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Solution Report For General Studies DG-1401

Q. No Question Status

Q.1

Attempt Incorrect Your Ans. a Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

Which of the following is not true about the important judgement on Indian generic drugmaker RanbaxyLaboratories Ltd in a US court and the concept of felony charges?

a. Indian generic drug maker Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd pleaded guilty recently in US court.

b. The charges were felony charges related to drug safety.

c. It was asked to pay $500 million in civil and criminal penalties under the settlement agreement with the USdepartment of justice.

d. Crimes when categorized according to nature of the crime are of three types and felonies are non-

criminal contractual natured crimes.

Q.2

Attempt Correct Correct Ans. c bookmarkSolution

Match the following ports with their concerning countries associated with China's 'String of Pearls'.

PortsConcerning

Countries

(A) Chittagong (i) Myanmar

(B) Sittwe and COCO Island (ii) Bangladesh

(C) Hambantota (iii) Pakistan

(D) Gwadar (iv) Sri Lanka

Code– A B C D

a. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

b. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

c. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

d. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Q.3

Attempt Incorrect Your Ans. d Correct Ans. c bookmarkSolution

Which farming type has been recommended by United Nations to fight hunger as it gives high feed nutritionvalue, is less environment damaging and has a capacity of multiplying itself.

a. Floriculture

b. Sea Food Farming

c. Insect Farming

d. None of these

Q.4 Which one is not true about the HO41 strain which is in news for disastrous consequences on humans and


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Not Attempt Correct Ans. a bookmarkSolution

has been taken more dangerous than AIDS?

a. It is a viral strain.

b. It was discovered in Japan in a female sex worker.

c. It is dangerous because getting gonorrhoea from this strain might put someone into septic shock anddeath in a matter of days.

d. Since it resists current antibiotic treatment, the strain has been placed in the superbug category with otherresistant micro organisms such as MRSA and CRE.

Q.5

Attempt Correct Correct Ans. c bookmarkSolution

Which was not a key point to address issues between India and China during the Chinese Premier LiKeqiang's visit to India in May 2013?

a. Appointment of two special representatives to ensure that incident like recent border standoffs in Depsangin Laddakh does not occur.

b. Steps to address trade deficit not in favor of India by signing certain MoUs to reduce the trade imbalance.

c. Steps to address long pending issue of Tibet.

d. Steps to increase Chinese investments in India.

Q.6

Not Attempt Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

What is not true for the Cyber Security in India?

a. Indian experts are mulling on creation of India specific alternative sites like 'Sina Weibo' and 'Renren' ofChina after their standoffs with Google.

b. A new system for monitoring called 'Central Monitoring System' has been launched in India which will offertax collectors, law enforcement and other agencies the ability to scrutinize phone calls, text messages,emails, social networking and general web activity.

c. CERT-In is the nodal agency on cyber security in India and National Technical Research Organisation,Defence Ministry and Ministry of Home Affairs are other key players.

d. India has supported the US secret program of scanning private person's e-mails etc. for security

reasons.

Q.7

Not Attempt Correct Ans. b bookmarkSolution

Scientists of the ‘Heavy Ion Program’ of NASA recently recreated the world's tiniest droplets of primordialstate of matter having size of three to five protons using the Large Hadron Collider. The recreated tiniestdroplets are related to:

a. The Ice age era.

b. Last existed moments after the Big Bang, some 13.8 billion years ago.

c. The Jurassic era.

d. None of these.

Q.8 Which of the following statement is true for the selection procedure of the CAG?

a. He is selected by a collegium consisting of Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition and Finance Minister.


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Attempt Correct Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

b. He is selected by a collegium consisting of Prime Minister, Leader of opposition, Chief Justice of India andFinance Minister.

c. He is selected by Prime Minister as per the Audit manual.

d. He is appointed by the President but the manner of selection is not clearly laid.

Q.9

Attempt Correct Correct Ans. a bookmarkSolution

In a changed global perspective, The Japanese establishment has opened a new set of opportunities forIndia. In this context, which of the following statement is not true?

a. Energy agreement except obtaining Japanese nuclear reactors and civil nuclear technology, as Japan is

averse to such transfer.

b. A US-India-Japan strategic understanding against the threat of territorial aggression by China.

c. Infrastructure development by using Japanese technical expertise and economic aid.

d. Development of financial sector.

Q.10

Attempt Correct Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

Expert Committee on "Leveraging Panchayati Raj Institutions for effective delivery of public goods andservices" recommended that all the social sector schemes should come under Gram Sabhas and hence aCentre-drafted model Gram Sabha law should be formulated to motivate State Legislation. Which of thefollowing are true about other recommendations?(i) Freezing of rotation of reserved seats to two or three terms to incentivize good work and facilitatecapacity building of panchayat leadership.(ii) Incentivize Panchayati Raj Institutions for transparency and accountability and the States to devolve it.(iii) Reorient the outlook of lower bureaucracy to panchayats.(iv) Collateral and institutional measures such as electronic tagging of funds, setting up of a NationalCommission for Panchayati Raj, and strengthening Gram Sabhas in PESA areas. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (ii) and (iv)

d. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q.11

Attempt Correct Correct Ans. b bookmarkSolution

Vegetation of this region consists of grass, mosses and lichens confined to summer season. Its frozensubsoil is called Permafrost. ‘Musk-ox’, ‘caribou’ are some animals found in the region. This region refers to:

a. Taiga

b. Tundra

c. Mediterranean

d. None of these

Q.12 Which of the following statements are correct regarding Atakama Desert?


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Attempt Incorrect Your Ans. a Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

(i) This desert is located in Northern Chile and Southern Peru.(ii) This is the driest desert in the world.(iii) This region is rich in gold, nitrate, copper and sulphur. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iii)

d. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q.13


Match List I with List II:

List I List II:

(A) Myopia (i) image forms behind retina

(B) Hypermetropia (ii) image forms infront of retina

(C) Astigmatism (iii) lack of conical cells

(D) Colour blindness (iv) structure of cornea becomes abnormal

Code– A B C D

a. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

b. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

c. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

d. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Q.14 Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(a) DEHP (di-2-

ethylhexylphthalate)

Chemical which belongs to a group called Phthalates that areoften used as additives in making common plastic products likecups, plastic wrap, toys and even used in intravenous tubing.

(b) MERSA newly found viral disease in news caused by Virus known ascorona virus. Its full form is Mid Europe Respiratory Syndrome.

(c) GRID or guy

plagueOld name of AIDS standing for "Guy related immune deficiency."

(d) NDM-1 or "New

Delhi Metallo betalactamase"

Scientists called it a superbug enzyme that makes bacteriaresistant to almost all known antibiotics.

a. a


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b. b

c. c

d. d

Q.15

Attempt Incorrect Your Ans. b Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

Which of the following is not correct regarding T.B?

a. The M. tuberculosis bacteria is the bacteria associated with T.B.

b. Two commonly used first-line T. B. drugs are Isoniazid and Rifampicin.

c. However the disease gets complicated when the M. tuberculosis bacteria becomes resistant to thesedrugs resulting in Multi-Drug Resistant TB (MDR-TB). Keeping it in concern, the Food and DrugAdministration (FDA) approved the drug named bedaquiline under its accelerated approval program.

d. ‘Directly Observed Treatment’ is the successful drug treatment strategy of US administration adopted by

many developing countries including India.

Q.16


Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding latest concepts on energy efficiency?

(a) Valley of

death

Expression for a phase in the development of some technologies whenit is generating a large and negative cash flow because developmentcosts increase but the risks associated with the technology are notreduced enough to entice private investors to take on the financialburden.

(b) Life Cyle

Analysis(LCA)

LCA aims to compare the full range of environmental damages due toany given product, technology, or service.

(c) LeapFrogging

The ability of developing countries to bypass intermediate technologiesand jump straight to advanced clean technologies.

(d) Rebound

Effect

After implementation of efficient technologies and practices, expectedenergy savings increase as a result of associated advancedresearches.

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

Q.17 Which planet equated as a ‘hot jupiter’ has been discovered using Einstein's theory of relativity located

about 2000 light years from Earth in the constellation Cygnus?

a. "Einstein's planet", formally known as Kepler-76b


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b. "Einstein's planet", formally known as Jup-76b

c. "Kepler planet", formally known as Kepler-76b

d. None of these

Q.18


Which of the following is not the contemplated way on the part of the government to eradicate wrongdoings in procurement?

a. Independent External Monitors

b. Integrity Pact

c. E-Procurement

d. Outsourcing all procurement to private sector.

Q.19


The population pyramid associated with the lower number of younger people, generally having older people,the country having high life expectancy, low death rate as well as low birth rate will be called:

a. Stable Pyramid

b. Stationary Pyramid

c. Expansive Pyramid

d. Constrictive Pyramid

Q.20


In May, the rupee had a new trend of huge downfall despite the steady Foreign Institutional Investmentinflows. Which of the following factors do not contribute to the trend?

a. Continuing apprehension in euro crisis.

b. Imbalance in Balance of Payments and increase in Current Account Deficit.

c. The question marks on broad parameters of economy and extent of reforms to actually follow like reductionin subsidy in the wake of Food Security Bill, control of Fiscal Deficit and Inflation.

d. A weak dollar.

Q.21 Match the following:

A. Hoisted tricolor at Gowalia tank ground afterarrest of Maulana Azad.

(i) Badruddin Tyabji

B. 2nd Indian Chief Justice of India and gave bail

to Tilak who was charged with sedition for hisarticles in Kesari

(ii) Aruna Asaf Ali

C. Central role in Motilal Nehru committee in

drafting the constitution in 1928.(iii) Vasudev Balwant Phadke


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D. Ramosi revolt (iv) Tej Bahadur Sapru

Code – A B C D

a. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

b. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

c. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

d. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Q.22


Which of the following is not an indicator of a good immunity in humans?

a. Low number of ‘T’-cells and ‘B’-cells.

b. High number of lymphocytes and red blood cells.

c. High levels of signalling molecules.

d. Higher levels of oestrogen to protect from cardiac problems.

Q.23


Which of the following is not true of right handers who account for about 95 percent of the total population?

a. They are Left-brain dominant persons.

b. They have their speech and language centres located on the left side of the brain.

c. They are more likely to use their right hand for writing and other everyday tasks.

d. Research has found that those people also use the phone in their right ear, as they have a perceived

difference in their hearing in the right ear as compared to the left ear.

Q.24

Not Attempt Correct Ans. c bookmarkSolution

Which of the following is not true of recent major medical breakthrough in genetics?

a. Scientists have for the first time converted human skin cells into embryonic stem cells, capable oftransforming into any other cell type in the human body.

b. The potential of the research lies in the fact that the cloned embryos which produce the stem cells, canmake new heart muscles after they get damaged by heart attack.

c. The technique in essence involves the use of fertilized embryos.

d. The technique is a variation of a commonly used method called ‘Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer’. (SCNT).

Q.25 Direction: The following question consists of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and theother as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these statements carefully and select the answers to theseitems using the codes given below: Assertion (A): During Freedom Struggle of India, Muslim League insisted on being the sole nominee ofmuslim representatives. Reason (R): As per Wavell's plan, the Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation in theexecutive council.


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Code –

a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation.

c. A is true but R is false.

d. A is false but R is true.

Q.26


From which of the following cases, disqualification on the ground of defection will not occur?(i) If a member looses the membership of his party due to split in it. Split in the party does mean when 1/3rdmembers form a new party in the house.(ii) When a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his party after being elected as the presidingofficer.

Code–

a. (i) only

b. (ii) only

c. (i) and (ii) both

d. Neither (i) nor (ii)

Q.27


Which of the following is not true for ‘sea water farming’?

a. That it is a response against the expected increase of Tsunami threats.

b. That the aim is to grow more and more sea water resistant varieties.

c. A key technique to transfer mangrove genes into crops like rice & other crops.

d. Taking a lead, Government of Tamilnadu has set up International Center for Research and Training in

below sea level farms.

Q.28


What is the impact of impurities on the physical parameters?

a. It increases boiling point and decreases freezing point.

b. It increases freezing point and decreases boiling point.

c. It increases both the boiling point and freezing point.

d. It decreases both the boiling point and freezing point.

Q.29 Which of the following is correct regarding Spectrum Refarming?

a. The decision of Telecom Commission sent to GoM of not renewing the existing telecom licenses valid till

November 2014 in the 900 MHz frequency and reallocate license at higher prices.

b. The decision of Telecom Ministry to allocate specific frequency to agriculture.

c. The decision of Telecom Ministry to allocate 900 MHz to new applicants leaving out the old ones as they


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have defaulted.

d. None of these.

Q.30


Which of the following is wrongly matched?

Assertion Reason

a) Those working in cotton fibre industries,

inhaling dust at their working place are athealth risk.

They are vulnerable to Black lung disease.

(b) Those working in textile industry are at

health risk. They are vulnerable to White lung disease.

(c) Excess of hydro carbon exposure can

cause serious health risk.

It's high concentrations causecarcinogenic effect i.e. cancer producingeffect.

(d) The acid rain results in mainly from

oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.

They react with water oxygen to formnitric and sulphuric acids respectively.

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

Q.31


Direction: The following question consists of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and theother as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these statements carefully and select the answers to theseitems using the codes given below:Assertion (A): Hydrogen bomb leaves more disastrous result than atom bomb.Reason (R): Its structure is based on nuclear fusion. Code –


b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation.



Q.32 South Central Railway has announced introduction of bio-toilets. Which of the following are true in thisregard? (i) The bio-toilet consists of six components.(ii) Human wastes are digested by bacteria in one component.(iii) In these toilets, human wastes are reduced to harmlers gases and water.


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(iv) It is decided to fit 200 bio-toilets in Padmavathi Express, Ajantha Express and all coaches ofHussainsagar Express. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (i), (ii) and (iii)

c. (ii) and (iv)


Q.33


In the following sentences, which industry is being referred to?

(i) Yamunanagar, Shahabad and Ballarpur are important centers.

(ii) The industry is trying to go for updated and environment friendly technologies.

(iii) Environment friendly technologies include the use of green boilers, replacement of fossil fuel by bio gas

etc., water and waste recycle etc.

Code:

a. Wood and Furnishing industry

b. Paper industry

c. Cement industry

d. None of these

Q.34


Match the following:

Place Mineral Deposits

A. Tumalapally near Hyderabad (i) Mica

B. Kerala's coastal track, Cuttack & Gunjam district of

Odisha

(ii) Recently found Uranium

deposits

C. Singhbhum and Jadugoda (Jharkhand),Cuddapah

basin (Andhra Pradesh)(iii) Thorium

D. Koderma (Jharkhand)(iv) Traditionally known forUranium deposits

Code : A B C D

a. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

b. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

c. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

d. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


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Q.35



Nuclear project places facing people's

movementsState

A. Jaitapur (i) Gujarat

B. Kovvada (ii) West Bengal

C. MithiVirdi (iii) Andhra Pradesh

D. Haripur (iv) Maharashtra

Code: A B C D


b. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

c. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

d. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Q.36



A. Cotton (i) Rainfall-1500 to 2000 mm and Temp-25 to 35 degree.

B. Jute (ii) Rainfall- 500 to 1000 mm and Temp- 18 to 20 degree.

C. Sugarcane (iii) Rainfall-600 to 850 mm and Temp-13 to 25 degree.

D. Wheat (iv) Rainfall- 800 to 1200 mm and Temp-14 to 35 degree.

Code– A B C D



c. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)


Q.37


Radioactive waste management is a necessity considering the fact that the radioactive waste does notdecay out for a long period. Which of the following is not a recommended method related to radioactivewaste management?

a. Geological disposal involving burying deep down in between geological formations.

b. Space disposal involving disposal in the space environment.

c. Transmutation involving change to a much non harmful form.

d. Re-usage i.e. reusing the radioactive matter thus resulting in lesser radioactive waste.


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Q.38


Direction: The following question consists of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and theother as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these statements carefully and select the answers to theseitems using the codes given below: Assertion (A): During Non Co-operation movement of 1920s, Gandhi-Reading talks failed.Reason (R): British government asked Gandhi ji to urge Ali Brothers to restrain themselves from issuingstatements which incite violence. This was viewed by Gandhi ji as an attempt of driving a wedge betweenhim and muslim leaders. Code –


b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.



Q.39


Which of the following is not true for Young Bengal Movement?

a. It was led by young Anglo-Indian Henry Derozio.

b. It derived inspiration from French Revolution.

c. It emphasised on public education and raised voice for the rights of Indians on social, political andeconomic affairs.

d. Its prolonged success was rooted in to the fact that it was synchronic with the prevalent time in which

country was ready to adapt its ideas.

Q.40


A key reason for the growth of the militant nationalism shows the recognition of the true nature of BritishRule. Which of the following added to this perception among Indians?

a. Disappointment from Indian Councils Act 1892 failing to satisfy them.

b. High handedness in deporting Tilak and Nathu brothers.

c. Addition of repressive laws under Indian Penal Code.

d. Amendment in Official Secrets Act 1870.

Q.41 Match the following :

Races Tribes

A. Negritos (i) Bhil, Chenchu, Ho, Kurumbas, Mundas

B. Proto Australoids (ii) Garo, Bodo Kachari, Dafla, Khasi

C. Mongoloids (iii) Parsis of Mumbai and Gujarat

D. Armenoids(iv) Andamanese, Nicobarese, Irulas,

Kadars, Kannikars


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Code – A B C D

a. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)




Q.42


Match the following.

A. INS

Tarkash

(i) Off shore Patrol vehicle fitted with Global Maritime Distress and Safety

System commissioned in May 2013.

B. Vaibhav(ii) Russian built multirole stealth frigate armed with Brahmos supersonic

missile.

C. Black

Panthers(iii) Israeli anti-missile defence system to intercept and des-troy missiles.

D. Iron

Dome

(iv) India's first fighter squadron after 1983 expected to be alig-ned with

INS Vikramaditya.

Code – A B C D





Q.43


The founder of the dynasty was Dantidurga. Kailash temple at Ellora was built by its king Krishna I.Cavetemple Elephanta was built by its kings. The dynasty referred to was:

a. Pandyas

b. Ikshvakus

c. Rashtrakutas

d. Pallavas

Q.44 Cancer therapy has seen a tremendous advance in recent times. Match the following in this regard.

A. Unsealed Source Radiotherapy(i) High-energy X-rays are directed at the

tumor from outside the body.

B. External Beam Radiotherapy

(ii) A therapeutic radioiso-tope is injected

into the body to chemically localize the


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tissue which requires destruction.

C. Brachy therapy

(iii) Radiation done precisely to the tumoras the treatment machine moves aroundthe patient in a single continuous 360degree rotation.

D. Rapid Arc treatment

(iv) Involves the precise placement ofshort-range Radiation- sources (radio-isotopes) directly at the site of thecancerous tumor.

Code – A B C D






A. Hole-in-the-Wall or HiWEL

(i) Initiative of Public Health Foundation ofIndia (PHFI) of providing kit to ASHAhealth workers enabling them to checkparameters like pulse, Blood Pressure,sugar etc. and containing android phoneto give connectivity to doctor or call foremergency response.

B. Swasthya Slate(ii) Mobile phone based online service toknow information about politicians andpolitical candidates.

C. Citizen Audit(iii) Sugata Mitra's E-Schooling venturewhich inspires learning by thinking anddiscussion in group.

D. Hackathon(iv) A National Information Centre and

Planning Commission effort to let usageof 12th FYP data analysis by people.

Code– A B C D

a. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

b. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

c. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

d. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


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Q.46


Consider the following statements regarding 'Tides'-(i) Tides are result of the gravitational forces of Sun and Moon on Earth and rotation of Earth. (ii) Neap tides result from the gravitational forces of Sun and Moon on Earth at right angles to each otherand gravitational pull at this position is weakest.(iii) The other tide called spring tide results from the gravitational forces of Sun, Moon and Earth in a lineeach other & gravitational pull at this position is strongest. It occurs on full moon or new moon days in themonth of spring. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (iii) only


Q.47


Which of the the following statement is not true about amending the Constitution of India?

a. That the process of amendment is neither as easy as British constitution nor as difficult as United States.

b. That Article 368 deals with Parliament's power to amend and the procedure required. It can amend anyprovision in accordance with the procedure laid down in the constitution itself but cannot change the basicstructure of the constitution.

c. The bill seeking amendment to the constitution can be introduced in any of the houses of the Parliamentand needs to be passed by a special majority and needs to be sent to state legislatures only when federalissue is involved.

d. President cannot withhold his assent but can return for its consideration.

Q.48


Which of the following is not true regarding the pardoning powers of President and Governor?

a. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by a court martial but Governor cannot.

b. The President can pardon, suspend, commute and remit a death sentence but Governor cannot.

c. The pardoning powers of both President and Governor are same except for pardon of sentences inflicted bya court martial and pardon of a death sentence.

d. The pardoning powers of President and Governor derive from Art 72 and 161 of the constitution respectively.

Q.49 Which of these are true for drip irrigation?(i) It is water economical technology.(ii) It involves reaching water directly to the roots of the plants saving water loss in transmission.(iii) It is a boon for arid and semi-arid areas.(iv) India has benefitted from the scientific knowledge of Israel in Drip irrigation. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)


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c. (i) (ii) and (iii)


Q.50


Which of the following is not true for the powers of the speaker in the Lok Sabha?

a. Calling of a secret meeting of the house on request of the Lok Sabha.

b. Certifying that a bill is a money bill and that his/her power in this regard is final.

c. Presiding over joint sitting of the two houses.

d. Deciding matters of disqualification of a member under Anti Defection Law and that his/her power in this

regard is final.

Q.51


Which of the following are taken as an indication of the flexibility of the Indian Constitution?(i) Bulk of the Indian Constitution can be amended by unilateral action of Parliament either by simple orspecial majority.(ii) The Parliament and not the State Legislatures have the power to initiate the amendment of theConstitution.(iii) If an amendment concerns federal matters, it is referred to the State Legislatures. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iii)


Q.52


If a bill is passed by both houses of the Parliament and before the President's assent, cabinet resignes,then which of these is true for the fate of the bill?

a. The bill lapses as cabinet resigned before President's assent.

b. The bill does not lapse and President would assent after formation of new cabinet taking it a property ofpast Parliament.

c. The bill does not lapse but President may not assent if new cabinet advices not to give assent.

d. President refers it to the new Parliament for a reconsideration.


A. Laffer curve (i) A measure of inequality in a country as compared with others.

B. Phillips Curve (ii) Options (call & put) and forward trading.

C. Ginnicoefficient (iii) Curve related to unemployment.


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D. Derivative(iv) Broad basing of taxes will result in same revenue as hiking of

tax.

Code – A B C D





Q.54


Which of the following is not true of deflation?

a. Value of money rises, the price of goods and services falls and factory closing and unemployment cycle.

b. Value of money falls and the price of goods & services rises and factory closing and unemployment

cycle.

c. May result from Government withdrawing money from circulation or imposing heavy direct taxes or takingheavy loans from the public which is in turn not spent back.

d. May result from Central Bank selling the securities from open market, raising CRR, bank rate.

Q.55



A. DamodaranCommittee

(i) Reforms in securities market

B. Shome Committee (ii) Capital Account Convertibility

C. Tarapore Committee (iii) Controversy of GAAR emanated from Vodafone issue

D. Jankiraman Committee (iv) Reforms in banking services.

Code – A B C D

a. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

b. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)



Q.56 Which of the following are the reasons for unemployment in India?(i) Inappropriate educational system.(ii) Jobless growth pattern in past few years.(iii) Increase in labour force.

Code–


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a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iii)


Q.57


The SEZs in India have faced a troubled waters for some reasons excepting which of the following?

a. Issues relating to the land acquisition like rehabilitation.

b. Direct Tax Code leading to fear of sop withdrawal.

c. Red tape.

d. Policy allowing flexibility to switch from export to domestic sector.

Q.58


Which of the following is not true for Lead bank scheme?

a. scheme under which, one of the commercial banks (like SBI, Axis bank, ICICI) acts as a lead bank andcoordinates the activities of another financial institutions like cooperative banks for efficient functioning andrapid development at district level.

b. It was initially conceived for the rural areas.

c. Reserve Bank of India has asked the banks to cover urban areas also.

d. In 1993, Usha Thorat committee gave recommendations on it to Reserve Bank of India for its structural

changes.


A. PRISM (i) The list of threatened species of flora and fauna

maintained as per IUCN specification.

B. Red data book(ii) Secret e-surveillance Project of US government as

informed by a whistle-blower allegedly related to access ofall people's data in google, yahoo, skype etc.

C. Carbon foot prints

(iii) National Crime Record Bureau's project to facilitatecollection, storage, retrieval, analysis, transfer and sharingof data and information between the police stations, StateHeadquarters and the Central Police Organisations to endpolice stations as isolated islands in data storage andaccess.

D. CCTNS(iv) Total amount of CO2 and other Green House Gasesemitted over full life cycle of a process or a product.

Code– A B C D



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c. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)


Q.60


Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Manganese (i) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand

(B) Copper (ii) Odisha, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka

(C) Gold (iii) Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Bihar

(D) Mica (iv) Karnataka, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Bihar

Code– A B C D





Q.61


Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Indian coal?

a. Indian coal is of two categories viz Gondwana coal and Tertiary coal.

b. Gondwana coal is superior with high carbon content and is mainly of bituminous and anthracite categories.

c. Famous fields of Raniganj (West Bengal), Jharia (Jharkhand), Bokaro (Jharkhand), Ramgarh

(Jharkhand), and Neyvelli (Tamilnadu) are some examples of Gondwana coal mines.

d. Tertiary coal is also called brown coal. It contributes only 2% of total coal production. The carbon content islow and varies from place to place e.g. 30% in Gujarat & Rajasthan, 50% in Assam.

Q.62


Which of the following is wrong?

a. Day and night is result of earth's rotation.

b. Seasons are result of tilted earth doing revolution around the sun.

c. The temperature decreases from equator to poles because the sun's energy falling per unit areadecreases.

d. The temperature is recorded maximum at equator and least at poles.

Q.63 Which of the following is not true of planetary winds?


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a. Their flow results from pressure difference and earth's rotation.They are trade winds, Westerlies and Polarwinds.

b. Between tropics and equator they are called trade winds while in temperate latitudes they are called thewesterlies.

c. Trade winds have an influencing impact on movement of ocean currents.They blow the equatorial waterswestward and warm the eastern coasts of continents.

d. Westerlies which blow in temperate latitudes are less reliable than the trade winds and hence do not

have an observable pattern of movement of ocean currents as in case of the trade winds.

Q.64


Which of the following Indian forest reserves are those biosphere reserves in UNESCO's Man & Biosphere(MAB) programme :(i) Nilgiri covering Tamilnadu, Kerala, Karnataka.(ii) Panchmarhi covering Madhya Pradesh.(iii) Cold desert covering Himachal Pradesh.(iv) Panna covering Madhya Pradesh.

Code–

a. (i), (ii) and (iii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iii)


Q.65


Which of the following factors are taken to play a role in case of Indian Monsoons?(i) The differential heating of the land and sea. (ii) The role of Himalayas and Tibetan plateau.(iii) The role of the circulation of upper jet stream as well as upper air circum-polar whirl over north andsouth poles in the troposphere.(iv) The occurrence of el-nino.

Code–


b. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c. (iii) and (iv)

d. All the above


List I (Port)

List II (Related Comments)

(A) Chennai (i) Has modern port facilities and is the largest container port of India.

(B) Kandla (ii) Artificial seaport.

(iii) A tidal port with a large hinterland spreading in to Gujarat, Rajasthan,


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(C) Kochi Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu-Kashmir.

(D) Nhavasheva

(iv) Natural seaport and largest shipyard in the country. Great strategicand commercial importance due to close to Suez-Colombo route.

Code – A B C D

a. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

b. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

c. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

d. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Q.67


A football fan living at place X wants to see a match of European Premier League on TV played in Londonwhich will start there (London) at 06.00 pm (London time). On switching on the BBC channel now, he findsthat the time in London right now is 02.00 pm. Longitudes of place X is 74 degree West. At what local time(at place X) approximately should he open his television set?

a. 3 PM

b. 4 PM

c. 11 AM

d. 1 PM

Q.68


Which of the following is not true about cyclone?

a. It is an atmospheric system which is characterized by the rapid inward circulation of air masses about alow-pressure centre.

b. Cyclones circulate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and anticlockwise in the Southern

Hemisphere.

c. Cyclonic storm named Phailin had hit eastern states of India in the month of Oct 2013.

d. None of these.

Q.69


Which one of the following is different from other three features of landforms found in the desertlandscape?

a. Yardang

b. Zeugen

c. Mushroom rock

d. Dunes

Q.70 Which of the following is not true for Mountbatten Plan of June 3rd 1947?


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a. It was formed on the basis of Cabinet Mission plan and Atlee's statement of February 20, 1947.

b. Sindh was to take its own decision while the fate of Sylhet and North-West Frontier Province was to bedecided on the basis of referendum.

c. Independence of the princely states and Bengal got ruled out.

d. Accession of Hyderabad to Pakistan got ruled out.

Q.71


Which of the following is not true for Individual Satyagrah of October 1940?

a. The satyagrahis were demanding freedom of speech against the World war II through an anti wardeclaration.

b. It precipitated into a movement which later came to be known as Dilli Chalo movement.

c. Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer the satyagrah and Sardar Patel was the second.

d. Congress gave another opportunity to government by avoiding a mass movement at this stage.

Q.72


What among these was not part of Cripps proposal?

a. The goal was to provide attainment of the Dominion Status to India.

b. Indians were to be given the right to frame the Dominion Constitution after the World War II.

c. The constitution-making body for this purpose would constitute elected members from the British

territories and also the representatives from all the Native States .

d. However, for the present, the British Govt. was to continue as before and the responsibility for the defenceand security of India was to be retained by the British Govt.

Q.73


Which of the following is not true for Indian Councils Act 1909?

a. It allowed the election of Indians to the various legislative councils in India for the first time.

b. It introduced the electoral principle and laid the groundwork for a parliamentary system even though thiswas contrary to the intent of Morley.

c. The right of separate electorate was given to the Muslims.

d. It founded the basis of Dyarchy.

Q.74 Match the following tribal revolts with their details:

Revolts Related details

(A) Heraka Cult(i) Occurred in 1828-33 against non fulfillment of pledges bythe company.

(B) Kol Uprisings(ii) Led by Raja Parahat in 1827 at Singhbhum andChottanagpur against occupying Singhbhum by British.


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(C) Ahom Revolt(iii) In Chhotanagpur led by Buddho Bhagat in 1831 whichwas against the expansion of British rule on their lands andtransfer of their lands to outsiders.

(D) Ho Revolt(iv) Occurred in 1930s in Manipur and was led by RaniGaidinliu.

Code – A B C D





Q.75



Personality Social Reform movement

(A) Led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale and followed bySrinivasa Shastri

(i) Social Service League inBombay

(B) Narayan Malhar Joshi (ii) Servants of India Society

(C) E.V. Ramaswami Naiker (iii) Prarthana Samaj

(D) M.G. Ranadey, R.G. Bhandarkar,N.G.Chandavarkar

(iv) Self Respect Movement

Code – A B C D





Q.76

Not Attempt Correct Ans. d

Which of the following is not correct?

a. The Lucknow Session of Congress in 1916 is famous for the entry of extremists and Congress'sacceptance of separate electorate.

b. Gandhi ji was instrumental in persuading Congress associating with the Khilafat Movement and goingbeyond constitutional methods like Prayer, Petition etc.

c. In the run up to Tripuri session, Subhash Bose had differences with some Congress members as he feltthat some leaders including Sardar Patel were rightists who were ready for a compromise with thegovernment on the question of federation and that some leaders including Gandhi ji were wrong in notgoing for mass struggle.

d. First European power to rule Pondicherry were British.


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bookmarkSolution

Q.77


Which of the following was a key issue between moderates and extremists leading to Surat split of 1907?

a. Acceptance of separate electorates for muslims.

b. Dropping of the resolutions on swadeshi, boycott and national education adapted in Banaras Session.

c. Making S.N. Banerjee as President of the Surat Session as insisted by moderates.

d. Expansion of the extremist branches all around India.

Q.78


Which contentious issue among following was the main reason for the breakdown of Shimla Conference?

a. With the exception of the Viceroy and the commander-in-chief, all members of the executive council were tobe Indians but the Viceroy could exercise his veto on the advice of ministers.

b. The Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation.

c. The reconstructed council was to function as an interim government within the framework of the 1935 Actand thus it was not responsible to the Central Legislative Assembly.

d. Representatives of different parties were to submit a joint list to the Viceroy for nominations to the

executive which meant that muslims could be appointed by all parties.

Q.79


Which of the following is not correctly depicting the Gandhi's stand on Ramsay Mcdonald's communalaward?

a. He was opposed to the division of Hindu society by Ramsay Mcdonald's communal award.

b. He was strongly in favour of abolition of untouchability.

c. He was strongly in favour of urgent abolition of caste system.

d. He had no objection to reservation for depressed castes in a joint electorate.

Q.80


Which of the following is true of Particulate matter as pollutants?

a. They refer to the air and water pollutants which cause harmful effects to our body.

b. Their other name is aerosols. They are of two types- Organic and Inorganic Particulate matter.They come inthe category of primary pollutants.

c. They are detrimental to the plant growth both by making the soil toxic as well as by depositing on thestomata thus affecting the respiration leading to plant death.

d. They impact the climate by influencing the precipitation, alkalinity and absorbing and scattering theradiation.

Q.81 Which of the following are primary pollutants?(i) Oxides of Carbon and nitrogen (ii) Oxides of Sulphur(iii) Ozone


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(iv) Peroxy acytyl Nitrate

Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

d. All of the above

Q.82


What is biogeochemical cycle?

a. The cycle in which a chemical element or molecule does a movement through both biotic and abiotic

components of Earth.

b. The cycle of pollution having a genesis from organic matter under the earth.

c. The cycle of pollution having a genesis from both organic matter as well as geological formations.

d. None of these.

Q.83


Which of the following is not true regarding ‘Eutrophication’?

a. It is a result of passage of industrial waste in water.

b. It involves lowering of oxygen levels in the water.

c. Lowering of oxygen levels in water and higher consumption of oxygen by bacteria.

d. lowering of oxygen levels in water leads to the death of environmentally useful algae.

Q.84


Which of the following statements are associated with acid rain?(i) Sulphuric Acid is formed from Oxides of Sulphur in the air.(ii) Nitric Acid is formed from Oxides of Nitrogen in the air.(iii) Carbonic Acid is formed from Oxides of Carbon in the air. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i), (ii) and (iii)

d. None of these

Q.85 Which of the following is/are true of Writs in India?(i) The mandamus and prohibition both involve direction of one authority to another with a difference thatformer is a positive direction while later is a negative direction.(ii) The prohibition and certiorari both involve direction of higher court to a lower court with a difference thatformer is a positive and having only a preventive direction while later is both a preventive and curative.(iii) A high court can issue a writ only within its territorial jurisdiction. (iv) The writ jurisdiction of a high court is not exclusive but concurrent to the writ jurisdiction of Supreme


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Court and is also wider than it. Code–

a. (iii) only

b. (iii) and (iv)

c. (i), (iii) and (iv)

d. all the above

Q.86


Which of the following statements are true for joint sitting of the Parliament?(i) It can occur in 3 situations for a bill passed by one house and sent to other house which has either notreturned the bill though 6 months have passed; or rejected the bill ; or houses have finally disagreed as tothe amendments to be made in the bill.(ii) The Lok Sabha Speaker summons and presides the joint sitting and has right to casting vote in case of atie.(iii) Confines to only ordinary and financial bills.(iv) The joint sitting is governed by the rules of procedure of Lok sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. Code–

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (i), (iii) and (iv)

c. (i), (ii) and (iii)

d. all the above

Q.87 Which of the following statement is wrong?

Assertion Reason

(a) Article 257 provides a safeguard

against the situation of encroachment/hurdle/impact of executive action of astate on union executive action

It provides that executive power of a stateshall be so exercised as not to impede orprejudice the exercise of the executivepower of the union.

(b) The concept of national emergency gotbroadened by 44th amendment

The amendment added the term armedrebellion in addition to war and externalaggression.

(c) Joint sitting of two houses is notapplicable for the constitutionalamendment bill and money bill.

Lok Sabha has overriding powers withrespect to these bills.

(d) Disbursement from Public accounts ofIndia is not subject to vote of Parliament.

It is operated through executive order.

a. a

b. b

c. c


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d. d

Q.88


88. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. The time period within which the President is liable to give decision on a bill is mentioned in the Indianconstitution.

b. The Vice President can resign from his post addressing Lok Sabha speaker by submitting his resignationletter.

c. It is mandatory for Prime Minister to be the member of parliament but eligibility for the Prime Minister post

is not clearly specified in the constitution.

d. Appointed ministers of the central council of minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lok sabha.

Q.89


Which of the following is wrong?

Assertion Reason

(a) Constitution carries safeguards for notjust religious but linguistic minorities also.

The safeguards are inbuilt in the definitiongiven for minority which includes bothreligious and linguistic minorities.

(b) Not all bills related to joint sitting getlapsed on dissolution of the Parliament.

If President has notified his intentions tocall a joint sitting for a bill, the bill does notlapse.

(c) 10th Finance commission broughtalternative scheme of devolution.

It recommended 29% of income fromcertain central taxes and duties should goto states. 80th amendment was enacted togive effect to 10th Finance commissionrecommendations.

(d) Though Indian general elections donot adopt proportional representationsystem, the goal of preventing skewedrepresentation gets fulfilled by othermeans to certain extent.

There is a provision for reservation ofconstituencies thus preventing of skewedrepresentation gets fulfilled to certainextent.

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

Q.90 A person is not eligible for election as President unless he is a citizen of India, has completed the age ofthirty-five years, and is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People. In additionconstitution lays what conditions of ineligibility in this regard:


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(i) He holds any office of profit under the Government of India.(ii) He holds any office of profit under the Government of any State.(iii) He holds any office of profit under any local or other authority subject to the control of Government ofIndia or Government of any State.(iv) He holds any office of profit under any organisation heavily funded by Government of India orGovernment of any State. Code–


b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iii)


Q.91


Which of the following concept is wrong?

Concepts Interpretation

(a) Quantitativevs Qualitativeinstruments ofmonetary policy

The former focuses on the overall supply of money/credit in theeconomy while later aims at directing or restricting the flow ofcredit to certain sectors of the economy.

(b) Bank Rate vs

Borrowing rate

Bank Rate is the rate at which the Central Bank gives credit to thecommercial banks while Borrowing Rate is the interest offered bybanks to the deposit holders.

(c) Loan vsOverdraft

Former has interest on amount outstanding against the borrowerwhile later has interest on daily balance standing against theborrower.

(d) SLR vs CRR

Former is the minimum percentage of bank's deposits required tobe kept with the central bank. Later is the minimum fixedpercentage of bank’s assets required to be maintained in form ofcash and other liquid assets.

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

Q.92 Which of the following is statement wrong?

a. Prime Minister has powers in choice of his ministers to the extent that he can choose a person who neednot be a member of Parliament for 6 months from the date he enters his office.

b. Under Art. 15 the Constitution gives fundamental right of religion by prohibiting religion based discretion.

c. The fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression is subject to reasonable restrictions like


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security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency and morality, contempt ofcourt, defamation, incitement to an offence, & sovereignty and integrity of India.

d. As per Indian Constitution, Local government is not a third tier of the Federal Structure.

Q.93



List-I List-II

(A) Primary Deficit(i) Indicates borrowing requirement of the government (tocope its expenditure).

(B) Fiscal deficit(ii) Indicates borrowing requirement of the government (tocope its expenditure) excluding interest.

(C) Revenue Deficit(iii) Indicates sum of revenue receipts and capital receiptsminus Sum of capital expenditure, loans to thestates, repayment of past loans.

(D) Budget Deficit

(iv) Recurring expenditure is not compensated bygeneration of revenue receipts thus eating upon either thesavings which can be spent capital formation or going forborrowing.

Code – A B C D





Q.94


Which of the following is not true of the direct taxes as a source of revenue?

a. The source of incident and actual realisation of tax is the same person.These include income tax, wealthtax, corporation tax and land revenue.

b. They are based on the principle of ability to pay and hence there is both horizontal and vertical equity underdirect taxation. Progressive direct taxation can reduce income inequalities and bring about adequate social& economic justice.

c. Direct taxes are relatively elastic. With an increase in income and wealth of individuals and companies, theyield from direct taxes will also increase. They are economical to be collected.

d. They are said to cause distortion in allocation of resources.


a. Payments made to the factors of production in return for the services provided by them are called factorpayments.


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b. Shipping, banking, insurance are examples of factor payments.

c. Current account records imports and exports of goods, services and unilateral transfers.

d. Current account balance is a sum of balance of invisible items trade, visible items trade, and of unilateraltransfers. Capital account balance is a sum of balance of capital transfers.

Q.96


Which of the following statement is wrong?

a. A key difference between National Income at current prices and National Income at constant prices is thatformer changes with price changes and not flow of goods and services while later changes with flow ofgoods and services and not with price changes

b. The national income is not a static concept as there is a constant flow of national income and the nature

of flow is in straight line.

c. If GDP at Market Price is Rs. 1000 crores, depreciation 190 crores, net factor income from abroad is 100crores and value of indirect tax-subsidy is Rs. 150 crores, then the National Income at factor cost is Rs. 760crores.

d. The national income in India is calculated by Central Statistical Organization.

Q.97


Which of the following is not true about the role of a Central Bank?

a. It manages the state's currency.

b. It regulates money supply which impacts inflation, Current Account Deficit by influencing the liquidity in

the market and demand supply of the domestic currency respectively.

c. It decides interest rates which in turn influence the growth rates.

d. It oversees the commercial banking system.

Q.98


Consider the following statements about BRICS:(i) Recently a new concept of E-BRICS was in news in global community.(ii) Under E-BRICS member countries of BRICS will exchange important informations and data throughInternet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only (i)

b. Only (ii)

c. Both (i) and (ii)

d. Neither (i) nor (ii)


Assertion Reason

(a) The Gender Development Index of IndiaThe gender based disparities were


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in 1996 and 2006 was lower than the HumanDevelopment Index of India in 1996 and2006.

existing in all 3 parameters of HumanDevelopment Index in both years.

(b) The Gender Development Index of Indiaincreased between 1996 and 2006.

Progresses have been made in all 3parameters of Human DevelopmentIndex with respect to gender baseddisparities.

(c) Monetised deficit adds liquidity to thesystem.

Government's borrowing from Banksgets spent by government raising theliquidity

(d) It is said that high ICOR is the reason forIndia’s non achievement of high growthpattern.

The reason behind it is less efficientuse of capital in India.

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

Q.100


Consider the following statements about Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya:(i) It was launched in July 2004 for setting up residential schools at upper primary level for girls belongingpredominantly to the Scheduled Tribe, Scheduled Caste, Other Backward Caste and minority communities.(ii) The Scheme provides for a minimum reservation of 75% of the seats for girls belonging to Scheduledcaste, Scheduled tribe, Other Backward Caste or minority communities.

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?

a. Only (i)

b. Only (ii)

c. Both (i) and (ii)

d. Neither (i), nor (ii)

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