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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The unit of Potential is
a) Joule/Coul b) Newton/Coul c) Amp/m d) Amp
2 S.I Unit of current is
a)coulomb b)ampere c)coulomb/sec d) coulomb-sec
3 In electronic circuits the term ‘Ground’ means
a)a direct connection to earth to through a wire
b) a common connection for all components
c) a short circuit
d)an open circuit
4. The peak value of a certain sinusoidal voltage is 220 volts,its peak to peak voltage
is
a) 110V b)220V c) 330 V d) 440V
5. For a sine wave with peak value I0 the rms value is
a)0.818I0 b)0.707I0 c)0.5I0 d)1.414I0
6. For a sine wave the peak value is V0 the mean value is
a)0.707V0 b)0.636V0 c)0.50V0 d)0.414V0
7. Which of the following wave has the least value of the peak factor
a)sine wave b)square wave c)Triangular wave d)rectified sine wave
8. Which of the following wave has the highest value of the peak factor
a)sine wave b)square wave c)Triangular wave d) half rectified sine wave
9. For the same peak value which of the following wave has the least mean value
a)square wave b)sine wave c) Triangular wave d) half rectified sine wave
10. The voltage of a single phase domestic voltage is 220V .This represents
a)Peak value b)RMS value c)Mean value d)average value
11. The RMS value and the mean value is same for
a)Square wave b)sine wave c)Triangular wave c)sawtooth wave
12. How many cycles does a sine wave go through in 5 secs when its frequency is 50 Hz
a)50 cycles b)500cycles c)250cycles d)10 cycles
13. If the peak value of a sinusoidal current is 5 amp ,what is the RMS value
a)0.707amp b)3.535amp c)7.01amp d) 1.17amp
14. A sinusoidal voltage has a peak value of 12V what is its average value
a) 7.64V b) 24V c) 8.48V d)12V
15. The rms current through a 10Kohm resistor is 5mA .What is the rms voltage drop
across the resistor
a)10V b)50V c) 5V d)25 V
16. The rms value of the AC voltage given by the equation is V=14.14sin(wt+Π/3) is
a) 28.28V b)144.4V c)10V d)20V
17. The frequency of AC domestic line in India is
a)100Hz b)75Hz c) 50Hz d) 220Hz
18. Peak to Peak value of an alternating voltage is 220V ,its root mean square value is
a)220√2 b)220/2√2 c)440√2 d)110√2
19. Multiplication of a vector quantity by j denotes the rotation of that vector through
-- ---degrees in the anticlockwise direction
a)180 b)120 c)0 d)90
20. The application of j2 to a vector rotates it through
a)180 b)120 c)0 d)90
21. The path difference between two identical sinusoidal current waves is / 6, their
path difference is
a) 300 b)600 c) 1800 d) 150
22. A sine wave has a frequency of 50Hz, its angular frequency is
a) 50 / b) 50 / 3 c)100 d) 50
23. The average value of an ac current which is represented as I = 100 Sin100t is a) 70.7 amp b) 141.4amp c) 157amp d) 63.7amp
24. The time period of a sine wave of 1KHz is
a)1ms b) 10ms c)100ms d)1000ms
25. The formfactor for a rectangular wave is
a)1.11 b)2 c) 1 d) 0
26. Electron volt is a unit of
a) Potential b) Field c) Energy d) Current
27. The primary function of a fuse in a circuit is to
a) Protect circuit components b) Open the circuit
c) Protect the battery d) Prevent from excess current
28. If more current is required, the cells may be joined in
a) Series b)Parallel c)Either series or parallel d)None of the above
29. To get higher voltage, cells must be connected in
a) parallel b)series c)Either series or parallel d)None of the above
30. The power factor of an A.C. Circuit is given by
a) Cosine of the phase angle b) Tangent of the phase angle
c ) The ratio of R&X2 d) Ratio of Z&RL
Key
1.a 2.b 3.b 4.d 5.b 6.b 7.b 8.d 9.d 10.b
11.a 12.c 13.b 14 15.b 16.c 17.c 18.b 19.d 20.a
21.b 22.c 24.a 25.c 26.c 27.b 28. 29.b 30.a
II
1. A charge of 5C flows past any point in a conductor in 0.5 seconds. The current in
amps is
a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 5 d) 10
2. The length of a conductor is doubled and its cross sectional area halved, its
conductance will
a) Increase four – fold b) Become one fourth
c) Become one half d) Remain unchanged
3. An ideal voltmeter should have ----- resistance.
a)High b) Low c) Infinite d) zero
4. If current through a resistor is halved, wattage developed by it would be
a) Halved b) Doubled c)Remains same d) decrease to one fourth
5. Lorenz-Drudes theory explains
a)Capacitance b)electrical conductivity c)Inductance of a coil d)permittivity
6. A conductor is said to obey Ohms law if its V-I plot is
a)straight line b)circle c)a curve d)parabola
7. Example for non-linear conductor is
a) copper b)brass c) semiconductor d)silver wire
8. The length of a copper wire is doubled and radius is halved ,its specific resistance
a)doubled b)halved c)remains unchanged d) reduces to zero
9. If a carbon resistor has bands as yellow,violet & gold the value of the resistor will be
a)4700ohm+/-5% b)470 ohm+/-5% c)47 ohm d)4.7ohm.
10. Regarding the tolerance band ,silver lining represents a tolerance of
a)1% b)5% c)10% d)20%
11. A circuit allows 1 mA of current to flow when 1 volt is applied.The conductance is
a)0.002mho b)0.005 μmho c)1 mho d)1000μmho
12. A resistance having a rating 10 ohm,10Watt is likely to be
a)wire wound resistor b)carbon resistor c)variable resistor d)Metallic resistor
13. Which of the following is the typical resistance and power dissipation value for a
wire wound resistor?
a)10 ohm,45W b)10,000ohm,1W c)1m.ohm,1/4W, d)500ohm,1/2W
14. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature coefficient
a)Rubber b)paper c)mercury d)Ge
15. Varistors are
a)carbon resistors b)insulators c)non linear resistors d)resistors with zero
temperature coefficient.
16. The two important characteristics of a resistors are
a)current,voltage b) current,watts c)ohms , watts d)ohms , current
17. Carbon resistors are used where power dissipation is
a)High b)Low c) medium d)very high
18. Wire wound resistors are used where power dissipation is
a) low b)high c)very high d) medium
19. A variable series resistance is called
a)potentiometer b) rheostat c)Trimmer d)non
20. A high stability resistor has a tolerance colour code of
a) pink b)gold c)red d)brown
21. Brown colour indicates a tolerance of
a)1% b)5% c)10% d)20%
22. The most common trouble in resistance is
a)short b)low sensitivity c)open d)leads broken.
23. Voltage sensitive resistors are called
a)potentiometer b)Thermistor c)thermocouple d)varistor.
24. Which of the following is a preferred resistance value
a) 110 b)47 c)1572 d) 36548
25. Thck film metal glazed resistors are also known as
a) Precision resistors b)cermet resistors c)wire wound resistors
d)carbon resistors
26. The letter G indicates a Tolerance of
a) 1% b)10% c)5% d)2%
27. A variable voltage divider is also known as
a) potentiometer b)Trimmer c)Rheostat d) Megger
28. 10 resistors of each 1000 ohms are connected in parallel ,its equivalent resistance is
a)1000 b)500 c) 10000 d)100 ohms
29. A closed switch will have a resistance of
a) zero b)infinite c) 100 ohms d) any value
30. Which of the following has nearly zero temperature coefficient
a) carbon b)copper c)Manganin d) aluminium.
31. Two bulbs of wattages 200W &100W are having resistances R1 and R2.If the voltages
are same the resistance relation is
a)R2=2R1 b ) R1=3R2 c)R1=2R2 d) R1=R2
32. The colour band on a resistor are red,brown,black .Its value is
a)210 b) 120 c)21 d)2.1 ohms
33. The number of electrons that flow per sec to give a current of 1 ampere is
a)1000 b)1.6 X1019 c)6.25X1018 d) 1
34. The sequence of colour bands yellow,violet,black, silver represent a resistance of
a)47Ω+/- 10% b)470Ω+/-10% c) 470Ω d)4.7Ω+/- 10%
35. The colour code for the resistance value 100KΩ+5% is
a)Black,brown,yellow,gold b)Yellow,black,brown,gold c)gold,brown,black,yellow
d)brown,black,yellow,gold.
Key
1.d 2. 3.d 4. 5.b 6.a 7.c 8.d 9.c 10. 11 12.
13.c 14.c 15.c 16. 17. 18. 19.a 20.c 21.d 22.b 23.b 24.b
25.d 26.a 27.d 28.a 29.c 30.c 31.a 32.c 33.c 34.a 35.d
3
1. A coil has an inductance of 1H, if the current changing at the rate of 2A / s, it
induces a voltage of
a) 2V b) 1V c) 3V d) Zero
2. The reactance of a coil at 100Hz is 20 ohms. Its reactance at 1 KHZ would be
a) 2 ohms b) 10 ohms c) 40 ohms d) 200 ohms
3. A transformer works on the principle of
a)Self inductance b)Mutual inductance c)Kirchhoff’s current law d) Kirchhoff’s
voltage law.
4. A transformer has 1000 Primary turns and 500 Secondary turns. If primary voltage
is 200V Secondary Voltage would be
a) 400V b) 100V c) 800 V d) 50V
5. A 220V transformer has 50 turns and a secondary voltage 1100V. The secondary
winding should have _____________________ turns
6. The inductance required for a 2000 ohms resistor at 15.9 MHz is
a) 20H b) 2mH c) 10H d) 15.9 H
7. The current in an inductor is said to be wattless when the phase difference
between voltage and current is
a) 0 b)90 c) 180 d) 45
8. The potential and the current through a device are given by
V=220 cos wt and I= 5 sin wt respectively .The power dissipated in the device is
a)1100 w b)0w c)220 w d)44w
MISCELLANEOUS BITS - PHYSICS
1. The force of attraction between the molecules of different substances is called
_____________________ Force.
2. A body is thrown vertically up with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec. Its velocity when it
comes back to the same point is____________________
3. Force exerted on unit area is called ( )
a) Strain b) pressure c) thrust d) elasticity
4. Newtons first law of motion gives the concept of ( )
a) Energy b) work c) Inertia
5. The minimum number of unequal forces where vector sum can equal tozero is( )
a) 1 b) 2 c) both 3 d) 4
6. A stationary object can have ( )
a) K.E. b) P.E. c) both K.E. and P.E. d) momentum
7. A particle is taken round a circle by the application of a force F. The work done is
____________________.
8. Equal changes of displacements in equal intervals of time is known as
____________________.
9. In S.H.M. The velocity of the particle is ________________ at the extreme ends of
vibration.
10. Collision cross – section has dimensions of ____________________.
11. If two bodies stick together after collision. The collision is a __________ collision.
12. A light body ‘A’ and a heavy body ‘B’ have equal Kinetic Energies of translation.
Then ( )
a) A has larger momentum than B
b) B has larger momentum than A
c) Both A and B have same momentum
13. The angular speed of the seconds hand of a watch is ____________________.
14. A simple pendulum has a period T for a length 1. It has a bob made of brass. Now the
brass bob is replaced by steel and at the same time the length is changed to give a
period of 2T. The new length is ( )
a) 21 b) 41 c) 21 d) 41
15. When the bob of the simple pendulum is at the extreme position the acceleration is
____________________.
16. The equation of motion of a particle is d2y / dt2 + Ky = 0. Where K is a force
constant. The time period of this motion is ___________________.
17. A simple harmonic motion has an amplitude 6cm and period 0.1 sec. The equation of
motion is ___________________.
18. The resultant of two equal Forces acting at a point perpendicular to each
other is ( )
a) Sum of the Forces b) 2 x one of the Forces
c) Twice to one of the Forces d) Difference of their forces
19. If the length of a simple pendulum is halved the period is ( )
a) Doubled b) Halved
c) Increased by a factor 2 d) Decreased by a factor 1 / 2
20. When the K.E. is increased by 300% the momentum of the body increases by ( )
a) 20% b) 50% c) 100% d) 200%
21. The type of motion when the acceleration is directly proportional to displacement is
called ( )
a) Translational b) Rotational c) Gyroscopic d) Simple harmonic
22. The unit of spring constant is (Force constant is ) ( )
a) N / m b) N / m2 c) N / Kg d) N_m.
23. If two forces F and F acting at a point give a resultant force of magnitude F. Then
the angle between the forces must be ( )
a) 00 b) 1200 c) 600 d) 900
24. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity at its place,the
mass of the earth is given by ____________________.
25. As we move from poles to the Equator on the earths surface the value of g( )
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same
26. If the distance between two masses is doubled the gravitational force between
them_________________.
27. A person can jump higher on the moon than on the earth because _____________.
28. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1/6th that on the earth. A seconds
pendulum on the earth will have on the moon a period of ( )
a) 2 x 6 Sec b) 2 / 6 Sec c) 2 6 Sec d) 6 Sec
29. The centre of gravity of a Triangular lamina is its ___________________.
30. Mass in the translational motion is equivalent to ______________ in rotatory
motion.
31. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass and radius are allowed to roll
down an inclined plane simultaneously. Which sphere reaches the bottom first
_________________.
32. A hole is made in the earth passing through its centre and a stone is dropped in it.
Then __________________.
33. Two simple harmonic vibrations of the same Frequency and amplitude having a
phase difference of / 2 and acting at right angles will combine to form a resultant
vibration, which is ( )
a) Circular b) Linear c) Elliptical d) Parabolic
34. Two perpendicular S.H.M. of the same frequency, amplitude and phase will
combine to form a resultant vibration which is ( )
a) an ellipse b) circle c) Straight line d) Parabola
35. The Frequency of vibrations in a Sonometer under Tension ‘T’ is n. If the vibrating
length is halved keeping Tension constant, the Frequency becomes ( )
a) 2n b) n c) 1 / 2n d) 1 / 2n
36. If the length of the pendulum of the clock is decreased it ( )
a) Will go slow b) goes fast c) stops d) none
37. Beats are the result of ( )
a) Diffraction b) Interference c) Polarisation d) Refraction
38. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is ( )
a) b) / 2 c) / 4 d) 2
39. The frequency of Transverse vibrations in a string of length l and linear density ‘m’
vibrating in one loop under Tension T is given by ______________________.
40. The pressure Energy per unit volume of the liquid is ___________________.
a) P/d b) P (Pressure) c) P.d d) d / p
41. With increase of Temperature the viscosity of a liquid __________________.
42. With increase of Temperature the surface tension of a liquid ________________.
43. Spherical shape of water drops is due to ______________________.
44. Absorption of water by Filter paper or towel is due to ___________________.
45. A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if the angle of contact is ____________.
46. The Excess pressure in a Soap bubble is ___________________.
(T Surface Tension, r radius)
47. The excess pressure in a water drop is __________________.
48. If the diameter of the capillary tube is doubled, the rise water in capillary tube will
be _______________________.
49. The Mean free path of a gas ____________________ with increase of Temperature.
50. The average distance traveled by a molecule between two successive collisions is
called _________________.
51. In a gas the Molecular Energy _______________ with increase of Temperature.
52. Maxwell’s law of distribution of velocities has been derived using the law of
________________.
53. At constant Temperature doubling the pressure of a gas changes the volume to
________________.
54. A gas on passing through a narrow orifice experience a rise of Temperature of its
initial temperature is greater than its _________________.
55. A gas on passing through a narrow orifice gets cooled of initial temperature is
_________________.
56. Andrews Experiments on Carbondioxide established the existence of __________.
57. A gas can be liquified by application of pressure provided its Temperature is
_________________.
58. The most important conclusion of the Porus plug experiment is about the existence
of _________________.
59. The most probable speed of gas molecules is always __________________ than
then mean speed.
60. The Kinetic Energy of a gram molecule of a gas per degree of Freedom is
__________________.
61. The number of degrees of freedom for a diatomic gas are _________________.
62. RTC / PCVC for a gas obeying Van der waals Equation is ( )
a) 2 b) 2.3 c) 0.2 d) 8 / 3 or 2.66
63. During the porous plug experiment the change in Temperature of the gas depends
upon ____________________.
64. Hydrogen cannot be liquefied at room temperature by the application of pressure
because ________________.
65. Inversion temperature of a gas is the Temperature above which the gas shows a
heating effect in passing through a narrow orifice. T/F
66. In Linde’s liquifier the principle used is ______________________.
67. The Mean K.E. of a gas molecule is ____________________.
68. The Pressure P of a gas and its mean Kinetic Energy E per unit volume are related
as
a) P = ½ E b) P / 3 c) 3P / d) 3P
69. If R is the gas constant per mole of a gas and N is the Avagadros number then
Boltzmann constant is given by ( )
a) RN b) R / N c) N / R d) NR
NOTE :
If C1 and C2 are the root mean square velocities of gas molecules at absolute
temperatures T1 and T2 then
C1 T1
=C2 T2
NOTE : If C1 and C2 are the root mean square velocities of gas molecules when the
densities are d1 and d2 then
C1 d1
=C2 d2
70. With increases of humidity the velocity of sound ___________________.71. A source of Sound wave moves away with the velocity of sound from a stationary
observer. The frequency of the note is ( )
a) Unchanged b) doubled c) halved d) squared
72. If the densities of two gases are in the ratio of 25:9 then the velocities of sound in
two gases at the same pressure will be in the ratio. ( )
a) 25 : 9 b) 5 : 3 c) 9 : 25 d) 3 : 5
73. The velocity of a longitudinal wave passing through a metal rod is proportional to
Square root of ( )
a) Tension b) Youngs Modulus c) Bulk Modulus d) Rigidity Modulus
74. The velocity of Transverse vibrations in Melde’s String. Under Tension ‘T’ is
proportional to ( )
a) T b) T c) 1 / T d) T2
75. Sound waves cannot be ( )
a) Reflected b) Refracted c) Diffracted d) Polarised
76. When the pressure of a gas is doubled the velocity of sound in it is ( )
a) doubled b) halved c) unaltered d) squared
77. When the temperature of a gas is increased to 4T the velocity of sound
becomes ( )
a) V / 4 b) V / 2 c) 2V d) 4V
78. The unit of Intensity level of sound is _____________________.
79. Sound waves cannot be polarised because they are _______________ nature.
80. Two coherent sound waves will interfere at a point destructively if their phase
difference is ( )
a) 0 b) c) / 2 d) 2
81. Two coherent sound waves will interfere at a point constructively if their path
difference is ( )
a) / 2 b) / 3 c) d) / 4
82. Colours in thin soap film is due to _______________ of light.
83. The frequency of Transverse vibrations of a stretched string is 400 Hertz. If the
tension is increased four times the Frequency becomes ( )
a) 1600Hz b) 800Hz c) 100Hz d) 200Hz
84. An air bubble inside water behaves as _________________ lens
85. Velocity of ordinary and extra ordinary beams in a calcite crystal is the same along
the direction of ___________________.
86. When a beam of light is incident on any plane glass surface at polarising angle, then
the angle between reflected and beam is __________________.
87. Extraordinary ray in a Calcite crystal disobeys the laws of __________________.
88. Nicol’s prism cannot be used in the analysis of polarised light in the ultraviolet
regions since _________________ absorbs it.
89. The combined Focal length of a convex lens and a concave lens of equal Focal
Length is ____________________ when they are in contact.
90. An Achromatic combination of two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2
isobtained by keeping them at a distance __________________.
91. The Inability of rays of different colours of light issuing from a distant source of
white light to converge to a common point after passing through a convex lens is
known as _______________________.
92. The Radius of curvature of an Equiconvex lens is 30cm and refractive index is 1.5
its focal length in air is ( )
(Hint 1 / F = ( - 1) (1/R1 + 1 /R2)
a) 60Cm b) 15Cm c) 30Cm d) 20Cm
93. For a given incident ray when the reflected ray is rotated through 20, the mirror is
rotated through ( )
a) 200 b) 400 c) 100 d) 50
94. The variation in Focal length of a lens when we pass from the Central portion of the
perphery is called ( )
a) Spherical Aberration b) Astigmatism
c) Coma d) Chromatic Aberration
95. Two converging lenses of Equal focal lengths of one placed in contact. The Focal
length of the combination is ( )
a) f b) 2f c) f / 2 d) 3f
96. To get 4 images of a simple object one should have two plane mirrors kept at an
angle of (Hint : n = 360 / - 1) ( )
a) 50 b) 60 c) 30 d) 90
97. The points having unit lateral magnification in a lens system are called ( )
a) Focal Points b) Unit points
c) Principal points d) Centres of curvature
98. The Astronaut in the space ship sees the sky as ( )
a) White b) Black c) Blue d) Red
99. Calcite is a ( )
a) Uniaxial crystal b) biaxial crystal
c) no opticaxis crystal d) None
100. The shortest length of a plane mirror required to show a full view of a person of
height 180cm is ( )
a) 3Km/h b) 6Km/h c) 260Cm d) 240Cm
101. A man is approaching a mirror at the rate of 3km/h. Then his image approaches
him at the rate of ( )
a) 3Km/h b) 6Km/h c) 1.5Km/h d)9Km/h
102. The angle between the incident and reflected ray is 720. The angle of incidence is
________________.
103. In which Eye Piece Spherical and Chromatic Aberration are Absent ____________.
104. A Sextant is used to measure ( )
a) the distance of an object
b) the altitude of an object
c) the area of an object
105. In a compound Microscope the objective produces a magnification of 10. ( )
While the eyepiece produces a magnification of 5. Then the total magnification of
the microscope is
a) 50 b) 15 c) 10 d) 2
106. Optic axis in a double refracting substance is not a line but it is a ______________.
107. A Polarimeter is a device used to measure _________________ of Sugar solution.
108. The velocity ofultrasonic waves in air is _________________ that of audible sound.
109. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 x 10-7 m illuminates a pair of narrow
slits 1mm apart. The separation of bright lines of the interference pattern formed on
a screen 2m away is (Hint : B = D/d) ( )
a) 0.1mm b) 0.25mm c) 0.4mm d) 1.0mm
110. Monochromatic light is used to illuminate a pair of narrow slits 0.3mm apart, and
the interference pattern is observed as a screen 0.9mm away. The second dark band
appears 3mm from the centre of the patten. The wavelength of light is ( )
(2n + 1) D)(Hint x =
da) 2.2 x 10-7m b) 3.3 x 10-7m c) 6.7 x 10-7m d) 1.3 x 10-7m
111. The angle between the planes of vibration and polarisation ( )
a) 1800 b) 90 c) 00 d) 450
112. Light is incident on a surface at polarising angle of 400. Then the angle of
incidence is ( )
a) 400 b) 800 c) 1200 d) 500
113. When plane polarised light passes through a quarter wave plate are get circularly
polarised light when the angle between the plane of polarised and the principal axis
of the plate is ( )
a) Zero b) 900 c) 450 d) 2700
114. Light from Sun reaches us nearly ( )
a) 2min b) 4min c) 8min d) 16min
115. When a beam of circularly polarised light passes through a quarter wave plate we
get ( )
a) Circularly polarised light b) Plane polarised
c) Unpolarised light d) none
116. Two plane polarised rays of same amplitude and zero phase give rise to ( )
a) Circularly polarised light b) Plane polarised light
c) Elliptically polarised light d) none
117. A crystal of Copper Sulphate appears blue when it is made into a fine powder. It
will be (
)
a) Blue b) Green c) Grey d) White
118. For which colour the velocity of light is maximum in Glass __________________.
119. At what angle should light be incident on a glass – surface to obtain plane polarised
light = 1.46 ________________.
120. In the reflected system of the Newtons ring arrangement, the central spot is
___________________.
121. In the transmitted system of the Newtons ring arrangement the central spot is
___________________.
122. The Phenomenon of bending of light around the edges or corners of an obstacle is
___________________.
123. The phenomenon of Interference, diffraction and polarisation clearly establish the
fact that light is ____________________.
124. As the width of the grating decreases its resolving power ___________________
125. As the distance between the two slits in Young’s Experiment decreases the fringe
width _____________________
126. Two spectral lines are said to be just resolved when the; central maxima of one falls
on the __________________of the other.
127. The radii of Fresnel half period zones are in the ratio 1:________________etc.
128. A phase change of _________________ occurs when the reflection of light takes
place at a denser medium. This is called ___________________ law.
129. Dispersion of light implies variation of _____________ with __________________
130. Two lenses in contract form an achromatic doublet. Their focal lengths are in the
ratio 2:3. Then their dispersive powers must be in the ratio. ( )
a) 2:3 b) 1:3 c) 3:1 d) 3:2
131. The intensity of the dark band in the interference pattern becomes zero when two
waves. ( )
a) Of light are monochromatic b) are of same frequency c) Travel in opposite
directions d) are of same amplitude.
132. The Resolving power of a grating increases only with ( )
a) The order of the spectrum b) the number of lines in the grating
c) The order and the number of lines d) width of the grating
.
133. Pesolving power of a prism for a pair of spectral lines depends completely on
a) Thickness of the base of the prism ( )
b) Material of the prism.
c) Thickness and material of the prism
d) Height of the prism.
134. Soap films exhibit brilliant colours in sunlight due to ( )
a) Dispersion of light b) Interference of light
c) Reflection of light. d) Diffraction of light.
135. Two light waves of same wavelength having a constant phase difference are called
_________________________
136. The path difference corresponding to a phase difference of is ( )
a) b) /2 c) /4 d) 2
137. The dark lines in the Solar spectrum are called _________________________
138. Solar spectrum is _____________________ spectrum.
139. The phenomena of Red shift in Astrophysics establishes that universe is
___________________.
140. Laser is a device for producing _____________________.
141. In Youngs Double slit experiment the Fringe width is ( )
a) Directly proportional to wavelength
b) Inversely proportional to wavelength
c) Independent of wavelength
d) Proportional to square of wavelength
142. In a Biprism experiment instead of Yellow light if Red light is used, the fringe
width __________________.
NOTE : The thickness of a Quarter wave plate is t =
4 ( 0 - e)
The thickness of a Half wave plate is t =
2( 0 - e)
143. Double refraction does not occur along _________________.
144. Calcite is a _____________________ crystal.
145. Quartz is a _____________________ crystal.
146. Units of intensity of illumination are ______________________.
147. Unit of Luminous flux is ______________________.
148. The velocity of Electromagnetic waves is ____________________.
149. The unit of power of lens is ____________________.
150. The blue colour of the sky is due to __________________.
151. The negative result of Michelson Mosley experiment suggests that ____________.
152. In any from in which Newtons Laws of Motion holds good is called ____________
Frame.
153. Transmission of heat by molecular collision is ( )
a) conduction b) convection c) Radiation d) None
154. Cork is a good insulator because ( )
a) Its density is low b) It is porces
c) It can be powdered d) None
155. The density of water is maximum at ____________________.
156. In a gas if pressure is being kept constant the volume is directly proportional to its
________________.
157. The vapourisation of a solid without first becoming a liquid is called ___________.
158. The quickest process of heat transfer is ________________.
159. The surface temperature of Sun is nearly __________________.
160. A body which absorbs all the radiation that incidents on it is called _____________.
161. Pyrometers are used to measure___________________.
162. Solar constant can be determined by _________________.
163. Two bodies in Thermal Equilibrium with each other have same _______________.
164. A Thermister can be used to measure ____________________.
165. A point at which a substance exists in Equilibrium in all the trees stated of matter is
called _________________.
166. At very low temperatures Cotton. ( )
a) Becomes brittle b) Shows Flourescence
c) Cannot spun d) Liquified
167. The ratio of specific heats of a diatomic gas is ( )
a) 1 b) 1.4 c) 2 d) 1.67
168. The Ratio of specific heats of a Triatomic gas is ( )
a) 1.33 b) 1.4 c) 1.67 d) 2
169. The Ratio of specific heats of a mono atomic gas is ( )
a) 1.33 b) 1.4 c) 1.67 d) 2
170. Plancks Radiation Formula reduces to _______________ formula for longer
wavelengths.
171. Plancks Radiation Formula reduces to _______________ for shorter wavelengths.
172. Adiabatic Expansion always causes __________________.
173. In an Isothermal process _________________ remains constant
174. The efficiency of Cornot Engine is given by ________________.
175. All natural processes are ________________.
176. In a Carnot Engine if the temperature of the Sink is decreases the efficiency of the
Engine __________________.
177. The specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is __________________ then the
specific heat at constant volume.
178. The difference in the two specific heats of a gas is equal to _________________.
179. When a gas is compressed under adiabatic condition its Temperature.
180. Adiabatic cooling is due to work done at the cost of __________________ of a
gas.
181. The efficiency of a Carnot Engine does not depend on ________________ .
182. A heat Engine works on a Carnot cycle with a heat sink at a Temperature of 270C.
The efficiency of the Engine is 10%. The temperature of the hot source is
T2Hint : =1 -
T1183. There are two lead spheres the ratio of radii being 1:2 both at same temperatures.
The ratio of heat contents are ( )
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 1 : 8
184. A reversible Engine and an Irreversible Engine are working between the same
temperatures the efficiency of _________________ Engine is more.
185. The efficiency of a reversible heat Engine working between 2270C and
270 is ( )
a) 5/3 b) 2/5 c) 27 / 227 d) 3/5
186. In a Carnot Cycle, at the end of the cycle the Temperature of the working substance
is ( )
a) Less than the initial temperature b) Greater than the initial temperature
c) Same as initial temperature d) becomes zero
187. A device, which converts heat into Mechanical Energy, is called
_______________.
188. The efficiency of an ideal Carnot Engine depends on ( )
a) Working substance b) Temperature of source
c) Temperature of Sink d) Temperature of source and sink
189. If the Temperature of the Source is increased the efficiency of the Carnot Engine
___________________.
190. In all Irreversible process, the Entropy of the system ___________________.
191. In a reversible cycle the Entropy of the system ( )
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Does not change d) None
192. The Entropy of the universe always tend to a _________________.
193. The water Equivalent of a substance is numerically equal to _________________.
194. The Mean Free path of a gas molecule is _________________ the absolute
temperature of the gas.
195. As the density of the gas increases the mean Free path _________________.
196. The mean free path is inversely proportional to the square of the ______________.
197. Entropy is a measure of __________________ in a system.
198. Entropy - Temperature diagram of a substance is a _________________.
199. The area of Entropy – Temperature diagram represents ________________.
200. The area of P.V. Diagram represents __________________.
NOTE :
1) Work done in an isothermal process is W = 2.303 RT log V2 / V1
2) Work done in an adiabatic process is W = R / r – 1 ( T1 – T2)
201. Slope of adiabatic curve is _____________ times the slope of the isothermal curve.
202. By which method we can reach nearly absolute zero __________________.
203. In Frigidaires __________________ is used as refrigerant.
204. In large refrigerating plants (Ice Factory) _______________ is used as Refrigerant.
205. If two systems are in thermal Equilibrium with a third system, then they must be in
thermal Equilibrium with each other. This law is called _________________.
206. In Joule Thomson effect if 2a / RT is greater than b there is ______________effect.
207. In Joule Thomson effect if 2a / RT is less than b there is ______________effect.
208. In Joule Thomson effect if 2a / RT = b then there is ______________.
209. The temperature is Inversion is ______________ the Boyle temperatures.
210. The relation between critical volume and Vanderwalls constant is _____________.
211. The Electric potential inside a hollow charged spherical conductor is ___________.
212. To move a unit positive charge from one to another point on a Equipotential
surface. ( )
a) Work is done by the charge b) Work is done on the charge
c) No work is done d) work done is a constant
213. Electron volt is a unit of ( )
a) Charge b) Momentum c) Energy d) Voltage
214. When a charge is given to a soap bubble it ( )
a) Increases in size b) Remains same c) Decreases d) Bursts
215. When a dielectric is introduced in between the plates of a condenser the capacity of
the condenser ( )
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) None
216. Two condensers of capacitance ‘C’ each are connected in series. Their equivalent
capacity is ( )
a) C / 2 b) C c) 2C d) C2
217. If the distance between the capacitors is increases, the capacity _______________.
218. Three identical capacitors of ’C’ are connected in Series and this combination is
connected in parallel with one more identical capacitance. The capacity of the
combination is ( )
a) 3C b) -3/C c) 3C/4 d) 4C/3
219. A 0.5 Micro Farad condenser is placed in parallel with a 0.75 Micro Farad
condenser. This combination is connected across a 110 volt battery. The charges
on the condensers ___________________.
220. When charges are shared by two condensers there is always ______________ of
Energy.
221. Two cells of 1.25 volts and 0.75 volts are connected in parallel. The effective
voltage shall be ( )
a) 0.75V b) 1.25V c) 2.00V d) 0.5V
222. A Transformer works on the principle of phenomenon of ________________.
223. When a Transformer of low primary resistance meant to step down the voltage
from 110 to 5V is connected to D.C. mains of 110V.
a) The voltage induced in the Secondary is 5V.
b) The voltage induced in the secondary is 110V.
c) No voltage is induced d) None
224. The Relation between number of Turns and voltages on a Transformer is
__________________.
225. If N2 N1 (Number of turns in Secondary is less than number of turns in
Primary) The Transformer is a __________________ Transformer.
226. If N2 N1 then the Transformer is a ________________ Transformer.
227. A conductor which obeys ohms law is called __________________.
228. In an ideal Transformer primary has 500 turns and Secondary has 100 Turns. If the
current in the Secondary is 5A. current in the primary is __________________.
V2 N2 I1(HINT : = =
V1 N1 I2229. The frequency of A.C. in India is __________________.
230. The relation between the product of permitivity and permeability of free space and
velocity of light is ________________.
231. Unit of permitivity of Free Space (EO) is ___________________.
232. The unit of permeability constant is (uo) ____________________.
233. The current which lags behind the emf in the circuit by / 2 is called ___________
current.
NOTE :
1. The capacitive Reactance of a circuit XC = 1 / WC = 1 / 2 f = frequency,
c = capacity.
2. The Inductive Reactance W2 = WL = 2 f L L = Inductance
3. The average power in a A.C. is
P = Erms Irms Cos, Cos is called power factor.
4. The power in D.C. is P = E.I.
5. Apparent power P = Erms. Irms
6. True power in AC = Apparent Power x Power factor.
7. In a Inductive circuit current always lags behind by voltage and power factor
Cos = 0
8. In a circuit containing only resistance current and voltage are in phase.
9. In a circuit containing capacitance, voltage lags behind the current by
210. If Z is the total Impedance Cos R/Z.
11. RC has the same dimensions of time.
234. The direction of induced emf is known from __________________ law.
235. Lenzs law of a direct consequence of law of __________________.
236. Unit of Self Inductance or Mutual inductance is _______________.
237. L/R has the same dimensions of _________________.
238. The total impedance of a L.R. circuit is 50ohm. If the resistance is 40 ohms, the
inductance reactance is __________________ ( Hint : Z = R2 + XL2)
239. Ampere hour is a unit of _________________.
240. When current is flowing in two parallel wires separated by certain distance, in the
direction, then there exists ________________ between them.
NOTE :
1. The Force acting on a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field B is
F = i l B L = Length, I = Current.
2. The Force acting on a moving charge in a magnetic field B is F = B q V Sin
If = 0 F = BqV
3. The magnetic Induction at the centre of a circular current carrying conductor is
uoniB =
2r4. The Current is the shunted galvanometer is
I.S. I S + GIg = (or) =
(S + G) Ig S5. The constant of Galvanometer K = C /Ban
C = Couple per unit twist
B = Magnetic Induction
n = Number of turns
241. Using a moving coil Galvanometer we can measure currents upto _____________.
242. A small resistance connected in parallel to a Galvanometer to protect it from very
high currents, is called _________________.
243. To convert a Galvanometer into Ammeter, a small resistance must be connected in
________________ to the Galvanometer.
244. To convert a Galvanometer into Voltmeter, a high resistance must be connected in
________________.
245. A shunted Galvanometer acts as __________________.
246. An Ammeter must be connected _________________ in a circuit.
247. A volt meter must be always connected in _________________ in a circuit.
248. When two dissumber metal junctions are kept at different Temperatures an emf
develops in the circuit. This effect is called _________________.
249. In Antimony Bismuth junction current flows from ____________ to __________.
250. The temperature of the hot junction at which the direction of Thermo emf is
reversed is called ___________________.
NOTE : The Inversion temperature is as much above the neutral Temperature as
the cold junction is below the neutral Temperature Ti = 2 Tn ___ TO
251. In a Thermo couple the cold junction is at 200C and the neutral temperature is
2700C. The Temperature of Inversion is __________________.
252. A Galvanometer has a current range of 15mA and voltage range of 750mV. To
convert the Galvanometer into an ammeter of range 25A, the resistance to be
shunted is _________________.
253. When a low resistance S is shunted with an ammeter of resistance of G, the range
of the ammeter increases 5 times. Then G;S is _______________.
I S + G S + G(Hint : = ; ; 5S = S + G
Ig S S 4S = G254. When a high resistance R is connected in series with a voltmeter of resistance G,
the range of the Voltmeter increases 5 times. Then G : R is _______________.
255. A Galvanometer has a resistance of 50 ohms. It is shunted so that its sensitivity
decreases by 100 times. The shunt resistance is _________________.
I S + G S + G(Hint : = ; 100 =
Ig S S
256. If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of cross section is decreased to half,
then its resistance ( )
a) Increase 4 times b) Become double
c) Remain same d) Became half
257. Letter A is constructed by a uniform wire of resistance 1 ohm per cm. The sides of
the letter are 20cm long and the cross place in the middle is 10cm long. The
resistance of the letter between the two ends of the legs is equal to ( )
a) 80 ohms b) 50 c) 26.67 d) 12
258. The specific Resistance of a wire depends only on ____________________.
259. Four equal Resistance of R ohm each are connected in the form of a Square. The
effective resistance between any two adjacent corners is _______________.
260. The resistance of a wire is R ohms. If its length is doubled its resistance will be
_________________ ohms.
261. A uniform wire of 9 ohms is bent to form an Equilateral Triangle. The effective
resistance between any two corners is ____________________.
262. The unit of specific Resistance is _____________________.
263. With increase of Temperature the resistance of a metal ____________________.
264. To make high quality precision resistors _____________________ is used.
265. In electric stoves _____________________ is used.
266. Of all the metals ___________________ has highest specific Resistance.
267. The Force acting on a charge ‘q’ in an electric field E is F.
268. The capacity of a sphere is C.G.S. System is numerically equal to its ___________.
269. The potential difference between two parallel plates is 250V. If the distance
between them is 5cm the intensity between the plates is ___________(Hint: E: V/d)
270. If the distance between two enarges is doubled the force of attraction. ( )
a) Decreases by 4 times b) Decreases by 2 times
c) Increases by 2 times d) Increases by 4 times
271. When a charged conductor is connected to earth its potential is ________________.
272. When two equal capacitors are joined first in series and then in parallel, the ratio of
the effective capacitances is _____________________.
273. ___________________ is a sure test for electric charge.
NOTE :
1. The Energy stored in a capacitor E = ½ CV2 = ½ qV = ½ q2/C
2. The common potential when two capacitors at different potentials are connected
together.
C1V1 + C2V2V =
C1 + C2
3. If a Dielectric slab of thickness ‘t’ is kept between the plates of a condenser then
capacity
EOAC =
(d - t + t / k)
4. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor C = COA / d
274. A bar magnet of moment ‘M’ is cut into the equal halves. The moment of each
half is _________________.
275. In a uniform magnetic field lines of force are ___________________.
276. A bar magnet of magnetic moment ‘M’ is bent into a semi circle. The magnetic
moment is _____________________.
277. The unit of Magnetic flux is ________________.
278. The unit of Magnetic induction field strength _________________.
279. Three identical bar magnets are placed with ‘N’ pole of one touching the ‘S’ pole of
the combination is ____________________.
280. The ratio of intensities of magnetic fields due to a short magnet in Tan A and Tan B
position at the same distance is ( )
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 3 d) 3 : 1
281. The force acting on a pole of strength ‘m’ in a Field of Induction ‘B’ is
_______________.
282. Moment of the couple acting on a bar moment held at right angle to a uniform
magnetic field is C. The angle through which the magnet must be rotated to make
the couple C / 2 is __________________.
283. Two identical bar magnets each of moment ‘M’ are placed at right angles to each
other with the north pole of one touching the south pole of the other. The resultant
magnetic moment is __________________.
284. The angle between geographic axis and magnetic axis is _________________.
285. The angle between the total intensity of the earths magnetic field and horizontal at a
place is called ___________________.
286. The angle of Dip at the magnetic equator is ___________________.
287. The angle of Dip at the poles is ____________________.
288. Lines joining the places of equal dip are called ________________.
289. The Temperature at which Ferromagnetic substance is called _________________.
290. The unit of magnetic moment is ____________________.
291. 1 Electron – volt is equal to __________________ joules.
292. When an electron enters in a magnetic field it bends ____________________.
293. The e /m of electron is ____________________.
294. The mass of the positive ion is nearly ___________________ times that of electron.
295. The value of Plancks constant is ____________________ Joule – Sec.
296. _________________ elements shows photo electric effect even with ordinary light.
297. When speed of electrons is very large, the specific charge ( )
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged d) Becomes zero
298. Substances which have identical chemical properties but differ in Atomic weights
are called _________________.
NOTE :
1. The Kinetic Energy of the electron ½ mv2 = eVs VS = Stopping potential
2. The amount of work to be done to remove an electron is called work function.
W = h o o is called Threshold Frequency
3. The velocity of the photo electrons is directly proportional to the Frequency of
Incident radiation.
4. There is no time lag in photoelectric emission.
5. Millikan verified Experimentally the photo – electric equation.
6. The Half life period T = 0.6930 /
7. When a Radio active substance of mass MO after a time which is equal to x times
the half life period reduces to M then M / MO = 2X
8. The wave number = R ( 1/m2 - 1/m2)
If m = 1 and n = 2,3,4 ……… Lymen Series **
m = 2 and n = 3,4,5 ……… Balmer Series **
m = 3 and n = 4,5,6 ……… Pascher Series ** are observed
m = 4 and n = 5,6,7 ……… Bracket Series **
m = 5 and n = 6,7,8 ……… P fund Series **
9. The angular momentum of an electron is equal to nth.
10. The value of Rydbergs constant is
me4R = = 1.09737 x 107 mt-1.
8EO2 Ch311. The energy of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is
-13.6E = e.v
n2
If n = 1 E1 = -13.6ev
n = 2 E2 = -3.4
n = 3 E3 = -1.51ev
12. The Energy required by the electron to be raised to ionised state is 13.6 ev.
13. According to Mosley’s law r 2 r = a (Z – b)
14. According to Einsteins Mass Energy relation E = mc2
15. When an particle is emitted from a substance its mass decreases by 4 units and
atomic number decreases by 2 units. If a B particle is emitted mass is unchanged,
number increases by one unit.
299. In Photo electric cell the phenomena involved is ____________________.
300. Radiation belongs to ___________________ nature.
301. - particles are similar to __________________.
302. Half life period of Radium is 1600 year. After 4800 years it changes to
_______________.
303. Unit of Radio Activity is __________________.
304. 1 Curie is equal to __________________ disintegrations.
305. Lymen series exists in __________________ region.
306. Balmer series exists in __________________region.
307. Paschen series exists in __________________ region.
308. Bracket, P fund series exists in __________________ region.
309. X – rays have very __________________ wavelength.
310. In the production of X – rays _______________ element is used as target element.
311. Using __________________ the intensity of X – ray spectral line is determined.
312. When very high voltage is applied in a coolidge tube we get ___________ X– rays.
313. 2d Sin = n is called __________________ law.
314. When the number of electrons striking the anode of an x – ray tube is increased the
intensity of x-rays __________________.
315. The particles used to Transmute Boron to Nitrogen are __________________.
316. The number of electrons emitted in photoelectric effect is directly proportional to
__________________.
317. The momentum of photon is __________________.
318. De Broglie wavelength is equal to __________________.
319. If a photon collides with an electron, the observed change in Frequency or
wavelength is called __________________.
320. The difference between the Atomic mass and the mass number is called
__________________.
321. The maximum average Binding Energy per nuclear is __________________.
322. One a.m.u. is equal to __________________ Mev.
323. One a.m.u. is equal to __________________ Kg.
324. When Uranium 235 nucleus is split up into two nearly equal parts large amount of
energy is released. This process is called __________________.
325. In every Fission of U – 235 on average _________________ neutrons are released.
326. The amount of Energy liberated in a nuclear fission reaction is nearly __________.
327. The fission of U235 is __________________ than that of U238.
328. When two lighter nuclei combine it gives a heavier nuclei and Energy. This
process is called __________________.
329. Fission is more preferable than Fussion because __________________.
330. The principle involved in Atombomb is __________________ and that in
Hydrogen bomb is __________________.
331. Antiparticle of electron is __________________.
332. The intensity of cosmic rays is minimum at __________________ maximum at
__________________.
333. The energy of Sun and stars is due to the phenomenon of __________________.
334. Heavy water is used as __________________ in a Nuclear reactor.
335. __________________ rods are used as Control rods in a nuclear Reactor.
336. The number of neutrons in a chain reaction increases in __________________
progression.
337. The nuclear Reactions that occur at very high temperatures are called __________.
338. The Fission of Plutonium 239 is __________________ than U 235.
339. The exact position and momentum of an Electron cannot be determined
simultaneously with a desired accuracy. This principle is __________________.
340. Electron possess __________________ nature.
341. Time and space are __________________ terms.
NOTE :
1. The compton wave length change d = 2h / moc ( 1 - cos)
2. Compton’s wavelength d = h / moc. Its value is equal to 0.0242A0.
342. To explain the Fine structure of specture of spectral lines Sommerfied introduced
__________________ orbits.
343. The direction of deflection of a Cathode ray passing through magnetic field can be
found by ( )
a) Flemings Right hand Rule b) Flemings left hand rule
c) Cork Screw Rule d) Ampere rule
344. The aim of Stern and Gerlach experiment was ( )
a) To verify validity of vector atom model
b) To study normal Zeeman effect
c) Avamolous Zeeman effect
d) To study paschen Back effect.
345. In Millikans oil drop experiment we make use of __________________ Law.
346. Einstems photoelectric equation can be verified with ______________ Experiment.
347. For Diffraction of X – rays ordinary Gratings are __________________.
348. The suggestion that a crystal can be used as a Grating for X – rays was
given by ( )
a) Bragg b) Laue c) Bravais d) Miller
349. Electrons can be accelerated to very high speed using ( )
a) Thyratron b) Betatron c) Cyclotron d) Magnetron
350. The reciprocal of decay constant of a Radio – active substance is ( )
a) Half life b) Mean life c) Total life d) None
351. Radio activity is a __________________ phenomenon
352. The stable end product of any Radio active element is __________________.
NOTE :
1. A Diode contains two electrodes.
2. A diode is used as a Rectifier and Detector.
3. A Triode contains Three Electrodes plate, Cathode and Control Grid.
4. Internal resistance of a Triode.
dVp
rp = dIp
5. Mutual conductance gm = dIp / dVg
6. Amplification factor u = dVp / dVg
(or) u = rp x gm
7. uRL
Gain A = RL : Load resistanceR + RL
8. A Triode acts as an Amplifier, Oscillator etc.
353. In the case of semi conductor with increase of Temperature the conductivity
________________.
354. The width of Forbidden band is maximum in ________________.
355. If a Trivalent substance (gallium or Indium) is doped into Semi conductor it
becomes ________________ type of semi – conductor.
356. If a Fifth group element (Arsenic) is doped it becomes ________________ type.
357. An impure semi conductor is also called________________.
358. The number of holes and electrons are same in a _______________ semi
conductor.
359. In an Intrinsic Semi conductor Fermi level is at ________________ of the
Forbidden band.
360. In a P – type the Fermi level lies ________________ and in an n – type the Fermi
level lies ________________.
361. Conversion of A.C. into D.C. is called ________________.
362. A p – n junction offers very high resistance in ________________ bias and low
resistance in ________________ bias.
363. In a PnP Transistor the majority carriers are ________________. In a nPn
Transistor majority carriers are ________________.
364. Control Grid in a Triode is similar to ________________ in a Transistor.
365. The unit of Mutual conductance is ________________.
366. The plate resistance of a Triode is 10 Kilo ohms. Its Amplification factor is 40. If
load resistance is 100 Kilo ohms. The voltage amplification is ________________.
URLHint : A =
RL + RP367. In a Transistor the thickness of ________________ region is very small.
368. In a Diode where no charge carriers are present is called ________________ called.
369. The electrons emitted due to heating are called ________________.
370. The use of Grid in a Triode is to control ________________.
371. The unit of collision cross section is ________________.
372. The periods of revolution of two Satellites of a planet are 32 days and 256 days.
If the Radius of the orbit of first Satelite is 1 unit, the radius of the second
or-bit is ( )
a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 64
T12 R1
3
Hint =T2
2 R2
373. The equation of continuity for fluid flow describes the law of ( )
a) Conservation of mass b) Conservation of energy
c) Conservation of Momentum d) Nil
374. The ability of an optical instrument to produce distinctly separate Images of very
close objects is called ( )
a) Magnifying power b) Dispersive power
c) Resolving power d) Refracting power
375. Light of Wavelength 60000A is incident normally on a Diffraction Grating having
4000 lines per cm. The possible number of orders observed are _______________.
(Hint : Sin = nN)
376. when sound waves travel in a medium. The changes that take place in the medium
are _______________.
377. When a beam of light incident on a glass block at the polarising angle the angle
between reflected and refracted beams is ( )
a) 600 b) 900 c) 1200 d) 00
378. When two tuning forks A and B are sounded together 6 beats are produced when A
is loaded with wax 4 beats are produced. If the Frequency of A is 256 the
Frequency of B is _______________ H2.
379. Twelve wires each of resistance 3 ohms forms a cube the resistance between the
diagonally opposite corners of the cube is _______________ (Hint : 5 / 6 r)
380. The reciprocal of resistivity of a material is called _______________.
381. The temperature coefficient of resistivity is negative for _______________.
382. A circuit consisting of a capacitor and resistor in series is connected to a battery. If
the time constant of the circuit is one second, the charge acquired by the capacitor is
one second is ( )
a) 63% of maximum value b) 60% of max. value
c) 50% of max. value d) 10% of max. value
383. Tritium is an Isotope of _______________.
384. When an X – ray beam is incident on a crystal, the second order reflection is found
to occur at 300. If the grating space of the crystal is 3A0, the wavelength of X –
raysis _______________ (Hint n = 2d Sin).
385. The wavelength of matter waves associated with an electron which falls through a
potential of 150 volts is _______________.
hHint : =
2eVs.m
386. The dispersion of positive ions in Astons Mass Spectrograph is due to the ( )
applied
a) Magnetic field b) Electric field
c) Magnetic and electric d) None
387. Packing fraction is related to ( )
a) Radio activity b) Mass defect
c) Mass number d) Spin
388. Matter waves are associated with ( )
a) Moving charges b) Charges at rest
c) Any particle in motion d) Uncharged particles
389. According to Rayleigh criteria, the angular separation of two distant point objects
that are just resolved is ( )
a) = 1.22 / d b) = 12.2 / d
c) 1.22d / d) 1.22 d
390. Absolute zero means ( )
a) 00C b) 2730C c) -2730C d) -273K
391. We can get more Sugar for 1Kg weight at ( )
a) Equator b) Poles c) Any place d) None
392. If the density and radius of earth were double the gravity on its surface ( )
increases.
a) 4 times b) 2 times c) 16 times d) 12 times
393. Joule Thomson effect is ( )
a) Reversible b) Contracts c) Both d) None
394. On melting wax ( )
a) Expands b) Contracts c) Both d) None
395. A substance above critical Temperature exists as ( )
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) None
396. The number of degrees of Freedom of a Poly atomic gas are _______________.
397. The temperature at which the velocity of Sound becomes twice its value ( )
at 00C is
a) 8190C b) 2730C c) 5460C d) 1000C
398. A point on the through of a Transverse wave shall reach the crest after ( )
a) T / 4 Sec b) T / 2 Sec c) T Sec d) 3T / 2 Sec
399. Focal power of a plane mirror is _______________.
400. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii and possessing equal charge combine to form
a big drop. The capacitance of the bigger drop compared to each drop is ( )
a) 18 times b) 14 c) 2 d) 32 times
401. For maximum power to be drawn from a battery the External resistance (Load
Resistance) must be equal to _______________.
DISCOVERIES
1. Cathode Rays were discovered by – Plucker
2. Positive Rays were discovered by – Goldstem
3. Neutron was discovered by – Chadwick
4. Radio Activity – Henry Becquerel
5. Radium – Curie Madam
6. Artificial Radio Activity – Curie Joliot and Fredrick Joliot
7. Isotopes were discovered by – Aston
8. Nuclear Fission – Otto Hahes and Strass mann
9. X – rays – Rontgen (1913)
10. Nuclear Reactor was constructed by – Fermi
11. Positron – Anderson
12. Mesons – Neder Mayor
13. Artificial Transmutation of elements – Rutherford
14. Theory of Relativity – Einstein
15. Diode valve – Fleming
16. Triode valve – Lee De Forest (1906)
17. Transistor – John Bardeen and Brattain
18. Quantum theory proposed by – Max. Planck
19. Matter waves were proposed by – De Broglie
20. Elliptical orbits – Sommerfield
21. Compton effect - campton
22. LASER was constructed by – Theodre Maiman
23. Thermo electric effect – Seeback (1826 AD)
24. First electric cell was made by – Volta
25. Nicol prism – Nicol William
26. Holography – Dennis Gabor
27. Diffraction was first observed by – Grimaldi
28. Infra Red rays – Herschel
29. Ultraviolet rays – Ritter
30. The Entropy concept - Clausices
KEY
1) Adhesive Force 2) 10m/Sec 3) b 4) c 5) c 6) b 7) Zero
8) Uniform velocity 9) Minimum or zero 10) L2 11) Inelastic 12) a
13) /30 rad / sec 14) b 15) minimum 16) 2 / K 17) 6Sin (20 t)
18) b 19) d 20) c 21) d 22) a 23) b
24) M = qR2 / G 25) b 26) Decreases by a factor 1 / N
27) The valve of g on the moon is smaller than that on the earth 28) e
29) Centroid 30) Moment of Inertia 31) Solid sphere
32) The stone executes S.H.M. 33) c 34) c 35) a 36) b
37) b 38) b 39) r = 1/21 T/m 40) b 41) Decreases
42) Decreases 43) Surface Tension 44) Capillarity 45) Obtuse
(greater than 900) 46) 4T / r 47) 2T / r 48) b 49) Decreases
50) Mean free path 51) Increase 52) Probability 53) halved
54) Critical Temperature 55) Less than critical temperature 56) Critical State
57) Less than critical temperature 58) Intermolecular attraction 59) Less 60) ½ K
61) 5 62) d 63) The difference of pressure on either side of the plug
64) The critical temperature is lower than room temperature
65) Joule Thomson effect 66) 3 / 2 KT 67) d 68) C 69) b
70) Increases 71) c 72) d 73) b 74) b 75) d
76) c 77) c 78) Decibel 79) Longitudinal 80) b 81) c
82) Interference 83) b 84) concave (Diverging) 85) optic axis
86) / 2 (or) 900 87) Refraction (snells law) 88) Canada Balsm 89) Zero
90) f1 + f2 / 2 91) Chromatic aberration 92) c 93) c 94) a 95) c 96) d
97) b 98) b 99) a 100)b 101) 360 102) Huygens Eyepiece 103) b
104) 50 105) Direction 106) Specific Rotatory Power 107) Same as
108) d 109) a 110) b 111) a 112) c 113) c
114) b 115) a 116) d 117) Red 118) Tan-1 (1.46) 119) Dark
120) Bright 121) Diffraction 122) Transverse wave 123) Decreases
124) Increases 125) Increases 126) First secondary minimum 127)
1:2:3………..
128) /2 (90); stokes, 129) Wave length, Refractive index 130) a
131) c 132) c 133) c
MSc –PHYSICS- ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
MODEL EXAMINATION
1.A body is thrown vertically up with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec. Its velocity when it
comes back to the same point is____________________
2.Force exerted on unit area is called ( )
a) Strain b) pressure c) thrust d) elasticity
3.Newtons first law of motion gives the concept of ( )
a) Energy b) work c) Inertia
4.The minimum number of unequal forces where vector sum can equal tozero is( )
a) 1 b) 2 c) both 3 d) 4
5.A stationary object can have ( )
a) K.E. b) P.E. c) both K.E. and P.E. d) momentum
6.A particle is taken round a circle by the application of a force F. The work done is
____________________.
7.Equal changes of displacements in equal intervals of time is known as
____________________.
8.In S.H.M. The velocity of the particle is ________________ at the extreme ends of
vibration.
9.Collision cross – section has dimensions of ____________________.
10.If two bodies stick together after collision. The collision is a __________ collision.
11.A light body ‘A’ and a heavy body ‘B’ have equal Kinetic Energies of translation. Then
( )
d) A has larger momentum than B
e) B has larger momentum than A
f) Both A and B have same momentum
19. The angular speed of the seconds hand of a watch is ____________________.
20. A simple pendulum has a period T for a length 1. It has a bob made of brass. Now the
brass bob is replaced by steel and at the same time the length is changed to give a
period of 2T. The new length is ( )
a) 21 b) 41 c) 21 d) 41
21. When the bob of the simple pendulum is at the extreme position the acceleration is
____________________.
22. The equation of motion of a particle is d2y / dt2 + Ky = 0. Where K is a force
constant. The time period of this motion is ___________________.
23. A simple harmonic motion has an amplitude 6cm and period 0.1 sec. The equation of
motion is ___________________.
24. The resultant of two equal Forces acting at a point perpendicular to each
other is ( )
a) Sum of the Forces b) 2 x one of the Forces
c) Twice to one of the Forces d) Difference of their forces
19. If the length of a simple pendulum is halved the period is ( )
a) Doubled b) Halved
c) Increased by a factor 2 d) Decreased by a factor 1 / 2
20. When the K.E. is increased by 300% the momentum of the body increases by ( )
a) 20% b) 50% c) 100% d) 200%
21. The type of motion when the acceleration is directly proportional to displacement is
called ( )
a) Translational b) Rotational c) Gyroscopic d) Simple harmonic
22. The unit of spring constant is (Force constant is ) ( )
a) N / m b) N / m2 c) N / Kg d) N_m.
23. If two forces F and F acting at a point give a resultant force of magnitude F. Then
the angle between the forces must be ( )
a) 00 b) 1200 c) 600 d) 900
34. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity at its place,the
mass of the earth is given by ____________________.
35. As we move from poles to the Equator on the earths surface the value of g( )
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same
36. If the distance between two masses is doubled the gravitational force between
them_________________.
37. A person can jump higher on the moon than on the earth because _____________.
38. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1/6th that on the earth. A seconds
pendulum on the earth will have on the moon a period of ( )
a) 2 x 6 Sec b) 2 / 6 Sec c) 2 6 Sec d) 6 Sec
39. The centre of gravity of a Triangular lamina is its ___________________.
40. Mass in the translational motion is equivalent to ______________ in rotatory
motion.
41. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass and radius are allowed to roll
down an inclined plane simultaneously. Which sphere reaches the bottom first
_________________.
42. A hole is made in the earth passing through its centre and a stone is dropped in it.
Then __________________.
43. Two simple harmonic vibrations of the same Frequency and amplitude having a
phase difference of / 2 and acting at right angles will combine to form a resultant
vibration, which is ( )
a) Circular b) Linear c) Elliptical d) Parabolic
34. Two perpendicular S.H.M. of the same frequency, amplitude and phase will
combine to form a resultant vibration which is ( )
a) an ellipse b) circle c) Straight line d) Parabola
35. The Frequency of vibrations in a Sonometer under Tension ‘T’ is n. If the vibrating
length is halved keeping Tension constant, the Frequency becomes ( )
a) 2n b) n c) 1 / 2n d) 1 / 2n
36. If the length of the pendulum of the clock is decreased it ( )
a) Will go slow b) goes fast c) stops d) none
37. Beats are the result of ( )
a) Diffraction b) Interference c) Polarisation d) Refraction
38. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is ( )
a) b) / 2 c) / 4 d) 2
69. The frequency of Transverse vibrations in a string of length l and linear density ‘m’
vibrating in one loop under Tension T is given by ______________________.
70. The pressure Energy per unit volume of the liquid is ___________________.
a) P/d b) P (Pressure) c) P.d d) d / p
71. With increase of Temperature the viscosity of a liquid __________________.
72. With increase of Temperature the surface tension of a liquid ________________.
73. Spherical shape of water drops is due to ______________________.
74. Absorption of water by Filter paper or towel is due to ___________________.
75. A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if the angle of contact is ____________.
76. The Excess pressure in a Soap bubble is ___________________.
(T Surface Tension, r radius)
77. The excess pressure in a water drop is __________________.
78. If the diameter of the capillary tube is doubled, the rise water in capillary tube will
be _______________________.
79. The Mean free path of a gas ____________________ with increase of Temperature.
80. The average distance traveled by a molecule between two successive collisions is
called _________________.
81. In a gas the Molecular Energy _______________ with increase of Temperature.
82. Maxwell’s law of distribution of velocities has been derived using the law of
________________.
83. At constant Temperature doubling the pressure of a gas changes the volume to
________________.
84. A gas on passing through a narrow orifice experience a rise of Temperature of its
initial temperature is greater than its _________________.
85. A gas on passing through a narrow orifice gets cooled of initial temperature is
_________________.
86. Andrews Experiments on Carbondioxide established the existence of __________.
87. A gas can be liquified by application of pressure provided its Temperature is
_________________.
88. The most important conclusion of the Porus plug experiment is about the existence
of _________________.
89. The most probable speed of gas molecules is always __________________ than
then mean speed.
90. The Kinetic Energy of a gram molecule of a gas per degree of Freedom is
__________________.
91. The number of degrees of freedom for a diatomic gas are _________________.
92. RTC / PCVC for a gas obeying Van der waals Equation is ( )
a) 2 b) 2.3 c) 0.2 d) 8 / 3 or 2.66
93. During the porous plug experiment the change in Temperature of the gas depends
upon ____________________.
94. Hydrogen cannot be liquefied at room temperature by the application of pressure
because ________________.
95. Inversion temperature of a gas is the Temperature above which the gas shows a
heating effect in passing through a narrow orifice. T/F
96. In Linde’s liquifier the principle used is ______________________.
97. The Mean K.E. of a gas molecule is ____________________.
98. The Pressure P of a gas and its mean Kinetic Energy E per unit volume are related
as
a) P = ½ E b) P / 3 c) 3P / d) 3P
69. If R is the gas constant per mole of a gas and N is the Avagadros number then
Boltzmann constant is given by ( )
a) RN b) R / N c) N / R d) NR
70. The velocity of a longitudinal wave passing through a metal rod is proportional to
Square root of ( )
a) Tension b) Youngs Modulus c) Bulk Modulus d) Rigidity Modulus
74. The velocity of Transverse vibrations in Melde’s String. Under Tension ‘T’ is
proportional to ( )
a) T b) T c) 1 / T d) T2
75. Sound waves cannot be ( )
a) Reflected b) Refracted c) Diffracted d) Polarised
76. When the pressure of a gas is doubled the velocity of sound in it is ( )
a) doubled b) halved c) unaltered d) squared
81. When the temperature of a gas is increased to 4T the velocity of sound
becomes ( )
a) V / 4 b) V / 2 c) 2V d) 4V
82. The unit of Intensity level of sound is _____________________.
83. Sound waves cannot be polarised because they are _______________ nature.
84. Two coherent sound waves will interfere at a point destructively if their phase
difference is ( )
a) 0 b) c) / 2 d) 2
81. Two coherent sound waves will interfere at a point constructively if their path
difference is ( )
a) / 2 b) / 3 c) d) / 4
82. Colours in thin soap film is due to _______________ of light.
83. The frequency of Transverse vibrations of a stretched string is 400 Hertz. If the
tension is increased four times the Frequency becomes ( )
a) 1600Hz b) 800Hz c) 100Hz d) 200Hz
93. An air bubble inside water behaves as _________________ lens
94. Velocity of ordinary and extra ordinary beams in a calcite crystal is the same along
the direction of ___________________.
95. When a beam of light is incident on any plane glass surface at polarising angle, then
the angle between reflected and beam is __________________.
96. Extraordinary ray in a Calcite crystal disobeys the laws of __________________.
97. Nicol’s prism cannot be used in the analysis of polarised light in the ultraviolet
regions since _________________ absorbs it.
98. The combined Focal length of a convex lens and a concave lens of equal Focal
Length is ____________________ when they are in contact.
99. An Achromatic combination of two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2
isobtained by keeping them at a distance __________________.
100. The Inability of rays of different colours of light issuing from a distant source of
white light to converge to a common point after passing through a convex lens is
known as _______________________.
101. The Radius of curvature of an Equiconvex lens is 30cm and refractive index is 1.5
its focal length in air is ( )
a) 60Cm b) 15Cm c) 30Cm d) 20Cm
93. For a given incident ray when the reflected ray is rotated through 20, the mirror is
rotated through ( )
a) 200 b) 400 c) 100 d) 50
94. The variation in Focal length of a lens when we pass from the Central portion of the
perphery is called ( )
a) Spherical Aberration b) Astigmatism
c) Coma d) Chromatic Aberration
95. Two converging lenses of Equal focal lengths of one placed in contact. The Focal
length of the combination is ( )
a) f b) 2f c) f / 2 d) 3f
96. To get 4 images of a simple object one should have two plane mirrors kept at an
angle of (Hint : n = 360 / - 1) ( )
a) 50 b) 60 c) 30 d) 90
97. The points having unit lateral magnification in a lens system are called ( )
a) Focal Points b) Unit points
c) Principal points d) Centres of curvature
98. The Astronaut in the space ship sees the sky as ( )
a) White b) Black c) Blue d) Red
99. Calcite is a ( )
a) Uniaxial crystal b) biaxial crystal
c) no opticaxis crystal d) None
100. The shortest length of a plane mirror required to show a full view of a person of
height 180cm is ( )
a) 3Km/h b) 6Km/h c) 260Cm d) 240Cm
110. A man is approaching a mirror at the rate of 3km/h. Then his image approaches
him at the rate of ( )
a) 3Km/h b) 6Km/h c) 1.5Km/h d)9Km/h
111. The angle between the incident and reflected ray is 720. The angle of incidence is
________________.
112. In which Eye Piece Spherical and Chromatic Aberration are Absent ____________.
113. A Sextant is used to measure ( )
d) the distance of an object
e) the altitude of an object
f) the area of an object
114. In a compound Microscope the objective produces a magnification of 10. ( )
While the eyepiece produces a magnification of 5. Then the total magnification of
the microscope is
a) 50 b) 15 c) 10 d) 2
115. Optic axis in a double refracting substance is not a line but it is a ______________.
116. A Polarimeter is a device used to measure _________________ of Sugar solution.
117. The velocity ofultrasonic waves in air is _________________ that of audible sound.
118. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 x 10-7 m illuminates a pair of narrow
slits 1mm apart. The separation of bright lines of the interference pattern formed on
a screen 2m away is (Hint : B = D/d) ( )
a) 0.1mm b) 0.25mm c) 0.4mm d) 1.0mm
110. Monochromatic light is used to illuminate a pair of narrow slits 0.3mm apart, and
the interference pattern is observed as a screen 0.9mm away. The second dark band
appears 3mm from the centre of the patten. The wavelength of light is ( )
a) 2.2 x 10-7m b) 3.3 x 10-7m c) 6.7 x 10-7m d) 1.3 x 10-7m
111. The angle between the planes of vibration and polarisation ( )
a) 1800 b) 90 c) 00 d) 450
112. Light is incident on a surface at polarising angle of 400. Then the angle of
incidence is ( )
a) 400 b) 800 c) 1200 d) 500
113. When plane polarised light passes through a quarter wave plate are get circularly
polarised light when the angle between the plane of polarised and the principal axis
of the plate is ( )
a) Zero b) 900 c) 450 d) 2700
114. Light from Sun reaches us nearly ( )
a) 2min b) 4min c) 8min d) 16min
115. When a beam of circularly polarised light passes through a quarter wave plate we
get ( )
a) Circularly polarised light b) Plane polarised
c) Unpolarised light d) none
116. Two plane polarised rays of same amplitude and zero phase give rise to ( )
a) Circularly polarised light b) Plane polarised light
c) Elliptically polarised light d) none
117. A crystal of Copper Sulphate appears blue when it is made into a fine powder. It
will be (
)
a) Blue b) Green c) Grey d) White
131. For which colour the velocity of light is maximum in Glass __________________.
132. At what angle should light be incident on a glass – surface to obtain plane polarised
light = 1.46 ________________.
133. In the reflected system of the Newtons ring arrangement, the central spot is
___________________.
134. In the transmitted system of the Newtons ring arrangement the central spot is
___________________.
135. The Phenomenon of bending of light around the edges or corners of an obstacle is
___________________.
136. The phenomenon of Interference, diffraction and polarisation clearly establish the
fact that light is ____________________.
137. As the width of the grating decreases its resolving power ___________________
138. As the distance between the two slits in Young’s Experiment decreases the fringe
width _____________________
139. Two spectral lines are said to be just resolved when the; central maxima of one falls
on the __________________of the other.
140. The radii of Fresnel half period zones are in the ratio 1:________________etc.
141. A phase change of _________________ occurs when the reflection of light takes
place at a denser medium. This is called ___________________ law.
142. Dispersion of light implies variation of _____________ with __________________
143. Two lenses in contract form an achromatic doublet. Their focal lengths are in the
ratio 2:3. Then their dispersive powers must be in the ratio. ( )
a) 2:3 b) 1:3 c) 3:1 d) 3:2
131. The intensity of the dark band in the interference pattern becomes zero when two
waves. ( )
a) Of light are monochromatic b) are of same frequency c) Travel in opposite
directions d) are of same amplitude.
132. The Resolving power of a grating increases only with ( )
a) The order of the spectrum b) the number of lines in the grating
c) The order and the number of lines d) width of the grating
.
133. Pesolving power of a prism for a pair of spectral lines depends completely on
a) Thickness of the base of the prism ( )
e) Material of the prism.
f) Thickness and material of the prism
g) Height of the prism.
136. Soap films exhibit brilliant colours in sunlight due to ( )
a) Dispersion of light b) Interference of light
c) Reflection of light. d) Diffraction of light.
137. Two light waves of same wavelength having a constant phase difference are called
_________________________
136. The path difference corresponding to a phase difference of is ( )
a) b) /2 c) /4 d) 2
154. The dark lines in the Solar spectrum are called _________________________
155. Solar spectrum is _____________________ spectrum.
156. The phenomena of Red shift in Astrophysics establishes that universe is
___________________.
157. Laser is a device for producing _____________________.
158. In Youngs Double slit experiment the Fringe width is ( )
e) Directly proportional to wavelength
f) Inversely proportional to wavelength
g) Independent of wavelength
h) Proportional to square of wavelength
159. In a Biprism experiment instead of Yellow light if Red light is used, the fringe
width ____________
160. Double refraction does not occur along _________________.
161. Calcite is a _____________________ crystal.
162. Quartz is a _____________________ crystal.
163. Units of intensity of illumination are ______________________.
164. Unit of Luminous flux is ______________________.
165. The velocity of Electromagnetic waves is ____________________.
166. The unit of power of lens is ____________________.
167. The blue colour of the sky is due to __________________.
168. The negative result of Michelson Mosley experiment suggests that ____________.
169. In any from in which Newtons Laws of Motion holds good is called ____________
Frame.
170. Transmission of heat by molecular collision is ( )
a) conduction b) convection c) Radiation d) None
154. Cork is a good insulator because ( )
a) Its density is low b) It is porces
c) It can be powdered d) None
155. The density of water is maximum at ____________________.
169. In a gas if pressure is being kept constant the volume is directly proportional to its
________________.
170. The vapourisation of a solid without first becoming a liquid is called ___________.
171. The quickest process of heat transfer is ________________.
172. The surface temperature of Sun is nearly __________________.
173. A body which absorbs all the radiation that incidents on it is called _____________.
174. Pyrometers are used to measure___________________.
175. Solar constant can be determined by _________________.
176. Two bodies in Thermal Equilibrium with each other have same _______________.
177. A Thermister can be used to measure ____________________.
178. A point at which a substance exists in Equilibrium in all the trees stated of matter is
called _________________.
179. At very low temperatures Cotton. ( )
a) Becomes brittle b) Shows Flourescence
c) Cannot spun d) Liquified
180. The ratio of specific heats of a diatomic gas is ( )
a) 1 b) 1.4 c) 2 d) 1.67
181. The Ratio of specific heats of a Triatomic gas is ( )
a) 1.33 b) 1.4 c) 1.67 d) 2
169. The Ratio of specific heats of a mono atomic gas is ( )
a) 1.33 b) 1.4 c) 1.67 d) 2
170. Plancks Radiation Formula reduces to _______________ formula for longer
wavelengths.
183. Plancks Radiation Formula reduces to _______________ for shorter wavelengths.
184. Adiabatic Expansion always causes __________________.
185. In an Isothermal process _________________ remains constant
186. The efficiency of Cornot Engine is given by ________________.
187. All natural processes are ________________.
188. In a Carnot Engine if the temperature of the Sink is decreases the efficiency of the
Engine __________________.
189. The specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is __________________ then the
specific heat at constant volume.
190. The difference in the two specific heats of a gas is equal to _________________.
191. When a gas is compressed under adiabatic condition its Temperature.
192. Adiabatic cooling is due to work done at the cost of __________________ of a
gas.
193. The efficiency of a Carnot Engine does not depend on ________________ .
194. A heat Engine works on a Carnot cycle with a heat sink at a Temperature of 270C.
The efficiency of the Engine is 10%. The temperature of the hot source is
183. There are two lead spheres the ratio of radii being 1:2 both at same temperatures.
The ratio of heat contents are ( )
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 1 : 8
186. A reversible Engine and an Irreversible Engine are working between the same
temperatures the efficiency of _________________ Engine is more.
187. The efficiency of a reversible heat Engine working between 2270C and
270 is ( )
a) 5/3 b) 2/5 c) 27 / 227 d) 3/5
186. In a Carnot Cycle, at the end of the cycle the Temperature of the working substance
is ( )
a) Less than the initial temperature b) Greater than the initial temperature
c) Same as initial temperature d) becomes zero
215. A device, which converts heat into Mechanical Energy, is called
_______________.
216. The efficiency of an ideal Carnot Engine depends on ( )
a) Working substance b) Temperature of source
c) Temperature of Sink d) Temperature of source and sink
217. If the Temperature of the Source is increased the efficiency of the Carnot Engine
___________________.
218. In all Irreversible process, the Entropy of the system ___________________.
219. In a reversible cycle the Entropy of the system ( )
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Does not change d) None
220. The Entropy of the universe always tend to a _________________.
221. The water Equivalent of a substance is numerically equal to _________________.
222. The Mean Free path of a gas molecule is _________________ the absolute
temperature of the gas.
223. As the density of the gas increases the mean Free path _________________.
224. The mean free path is inversely proportional to the square of the ______________.
225. Entropy is a measure of __________________ in a system.
226. Entropy - Temperature diagram of a substance is a _________________.
227. The area of Entropy – Temperature diagram represents ________________.
228. The area of P.V. Diagram represents __________________.
229. Slope of adiabatic curve is _____________ times the slope of the isothermal curve.
230. By which method we can reach nearly absolute zero __________________.
231. In Frigidaires __________________ is used as refrigerant.
232. In large refrigerating plants (Ice Factory) _______________ is used as Refrigerant.
233. If two systems are in thermal Equilibrium with a third system, then they must be in
thermal Equilibrium with each other. This law is called _________________.
234. In Joule Thomson effect if 2a / RT is greater than b there is ______________effect.
235. In Joule Thomson effect if 2a / RT is less than b there is ______________effect.
236. In Joule Thomson effect if 2a / RT = b then there is ______________.
237. The temperature is Inversion is ______________ the Boyle temperatures.
238. The relation between critical volume and Vanderwalls constant is _____________.
239. The Electric potential inside a hollow charged spherical conductor is ___________.
240. To move a unit positive charge from one to another point on a Equipotential
surface. ( )
b) Work is done by the charge b) Work is done on the charge
c) No work is done d) work done is a constant
241. Electron volt is a unit of ( )
a) Charge b) Momentum c) Energy d) Voltage
242. When a charge is given to a soap bubble it ( )
a) Increases in size b) Remains same c) Decreases d) Bursts
215. When a dielectric is introduced in between the plates of a condenser the capacity of
the condenser ( )
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) None
216. Two condensers of capacitance ‘C’ each are connected in series. Their equivalent
capacity is ( )
a) C / 2 b) C c) 2C d) C2
257. If the distance between the capacitors is increases, the capacity _______________.
258. Three identical capacitors of ’C’ are connected in Series and this combination is
connected in parallel with one more identical capacitance. The capacity of the
combination is ( )
a) 3C b) -3/C c) 3C/4 d) 4C/3
259. A 0.5 Micro Farad condenser is placed in parallel with a 0.75 Micro Farad
condenser. This combination is connected across a 110 volt battery. The charges
on the condensers ___________________.
260. When charges are shared by two condensers there is always ______________ of
Energy.
261. Two cells of 1.25 volts and 0.75 volts are connected in parallel. The effective
voltage shall be ( )
a) 0.75V b) 1.25V c) 2.00V d) 0.5V
262. A Transformer works on the principle of phenomenon of ________________.
263. When a Transformer of low primary resistance meant to step down the voltage
from 110 to 5V is connected to D.C. mains of 110V.
d) The voltage induced in the Secondary is 5V.
e) The voltage induced in the secondary is 110V.
f) No voltage is induced d) None
264. The Relation between number of Turns and voltages on a Transformer is
__________________.
265. If N2 N1 (Number of turns in Secondary is less than number of turns in
Primary) The Transformer is a __________________ Transformer.
266. If N2 N1 then the Transformer is a ________________ Transformer.
267. A conductor which obeys ohms law is called __________________.
268. In an ideal Transformer primary has 500 turns and Secondary has 100 Turns. If the
current in the Secondary is 5A. current in the primary is __________________.
269. The frequency of A.C. in India is __________________.
270. The relation between the product of permitivity and permeability of free space and
velocity of light is ________________.
271. Unit of permitivity of Free Space (EO) is ___________________.
272. The unit of permeability constant is (uo) ____________________.
273. The current which lags behind the emf in the circuit by / 2 is called ___________
current.
274. The total impedance of a L.R. circuit is 50ohm. If the resistance is 40 ohms, the
inductance reactance is __________________ ( Hint : Z = R2 + XL2)
275. Ampere hour is a unit of _________________.
276. When current is flowing in two parallel wires separated by certain distance, in the
direction, then there exists ________________ between them.
277. Using a moving coil Galvanometer we can measure currents upto _____________.
278. A small resistance connected in parallel to a Galvanometer to protect it from very
high currents, is called _________________.
279. To convert a Galvanometer into Ammeter, a small resistance must be connected in
________________ to the Galvanometer.
280. To convert a Galvanometer into Voltmeter, a high resistance must be connected in
________________.
281. A shunted Galvanometer acts as __________________.
282. An Ammeter must be connected _________________ in a circuit.
283. A volt meter must be always connected in _________________ in a circuit.
284. When two dissumber metal junctions are kept at different Temperatures an emf
develops in the circuit. This effect is called _________________.
285. In Antimony Bismuth junction current flows from ____________ to __________.
The temperature of the hot junction at which the direction of Thermo emf is reversed is
called _______
