1. Which of the following particles is negatively charged?

1. Which of the following particles is negatively charged?

A. electronB. isotopeC. neutronD. proton

2. Identify the proteins that speed up the rate of chemical reactions.

A. substratesB. enzymesC. ionsD. reactants

3. What causes the overall charge of an atom to be zero?

A. an equal number of protons and neutrons

B. an equal number of protons and electrons

C. an equal number of neutrons and electrons

4. What provides the energy for all living processes?

A. chemical bondsB. ionic compoundsC. radioactive isotopesD. van der Waals forces

5. How does an enzyme increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

A. It acts as a reactant.B. It reduces the amount

of heat produced.C. It increases the

amount of product.D. It lowers the activation

energy.

6. What occurs at the active site in the enzyme substrate complex?

A. An exothermic chemical reaction takes place.

B. Chemical bonds are broken

and new bonds are formed.C. The enzyme gets used up

in the reaction.D. The substrates provide

energy for the enzyme.

7. What type of bonds attracts water molecules to each other and to other substances?

A. covalent bondsB. double bondsC. hydrogen bondsD. ionic bonds

8. Which ion, when released in water, causes a solution to be basic?

A. Cl– B. OH–

C. H+

D. Na+

9. Which element do almost all biological molecules contain?

A. carbonB. nitrogenC. phosphorusD. sodium

10. What are fats, oils, and waxes composed of?

A. lipidsB. nucleotidesC. polypeptidesD. sugars

11. What are the monomers that make up proteins?

A. amino acidsB. fatty acidsC. glycerolsD. nucleotides

12. Which fruit contains a higher concentration of hydrogen ions?

A. tomatoesB. bananas

13. What do cellulose and chitin have in common?

A. They are energy- storing polymers.

B. They are found in the cells of animals.

C. They are structural polysaccharides.

D. They are composed of repeating sucrose units.

14. Which polysaccharide stores energy in muscle and liver tissue?

A. glutenB. glycogenC. starchD. sucrolose

15. What is the function of this biological macromolecule?

A. communicate signals between cells

B. produce vitamins and hormones

C. provide support and protection

D. store and transmit genetic information

16. Which is a characteristic of all lipids?

A. They are saturated triglycerides.

B. They do not dissolve in water.

C. They are liquid at room

temperature.D. They store less energy

than carbohydrates.

17. Which is not a part of the cell theory?

A. Cells are the basic unit of structure and organization of all living things.

B. All living things are composed of one or more cells.

C. Cells arise only from previously

existing cells.D. Cells are produced

spontaneously as an organism grows.

18. Which cell organelles are directly involved with the production of proteins?

A. ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus

B. cell membrane, lysosome, Golgi apparatus

C. nucleus, centriole, vacuoleD. endoplasmic reticulum,

cilia, mitochondrion

19. Robert Hooke and Anton van Leeuwenhoek designed microscopes that enabled them to see organelles within the cells they observed.

A. trueB. false

20. All cells, whether eukaryotic or prokaryotic, have a plasma membrane.

A. trueB. false

21. What feature of eukaryotic cells has enabled them to develop more specific functions than prokaryotic cells?

A. nucleusB. organellesC. genetic material (DNA)D. larger cell size

22. Which term describes the function of proteins found on the outer surface of the plasma membrane?

A. identifiersB. receptorsC. supportersD. transporters

23. In prokaryotic cells, where does the conversion of fuel particles into usable energy occur?

A. cytoplasmB. DNAC. mitochondriaD. ribosomes

24. Which organelle is similar to the section of a factory that organizes, boxes, and ships the final product?

A. chloroplastB. endoplasmic reticulum C. Golgi apparatusD. mitochondrion

25. In which structure is light energy captured and converted to chemical energy?

A. chloroplastB. lysosomeC. nucleusD. vacuole

26. Which type of cellular transport does not require an input of energy?

A. active transportB. endocytosisC. exocytosisD. facilitated diffusion

27. How does osmosis occur between the two solutions separated by the selectively permeable membrane?

A. Sugar moves to the left.B. Sugar moves to the right.C. Water moves to the left.D. Water moves to the right.

28. Which diagram shows a cell in a hypotonic solution?

A.

B.

C.

29. Identify the structure represented by this image.

Answer: plasma membrane and phospholipid bilayer

30. _______ is the net movement of particles from an area where there are many particles of the substance to an area where there are fewer particles of the substance.

A. DiffusionB. EndocytosisC. ExocytosisD. Equilibrium

31. What is the magnification of a compound light microscope that uses a 10X lens in series with a 25X lens?

A. 2.5XB. 25XC. 35XD. 250X

32. Muscle cells require a great amount of energy. Which would you expect to find in large numbers in muscle cells?

A. centriolesB. endoplasmic reticulum C. mitochondriaD. ribosomes

33. In what type of cell would you most likely expect to find numerous lysosomes?

A. a plant cell that stores food, enzymes, or other materials

B. a plant cell that uses light energy for photosynthesis

C. a single-celled organism that moves around its environment

D. a white blood cell that digests bacteria and viruses

34. Why are the carrier proteins that move substances across a plasma membrane from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration called pumps?

A. They require energy to move substances against a concentration gradient.

B. They open and close to allow substances to diffuse across the plasma membrane.

C. They help with the osmosis of water through the plasma membrane.

D. They pump water into the cell, causing the pressure within the cell to increase.

35. Which statement describes the law of conservation of energy?

A. Energy cannot be converted or destroyed.

B. Energy can be converted and destroyed.

C. Energy can be converted but not destroyed.

D. Energy can be destroyed but not converted.

36. In which metabolic process are molecules broken down to produce carbon dioxide and water?

A. photosynthesisB. cellular respirationC. homeostasisD. fermentation

37. At the end of the Calvin cycle, where is energy stored?

A. NADPHB. ATPC. chloroplastD. glucose

38. Why is adenosine triphosphate (ATP) such an important biological molecule?

A. It captures light energy from the sun.

B. It is produced in anabolic pathways.

C. It stores and releases chemical energy.

D. It converts mechanical energy to thermal energy.

39. Where in the plant cell does photosynthesis take place?

A. chloroplastsB. Golgi apparatusC. mitochondriaD. vacuoles

40. Which range of wavelengths is reflected by chlorophylls a and b?

A. 400-500 nmB. 500-600 nmC. 600-700 nm

41. What is the overall purpose of cellular respiration?

A. to make ATPB. to process H2O

C. to store glucoseD. to deliver oxygen

42. Which represents the general sequence of cellular respiration?

A. TCA cycle chemiosmosis glycolysisB. glycolysis Krebs cycle electron transportC. electron absorption catalysis phosphorylationD. aerobic pathway anaerobic pathway fermentation

43. Which stage of cellular respiration is the anaerobic process?

A. glycolysisB. Krebs cycleC. electron transport

44. Which molecule generated by the Krebs cycle is a waste product?

A. CoAB. CO2

C. FADH2

D. NADH

45. Look at the following figure. Which part of the chloroplast is a sac-like membrane arranged in stacks?

A. granaB. stromaC. thylakoidsD. Golgi apparatus

46. Look at the following figure. Which molecule is released when ATP becomes ADP?

A. phosphate groupB. water moleculeC. ribose sugarD. energy cells

A

B

47. Which side represents photosynthesis?

48. At the beginning of photosynthesis, which molecule is split to produce oxygen (O2) as a waste product?

A. CO2

B. H2O

C. C6H12O6

D. 3-PGA

49. During what phase do the sister chromatids line up in the middle of the cell?

A. interphaseB. metaphaseC. anaphaseD. telophase

50. What happens in the cell during cytokinesis?

A. The cell grows and carries

out normal functions.B. The cell copies its DNA

and forms chromosomes.C. The cell’s nucleus and

nuclear material divide.D. The cell’s cytoplasm

divides.

51. Which diagram shows anaphase?

A. B.

C. D.

52. Which occurs in plant cells but not animal cells during the cell cycle?

A. formation of a cell plateB. formation of microtubulesC. formation of a cleavage

furrow at the equator of the cell

D. movement of chromosomes to the poles of the cell

53. Which term refers to the outward expression of an allele pair?

A. gameteB. hybridC. phenotypeD. genotype

54. Segments of DNA that control the production of proteins are called _______.

A. chromatidsB. chromosomesC. genesD. traits

55. What is the term for a pair of chromosomes that have the same length, same centromere position, and carry genes that control the same traits?

A. diploidB. heterozygousC. homozygousD. homologous

56. How does the number of chromosomes in gametes compare with the number of chromosomes in body cells?

A. Gametes have 1/4 the number of chromosomes.

B. Gametes have 1/2 the number of chromosomes.

C. Gametes have the same number of chromosomes.

D. Gametes have twice as many chromosomes.

57. In rabbits, gray fur (G) is dominant to black fur (g). If a heterozygous male is crossed with a heterozygous female, what is the phenotypic ratio of the possible offspring?

A. 1:1B. 1:2:1C. 2:1D. 3:1

58. Which explains how the shuffling of genes during meiosis results in billions of possible combinations?

A. crossing overB. gene linkageC. genetic recombinationD. independent segregation

59. Two genes on the same chromosome may become separated during meiosis.

A. trueB. false

60. Which stage of meiosis is illustrated?

A. prophase IB. interphaseC. anaphase ID. anaphase II

61. What is this process called?

A. fertilization B. gamete formationC. inheritanceD. reproduction

62. To which step in this process does the law of segregation apply?

A. grows into plantB. gamete formationC. fertilizationD. seed development

63. Under what circumstances will a recessive trait be expressed?

A. A recessive allele is passed on by both parents.B. One parent passes on the recessive allele.C. The individual is heterozygous for the trait.D. There is a mutation in the dominant gene.

64. Which of Dr. Garrod’s observations about alkaptonuria was most critical to his determination that it is a genetic disorder?

A. It appears at birth and runs in families. B. It is linked to an enzyme deficiency.C. It continues throughout a patient’s life, affecting

bones and joints.D. It is caused by acid excretion and results in black

urine.

65. Which is an example of a polygenic trait?

A. blood typeB. color blindnessC. hemophiliaD. skin color

66. Which is not an allele in the ABO blood group?

A. IA B. IO C. IB D. i

67. Why are males affected by recessive sex-linked traits more often than are females?

A. Males have only one X chromosome.B. Males have two X chromosomes.C. Males have only one Y chromosome.D. The traits are located on the Y chromosomes.

68. The experiments of Avery, Hershey and Chase provided evidence that the carrier of genetic information is _______.

A. carbohydrateB. DNAC. lipidD. protein

69. Which shows the basic chain of events in all organisms for reading and expressing genes?

A. DNA RNA proteinB. RNA DNA proteinC. mRNA rRNA tRNAD. RNA processing transcription translation

70. In the RNA molecule, uracil replaces _______.

A. adenineB. cytosineC. purineD. thymine

71. Why do eukaryotic cells need a complex control system to regulate the expression of genes?

A. All of an organism’s cells transcribe the same genes.

B. Expression of incorrect genes can lead to mutations.

C. Certain genes are expressed more frequently than others are.

D. Different genes are expressed at different times in an organism’s lifetime.

72. What does this diagram show about the replication of DNA in eukaryotic cells?

A. DNA is replicated only at certain places along the chromosome.

B. DNA replication is both semicontinuous and conservative.

C. Multiple areas of replication occur along the chromosome at the same time.

D. The leading DNA strand is synthesized discontinuously.

73. What type of mutation results in this change in the DNA sequence?

TTCAGG TTCTGG

A. deletionB. frameshiftC. insertionD. substitution

74. Name the process that scientists use to separate DNA fragments according to size.

A. genetic engineeringB. gel electrophoresisC. cleavingD. selective breeding

75. Once a tomato grower observes the desired trait in her tomato plants, she decides to perform a test cross. What is the purpose for doing the test cross?

A. to determine if the trait is dominant or recessive

B. to determine the phenotype of the plants

C. to determine if the plants carry beneficial recessive alleles

D. to determine if the plants are homozygous dominant or heterozygous

76. How do researchers distinguish between the bacterial cells that contain the recombinant DNA and those that do not?

A. They observe the two types of cells under a microscope.

B. They tag the recombinant DNA with fluorescent dye.

C. They use an antibiotic to kill the cells that do not contain recombinant DNA.

D. They use gel electrophoresis to separate the cells containing recombinant DNA.

77. What gas do scientists think was absent from Earth’s early atmosphere?

A. sulfurB. nitrogenC. oxygenD. water vapor

78. According to the endosymbiont theory, what may have happened to a prokaryotic cell that entered a host cell?

A. It was digested by the host cell.B. It became an organelle in the host cell.C. It became a harmful parasite in the host cell.D. It was removed from the host cell by exocytosis.

79. Which is not a principle of Darwin’s theory about the origin of species?

A. Individuals show variations.B. Variations can be inherited.C. Organisms have more offspring than

available resources will support.D. Offspring always inherit the best traits.

80. Identify the term that is used to describe anatomically similar structures inherited from a common ancestor.

A. ancestral traitsB. analogous structuresC. homologous structuresD. vestigial structures

81. Within a population of squirrels, those that live higher in the mountains where it is cooler have long fur. Squirrels that live in the foothills where it is warmer have short fur. The original population is believed to have had intermediate fur length. Which graph represents this type of natural selection?

A. B.

C.

82. What organisms make up the base of the food web in aquatic environments?

A. kelpB. blue-green algaeC. multicellular algaeD. phytoplankton

83. Explain how algal blooms can be harmful.

Answer: When food supply dwindles, dinoflagellates die in large numbers.

As dead algae decompose, the oxygen supply in the water is depleted, suffocating fish and other marine organisms. Other fish can suffocate when their gills fill with dinoflagellates.

84. What type of stem grows along the soil’s surface and can produce a new plant?

A. bulbB. rhizomeC. runnerD. tuber

85. Where in the leaf does most of the photosynthesis take place?

AB

CD

86. What is the term for an environmental change that influences the activity of an organism?

A. biotic factorB. incentiveC. inducementD. stimulus

87. What is the main cause of rapid breathing, muscle pain, and muscle fatigue during intense exercise?

A. ATPB. CO2

C. iodineD. lactic acid

88. What is the function of osteoclasts?A. They break down bone cells.B. They produce blood cells and platelets.C. They are responsible for growth and repair

of bones.D. They form a callus of cartilage at the location

of a break.

89. What type of neuron begins a reflex arc?

A. interneuronB. motor neuronC. sensory neuronD. transmitter neuron

90. What does the cerebrum regulate?

A. breathing and heart ratesB. complex motor skillsC. sleep, aggression, and fearD. voluntary body movements

91. What part of the nervous system is usually under voluntary control?

A. autonomic nervous systemB. somatic nervous systemC. sympathetic nervous systemD. parasympathetic nervous system

92. Name the blood component that is helpful in clotting.

A. plateletsB. plasmaC. red blood cellsD. white blood cells

93. Which is not one of the defenses against foreign materials entering the lungs?

A. ciliaB. mucousC. nose hairsD. trachea

94. What internal stimulus causes breathing rate to increase?

A. a high concentration of O2 in the blood

B. a high concentration of CO2 in the blood

C. a low concentration of O2 in the blood

D. a low concentration of CO2 in the blood

95. What is the immediate result of kidney failure?

A. Fluid-filled cysts grow in the kidney.B. The body rejects the kidney.C. The urinary tract becomes blocked.D. Waste products build up in the blood.

96. Which two blood vessels are veins?

A. A and BB. B and CC. C and DD. D and A

97. Why should a girl with type A blood not receive a transfusion of type AB blood?

A. She has A markers on her blood cells.

B. She has A and B markers on her blood cells.

C. She has Anti-A antibodies in her blood plasma.

D. She has Anti-B antibodies

in her blood plasma.

98. Where is urea filtered out of the blood?

99. Which is an enzyme responsible for breaking down starches into sugars?

A. amylaseB. appendixC. peristalsisD. pepsin

100. Which glands play a role in the “fight or flight” response?

A. adrenalB. pituitaryC. parathyroidD. thyroid

101. In what type of solution is the enzyme pepsin most active?

A. acidic solutionB. buffered solutionC. gaseous solutionD. concentrated sugar

solution

102. Fats are an important part of a healthy diet.

A. TrueB. False

103. Which organ stores bile and releases it when needed?

104. How does this structure aid in the digestive process?

A. It increases surface area.

B. It mechanically digests food.

C. It secretes digestive enzymes.

D. It traps foreign particles.

105. Why does the body need vitamins?

A. They provide energy.B. They are used to

build cells.C. They help enzymes

to function.D. They recycle nutrient

molecules.

106. Which hormone is more likely to be secreted by the pancreas during intense exercise?

A. glucagonB. insulin

107. The two meiotic divisions of egg production yield how many eggs?

A. oneB. twoC. fourD. six

108. Which hormone promotes growth by increasing metabolic rate?

A. calcitroninB. prolactinC. testosteroneD. thyroxine

109. Testosterone and progesterone are the female hormones produced in the ovaries.

A. TrueB. False

110. Which is the correct order of development of the fertilized egg?A. blastocyst, morula, zygoteB. zygote, morula, blastocystC. oocyte, zygote, blastocystD. morula, zygote, blastocyst