) hits a metal target (c) hits a target of heavy metal (d) is passed through a tube containing air

49. 300 g of water of 25ºC is added to 100g of ice at 0ºC. The final temperature of the mixture is [Sice = 0.5 cal/ gmºc, = =

2/ º , 80 / ]H O fS cal gm c L cal gm

(a) 5– º3C (b) 5– º

2C

(c) –5ºC (d) 0ºC

50. A radioactive substance undergoes α and β decays simultaneously. The half life for α and β decay are Tα and Tβ respectively. The half life T for the substance is given by

(a) Tα + Tβ (b) Tα – Tβ

(c) α βT T (d) α β

α β+

T TT T

51. Identify the particle ‘x’ in the following nuclear reaction? + ⎯⎯→ +

129 44 2 6

.Be He C x (a) electron (b) alpha particle (c) neutron (d) proton

52. The time period of the following arrangement is

(a) π52 Mk

(b) π102 Mk

(c) π25kM

(d) None k

M

k

53. The variation of maximum KE of the electron emitted with frequency f of light is given

by

(a)

KE(max)

f (b)

KE (max)

f




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(c)

KE (max)

f (d)

KE (max)

f 54. A coil is falling is vertical plane inside a uniform

magnetic field as shown in the fig. The directions of induced current is best shown by

(a) (b)

(c) (d) None of these

55. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t + Δt, the moment of inertia of the rod increases from I to I + ΔI. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the rod is α,

then, the ratio ΔII

is

(a) Δtt

(b) Δ2 tt

(c) α Δt (d) 2α Δt

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). (a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion, then mark (a) (b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the

assertion, then mark (b) (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c) (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)

56. A: A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table

R: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

57. A: The internal energy of an ideal gas does not change during an isothermal process.

R: The decrease in volume of a gas is compensated by a corresponding increase in pressure when its temperature is held constant.




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58. A: A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery of voltage V. The battery is then disconnected. If the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric, the energy stored in the capacitor will decrease

R: The capacitance of a capacitor increases due to the introduction of a dielectric between the plates.

59. A: Standard optical diffraction cannot be used for discriminating between different X-ray wavelength.

R: The grating spacing is not of the order of X-ray wavelengths.

60. A: Red light travels faster in glass than green light. R: The refractive index of glass is less for red light than for green light.

CHEMISTRY

61. The energy E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25eV and 50eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be

(a) λ1 = λ2 (b) 2λ1 = λ2

(c) λ1 = 4λ2 (d) λ1 = 212λ

62. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum which is equal to 1 × 10–18 g cm s–1. The uncertainty in velocity of electron (mass of electron is 9 × 10–28g) is

(a) 1 × 109 cm s–1 (b) 1 ×106 cm s–1 (c) 1 × 105 cm s–1 (d) 1 × 1011 cm s–1

63. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is (a) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+ (b) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (c) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (d) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+

64. Which of the following is the largest in size? (a) S2– (b) Se2– (c) O2– (d) Te2–

65. Which of the following two are isostructural? (a) XeF2, IF2

– (b) NH3, BF3 (c) CO3

2–, SO32– (d) PCl5, ICl5

66. The types of hybridization on the five carbon atoms from left to right in the molecules CH3—CH = C = CH—CH3 are (a) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3 (b) sp3, sp, sp2, sp2, sp3 (c) sp3, sp2, sp, sp2, sp3 (d) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp, sp3

67. The correct order of C — O bonds length among CO, CO32–, and CO2 is

(a) CO < CO2 < CO32– (b) CO2 < CO3

2– < CO (c) CO < CO3

2– < CO2 (d) CO32– < CO2 < CO

68. How many hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) are associated with CuSO4. 5H2O? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4




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69. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3 3 times that of a hydrocarbon having molecular formula CnH2n-2. What is the value of n?

(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 8

70. The heats of atomization of PH3(g) and P2H4(g) are 954 kJ mol–1 and 1485 kJ mol–1 respectively. The P – P bond enegy in kJ mol–1 is

(a) 213 (b) 426 (c) 318 (d) 1272

71. 4.48L of an ideal gas at STP requires 12 calories to raise its temperature by 15°C at constant volume. The Cp of the gas is

(a) 3 cal (b) 4 cal (c) 7 cal (d) 6 cal

72. The molar solubility (in mol L–1) of a sparingly soluble salt MX4 is ‘s’. The corresponding solubility product is Ksp ‘s’ is given in terms of Ksp by the relation:

(a) s = (256 Ksp)1/5 (b) s = (128 Ksp)1/4

(c) s = (Ksp/128)1/4 (d) s = (Ksp/256)1/5

73. The equilibrium constants 1pK and

2pK for the reactions X 2Y and Z P Q+à à àÜ à à àÜá à àà á à àà respectively are in the ratio 1 ; 9. If degree of

dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressure at these equilibria is (a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 36 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1: 3

74. When a strong acid is titrated using a weak base, the pH value at equivalence point is

(a) 7 (b) > 7 (c) < 7 (d) = 7

75. Consider the following gaseous equilibria with equilibrium constants K1 and K2 respectively.

SO2(g) + 2 31O (g) SO (g)2

à à àÜá à àà

2SO3(g) 2 22SO (g) O (g)+à à àÜá à àà

The equilibrium constants are related as

(a) 21 22K K= (b) 2

12

1KK

=

(c) 22

1

1KK

= (d) 2 21

2KK

=

76. For two ionic slids KI and CaO, identify the wrong statement among the following (a) Lattice energy of CaO is much higher than that of KI (b) KI is soluble in benzene (c) CaO has high m.p. (d) KI has high m.p.

77. A solid compound ‘X’ on heating gives CO2 gas and a residue. The residue mixed with water forms ‘Y’. On passing an excess of CO2 through Y in water, a clear solution ‘Z’ is obtained. On boiling ‘Z’ compound ‘X’ is formed. The compound ‘X’ is




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(a) CaCO3 (b) Na2CO3 (c) K2CO3 ()d) Ca(HCO3)2

78. Which among the following is kinetically inert towards water? (a) Na (b) Be (c) Ca (d) K

79. Which of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt (I) KIO3 (II) KI3 (III) I2 (IV) HI (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV

80. Among the following ions pπ-dπ overlap could be present in (a) NO3

– (b) PO43–

(c) CO32– (d) NO2

–

81. When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3, the gas envolved is (a) NO2 (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) N2O

82. Reaction of diborane with ammonia gives initially (a) B2H6 . NH3 (b) Borazole (c) B2H6 . 3NH3 (d) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–

83. In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm).

(a) 15.45 (b) 16.45 (c) 17.45 (d) 14.45

84. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism (a) 2-Butene (b) Lactic acid (c) 2-Pentanone (d) Phenol

85. Which one of the following is n-butyl phenylvinyl methane?

(a) PhMe

Me

Me

(b)

MePh

Me

(c) Me

Ph

Me

(d) Me

Ph Me

86. When subjected to acid catalysed hydration, the order of reactivity of the alkenes; (CH3)2C = CH2 (I), CH2CH = CH2 (II) and CH2 = CH2 (III) is (a) III > II > I (b) I > III > II (c) I > II > III (d) II > I > III

87. In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is




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(a)

H H

CH3

H

CH3

H

H CH3

CH3

H

H

H

(c)

CH3

H H

H

CH3H

CH3

H H

CH3

HH

88. Which of the following compounds can yield only one monochlorinated product upon free radical chlorination?

(a) Propane (b) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane (c) 2-Methylpropane (d) N-Butane

89. If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closet packing sequence ABC ABC ……, the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to

(a) Z (b) 2Z (c) Z/2 (d) Z/4

90. In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those of element X occpy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be

(a) X3Y4 (b) X4Y3 (c) X2Y3 (d) X2Y

91. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol–1) is isotonic with 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molar mass of the non volatile solute is

(a) 300 g mol–1 (b) 350 g mol–1 (c) 200 g mol–1 (d) 250 g mol–1

92. Highest boiling point is found in (a) 0.1 M NaCl (b) 0.1 M BaCl2 (c) 0.1 M Sucrose (d) 0.1 M KCl

93. Same amount of electric current is passed through solution of AgNO3 and HCl. If 1.08 of silver is obtained in the first case, the amount of hydrogen liberated at S.T.P. in the second case is:

(a) 112 cm3 (b) 22400 cm3 (c) 224 cm3 (d) 1.008 g

94. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is [Fe(CN)6]4– ⎯→ [FE(CN)6]3– + e– E° = –0.35V Fe2+ ⎯→ FE3+ + e– E° = –0.77V (a) Fe2+ (b) Fe3+ (c) [Fe(CN)6]3– (d) [Fe(CN)6]4–




16

95. In an experiment, 0.04 F was passed through 400 mL of a 1 M NaCl solution. Wha would be the pH of the solution after electrolysis?

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 6

96. The experimental rate law of a reaction: 2A + B ⎯→ Product is rate ∝ CA CB

1/2. If the concentrations of both A and B are doubled the rate increases by a factor of

(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 2 (d) 4

97. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately:

(a) 45 minutes (b) 60 minutes (c) 40 minutes (d) 50 minutes (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

98. The ion that is more effective for coagulation of As2S3 sol is (a) Ba2+ (b) Na+ (c) PO4

3– (d) SO42–

99. Which of the following is a carbonate ore? (a) Pyrolusite (b) Malachite (c) Diaspore (d) Cassiterite

100. Which of the following ore is best concentrated by the following scheme? (a) magnetite (b) cassiterite (C) galena (d) malachite

101. the oxidation state of phosphorus in cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is (a) +3 (b) +5 (c) –3 (d) +2

102. Na2S2O3 is reduced by I2 to (a) Na2S (b) Na2SO4 (c) NaHSO3 (d) Na2S4O6

103. Identify the incorrect statement among the following? (a) Silicon reacts with NaOH(aq) in the presence of air to give Na2SiO3 and H2O (b) Cl2 reacts with excess of NH3 to give N2 and HCl (c) Br2 reacts with hot and strong NaOH solution to form NaBr, NaBrO4 and H2O (d) Ozone reacts with SO2 to give SO3

104. Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers? (a) [Co(NH3]4Cl2] (b) [Ni(en)(NH3)4]2+ (c) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2]2– (d) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+

105. Which one of the following has square planar geometry? (a) [FeCl4]2– (b) [NiCl4]2– (c) [FtCl4]2– (d) [CoCl4]2–

106. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton units) of Cr(CO)6 is (a) 0 (b) 2.84 (c) 4.90 (d) 5.92




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107. Phenol 3

3 4

CH ClZn, dust AlkalineAnhyd. AlCl KMnOX Y Z⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ . The product Z is

(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Benzoic acid (c) Benzene (d) Toluene

108. Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for preparation of 1-methoxy-4-nitrobenzene?

3CH ONa+

Br

NO2

3CH Br+

ONa

NO2

(A) (B)

(a) A (b) B (c) Both A and B (d) None of these 109. The compound that undergoes dehydration very easily is (a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (b) ethyl alcohol (c) 3-methyl-2-butanol (d) propyl alcohol

110. The correct order of acidic strength of the following compound I. Phenol II. p=Cresol III. m-Nitrophenol IV. p-Nitrophenol is (a) IV > III > I > II (b) II > IV > I > III (c) I > II > IV > III (d) III > II > I > IV

111. CH3CO2C2H5 on reaction with sodium ethoxide in ethanol gives X, which on heating in the presence of acid gives Y. Compound Y is

(a) CH3COCH2COOH (b) CH3COCH3

(c) O

CH2 O

(d) CH2OC2H5

OC2H5

112. The most basic amine among the following is (a) p-toluidine (b) o-nitro aniline (c) p-nitroaniline (d) 2, 4-dinitroaniline

113. An example of water soluble vitamin is (a) vitamin D (b) vitamin E (c) vitamin A (d) vitamin C

114. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?

(a) An enzyme (b) A hormone (c) A co-enzyme (d) An antibiotic

115. The polymer used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled drug release is (A) Orlon (b) PTFE (c) SBR (d) PHBV



assertion, then mark (b) (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)




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(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)

116. A: One mole of SO2 contains double the number of molecules present in one mole of O2. R: Molecular weight of SO2 is double to that of O2.

117. A: Carbon-carbon double bond length in 2-butene is more than 1-butene. R:Hyperconjugations increases bond length of carbon-carbon double bond.

118. A: IUPAC name of

CH3 CH CH2 COOH

CHO

is 3-formylbutanoic acid.

R: In terms of priority, –COOH is senior to –CHO.

119. A: Boiling point of alkanes increases with increase in molecular weight. R: Van der Waal’s forces increase with increase in molecular weight.

120. A: Melting point of alkyne is more than the corresponding alkane. R: Alkyne has symmetrical (rod like structure) and hence, compact structure.

BIOLOGY

121. Some characteristic of animals are given below (i) Notochord is present in the embryonic as well as adult form (ii) Animals have closed circulatory system (iii) Animals shows bilateral symmetry (iv) Animals are always triploblastic and coelomates. The characteristic that apply to chordates are: (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (i) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (d) only (iii) and (iv).

122. The first adult chordates that exhibit all major chordate characteristic are: (a) Tunicates (b) Balanoglossus (c) Lancelets (d) Cyclostomes

123. In this given diagram, if a,b,c, is the Glycine, Alanine and Serine respectively then X, Y, Z must be

C

X

H NH2

COOH

(a)

C

Y

H NH2

COOH

(b)

C

Z

H NH2

COOH

(c) (a) H, CH3, C2H5 (b) CH3, C2H5OH, CH2OH (c) H, CH3, CH2OH (d) H, C2H5, CH2OH.

124. Which statement about protein is correct? (a) Quaternary structure of protein is determined by the primary amino acid

sequence. (b) In proteins only right handed helices are observed in its secondary conformation.




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(c) In protein tertiary structure is the result of the interaction of two or more independent polypeptide chain.

(d) Primary structure is altered by the interaction of the polypeptide chain with co-factors required for enzyme activity such as metal ions or vitamins.

125. Characteristic like cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground substance it serve as a support framework for epithelium, and present beneath the skin, are present in

(a) Areolar tissue (b) Loose connective tissue (c) Dense irregular connective tissue (d) Both (a) and (b).

126. Removal of pancreas results in (i) Undigertion of carbohydrate (ii) Undigestion of proteins (iii) Undigestion of fat (iv) Undigestion of nucleic acid (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii) only (c) (iii), (iv) only (d) (iii) only.

127. The major function of the large intestine is (a) Nutrient absorption of food (b) Housing parasitic bacteria. (c) Secretion of bile and enzymes (d) Reabsorption of water.

128. Which of the following component of food is completely undigested in buccal cavity of human’s?

(i) Protein (ii) Lipid (iii) Starch (iv) Nucleic acid. (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) (c) (i), (iv) (d) (iv) only.

129. In a mammalian lungs the rate at which oxygen could be obtained from the air would increase, except?

(a) Tidal volume increased. (b) The cells lining the alveoli and capillaries should be thin. (c) Blood hemoglobin contents increased. (d) Ascending to higher altitude.

130. The structural unit of kidney characterized of class Mammalia and involved in formation of Hyper-osomotic urine is:

(a) Collecting tubules (b) Loop of Henle’s (c) Loop of Henle’s (d) DCT.

131. Which of the following is the major site of tubular secretion for NH3, drugs, and H+? (a) PCT (b) DCT (c) Collecting duct (d) Loop of henle’s.

132. Total number of bones present in carpals, metacarpals and phallanges in a forelimb is

(a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 27 (d) 29.

133. Which of the following correctly explain the layers of retina, if the first layer is located next to vitreous humor?

(a) Pigmented cells – bipolar cells – ganglion cells – photoreceptor. (b) Ganglionic cells – bipolar cells – photoreceptor – pigmented cells (c) Photoreceptors – pigmented cells – ganglionic cells – bipolar cells. (d) Photoreceptors – bipolar cells – ganglionic cells – pigmented cells.




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134. Steroid hormones (a) Pass easily through cell membrane to act in the nucleus. (b) It includes testosterone, glucocorticoids and relaxin. (c) Are produced in the gonads only. (d) Stimulates liver cells to convert glucose to glycogen.

135. Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function? (i) Epididymis – capacitation of spermatozoa. (ii) Fallopian tube – catches ova in the stage of primary oocyte. (iii) Seminal vesides – produces ca++ rich sugar containing fluid. (iv) Corpus lutem – produces progesterone, a major female sex hormone. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) (b) (ii) (iii) only (c) (ii) only (d) (iv) only.

136. Which of the following effect can be seen, if a young female is taking a drug, which inhibit the release of GnRH from hypothalamus?

(a) Earlier onset of menstruation. (b) Follicle development. (c) Increased revel of oestrogen in the blood. (d) Decreased level of lutenizing hormone in the blood.

137. Implantation is followed by (a) Formation of blastocyst (b) Formation of zona pellucida (c) Formation of germinal layer (d) Both (a) and (c)

138. IUD prevents (a) Ovulation (b) Implantation (c) Fertilization (d) All of these.

139. In which of the following in vivo fertilization is applicable? (a) GIFT (b) IUT (c) ZIFT (d) Both (a) and (b).

140. ________ a flexible rubber, which fits over the cervix and prevents entry of sperm to uterus.

(a) IUD (b) Diaphragm (c) Sponge (d) Coil.

141. The observation of placental mice, in north America, are very similar in appearance to marsupial mice in Australia, is an example of

(a) Divergent evolution (b) Convergent evolution (c) Homology (d) Analogy.

142. Which of the following was not a part of Darwin’s explanation of natural selection? (a) Pre-adaptive variations exist within each species. (b) Members of a species compete with each other for food and space. (c) The offspring that are not fit possess traits which are best suited to the

environment (d) Individuals adjust their development depending on the environment.

143. “All living organisms that we see today were created as such” this explanation is based on

(a) Theory of biogenesis (b) Theory of special creation




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(c) Theory of abiogenesis (d) Theory of panspermia

144. Which of the following characteristic is not true regarding homo habilis? (a) Brain capacities were between 650 – 800 CC (b) They hunted with stone weapons (c) Bipedal locomotion (d) Meat eater.

145. A person is feeling of sense of euphorbia, and increased energy level, and even hallucination, after using the drugs –

(a) Morphine (b) Smack (c) Cocaine (d) Benzodiazepines.

146. The term insertional inactivation is related with (a) Bacterial plasmid vector (b) Retroviruses (c) Ti-plasmid (d) All of these

147. Term “disarmed vector’s” can be used for (a) Ti-plasmid (b) Retroviruses (c) PBR 322 (d) Both (a) and (b)

148. According to Mendel “factors” are? (a) Stably passed down from one generation to another (b) they are present in pair (c) They segregate independent of each other (d) All the above

149. In flowering plant, production of fruit is not throughout the year because (a) The require specific day length to flower (b) Various physiological factors play important role (c) There is inter-flowering period or recovery phase (d) All the above

150. Match the following A. Male gametophyte (i) Ovule B. Female gametophyte (ii) Pollen grain C. Megasporangium (iii) Embryo sac D. Scutellum (iv) Cotyledon (a) A – ii, B – iv, C – I, D – iii (b) A – ii, B – iii, C – I, D – iv (c) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – I (d) A – iii, B – ii, C – I, D – iv

151. The unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material was provided by Hershey and chase. Which of the following statement is not correct about their experiment?

(a) They used Bacteriophages and bacteria as experimental material (b) Their experiment is based upon fact that DNA contains phosphorous and protein

contains sulfur (c) They used different enzymes (d) They used centrifugation

152. A translation unit in flanked by start codon and stop codon and also has untranslated region at both 5ʹ′-end and 3ʹ′-end. They are required for?

(a) Activation of translation unit




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(b) For efficient translation process (c) For binding of smaller ribosomal sub-unit (d) For binding of larger ribosomal sub-unit

153. Arrange these steps of plant breeding as they carried out (i) Germplasm collection (ii) Hybridisation (iii) Testing and release (iv) Parent selection (v) Selection of superior recombinant (a) I, ii, iv, v, iii (b) I, iv, ii, v, iii (c) I, v, iv, ii, iii (d) I, ii, v, iv, iii

154. Which of the following is not possible through tissue culture? (a) Production of recombinants (b) Production of somatic hybrids (c) Production of disease free plant from diseased plant (d) Propagation of rare hybrids

155. Which of the following is correct for Monoascus purpureus (a) It is source of statin (b) It belongs to kingdom fungi (c) It belongs to kingdom monera (d) Both (a) and (b) is correct

156. Which of the following adaptation is not necessary for success of parasites? (a) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (b) High reproductive capacity (c) Well developed digestive system (d) Presence of adhesive organ

157. Which of the following is incorrect about ecological pyramids? (a) In most ecosystem, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are

upright (b) Pyramid of biomass in a sea is also generally inverted (c) Pyramid of number in a tree is inverted (d) Pyramid of energy in a aquatic ecosystem can be inverted or upright or bell

shaped

158. In secondary succession, invasion of a species depends upon all except (a) Condition of the soil (b) Availability of water (c) Seed or other propagules present (d) Reproductive potential of species

159. Match the following PGR ROLE (Physiological) A. Abscisic acid (i) Bolting B. Ethylene (ii) Chloroplast Production C. Gibbrellin (iii) Internode elongation in deepwater rice D. Cytokinin (iv) Seed development and Maturation (a) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii (b) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i (c) A – iii, B – iv, C – iii, D – iv (d) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, - D - ii

160. Which of the following product of respiratory pathway is withdrawn during synthesis




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of fatty acids? (a) Succinyl CoA (b) Pyruvic acid (c) PGAL (d) Acetyl CoA

161. Which of the following is incorrect for C3 plants? (a) They show photo respiration (b) Green house effect will increase their productivity (c) Have high temperature optima (d) CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cell

162. The x-shaped structure which is formed during diplotene of meiosis – I is? (a) Bivalent (b) Chiasmata (c) Recombination nodule (d) Tetrad

163. In dicot stem vascular bundles are (a) Large in number, scattered, endarch (b) Arranged in ring, endarch (c) Surrounded by collenchyma (d) without cambium

164. In coconut fibre is obtained from which part of fruit (a) Epicarp (b) Mesocarp (c) Endocarp (d) Cremocarp

165. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Rhodophyceae (a) Floridian starch is reserve food (b) Cell-wall contains polysulphate esters (c) Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘d’ is present (d) Gametes are motile

166. They are saprophytic, survives on organic matter, producing fruiting bodies during unfavourable condition, spore with cellulosic cell wall and dispersal of spore takes place by air currents

(a) Basidomycetes (b) Slime mould (c) Ascomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes

167. What is the similarity between collenchyma and sclerenchyma (a) Both are simple permanent tissue and living (b) Both are simple permanent tissue and dead (c) Both are simple permanent tissue and stores food (d) Both are simple permanent tissue and provide mechanical support

168. Archaebacteria is found in which of the following habitat (a) Marshy area (b) Salty area (c) Hot springs (d) All the above

169. Match the following A. Diatoms (i) cell-wall with stiff cellulose plate B. Dinoflagellate (ii) In place of cell wall pellicle C. Euglenoides (iii) Cell wall with silica D. Slime moulds (iv) Spore posses true wall (a) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv (b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii (c) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv (d) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii




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170. Find incorrect options about Bryophytes (a) Have unicellular or multicellular rhizoids (b) Sex organs are multi cellular (c) Embryo stage is not present (d) They can decompose rock

171. Which of the following is not correct about gymnosperm? (a) Endosperm is triploid (b) They are heterosporous (c) Megasporophylls cluster to form the female cone (d) Male gametophyte is highly reduced

172. Match the following A Fumigatory (i) Asparagus B. Vegetable (ii) Muliathi C. Medicine (iii) Tobacco D. Fodder (iv) Trifolium (a) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv (b) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv (c) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii (d) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii

173. This statement is true for which stage of cell division. “It beings with the simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome”

(a) Anaphase (b) Anaphase – I (c) Anaphase – II (d) both (a) and (c)

174. Which of the following family show apomixis? (a) Asteraceae (b) Poaceae (c) Solanaceae (d) Both (a) and (b)

175. ABO system of blood group is an example of (a) co-dominance (b) Multiple alleles (c) Incomplete dominance (d) More than one option is correct



assertion, then mark (b) (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c) (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)

176. A: Second infection of the same pathogen is quickly eliminated. R: Killer T cells becomes hyperactivated, and destroy extracellular pathogens.

177. A: In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional links between its individual cells.

R: Cell junctions always help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.

178. A: All the vertebrates are essentially also a chordates. R: In the vertebrates notochord appears first and further it is replaced with vertebral

column.




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179. A: Hotspots are recognized by high degree of endemism. R: They are threatened by human activity.

180. A: Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous cell-organelle. R: Mitochondria and chloroplast can produce some of their own protein.

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