Endocrinology & Metabolism Includes 50 Flashcards for Board Exam prep

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INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

K N O W M E D G E

INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

Endocrinology & Metabolism Email: support@knowmedge.com Website: www.knowmedge.com Facebook: www.facebook.com/knowmedge Twitter: www.twitter.com/knowmedge YouTube: www.youtube.com/knowmedge Google+: www.google.com/+knowmedge Pinterest: www.pinterest.com/knowmedge Copyright © 2015 Knowmedge ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. No part of this work may be reproduced or used in any form or by any means–graphic, electronic, or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, taping, web distribution–without the prior written permission of Knowmedge

Dear Reader, Thank you for downloading a copy of this eBook. If you are searching for study materials for your medical board exam, you are on the verge of a significant milestone in your professional journey. Knowmedge is a medical education learning platform that was launched in April 2013. It features over 900 Internal Medicine questions, 4,000+ flashcards, 1,500+ medical mnemonics… all designed to help you learn and reinforce the key concepts covered on the exam. In addition, each of the Knowmedge Internal Medicine questions features a highly interactive audio visual explanation, in which our content experts walk you through the principles underlying each question to methodically arrive at the correct answer. This book contains 50 quick review Endocrinology & Metabolism flashcards written by the team of Knowmedge doctors. We hope you find the questions in this book to be a valuable asset as you prepare for your upcoming exam. If you are interested in learning more about Knowmedge, please visit us at www.knowmedge.com. If you have any questions about the contents of this eBook, send me a note at ravi@knowmedge.com Best of luck in your preparations! Sincerely,

Ravi Ravi Bhatia, MD Co-founder, Chief Editor Knowmedge

What are the three main types of

autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome

(APS)?

Question 1

APS Type I, APS Type II, and X-linked

polyendocrinopathy, immunodeficiency

and diarrhea-syndrome (XPID)

Answer 1

What autoimmune polyendocrine

syndrome is characterized by the

occurrence of Addison's disease along

with autoimmune thyroid disease and/or

type I diabetes mellitus?

Question 2

Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome

(APS) Type II

Answer 2

Patients with autoimmune

polyendocrine syndrome (APS) Type I

generally have two of three possible

conditions. What are the three

conditions?

Question 3

APS type I is characterized by at least

two of the following three conditions:

hypoparathyroidism, mucocutaneous

candidiasis, Addison's disease (adrenal

insufficiency)

Answer 3

What is the most common type of

autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome

(APS)?

Question 4

Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome

(APS) Type II

Answer 4

What are the hormones produced in the

neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary

gland)?

Question 5

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and

Oxytocin

Answer 5

What hormone in excess can lead to

Cushing's syndrome?

Question 6

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Answer 6

The screening test for excess of what

hormone is insulin growth factor-1 (IGF-

1)?

Question 7

Growth hormone (GH)

Answer 7

What hormone is inhibited by dopamine

from the hypothalamus?

Question 8

Prolactin

Answer 8

Paraplegia, high calcium, deafness and

high output congestive heart failure are

seen in what condition?

Question 9

Osteosarcoma

Answer 9

What is the T score range on DEXA scan

for a diagnosis of osteoporosis?

Question 10

T-score between -1 and -2.5

Answer 10

What common chronic condition can

cause a discrepancy between the T score

of the spine and the hip?

Question 11

Osteoarthritis of the spine

Answer 11

In the workup of amenorrhea, follicle

stimulating hormone (FSH) level ≥35 U/L

suggests what likely diagnosis?

Question 12

Primary ovarian failure

Answer 12

In the workup of amenorrhea, follicle

stimulating hormone (FSH) 20U/L - 35

U/L suggests what likely diagnosis?

Question 13

Low ovarian reserve

Answer 13

What is a normal follicle stimulating

hormone (FSH) level?

Question 14

<20 U/L

Answer 14

What is another term for subclinical

hypothyroidism?

Question 15

Mild thyroid failure

Answer 15

What value (TSH or free T4) determines

if subclinical hypothyroidism should be

treated?

Question 16

TSH. Treat if greater than 10μU/mL

Answer 16

Of the lab changes associated with

treating subclinical hypothyroidism,

what most corresponds to a decrease in

the chances of developing coronary

artery disease?

Question 17

Lower LDL

Answer 17

What is the time cut-off after which an

elevated PSA in the context of

testosterone use warrants biopsy?

Question 18

6 months

Answer 18

What effect does testosterone use have

on hemoglobin?

Question 19

Increased hemoglobin

Answer 19

Polycystic ovarian syndrome features

elevated testosterone and LH:FSH ratio

greater than or equal to what value?

Question 20

LH:FSH ratio greater than or equal to 3:1

Answer 20

In what conditions causing hirsutism

would we expect the DHEA (17-OH

ketosteroid) levels to be elevated?

Question 21

Cushing’s disease, Adrenal carcinoma, or

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

Answer 21

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is

caused by what enzyme deficiency?

Question 22

21-beta hydroxylase

Answer 22

What are the two thyroid-related

emergencies?

Question 23

Thyroid storm and Myxedema coma

Answer 23

What are the two most common

symptoms in myxedema coma?

Question 24

Hypothermia (temp less than 35°C) and

Obtunded state

Answer 24

What are the main treatments for

myxedema coma?

Question 25

Intravenous levothyroxine, Intravenous

steroids and Antibiotics

Answer 25

What is the enzyme that converts 17-OH

progesterone to cortisol?

Question 26

21-beta hydroxylase

Answer 26

What type of inheritance pattern does

congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)

follow?

Question 27

Autosomal recessive

Answer 27

What condition is associated with

antibodies to post-synaptic acetylcholine

receptors?

Question 28

Myasthenia gravis

Answer 28

What condition is associated with

antibodies to pre-synaptic acetylcholine

receptors?

Question 29

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

Answer 29

What lab value is expected to be

elevated in the context of a strong family

history of heart disease and low HDL?

Question 30

Lipoprotein(a)

Answer 30

In what 3 main deficiencies can

homocysteine levels be elevated?

Question 31

Vitamin B12, Folate, or Vitamin B6

deficiency

Answer 31

Impaired fasting glucose is diagnosed

when the blood glucose is in what

range?

Question 32

100-125mg/dL

Answer 32

What is the antibody most clinically

useful for diagnosing type 1 diabetes

mellitus?

Question 33

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase

Answer 33

What 3 main ophthalmologic findings

can be seen in proliferative diabetic

retinopathy?

Question 34

Cotton-wool spots, Neovascularization,

or Macular edema

Answer 34

What is the definition of prediabetes

based on hemoglobin A1c?

Question 35

A1c between 6.0 and 6.5%

Answer 35

What type of bone lesions are seen in

multiple myeloma?

Question 36

Lytic bone lesions

Answer 36

In which calcium abnormality (hyper- or

hypo-) does tapping of the facial nerve

cause contraction of the facial muscle?

Question 37

Hypocalcemia. Finding is known as

Chvostek sign.

Answer 37

Is pancreatitis associated with hypo or

hypercalcemia?

Question 38

Hypercalcemia

Answer 38

Is hypercalcemia more commonly

associated with constipation or

diarrhea?

Question 39

Constipation

Answer 39

Which combination is at greater risk of

developing osteoporosis: Active lifestyle

& High BMI or Sedentary lifestyle & Low

BMI

Question 40

Sedentary lifestyle & Low BMI

Answer 40

What is the T score range on DEXA scan

for a diagnosis of osteoporosis?

Question 41

Less than -2.5

Answer 41

What injectable medication may be

given for osteoporosis?

Question 42

Teriparatide

Answer 42

True or False: Plicamycin is an effective,

commonly used treatment for patients

with hypercalcemia associated

sarcoidosis.

Question 43

False; Plicamycin is not used often

because of its potential renal, liver, and

bone marrow side effects.

Answer 43

What medication is used to decrease

calcium levels in primary and tertiary

hyperparathyroidism?

Question 44

Cinacalcet, a calcimimetic agent

Answer 44

What is the main side effect limiting the

use of calcitonin?

Question 45

Tachyphylaxis, which is a sudden

decrease in the effectiveness of the drug

Answer 45

In addition to aggressive IV fluids, what is

the best medication to provide a

sustained calcium-lowering effect in

malignancy?

Question 46

IV Zoledronate

Answer 46

What are the three Ps associated with

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1?

Question 47

Parathyroid hyperplasia, Pancreas islet

cell tumor, Pituitary tumor

Answer 47

What is the age cut-off indication for

parathyroidectomy in patients with

primary hyperparathyroidism?

Question 48

Age less than 50 years

Answer 48

What is the calcium cut-off indication for

parathyroidectomy in patients with

primary hyperparathyroidism?

Question 49

Calcium greater than 1mg/dL above

normal (>12 mg/dL)

Answer 49

What form of vitamin D is elevated in

patients with sarcoidosis?

Question 50

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

Answer 50

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