Total No. Questions: 120. vuqer le; % 90. feuV~l. Code-(AM-LEGAL)S-1,P-I. ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120. Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad

Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

9 6 5 7 2 8 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code-(AM-LEGAL)S-1,P-I ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be

in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDE1. You have recently joined as a manager in a public

sector organisation and reporting to Joint General manager who happened to be your ex-classmate. Your relation during college time had never been cordial with him. On joining new job he greeted you with warm and welcomed to the new organisation. Within seven days of joining he assigned you an official work of delivering a most confidential document to the General Manager of other organisation. Normally the official documents delivery is done by assistants who have been officially appointed for this work. The work assigned does not come within your job description . What shall be your course of action: (1) Shall ask your boss that you will not do such work. (2) Shall take up the assigned job and carry out the work

of delivering the documents. (3) Shall complain this to the General manager of your

organisation and brief him about your relation with your boss during college days.

(4) Shall show your boss the job description which is expected from the manager.

1. vki vHkh gky gh esa çca/kd ds in ij ,d lkoZtfud miØe esa

vklhu gq, gSa ,oa la;qä egkçca/kd dks fjiksVZ djrs gSa tksfd vkidk

iwoZ esa DyklesV gksrk FkkA vkids lecU/k mlls dkWfyt ds le; esa

Lusgiw.kZ ugha FksA vkids u;s tkWc ij vklhu gksrs gq, mlus vkidk

xeZtks”kh ls u;s laxBu esa Lokxr fd;kA in ij vklhu gksus ds lkr

fnuksa ds vUnj mlus nwljs laxBu ds egkçca/kd dks ,d lokZf/kd

xksiuh; nLrkost lqiqnZ djus dk dk;Z lkSaikA lkekU;r% “kkldh;

nLrkostks ds lqiqnZxh dk dk;Z lgk;dksa }kjk fd;k tkrk gS tks bl

dk;Z ds fy, “kkldh; rkSj ij fu;qä fd;s x, gSaA vkidks lkSaik x;k

dk;Z vkids dk;Z fooj.k esa ugha vkrk gSA vki dkSu&lk jkLrk

viuk,xsa%

(1) vius ckWl ls dgsxsa fd vki ;g dk;Z ugha djsxsaA

(2) vki fn;s x, dk;Z dks ysxsa ,oa nLrkost dh lqiqnZxh dk dk;Z

fu’ikfnr djsxsaA

(3) vki vius laxBu ds egkçca/kd ls bl ckjs esa f”kdk;r djsxsa

,oa muls vius dkWfyt ds fnuksa ds leca/k ds ckjs esa voxr

djok;xsaA

(4) vki vius ckWl dks ml dk;Z fooj.k dks çnf”kZr djsxsa tks ,d

çca/kd ls vis{kk dh tkrh gSA

2. Creation of MUDRA bank was proposed in the recent budget proposal of the Government of India. MUDRA stands for: (1) Monetary Union Development Repay agency (2) Medium Units Development & Reconstruction Agency (3) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (4) Multipurpose Undertakings Development Refinance

Agency

2. Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk gky gh esa tkjh fd;s x;s ctV esa MUDRA cSad ds l`tu dk çLrko jD[kk x;kA MUDRA dk rkRi;Z gS%

(1) Monetary Union Development Repay agency (2) Medium Units Development & Reconstruction Agency (3) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (4) Multipurpose Undertakings Development Refinance

Agency

3. The preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We the people of India have established: (1) A Sovereign, Socialistic, Secular, Democratic, Republic (2) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic (3) A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic (4) None of the above incorrect

3. gekjh lafo/kku dh vkeq[k ;g o.kZu djrk gS fd ge Hkkjr ds

ukxfjd ,d%

(1) çHkqlÙkk lEié] lkekftd] /keZ fujis{k çtkra= ds x.kra= gSa

(2) ,d çHkqlÙkk lEié] çtkrkaf=d] x.kra= gS

(3) ,d çHkqlÙkk lEié] /keZ fujis{k] çtkrkaf=d] x.kra= gS

(4) mijksä esa dksbZ Hkh lgh ugha gS

4. “To separate the judiciary from the executive” is mentioned in which article of the constitution of India: (1) Article 43 (2) Article 40 (3) Article 50 (4) None of these

4. ßdk;Zikfydk ls U;k;ikfydk dks i`Fkd djukÞ Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds

fdl vuqPNsn esa of.kZr fd;k x;k gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 43 (2) vuqPNsn 40 (3) vuqPNsn 50 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

5. Which of the following statement is wrong: (1) During a solstice there are unequal days and nights (2) A gulf is a large area of sea partly surrounded by land (3) A harbour is that portion of sea where ships can dock (4) Neap tide is caused by gravitational pull of the moon

and the sun together in the same direction

5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS%

(1) v;ukar ds nkSjku fnu vkSj jkr vleku gksrs gSa

(2) [kkM+h leqæ dk og cM+k {ks= gksrk gS tks vkaf'kd :i ls tehu

}kjk f?kjk gqvk gksrk gS

(3) gkcZj leqæ dk og LFkku gksrk gS tgk¡ leqæh tgkt [kM+s gksrs gSa

(4) y?kq Tokj&HkkVk pUæek vkSj lw;Z ds ,d lkFk ,d fn'kk esa

xq:Rokd"kZ.kh; f[kapko ds dkj.k mRié gksrk gS

6. RTGS in banking sector stands for: (1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Real Transactions Going Settlement (3) Ready Transfer Gross Settlement (4) Remittance Transfer Gross settlement

6. cSafdax {ks= esa RTGS dk rkRi;Z gS%

(1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Real Transactions Going Settlement (3) Ready Transfer Gross Settlement (4) Remittance Transfer Gross settlement

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–1]

7. You are working as a Deputy General manager of a Government undertaking. You find that one of your colleague’s son Mr Ravi has been placed under you as a manager. There are three more managers Shashi, Kamal and Shyamwho are working under you. Their Characteristics are as follows. A. Ravi is good in convincing seniors, gives less

attention to planning of project but puts a lot of efforts in execution of the project.

B. Shashi is good in convincing seniors, gives more attention towards planning of projects but lacks understanding of execution

C. Kamal is good in convincing seniors, gives less attention towards planning and less efforts towards execution.

D. Shyam lacks in convincing seniors, gives adequate attention towards planning and adequate understanding of execution of project also

Your organisation has got a prestigious project . If you wish to assign the project to one of the manager, you should assign this to.

(1) Ravi (2) Shashi (3) Kamal (4) Shyam

7. vki ,d ljdkjh miØe esa mi&egkçca/kd ds :i esa dk;Z dj jgs

gSaA vki ikrs gSa fd vkids lg;ksxh dk yM+dk feLVj jfo vkids

vUrxZr çca/kd ds :i esa jD[kk x;k gSA rhu vfrfjä çca/kd “k”kh]

dey vkSj “;ke vkids vUrxZr dk;Z dj jgs gSaA mudh

vfHky{k.krk,a fuEuor~ gSaA

A. jfo vius ofj’Bksa dks euokus esa vPNk gS] ifj;kstuk ds fu;kstu

esa de /;ku nsrk gS ysfdu mlds fu’iknu dk T;knk ç;kl

djrk gSA

B. “k”kh vius ofj’Bksa dks euokus esa vPNk gS] ifj;kstuk ds

fu;kstu esa T;knk /;ku nsrk gS ysfdu mlds fu’iknu esa mldh

le> de gSA

C. dey vius ofj’Bksa dks euokus esa vPNk gS] ifj;kstuk ds

fu;kstu esa de /;ku nsrk gS ,oa mlds fu’iknu esa de ç;kl

djrk gSA

D. “;ke vius ofj’Bksa dks euokus esa deh eglwl djrk gS]

ifj;kstuk ds fu;kstu esa i;kZIr /;ku nsrk gS ,oa mlds fu’iknu

esa mldh le> i;kZIr gSA

vkids laxBu dks ,d egRoiw.kZ ifj;kstuk feyh gSA ;fn vki bl

ifj;kstuk dks vius fdlh ,d çca/kd dks lkSaiuk pkgrs gSa] rks vkidks

fdls lkSaiuk pkfg,A

(1) jfo (2) “k”kh (3) dey (4) “;ke

8. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college comprising of – (1) The members of both Houses of the Parliament (2) The members of both Houses of the Parliament and

the Legislative Assemblies of the States (3) The elected members of both Houses of the

Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States

(4) The elected members of both Houses of the Parliament, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the elected members of the local bodies

8. Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr dk fuokZpu ,sls fuokZpdx.k ds lnL; djrs gSa

ftlesa&

(1) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds lnL; gksrs gSa

(2) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds lnL; vkSj jkT;ksa dh fo/kku lHkkvksa ds

lnL; gksrs gSa

(3) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds fuokZfpr lnL; vkSj jkT;ksa dh fo/kku

lHkkvksa ds fuokZfpr lnL; gksrs gSa

(4) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds fuokZfpr lnL;] jkT;ksa dh fo/kku

lHkkvksa ds fuokZfpr lnL; vkSj LFkkuh; fudk;ksa ds fuokZfpr

lnL; gksrs gSa

9. Lalbagh garden built by Hyder Ali is situated in: (1) Bangalore (2) Mysore (3) Mangalore (4) Lucknow

9. ykyckx m|ku] ftls gSnjvyh us cuok;k] dgk¡ fLFkr gS%

(1) caxykSj (2) eSlwj (3) eaxykSj (4) y[kuÅ

10. In Haber’s process for manufacture of NH3: (1) Iron is used as catalyst (2) Molybdenum is used as catalyst (3) Nickel is used as a catalyst (4) No catalyst

10. gScj fof/k }kjk NH3 ds fuekZ.k esa mRçsjd dkSu ls ç;ksx djrs gSa%

(1) vkbju dh Nhyu

(2) ekSyhfoMue dh Nhyu

(3) fufdy dh Nhyu

(4) dksbZ mRçsjd ugha

11. Which article of the constitution of India requires the constitution of a finance commission every five years or earlier: (1) Article 280 (2) Article 250 (3) Article 126 (4) None of these

11. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dh dkSu&lh vuqPNsn esa çR;sd ik¡p o’kZ ;k mlls

igys foÙk vk;ksx xBu djus dk çko/kku fd;k x;k gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 280 (2) vuqPNsn 250 (3) vuqPNsn 126 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

12. Remote Sensing Satellite Yaogan-23 was launched by? (1) France (2) South Korea (3) Japan (4) China

12. ;kvksxku&23 fjeksV lsfUlax mixzg fdlds }kjk NksM+k x;k% (1) Ýk¡l (2) nf{k.kh dksfj;k (3) tkiku (4) phu

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–2]

13. You are departmental Head of an organisation. During the course of personnel appraisal and reviews for increment of salary and promotion of the employees, you find certain employees traits and performance as under: A. Mr Shubhash (Manager), Genius, Sincere and works

hard in the office, does not share the office work to the subordinates with a fear that he will lose importance, rarely absents from office.

B. Mr Diwakar (Manager), Intelligent, Sincere and Manages works well, Delegates works to subordinates, does not have fear of losing importance, Takes normal leaves

C. Mr Shashi (Manager), Wise, Sincere and manages work well, Delegates only non critical work to subordinates and keeps critical work and information to him for a fear that he will lose importance.

D. Mr Ashok (Manager), Intelligent, Sincere and manages work well, delegates work to subordinates and keep them informed of day today office developments, helps subordinates to learn by teaching them with his own experiences, No fear of losing importance, rarely absents from office

Whom you will decide highest rating:

(1) Shubhash (2) Diwakar (3) Shashi (4) Ashok

13. vki vius laxBu ds foHkkxh; çeq[k gSaA deZpkfj;ksa ds osru o`f) ,oa

inksUufr ds fy;s O;Sfäd ewY; fu/kkZj.k ,oa leh{kk ds nkSjku vki dqN

deZpkfj;ksa ds xq.k ,oa çn”kZu fuEu ikrs gSaA

A. Jh lqHkk’k ¼çca/kd½ çfrHkkoku] xaHkhj ,oa dk;kZy; esa ifjJeh gS]

viuk dk;Z v/khuLFkksa dks bl Mj ls ugha lkSairk gS fd mldk

egRo de gks tk;sxk] dk;kZy; ls dHkh&dHkkj vuqifLFkr jgrk

gSA

B. Jh fnokdj ¼çca/kd½ cqf)eku] xaHkhj ,oa dk;Z dks vPNh rjg

laHkkyrk gS] viuk dk;Z v/khuLFkksa dks lkSairk gS] mldks egRo

de gksus dk Mj ugha gS] lkekU; Nqfê;k¡ ysrk gSA

C. Jh “k”kh ¼çca/kd½ vdyean] xaHkhj ,oa dk;Z dks vPNh rjg

laHkkyrk gS] xSj&ØkfUrd dk;Z v/khuLFkksa dks lkSairk gS ,oa

ØkfUrd dk;Z ,oa lwpuk,a vius ikl j[krk gS bl Mj ls fd

dgha mldk egRo de u gks tk;sA

D. Jh v”kksd ¼çca/kd½ cqf)eku] xaHkhj ,oa dk;Z dks vPNh rjg

laHkkyrk gS] vius v/khuLFkksa dks dk;Z lkSairk gS ,oa mUgsa fnu

çfrfnu dh dk;kZy; fØ;k&dykiksa ls voxr djkrk gS ,oa

v/khuLFkksa dks vius vuqHko ls çf”kf{kr djds lh[kus esa enn

çnku djrk gS] mls egRo de gksus dk Mj ugha] dk;kZy; ls

dHkh&dHkkj gh vuqifLFkr jgrk gSA

fdls vki loksZPp vadu djsxsa%

(1) lqHkk’k (2) fnokdj (3) “k”kh (4) v”kksd

DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions according to the instructions given.

A$B means A is not smaller than B A#B means A is not greater than B A@B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B A*B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B A%B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B

14. STATEMENT: M@J, J$T, T*N CONCLUSION: I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N

(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and III are true (4) All are true

funsZ”k% fn;s x, funsZ”kksa ds vuqlkj fuEu ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA

A$B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls NksVk ugha gS A#B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls cM+k ugha gS A@B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls NksVk vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS A*B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ls NksVk gS A%B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS

14. dFku%

M@J, J$T, T*N fu’d’kZ%

I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N (1) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa III lR; gS (4) lHkh lR; gSa

15. STATEMENT: All boys are girls No girl is a father CONCLUSION: I. All girls are boys II. No boy is a father (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) None of them is true

15. dFku%

lHkh yM+ds yM+fd;k¡ gSA

dksbZ Hkh yM+dh firk ugha gS

fu’d’kZ%

I. lHkh yM+fd;k¡ yM+ds gSa ii. dksbZ Hkh yM+dk firk ugha gS

(1) dsoy I lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh lR; ugha gS

16. Who won Hockey India League–3 ? (1) Delhi Waveriders (2) UP Wizards (3) Punjab Warriors (4) Ranchi Rays

16. Hkkjrh; gkWdh yhx&3 dkSu thrk\ (1) fnYyh osojkbZMlZ (2) ;w-ih- fot+kMZ (3) iatkc okfjjkslZ (4) jk¡ph jst

17. A fighter plane travelling at mach 3 has a speed in miles per hour closest to the figure: (1) 1000 (2) 750 (3) 2250 (4) 1500

17. yM+kdw foeku tks 3&eSd ij mM+ku Hkjrk gS mldh çfr ?kaVs xfr ehy esa yxHkx fdlds cjkcj gksxhA

(1) 1000 (2) 750 (3) 2250 (4) 1500

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–3]

18. Delhi was made Union territory in: (1) 1950 (2) 1956 (3) 1948 (4) 1962

18. fnYyh dks la?k “kkflr {ks= dc cuk;k x;k%

(1) 1950 (2) 1956 (3) 1948 (4) 1962

19. Which is not a type of writ? (1) Mandamus (2) Habeas corpus (3) Magna Carta (4) Quo warranto

19. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d lekns”k ;kfpdk dk çdkj ugha gS%

(1) eUMel (2) gSfc;l dkiZl (3) eSXuk dkVkZ (4) Doks okjUVks

20. The International Kite festival is one of the most colorful events of which state of India? (1) Bihar (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Gujarat (4) Rajasthan

20. varjkZ’Vªh; irax egksRlo Hkkjr ds dkSu&ls jkT; dk lokZf/kd jaxkjax

dk;ZØe gS\

(1) fcgkj (2) mRrj izns”k (3) xqtjkr (4) jktLFkku

21. How much would a 70 Kg man weigh on the moon? (1) 14 Kg (2) 114.1 newtons (3) 421.67 Kg (4) 98.4 Newtons

21. 70 fdxzk- Hkkj okys ,d O;fä dk Hkkj pk¡n ij D;k gksxk%

(1) 14 fdxzk- (2) 114.1 U;wVu (3) 421.67 fdxzk- (4) 98.4 U;wVu

22. Harika Dronavalli relates to which game: (1) Chess (2) Cricket (3) Badminton (4) Table Tennis

22. gkfjdk æks.kkoYyh dk fdl [ksy ls lEcU/k gS%

(1) “krjat (2) fØdsV (3) cSMfeUVu (4) Vscy VSful

23. The wife of a senior bureaucrat in Ministry of Urban Development has just joined as General Manager (Projects) in the organisation and reporting to you (Executive director -Projects). You quite often meet the senior bureaucrat with reference to your official work (Sanction of funds to your project). The new General manager keeping in view of the official position of her husband, breaks official protocol quite often and sometimes behaves as if she is over and above your position and does not care for you. What shall you do in such a situation? (1) Shall report of her behaviour to the senior bureaucrat (2) Shall report of her behaviour to the Managing

director of your organisation (3) Shall talk to her regarding this and ask her to maintain

official protocol (4) Shall delegate the work of sanction of funds to the

new General Manager

23. uxjh; fodkl ea=ky; ds ,d ofj’B ukSdj”kkg dh iRuh us vHkh gky

gh esa ,d laxBu esa egkçca/kd ¼ifj;kstuk½ ds in ij vklhu gqbZ gSa

,oa vkidks ¼ç”kklfud lapkyd&ifj;kstuk½ fjiksVZ djrh gSaA vki dbZ

ckj vius “kkldh; dk;Z ds lanHkZ esa ¼ifj;kstuk ds fy;s fuf/k dh

eatwjh½ muls feyrs gSaA ubZ egkçca/kd vius ifr ds “kkldh; fLFkfr

dks /;ku esa j[krs gq, dbZ ckj “kkldh; çksVksdkWy dk mYya?ku djrh

gSa ,oa bl çdkj dk O;ogkj djrh gSa tSls fd og vkids in ls cM+h

gksa ,oa vkids in dh mUgsa ijokg ugha gSA ,slh fLFkfr esa vki D;k

djsxsa\

(1) ofj’B ukSdj”kkg ls muds bl O;ogkj ds ckjs esa voxr

djok;sxsa

(2) vius laxBu ds çcU/k lapkyd dks muds O;ogkj ds ckjs esa

voxr djok;sxsa

(3) vki muls bl ckjs esa ckr djsxsa ,oa muls “kkldh; çksVksdkWy

cuk,a j[kus ds fy;s dgsxsaA

(4) u;s egkçca/kd dks fuf/k ds eatwjh dk dk;Z lkSaisxsaA

24. ‘The Argumentative Indian’ is a book written by (1) Amartya Sen (2) Chetan Bhagat (3) Vikram Seth (4) Arundhati Roy

24. ^n vkWX;wZesaVsfVo bafM;u* iqLrd fdlds }kjk fy[kh xbZ gS\

(1) veR;Z lsu (2) psru Hkxr (3) foØe lsB (4) v#a/kfr jkW;

25. Which of the following rivers divide Aravalli Ranges: (1) Narmada & Tapti (2) Narmada & Sone (3) Narmada & Luni (4) None of these

25. vjkoyh ioZr foLrkj dks dkSu lh unh i`Fkd djrh gS%

(1) ueZnk ,oa rkIrh (2) ueZnk ,oa lksu (3) ueZnk ,oa ywuh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

26. India recently won gold in world Youth Under-16 Chess Olympiad against: (1) Ukraine (2) Russia (3) Turkey (4) Iran

26. Hkkjr us vHkh gky gh esa fo”o ;wFk vUMj&16 “krjat vksfYEi;kM esa

Lo.kZ fdl ns”k ds fo:) thrk%

(1) ;wØsu (2) :l (3) VdÊ (4) bZjku

DIRECTIONS: Select the most logical choice/choice which satisfies the relationship in the following questions. funsZ”k% ç”u esa fn;s x;s mu fodYiksa dks pqus tks lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djrs gSaA

27. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

? 27. (1) (2) (3) (4)

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–4]

28. A water tank is hemispherical below and cylindrical at the top. If the radius is 12 m and capacity is 3312π m3, the height of the cylindrical portion in metres is: (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) None of these

28. ,d ikuh dh Vadh uhps ls v/kZxksy rFkk “kh’kZ ij csyukdkj gSA ;fn

bldh f=T;k 12 ehVj gS rFkk {kerk 3312π m3 gS rks csyukdkj

Hkkx dh Å¡pkbZ fdrus ehVj gksxh%

(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

29. The perimeter of a square whose area is equal to that of a circle with perimeter 2 π x is:

(1) x 4 π (2) π 4 x

(3) 2 π x (4) None of these

29. ,d oxZ dk ifjeki D;k gksxk ftldk {ks=Qy] ,d o`Ùk ftldh ifjf/k

2 π x gS] ds cjkcj gS]

(1) x 4 π (2) π x 4 (3) 2 π x (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: The questions are based on the following information. Out of the total 390 students studying in a college of Arts and Science, boys and girls are in the ratio of 7:6 respectively and the number of students studying Arts and Science are in the ratio of 3:7 respectively. The boys and girls studying Arts are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively. 30. How many boys are studying Science?

(1) 155 (2) 156 (3) 158 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u fuEu lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSaA

dyk ,oa foKku ds ,d dkWyst esa dqy 390 i<+us okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa yM+dksa ,oa yM+fd;ksa dk vuqikr Øe”k% 7:6 gS ,oa dyk ,oa foKku i<+us okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr Øe”k% 3:7 gSA yM+ds ,oa yM+fd;k¡ tks fd dyk dk v/;;u dj jgs gSa mudk vuqikr Øe”k% 4:5 gSA

30. fdrus yM+ds foKku dk v/;;u dj jgs gSa\


31. Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700/- when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600/- when there are 50 boarder. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders? (1) Rs. 560/- (2) Rs. 540/- (3) Rs. 550/- (4) None of these

31. ,d Nk=kokl dk dqy [kpZ va’kr% LFkk;h gS ,oa va’kr% Nk=ksa dh la[;k

ds lkFk jSf[kd :i ls ifjorÊ gSA çfr Nk= vkSlr [kpZ #- 700/- gS tc Nk=ksa dh la[;k 25 gS ,oa #- 600/- gS tc Nk=ksa dh la[;k 50 gSA vkSlr [kpZ çfr Nk= fdruk gksxk tcfd 100 Nk= gSa\ (1) #- 560/- (2) #- 540/- (3) #- 550/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

32. Oxygen was discovered by: (1) Priestly (2) Boyle (3) Cavendish (4) None of these

32. vkWDlhtu dh [kkst fdlus dh%

(1) çhLVys (2) ck;y

(3) dkfoUMl (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

33. In the year 2000 a businessman started his business with ` 25,00,000. He spends ` 50,000 at the end of year 2005 and 2010. His total amount doubles in every five years. His amount in the year 2020 will be: (1) ` 48,50,000 (2) ` 1,30,00,000 (3) ` 3,94,00,000 (4) None of these

33. ,d O;kikjh us lu~ 2000 esa ` 25,00,000 ls ,d O;kikj vkjEHk

fd;kA lu~ 2005 vkSj 2010 ds çR;sd ds vUr esa og ` 50,000 O;; djrk gSA mldh dqy jde çR;sd ik¡p lky ij nksxquh gksrh gSA

lu~ 2020 esa mldh dqy jde gksxh%

(1) ` 48,50,000 (2) ` 1,30,00,000 (3) ` 3,94,00,000 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

34. Rohan lends `10,000 in four parts. If he gets 8%

interest on `2000, %217 on `4000 and %

218 on `1400.

What percent of interest must he get for the remainder if his average annual interest is 8.13%? (1) 8% (2) 9% (3) 10% (4) None of these

34. jksgu `10,000/- dks pkj Hkkxksa esa m/kkj nsrk gSA ;fn mls `2000/-

ij 8%] `4000/- ij %217 ,oa `1400/- ij %

218 C;kt

feyrk gSA rks ckdh ij fdruk çfr”kr C;kt feyuk pkfg, rkfd

mldk okf’kZd vkSlr C;kt nj 8.13% gks\

(1) 8% (2) 9% (3) 10% (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

35. If 4:3b1:a = then, what is ?

a1:b =

(1) 4:3 (2) 3:4 (3) 41:3 (4)

31:4

35. ;fn 4:3b1:a = gS] rks ?

a1:b =

(1) 4:3 (2) 3:4 (3) 41:3 (4)

31:4

36. Among the following numbers

126 , 43 , 54 , 3 , the least one is:

(1) 126 (2) 43 (3) 54 (4) 3

36. fuEufyf[kr la[;kvksa esa ls U;wure la[;k dkSu&lh gS%

126 , 43 , 54 , 3

(1) 126 (2) 43 (3) 54 (4) 3

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–5]

37. A tyre has two punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes & the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long does it take in minutes both the punctures together to make it flat.

(1) (2) 213 (3)

211 (4) None of these

37. ,d Vk;j esa nks iaDpj gSaA igyk iaDpj vdsys Vk;j ls gok 9 feuV esa fudky nsrk gS rks nwljk vdsys bls 6 feuV esaaA ;fn gok dk fjlko lrr nj ij gks jgk gS rks nksuksa iDapjks ls ,d lkFk gok

fudyus ij fdrus feuV esa Vk;j lery gksxk%

(1) 533

533

(2) 213 (3)

211 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

38. Which of the following in the largest number?

(1) (2) (3) (4) 3/13 5/15 2/12 7/17

38. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lokZf/kd cM+h la[;k gS\

(1) (2) (3) (4) 3/13 5/15 2/12 7/17

39. In how many different ways the letters of the word 'DIGITAL' can be arranged so that the vowels always come together? (1) 720 (2) 480 (3) 144 (4) 360

39. fdrus fofHké rjhdksa ls 'kCn ^DIGITAL* ds v{kjksa dks O;ofLFkr

fd;k tk ldrk gS rkfd Loj lnSo ,d lkFk vk,\

(1) 720 (2) 480 (3) 144 (4) 360

40. Sunder travels 20 km. to the North, turns left and travels 8 km., and then again turns right, covers another 10 km. and then turns right and travels another 8 km. How far is he from the starting point. (1) 8 km. (2) 40 km. (3) 30 km. (4) 10 km.

40. lqUnj 20 fdeh- mÙkj dh rjQ ;k=k djrk gS ,oa ck¡, eqM+dj 8 fdeh- pyrk gS ,oa iqu% nkfgus eqM+dj 10 fdeh- dh nwjh r; djrk gS ,oa rRi”pkr nkfgus eqM+dj 8 fdeh- dh nwjh r; djrk gSA vkjEHk

fcUnq ls og fdruh nwjh ij gS%

(1) 8 fdeh- (2) 40 fdeh- (3) 30 fdeh- (4) 10 fdeh-

41. Jatin said to Kajal, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brother of the daughter of my father’s wife.” How is the boy playing related to Jatin? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Son (3) Brother (4) None of these

41. tfru us dkty ls dgk fd ßoks yM+dk tks QqVckWy [ksy jgk gS] og

esjs firk dh ifRu dh iq=h ds nks HkkbZvksa esa NksVk gSAÞ [ksyus okys

yM+ds ls tfru dk D;k lEcU/k gS\

(1) lkyk (2) iq= (3) HkkbZ (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

42. In a certain code ‘PAISE’ is coded as ‘QBJTF’ and ‘CEASE’ is coded as ‘DFBTF’. How will ‘TRANGLE’ be coded in the same code? (1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF (3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF

42. fdlh fuf”pr dksM esa ^PAISE* dks ^QBJTF* dksM fd;k tkrk gS ,oa ^CEASE* dks ^DFBTF* dksM fd;k tkrk gSA rks mlh dksM esa ^TRANGLE* dks D;k dksM fd;k tk;sxk\

(1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF (3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF

43. There are two clocks, both set to show 10 pm on 21st January 2010. One clock gains 2 minutes in an hour and the other clock loses 5 minutes in an hour. then by how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 4pm on 22nd January 2010? (1) 126 minutes (2) 136 minutes (3) 96 minutes (4) 106 minutes

43. nks ?kfM+;k¡ 21 tuojh] 2010 dks 10 PM n”kkZus ds fy;s lsV dh

tkrh gSA ,d ?kM+h ,d ?kaVs esa nks feuV rst pyrh gS ,oa nwljh ?kM+h

,d ?kaVs esa ik¡p feuV /khes pyrh gS] rks 22 tuojh] 2010 dks 4 PM ij nksuksa ?kfM+;ksa esa fdruk vUrj gksxk%

(1) 126 feuV (2) 136 feuV (3) 96 feuV (4) 106 feuV

DIRECTIONS: Each of these questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relstionship. From amongst the alternatives, choose the alternative that best illustrates a similar relationship.

44. Triangle : Hexagon (1) Cone : Sphere (2) Rectangle : Octagon (3) Pentagon : Heptagon (4) Angle : Quardilateral

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”uksa esa “kCnksa dk ,d tksM+k fn;k x;k gS ftlesa ,d

fuf”pr lEcU/k gSA fn;s fodYiksa esa ls ,sls gh laca/k n”kkZrs gq, tksM+s dks pqusaA

44. f=Hkqt % ‘kVHkqt

(1) “kadq % xksyk

(2) vk;r % v’VHkqt

(3) iapHkqt % lIrHkqt

(4) dks.k % prqHkZqt

45. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the following grows a fruit? (1) Water (2) Tree (3) Wall (4) Sky

45. ;fn ty dks [kkuk] [kkus dks isM+] isM+ dks vkdk”k ,oa vkdk”k dks

nhokj cqyk;k tkrk gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ij Qy iSnk gksxk\

(1) ty (2) isM+ (3) nhokj (4) vkdk”k

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–6]

TECHNICAL APTITUDE46. Which one is correct statement:

(1) Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles

(2) Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights

(3) There is no relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

(4) None of these

46. dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\

(1) ewy vf/kdkj funs”kd fl)karksa ls mPprj gksrs gSa

(2) funs”kd fl)kar ewy vf/kdkjksa ls mPprj gksrs gSa

(3) ewy vf/kdkjksa vkSj funs”kd fl)karksa ds chp dksbZ laca/k ugha gksrk

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

47. Choose the best option: (1) The President of India is eligible for re-election as

many times as he desires (2) The President of India is ineligible for re-election (3) The President of India cannot be re-elected for more

than three terms (4) The President of India can seek re-election as many

times under the letter of Constitution, but there is well established convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two terms

47. lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa%

(1) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr viuh bPNkuqlkj fdruh Hkh ckj iqu% pqus

tkus ds ik= gSa

(2) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr iqu% pqus tkus ds ik= ugha gS

(3) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr rhu ckj ls vf/kd ds fy, iqu% ugha pqus tk

ldrs

(4) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr lafo/kku ds v/khu fdruh gh ckj iqu% pqus

tkus dk iz;kl dj ldrs gSa ysfdu ,d lqLFkkfir ijaijk ;g jgh

fd mUgsa nks ckj ls vf/kd ds fy, iqu% pqus tkus dk iz;kl ugha

djuk pkfg,A

48. The remedy in tort law is: (1) Unliquidated damages (2) Restoration of original petition (3) Liquidated damages (4) Either (1) or (3)

48. vid`R; fof/k esa mipkj gS%

(1) vifjfu/kkZfjr vid`R;

(2) ewy fLFkfr dh cgkyh

(3) ifjfu/kkZfjr vid`R;

(4) (1) vFkok (3)

49. Following are good defences to an action in tort: I. Volenti non fit injuria II. Scienti nonfit injuria III. Vis major

Choose the best option.

(1) I, II & III (2) II & III (3) I & III (4) III only

49. vid`R; esa dkjZokbZ esa fuEu mRre cpko gS%

I. Volenti non fit injuria II. Scienti nonfit injuria III. Vis major loksZRre fodYi dk p;u djsa

(1) I, II rFkk III (2) II rFkk III (3) I rFkk III (4) dsoy III

50. Defamation is: (1) Both a tort and a crime (2) Only a tort (3) Only a crime (4) None of these

50. ekugkfu gksrh gS%

(1) ,d vid`R; vksj vijk/k&&nksuksa

(2) dsoy ,d vid`R;

(3) dsoy ,d vijk/k


51. Announcement of reward to the general public through newspaper to find the stolen good is: (1) An offer (2) A promise (3) A consideration (4) An agreement

51. pksjh xbZ oLrq irk yxkus ds fy, iqjLd`r fd, tkus ds laca/k esa

v[kckj esa vketurk ds fy, ?kks’k.kk gksrh gS%

(1) ,d is”kd”k

(2) ,d vk”oklu

(3) ,d izfrQy

(4) ,d le>kSrk

52. Nudum pactum Means: (1) Gratuitous promise without any consideration (2) An invalid contract (3) An void contract (4) A voidable contract

52. Nudum pactum dk vFkZ gS%

(1) fdlh izfrQy ds fcuk ,d vkuqxzfgd vk”oklu

(2) ,d voS/k djkj

(3) ,d vekU; djkj

(4) vekU;dj.kh; djkj

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–7]

53. Consensus of ad Idem means: (1) Agreeing to the same thing in the same sense (2) Meeting of minds (3) Basis of contract (4) Exchange of agreements

53. ad Idem dh loZlEefr dk vFkZ gS%

(1) ,d gh oLrq dks ,d gh vFkZ esa Lohdkj djuk

(2) efLr’dksa dk feyu

(3) djkj dk vk/kkj

(4) le>kSrksa dk vknku&iznku

54. Headquarters of International Criminal Court is located in: (1) Hague (2) Geneva (3) Washington (4) Tokyo

54. varjkZ’Vªh; vkijkf/kd U;k;ky; dk eq[;ky; dgka fLFkr gS\

(1) gsx (2) tsusok (3) okf”kaxVu (4) VksD;ks

55. Principle: A contract is an agreement enforceable by law. All agreements are contracts if they are made with free consent by parties competent to contract for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object. Fact: A, a 40 year old businessman of sound mind, agrees to sell his bungalow worth 40 lakhs for 1 lakh. The agreement is: I. Invalid due to inadequate consideration II. Valid as there is lawful consideration III. Valid as A entered into it with free consent IV. Valid because A has capacity to contract.

(1) I only (2) II and III only (3) III only (4) II, III, and IV

55. ,d lafonk fof/k }kjk izorZuh; ,d le>kSrk gSA lHkh le>kSrs lafonk,a

gSa ;fn dkuwuh izfrQy vkSj dkuwuh mn~ns”; dks ysdj lafonk djus ds

fy, l{ke i{kdkjksa }kjk iw.kZ lgefr ls ,sls le>kSrs fd, x, gksA

rF;% 40 o’kZ dh vk;q dk ,d LoLFkfpRr dk O;kikjh 40 yk[k #i, dh viuh dksBh 1 yk[k esa cspus dks lger gks tkrk gSA ;g le>kSrk gSA

I. vi;kZIr izfrQy ds dkj.k voS/k gS II. oS/k gS D;ksafd dkuwuh izfrQy gS III. oS/k gS D;ksafd , us iw.kZ lgefr ls ;g lafonk dh gS IV. oS/k gS D;ksafd , lafonk djus ds fy, l{ke gS

(1) dsoy I (2) dsoy II rFkk III (3) dsoy III (4) II, III rFkk IV

56. The Latin Maxim ‘nemo dat quid non habet’ as contained in section 27 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 means: (1) An innocent and bona fide purchaser gets a proper

title as of a true owner (2) No man can pass a better title than he has (3) An innocent occupier of goods can pass a proper title (4) A finder of goods can pass a proper title

56. eky foØ; vf/kfu;e 1930 dh /kkjk 27 esa ;Fkkfufgr ^dksbZ Hkh O;fDr vius gd ls Åapk gd ugha varfjr dj ldrk ¼ftlds ikl

tks gd gS ogh rks ns ldsxk mlls Åapk gd dSls nsxk½* dk vFkZ gS%

(1) ,d funksZ’k vkSj okLrfod Øsrk dks ,d lPps Lokeh dk leqfpr

gd izkIr gksrk gS

(2) dksbZ Hkh O;fDr tks gd mlds ikl gS] mlls Åapk gd varfjr

ugha dj ldrk

(3) eky dk ,d funksZ’k gdnkj ,d leqfpr gd varfjr dj ldrk

gS

(4) eky dk ikus okyk ,d leqfpr gd varfjr dj ldrk gS

57. The rule of ‘caveat emptor’ as enunciated in section 16 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, means that: (1) The buyer must take a chance (2) The buyer must take care (3) The seller must take care (4) Both (1) and (2)

57. eky foØ; vf/kfu;e] 1930 dh /kkjk 16 esa ;Fkkof.kZr ^Øsrk lko/kku jgsa* fu;e dk vFkZ gS%

(1) Øsrk dks ekSds dk ykHk vo”; mBkuk pkfg,

(2) Øsrk dks vo”; /;ku j[kuk pkfg,

(3) foØsrk dk vo”; /;ku j[kuk pkfg,

(4) (1) rFkk (2) – nksuksa

58. Section 125 of CrPC is applicable to: (1) Hindus (2) Muslims (3) Christians (4) All persons belonging to all religions

58. vkijkf/kd naM lafgrk dh /kkjk 125 fuEu ij ykxw gksrh gS% (1) fganw

(2) eqfLye

(3) bZlkbZ

(4) lHkh /keksZa ds lHkh yksx

59. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’. (1) Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z (2) ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’ (3) ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act (4) Both (1) & (3)

59. ‘X’ rFkk ‘Y’, ‘Z’ dh gR;k djus ds fy, tkrs gSaA ‘X’ gkFk esa ,d cjNk fy, pkSdhnkjh ij [kM+k jgrk gS ysfdu mlus ‘Z’ ij dksbZ geyk ugha fd;kA ‘Y’ us ‘Z’ dh gR;k dhA (1) Z dh gR;k ds fy, dsoy ‘Y’ ftEesnkj gS (2) ‘Z’ dh gR;k ds fy, ‘X’ rFkk ‘Y’ & nksuksa ftEesnkj gSa (3) ‘X’ ftEesnkj ugha gS D;ksafd mlls izR;{kr% dksbZ dkjZokbZ ugha dh (4) (1) rFkk (3) & nksuksa

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–8]

60. “Foreign Judgment” under C.P.C. means: (1) The judgment of a Criminal Court (2) The judgment of a Court of Jammu & Kashmir (3) The judgment of a Appellate Court (4) The judgment of a Foreign Court

60. lhihlh ds v/khu ^fons”kh fu.kZ;* dk vk”k; gS%

(1) nkf.Md U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;

(2) tEew rFkk d”ehj U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;

(3) vihyh; U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;

(4) fons”kh U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;

61. ASSERTION (A):- The President is a part of Parliament. REASON (R):- A bill passed by two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President. (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation

of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

61. n`<+ksfDr ¼,½% jk’Vªifr laln dk ,d fgLlk gSA

rdZ ¼vkj½% laln ds nksuksa lnuksa }kjk ikfjr fo/ks;d jk’Vªifr dh

lgefr ds fcuk dkuwu ugha cu ldrkA

(1) , rFkk vkj & nksuksa lgh gS vkSj vkj] , dk lgh Li’Vhdj.k gS

(2) , rFkk vkj nksuksa lgh gS ysfdu vkj] , dk lgh Li’Vhdj.k

ugha gS

(3) , lgh gS ysfdu vkj feF;k gS

(4) , feF;k gS ysfdu vkj lgh gS

62. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution?” (1) Right to property (2) Right to religion (3) Right to constitutional (4) All of these

62. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ewy vf/kdkj dks MkW- ch- vkj- vacsMdj us

lafo/kku dk ‘heart and soul’ dgk Fkk\ (1) laifRr dk vf/kdkj

(2) /keZ dk vf/kdkj

(3) laoS/kkfud vf/kdkj

(4) ;s lHkh

63. A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is not a nullity but remains inoperative till the shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such rights. This is known as doctrine of .............: (1) Pleasure (2) Pith and substance (3) Eclipse (4) Severability

63. tks fof/k ewy vf/kdkjksa dks la{ksfir djrh gS og vekU;rk ugha gS

ysfdu tc rd ewy vf/kdkjksa dh Nk;k ,sls vf/kdkjksa ij ugha iM+rh]

og vizpfyr jgrh gSA ;g----------dk fl)kar dgykrk gS%

(1) izlkn

(2) lkj vkSj okLrfod vFkZ

(3) rstHkax

(4) foPNsnuh;rk

64. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution: (1) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (2) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property (3) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country (4) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation, trade

or business.

64. lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 19 esa izfr’Bkfir oS;fDrd Lora=rkvksa dh lwph esa

ls dkSulh Lora=rk fujLr dj nh xbZ gS\

(1) gfFk;kjksa ds fcuk “kkafriwoZd bdV~Bk gksus dh Lora=rk

(2) laifRr vf/kx`ghr djus] /kkfjr djus vkSj cspus dh Lora=rk

(3) ns”k ds fdlh Hkh fgLls esa jgus vkSj clus dh Lora=rk

(4) dksbZ Hkh is”kk] O;olk;] dkjksckj ;k O;kikj djus dh Lora=rk

65. Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit: (1) Traffic in human beings (2) Beggar (3) Forced labour (4) Compulsory service for public purposes

65. lafo/kku dk vuqPNsn 23 fuEu dk fu’ks/k ugha djrk% (1) euq’;ksa dk voS/k O;kikj

(2) fHk[kkjh

(3) csxkj

(4) lkoZtfud iz;kstuksa ds fy, vfuok;Z lsok

66. Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it, C.P.C. does not apply: (1) Assam (2) Nagaland (3) Mizoram (4) Whole of North East

66. tEew rFkk d”ehj jkT; ds vykok dkSu&lk ,slk jkT; gS ftl iwjs

jkT; ij lhihlh ykxw ugha gksrh\

(1) vle

(2) ukxkySaM

(3) fetksje

(4) lEiw.kZ iwoksZRrj

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–9]

67. A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving: (1) Not less than 30 days time to the person concerned (2) Not less than 60 days time to the person concerned (3) Not less than 90 days time to the person concerned (4) Not less than 15 days time to the person concerned

67. fdlh O;fDr ds gkftj gksus laca/kh mn~?kks’k.kk vo”; gh fuEu uksfVl

nsrs gq, izdkf”kr dh tkuh pkfg,%

(1) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 30 fnu dk le; (2) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 60 fnu dk le; (3) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 90 fnu dk le; (4) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 15 fnu dk le;

68. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from: (1) Section 82 of Cr.P.C (2) Section 83 of Cr.P.C (3) Section 84 of Cr.P.C (4) Section 85 of Cr.P.C

68. dqdZ dh xbZ laifRr vFkok mldh fcØh dh jkf”k dk mn~?kksf’kr O;fDr

}kjk nkos dk vf/kdkj fuEu ls izkIr gksrk gS%

(1) Cr.P.C dh /kkjk 82 (2) Cr.P.C dh /kkjk 83 (3) Cr.P.C dh /kkjk 84 (4) Cr.P.C dh /kkjk 85

69. The power of issuing proclamation u/sec. 82 Cr.P.C: (1) With the Court of Magistrate (2) With the Court of Sessions (3) With the High Court (4) All the above

69. lhvkjihlh dh /kkjk 82 ds v/khu mn~?kks’k.kk tkjh djus dk vf/kdkj

fuEu ds ikl gS%

(1) n.Mkf/kdkjh dk U;k;ky;

(2) ls”ku U;k;ky;

(3) mPp U;k;ky;

(4) mi;qZDr lHkh

70. Personating a public servant is an offence: (1) Under section 169 IPC (2) Under section 170 IPC (3) Under section 171 IPC (4) Under section 173 IPC

70. fdlh ljdkjh deZpkjh dk izfr:i.k djuk ,d vijk/k gS%

(1) IPC dh /kkjk 169 ds v/khu




71. The list of States and Union Territories is mentioned in which schedule of the Constitution? (1) First (2) Second (3) Third (4) Seventh

71. jkT;ksa vkSj la?k&“kkflr {ks=ksa dh lwph lafo/kku dh dkSu&lh vuqlwph esa

nh xbZ gS\

(1) igyh (2) nwljh

(3) rhljh (4) lkroha

72. Right to Property under Art.300A is a: (1) Fundamental right (2) Constitutional right (3) Statutory right (4) All of the above

72. vuqPNsn 300A ds v/khu laifRr dk vf/kdkj

(1) ewy vf/kdkj gS

(2) laoS/kkfud vf/kdkj gS

(3) lkafof/kd vf/kdkj gS

(4) mi;qZDr lHkh

73. The period for filing appeal under the RTI Act is: (1) 30 days (2) 45 days (3) 60 days (4) 90 days

73. lwpuk vf/kdkj vf/kfu;e ds v/khu vihy nk;j djus dh vof/k gS

(1) 30 fnu (2) 45 fnu (3) 60 fnu (4) 90 fnu

74. The term of office for the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners is: (1) Till they enjoy pleasure of the President of India (2) Five years (3) Till they attain the age of 65 years (4) Five years and superannuation age being 65 years,

whichever is earlier

74. eq[; lwpuk vk;qDr rFkk lwpuk vk;qDrksa dk dk;Zdky gksrk gS

(1) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr ds vkxkeh vkns”kksa rd

(2) ikap o’kZ

(3) 65 o’kZ dh vk;q izkIr gksus rd

(4) ikap o’kZ rFkk vf/kokf’kZdh dh vk;q 65 o’kZ gksus ij] buesa ls tks Hkh igys gks

75. A public servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding, shall be punished with: (1) Simple Imprisonment for 1 month (2) Fine of 500 rupees (3) Simple imprisonment for 1 month and fine of Rs. 500 (4) None of these

75. ,d ljdkjh deZpkjh }kjk lEeu ysus ;k nwljh dk;Zokfg;ksa dh

vogsyuk djds Qjkj gksus ij nf.Mr fd;k tk,xk%

(1) ,d eghus dh lk/kkj.k dSn

(2) 500 #- dk tqekZuk (3) ,d eghus dh lk/kkj.k dSn rFkk 500 #- dk tqekZuk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–10]

76. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of .......... days: (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) None of these

76. jkT; lHkk foRr fo/ks;d dks---------fnu dh vof/k rd jksds j[k

ldrh gS%


77. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a Part of the Constitution? (1) A.K. Gopalan case (2) In re, Berubari case (3) Minerva Mill case (4) A.K. Antony case

77. dkSu&ls ekeys esa loksZPp U;k;ky; us ;g fu.kZ; fn;k Fkk fd izLrkouk

lafo/kku dk ,d fgLlk ugha gS\

(1) ,- ds- xksikyu ekeyk

(2) cs:ckjh ekeys ds laca/k esa

(3) feuokZ fey ekeyk

(4) ,- ds- ,sUVksuh ekeyk

78. Which one of the following doctrine relates to the interpretation of the legislative conflicts between the Union and the States? (1) Doctrine of clear and present danger (2) Precautionary approach (3) Stare decisis (4) Pith and substance

78. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fl)kar la?k vkSj jkT;ksa ds chp fo/kk;h fooknksa ds

fuoZpu ls lacaf/kr gS\

(1) Li’V vkSj ekStwnk [krjs dk fl)kar

(2) ,sgfr;krh n`f’Vdks.k (3) Stare decisis (4) lkj vkSj okLrfod vFkZ

79. ASSERTION (A):- The President of India has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute sentence. REASON (R):- The President exercises not only executive functions but also judicial and legislative functions (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

79. n`<+ksfDr ¼,½% jk’Vªifr dks {kek djus] fojke nsus foyafcr djus vFkok

naM ekQ djus vFkok naM dks fuyafcr djus] ekQ djus vFkok

:ikarfjr djus dk vf/kdkj izkIr gS%

rdZ ¼vkj½% jk’Vªifr dsoy “kklh dk;Z gh ugha cfYd U;kf;d vkSj

fo/kk;h dk;Z Hkh djrs gSa


(2) , rFkk vkj & nksuksa lgh gS ysfdu vkj] , dk lgh Li’Vhdj.k

ugha gS



80. ASSERTION (A):- The President of India can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1) of Constitution on the advice of the Prime Minister. REASON (R):- Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all fundamental rights except Article 20 & 21 of Constitution. (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

80. n`<+ksfDr ¼,½% Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr] iz/kkuea=h dh lykg ij lafo/kku ds

vuqPNsn 352(1) ds v/khu vkikrdky mn~?kksf’kr dj ldrs gSaA

rdZ ¼vkj½% tc vkikrdky dh mn~?kks’k.kk igys ls lfØ; gks] jk’Vªifr

lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 20 vkSj 21 dks NksM+dj lHkh ewy vf/kdkjksa dk

izpkyu fuyafcr dj ldrs gSaA


(2) , rFkk vkj nksuksa lgh gS ysfdu vkj] , dk lgh Li’Vhdj.k

ugha gS



81. The Indian evidence Act came into force on the first day of: (1) April, 1872 (2) September, 1872 (3) January, 1872 (4) October, 1872

81. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e fuEu dh igyh rkjh[k dks ykxw gqvk Fkk%

(1) vçSy] 1872 (2) flrEcj] 1872 (3) tuojh] 1872 (4) vDVwcj] 1872

82. What is required to be established for bringing hearsay evidence within the ambit of ............. of Indian Evidence Act that it must be almost contemporaneous with the acts and there could not be an interval which would allow fabrication: (1) Section 5 (2) Section 7 (3) Section 6 (4) Section 8

82. vuqJqfr lk{; dks Hkkjrh; vf/kfu;e ds ---------- dh ifjf/k esa

ykus ds fy, ;g fl) fd;k tkuk vko”;d gS fd ;g vo”; gh dk;Z

ds çk;% ledkyhu gksxk vkSj ,slk dksbZ vUrjky ugha gksxk ftlesa

rF;ksa dks x<+k tk lds%

(1) /kkjk&5 (2) /kkjk&7 (3) /kkjk&6 (4) /kkjk&8

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–11]

83. Where the ocular evidence is very clear and convincing and role of accused person in the crime stands clearly established, establishment of motive is not a sine qua non for proving the prosecution case. This is decided by the Supreme Court in the case of: (1) Yunis Alias Kariya V. State of Madhya Pradesh (2) Bipin Kumar Mondel V. State of west Bengal (3) Wakker V. State of uttar Pradesh (4) None of these

83. tgk¡ pk{kq’k lk{; vR;Ur Li’V vkSj fo”oklksRiknd gks vkSj vijk/k esa

nks’kh O;fä dh Hkwfedk Li’Vr% çekf.kr gks tkrh gks] ogk¡ vfHk;kstu

ekeys dks fl) djus ds fy, gsrq fl) djuk vfuok;Z ugha gSA ;g

ekeyk fuEu ekeys esa loksZPp U;k;ky; fu.kÊr gS%

(1) ;wful mQZ dkfj;k cuke e/; çns”k jkT;

(2) fcfiu dqekj e.My cuke if”pe caxky jkT;

(3) okôj cuke mÙkj çns”k jkT;


84. The question is, whether A robbed B. The facts that, shortly before robbery, B went to fair with money in his possession, and that he showed it to third persons, are relevant facts under .......... of Indian Evidence Act: (1) Section 8 (2) Section 7 (3) Section 6 (4) Section 5

84. ç”u ;g gS fd A us B dks ywVkA ;s rF; fd ywVus ls FkksM+h nsj

igys] B vius dCts esa iSls ysdj esys esa x;k Fkk vkSj mlus og iSlk

rhljs O;fä dks fn[kyk;k Fkk] Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e dh ------- ds

v/khu laxr gSa%

(1) /kkjk&8 (2) /kkjk&7 (3) /kkjk&6 (4) /kkjk&5

85. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the constitution of India? (1) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers

between the union and states (2) It allocates seats in the council of states (3) It contains the languages listed in the constitution (4) It contains the provisions regarding the administration

of tribal areas

85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds prqFkZ vuqPNsn

dks lgh&lgh of.kZr djrk gS\

(1) ;g la?k ,oa jkT; ds e/; “kfDrvksa ds forj.k dk Ldhe j[krk

gS

(2) ;g jkT;ksa ds ifj’kn esa lhVksa dk c¡Vokjk djrk gS

(3) lafo/kku esa lwfpr Hkk’kkvksa dks fufgr djrk gS

(4) ;g vkfnoklh {ks=ksa ds “kklu ls lEcfU/kr ls çko/kku djrk gS

86. The Indian Parliament consists of: (1) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President (2) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (3) Lok Sabha and State assemblies (4) Lok Sabha only

86. Hkkjrh; laln ds vax gSa%

(1) yksd lHkk] jkT; lHkk ,oa jk’Vªifr

(2) yksd lHkk ,oa jkT; lHkk

(3) yksd lHkk ,oa jkT; fo/kku lHkk

(4) dsoy yksd lHkk

87. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India is a case dealing with: (1) Ram Janam Bhoomi- Babri Masjid (2) Right of religious minorities to run educational

institutes (3) Independence of Election Commission (4) Reservation for OBCs

87. bafnjk lkguh cuke Hkkjr la?k dk ekeyk fuEu ls lacaf/kr gS

(1) jketUe Hkwfe & ckcjh efLtn

(2) “kSf{kd laLFkku pykus dk /kkfeZd vYila[;dksa dk vf/kdkj

(3) fuokZpu vk;ksx dh Lora=rk

(4) vkschlh ds fy, vkj{k.k

88. If a person other than a proclaimed person has any interest in the attached property under section 83 of the criminal procedure code, he may prefer his claim or objection made to the attachment of his interest in such property within: (1) Six months from the date of attachment order (2) Three months from the date of attachment order (3) Four months from the date of attachment order (4) One year from the date of attachment order

88. ;fn vkijkf/kd izfØ;k lafgrk dh /kkjk 83 ds v/khu dqdZ dh xbZ

laifRr esa] mn~?kksf’kr O;fDr ls brj fdlh vU; O;fDr dk fgr tqM+k

gks rks og ,slh laifRr esa mlds fgr ds dqdZ fd, tkus ds fo#)

fuEu vof/k ds Hkhrj viuk nkok vFkok vkifRr is”k dj ldrk gS%

(1) dqdhZ vkns”k dh rkjh[k ls N% eghus

(2) dqdhZ vkns”k dh rkjh[k ls rhu eghus

(3) dqdhZ vkns”k dh rkjh[k ls pkj eghus

(4) dqdhZ vkns”k dh rkjh[k ls ,d o’kZ

89. Which section of criminal procedure code deals with release, sale, restoration of attached property under criminal procedure code: (1) Sec tion 83 (2) Section 84 (3) Section 82 (4) Section 85

89. vkijkf/kd izfØ;k lafgrk ds v/khu dqdZ dh xbZ laifRr dks NksM+ nsus]

cspus] izR;kofrZr djus ds lkFk vkijkf/kd izfØ;k lafgrk dh dkSu&lh

/kkjk lacaf/kr gS\

(1) /kkjk 83 (2) /kkjk 84 (3) /kkjk 82 (4) /kkjk 85

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–12]

90. Which of the following Article of Constitution of India entrusts parents with the responsibility of providing opportunities for education to their children? (1) Article 21(A) (2) Article 51(A) (3) Article 45 (4) Article 350(A)

90. fuEufyf[kr esa ls Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dk dkSu&lk vuqPNsn cPpksa dh

f”k{kk ds fy, volj çnku djus dh ftEesnkjh muds vfHkHkkodksa ij

Mkyrk gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 21(A) (2) vuqPNsn 51(A) (3) vuqPNsn 45 (4) vuqPNsn 350(A)

91. Article 25 of Constitution guarantees freedom of religion, but it is subject to: (1) Public order, morality, health and other fundamental

rights (2) Public order, morality and health (3) Public order, morality, health and sovereignty and

integrity of India (4) Public order, morality and secularism

91. lafo/kku dk vuqPNsn 25 /keZ dh Lora=rk dh xkjaVh nsrk gS ysfdu ;g fuEu ds v/;/khu gS%

(1) lkoZtfud lqO;oLFkk] uSfrdrk] LokLF; rFkk vU; ewy vf/kdkj

(2) lkoZtfud lqO;oLFkk] uSfrdrk rFkk LokLF;

(3) lkoZtfud lqO;oLFkk] uSfrdrk] LokLF; vkSj Hkkjr dh izHkqlaiUurk

vkSj ,drk

(4) lkoZtfud lqO;oLFkk] uSfrdrk vkSj /keZfujis{kokn

92. ‘Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles: (1) Article 14 (2) Article 15 (3) Article 16 (4) Article 17

92. ^ljdkjh jkstxkj ds ekeyksa esa volj dh lekurk* dk mYys[k dkSuls

vuqPNsn esa fd;k x;k gS\

(1) vuqPNsn 14 (2) vuqPNsn 15 (3) vuqPNsn 16 (4) vuqPNsn 17

93. Article 51A provides for the fundamental duties of: (1) Citizens of India (2) Foreigners (3) Public Servants (4) None of these

93. vuqPNsn 51, esa fuEu ds ewy drZO;ksa dk izko/kku gS% (1) Hkkjr ds ukxfjd

(2) fons”kh

(3) ljdkjh lsod


94. Fundamental Duties of citizens: (1) are contained in Schedule IX of the Constitution (2) lie scattered throughout the Constitution (3) are contained in Part IV A of the Constitution (4) None of these

94. ukxfjdksa ds ewy drZO;%

(1) lafo/kku dh vuqlph IX eas fufgr gS (2) lewps lafo/kku esa QSys gq, gSa

(3) lafo/kku ds Hkkx IV, esa fufgr gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

95. The executive power of the Union is vested in the: (1) Prime Minister (2) Union of India (3) President of India (4) None of these

95. la?k ds “kklh vf/kdkj fuEu esa fofgr gS%

(1) iz/kkuea=h

(2) Hkkjrh; la?k

(3) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr


96. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha as envisaged by the constitution is: (1) 530 (2) 552 (3) 555 (4) 550

96. lafo/kku }kjk çnku dh xbZ yksd&lHkk dh lhVksa dh vf/kdre la[;k

D;k gS\

(1) 530 (2) 552 (3) 555 (4) 550

97. Which of the following Articles confer power on the Supreme Court to issue appropriate directions or orders or writs: (1) Article 226 (2) Article 137 (3) Article 32 (4) Article 140

97. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk vuqPNsn loksZPp U;k;ky; dks mi;qä

fn'kkfunsZ'k tkjh djus vFkok vkns'k nsus vFkok fjV tkjh djus dh

'kfä çnku djrk gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 226 (2) vuqPNsn 137 (3) vuqPNsn 32 (4) vuqPNsn 140

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–13]

98. Which constitutional amendment added ‘Fundamental Duties’ to the Constitution of India? (1) 44th Amendment (2) 50th Amendment (3) 52nd Amendment (4) 42nd Amendment

98. fdl lafo/kku la”kks/ku ls Hkkjr ds lafo/kku esa ^ewy dÙkZO;* tksM+s x;s

Fks%

(1) 44ok¡ la”kks/ku (2) 50ok¡ la”kks/ku (3) 52ok¡ la”kks/ku (4) 42ok¡ la”kks/ku

99. Point out the incorrect statement To qualify for the membership of Rajya Sabha, one has to. (1) Be a citizen of India (2) Be at least 30 years of age (3) Fulfils the qualifications of becoming a member of

parliament (4) Be a voter in any Lok Sabha constituency of India

99. vlR; dFku dks igpkus

jkT; lHkk dh lnL;rk çkIr djus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr dk gksuk

vko”;d gSA

(1) mls Hkkjr dk ukxfjd gksuk pkfg,

(2) 30 o’kZ dh vk;q de ls de gksuh pkfg,

(3) laln lnL; cuus ds fy, lHkh vgZrkvksa dks iwjk djuk pkfg,

(4) Hkkjr ds fdlh yksd lHkk {ks= ls ernkrk gksuk pkfg,

100. Agreement without consideration is valid: (1) When made out of love and affection due to near

relationship (2) When made to compensate a person who has already

done something voluntarily (3) When made to pay a time barred debt (4) All of these

100. fcuk çfrQy ds djkj cS/k gS% (1) tc utnhdh fj”rsnkjh ds dkj.k çse ds o”khHkwr gksdj fd;k tk,

(2) tc dksbZ O;fä igys ls dksbZ dk;Z LosPNk ls fd;k gks] mldh

{kfriwfrZ ds fy, fd;k tk jgk gks

(3) tc ,d dky frjksfgr dtZ ds Hkqxrku ds fy, fd;k tk jgk gks

(4) mi;qZä lHkh

101. An agreement in connection with horse racing under section 30 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 is: (1) Unlawful (2) Void (3) Voidable (4) Valid

101. Hkkjrh; lafonk vf/kfu;e 1872 dh /kkjk 30 ds vUrxZr ?kksM+s dh

jsl ds lEcU/k esa fd;k x;k djkj%

(1) xSj dkuwuh gS

(2) O;FkZ gS

(3) O;FkZuh; gS

(4) cS/k gS

102. A contract based on the happening or non-happening of a future event under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: (1) A contingent contract (2) A wagering contract (3) A contract marked with uncertainty and hence void (4) None of these

102. Hkkjrh; lafonk vf/kfu;e] 1872 dh /kkjk 31 ds vuqlkj ,d lafonk

tks ,d Hkfo’; esa gksus okyh ?kVuk ds ?kVus ;k u ?kVus ij vk/kkfjr

gks] mls dgrs gSa%

(1) vkdf’ed lafonk

(2) ckth dh lafonk

(3) vfuf”prrk Hkjh lafonk tks O;FkZ gS


103. Arbitral proceedings commence:

(1) On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent

(2) On the date when the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator

(3) On the date when the arbitrator issues notice to the parties

(4) On the date when the statement of claims and the written submissions of defence is made

103. iapkV dk;Zokfg;k¡ vkjEHk gksrh gSa%

(1) ml frfFk ls tc ,d fookn dks iapkV dks lanfHkZr fd;k tkus

okyk çkFkZuk fjLikUMsUV }kjk çkIr fd;k tkrk gS

(2) ml frfFk ls tc fjLikUMsUV ,d fookpd dh fu;qfä dh lgefr

nsrk gS

(3) ml frfFk ij tc fookpd i{kdkjksa dks ,d uksfVl fuxZfer

djrk gS

(4) ml frfFk ij tc nkos dk fooj.k rFkk cpko ds fy, fyf[kr

fo’k; oLrq fn;k tkrk gS

104. The word tort has been derived from the Latin term: (1) Tortum (2) Tomturn (3) Transum (4) Tretorm

104. VksVZ ¼Tort½ 'kCn ysfVu 'kCn ------- ls fy;k x;k gS% (1) VkWjVe ¼Tortum½

(2) VkWeVuZ ¼Tomturn½ (3) VªkUle ¼Transum½

(4) VªsVkWeZ ¼Tretorm½

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–14]

105. Under Section 11 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Arbitrator has to be appointed: (1) Within 30 days of the arbitration agreement (2) Within 30 days of arising of the dispute (3) Within 30 days of failure to resolve the dispute of their

own (4) Within 30 days from the receipt of request for

appointment of arbitrator from the other party

105. iapkV ,oa lqyg vf/kfu;e 1996 dh /kkjk 11 ds vuqlkj] ,d

fookpd dh fu;qfä dh tkrh gS%

(1) iapkV djkj ds 30 fnuksa ds Hkhrj (2) fookn mRié gksus ds 30 fnuksa ds Hkhrj (3) Lor% fookn dks lqy>kus esa vlQy gksus ds 30 fnuksa ds Hkhrj (4) nwljs i{kdkj }kjk fookpd dh fu;qfä dk çkFkZuk feyus ds 30

fnuksa ds Hkhrj

106. As per Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provision for setting aside the arbitral award is laid down under: (1) Section 32 of the Act (2) Section 34 of the Act (3) Section 36 of the Act (4) None of these

106. iapkV ,oa lqyg vf/kfu;e 1996 ds çko/kkuksa ds vUrxZr iapkV

vokMZ dks lsV vlkbZM djus dk çko/kku fn;k x;k gS%

(1) /kkjk 32 ds vUrxZr




107. A resides at Shimla, B at Bangalore and C at Delhi. A, B and C when being together at Jaipur, B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to A. A can not sue B and C at: (1) Shimla (2) Bangalore (3) Delhi (4) Jaipur

107. A f”keyk esa] B caxykSj esa rFkk C fnYyh esa jgrk gSA A] B] C

t;iqj esa tc lkFk&lkFk gSa rc B ,oa C ,d la;qä opu ii=

cukdj A dks lqiqnZ djrs gSaA A fdl LFkku ij B ,oa C ds fo:)

eqdnek ugha dj ldrk gS%

(1) f”keyk

(2) caxykSj

(3) fnYyh

(4) t;iqj

108. State which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct: (1) The parties to a contract must be competent to contract (2) The agreement must have been made with free

consent of parties to agreement (3) The Agreement must be for a lawful considration and

with lawful object (4) All the above statements are true

108. crk,a fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa% (1) vuqcU/k ds i{kdkjksa dks vuqcU/k djus ds fy, l{ke gksuk pkfg,

(2) djkj i{kdkjksa dh eqä lgefr ds }kjk gksuk pkfg,

(3) lHkh djkj cS/kkfud çfrQy ,oa cS/kkfud mís”; ds fy, gksuk

pkfg,

(4) mi;qZä esa lHkh dFku lR; gSa

109. What was held in Mohari Bibee VS Dharamdas Ghose: (1) Rule of privity of contract (2) A minor’s contract is void (3) Time is the essence of the contract (4) None of these

109. eksgjh chch cuke /keZnkl ?kks’k esa D;k fu.kZ; fd;k x;k% (1) vuqcU/k ds lEcU/k dk fu;e

(2) vO;Ld ds lkFk fd;k x;k vuqcU/k O;FkZ gS

(3) le; vuqcU/k dk lkjHkwr gS


110. A notice in the newspaper inviting tender is: (1) A proposal (2) An invitation to proposal (3) A promise (4) An invitation for negotiation

110. v[kckj esa fufonk vkea=.k djus dh lwpuk gksrh gS%

(1) ,d çLrko

(2) ,d çLrko ds fy, vkea=.k

(3) ,d opu

(4) lkSnsckth ds fy, ,d vkea=.k

111. The legal term ‘quid pro quo’ means: (1) Without which not (2) What for what (3) By itself (4) Without jurisdiction

111. dkuwuh in ^DohM çks Doks* dk vFkZ gS%

(1) mlds fcuk ugha

(2) D;k ds fy, D;k

(3) vius vki esa

(4) fcuk vf/kdkj {ks= ds

112. Companies Act, 2013 is divided in to how many chapters: (1) 27 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 30

112. daiuh vf/kfu;e] 2013 fdrus v/;k;ksa esa caVk gqvk gS\

(1) 27 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 30

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–15]

113. The doctrine of ‘RES IPSA LOQUITUR’ means: (1) A question raised and decided by a court can not be

raised again (2) A thing speaks for itself for it tells its own story (3) Revocation of an order which is otherwise valid and

operative (4) A right to prosecute by law to obtain relief

113. ^jsl bilk ykDohVj* ds fl)kUr dk rkRi;Z gS%

(1) ,d ç”u tks U;k;ky; esa mBk;k x;k gks rFkk ftl ij fu.kZ;

fn;k x;k gks mls iqu% ugha mBk;k tk ldrk gS

(2) ,d pht Lor% vius fy, cksyrh gS D;ksafd ;g viuh dgkuh

Lor% crkrh gS

(3) ,d vkns”k dk [kaMu tks vU;Fkk cS/k rFkk ykxw gksxh

(4) jkgr çkIr djus gsrq dkuwu }kjk nf.Mr djus dk vf/kdkj

114. Which Schedule of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with CSR activities: (1) Schedule I (2) Schedule V (3) Schedule IV (4) Schedule VII

114. daiuh vf/kfu;e] 2013 dh dkSulh vuqlwph lh,lvkj fØ;kdykiksa ls

lacaf/kr gS\

(1) vuqlwph I (2) vuqlwph V (3) vuqlwph IV (4) vuqlwph VII

115. A term of independent director can not exceed: (1) 5 years (2) 7 years (3) 10 years (4) 12 years

115. Lora= funs”kd dk dk;Zdky fuEu ls c<+dj ugha gks ldrk% (1) 5 o’kZ (2) 7 o’kZ (3) 10 o’kZ (4) 12 o’kZ

116. Who said “Jurisprudence is the eye of law”? (1) Maine (2) Savigny (3) Pound (4) Laski

116. ^fof/k”kkL= fof/k dk us= gksrk gS* & ;s “kCn fdlus dgs Fks% (1) eSus

(2) lSfoXuh

(3) ikmaM

(4) ykLdh

117. Public Interest Litigation does not insist on: (1) Violation of right by the petitioner (2) Violation of the right of respondent (3) Violation of constitutional right (4) Locus Standi of petitioner

117. tufgrokn fuEu ds fy, vkxzg ugha djrk%

(1) ;kfpdkdrkZ }kjk vf/kdkj dk mYya?ku

(2) izfroknh ds vf/kdkj dk mYya?ku

(3) laoS/kkfud vf/kdkj dk mYya?ku

(4) ;kfpdkdrkZ dh vf/kdkfjrk

118. Supreme Court can exercise power to do complete justice under ............ (1) Article 141 (2) Article 142 (3) Article 143 (4) Article 124 and Article 138

118. loksZPp U;k;ky;------------ds v/khu iw.kZ U;k; djus ds fy,

vf/kdkj dk iz;ksx dj ldrk gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 141 (2) vuqPNsn 142 (3) vuqPNsn 143 (4) vuqPNsn 124 rFkk vuqPNsn 138

119. The appropriate writ issued by the Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is that of: (1) Certiorari (2) Prohibition (3) Quo Warranto (4) Mandamus

119. fdlh yksd&in ij fdlh O;fDr dh fu;qfDr fujLr djus ds fy, U;k;ky; }kjk tkjh dh tkus okyh leqfpr ;kfpdk fuEu dh gksrh gS%

(1) mRizs’k.k ys[k

(2) fu’ks/kkKk

(3) vf/kdkj i`PNk

(4) ijekns”k

120. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on ground of exceeding the jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of: (1) Quo Warranto (2) Certiorari (3) Mandamus (4) Habeas Corpus

120. tc dksbZ ;kfpdk {ks=kf/kdkj c<+k, tkus vFkok izkd`frd U;k; ds

fl)karksa ds fo#) dkjZokbZ fd, tkus ds vk/kkj ij fuEu U;k;ky; ;k

vf/kdj.k dks tkjh dh tkrh gS] ;g fuEu dh ;kfpdk dgykrh gS%

(1) vf/kdkj i`PNk

(2) mRizs’k.k ys[k

(3) ijekns”k

(4) canh izR;{khdj.k

SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–16]

egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa

vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj-

mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk

fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k

tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. d{k&fujh{kd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrk{kj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrk{kj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks

vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy

Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh

vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zos{kd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk

dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax

ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk

tk;sxkA dPps dk;Z ds fy,

Documents

Total No. Questions: 120. vuqer le; % 90. feuV~l. Code-(AM-LEGAL)S-1,P-I. ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120. Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad