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1. Cindy is doing a presentation on prenatal development and wants to include the three main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. Cindy's presentation uses which order? A) embryonic, germinal, and fetal B) fetal, embryonic, and germinal C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal D) germinal, fetal, and embryonic

2. Many obstetricians date the onset of pregnancy from the date of _____. A) conception B) the woman's last menstrual period C) implantation D) when the woman had intercourse

3. During the germinal period of prenatal development, cells take on distinct characteristics and gravitate toward particular locations. The term for this process is _____. A) duplication B) division C) differentiation D) specialization

4. During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote's outer cells is _____. A) differentiation B) duplication C) germination D) implantation

5. About _____ percent of natural conceptions never implant. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75

6. About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a shell that will become the _____. A) placenta B) umbilical cord C) embryo D) infant

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7. The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception.

A) 2 days B) 3 months C) 2 weeks D) 12 weeks

8. Jenny just learned that she is 6 weeks pregnant. She is in the _____ period of prenatal development. A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) second

9. At the onset of the embryonic period, the _____ appears. It will eventually become the neural tube. A) stem cells B) spinal cord C) primitive streak D) placenta

10. As part of embryonic development, the neural tube will become the _____. A) reproductive organs B) intestinal tract C) backbone, legs, and arms D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

11. The head begins to take shape in the _____ week after conception. A) fourth B) fifth C) sixth D) seventh

12. In the fourth week after conception, a minuscule blood vessel that will become the _____ begins to pulsate. A) lungs B) stomach C) kidneys D) heart

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13. A pregnant woman is having an ultrasound done eight weeks into prenatal development. She is surprised by the size of the embryo's head when she sees the image on the screen. The doctor reassures her that this is typical and due to the _____ pattern of development. A) proximodistal B) cephalocaudal C) neurogenesis D) synaptogenesis

14. Prenatally, development happens in a “near-to-far” pattern known as _____. A) proximodistal B) cephalocaudal C) neurogenesis D) synaptogenesis

15. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period. A) embryonic B) fetal C) proximodistal D) germinal

16. Johnny's mom is 4 months pregnant. Johnny is eager for the arrival of the new baby and asks, “How many more months until I'm a big brother?” His mother says he has to wait about _____ more months. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

17. The third period of gestation is the _____ period. A) zygotic B) embryonic C) germinal D) fetal

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18. By the end of the _____ prenatal month, sex organs develop and are soon visible via ultrasound. A) second B) third C) fourth D) fifth

19. What happens to the brain during the fetal period of development? A) It goes through a process of regeneration. B) Synapses decrease in number. C) It increases in size. D) The number of neurons decreases.

20. The age of viability is the time when the preterm newborn _____. A) might survive outside the uterus B) begins to move C) will be born without defects D) has developed all its major organs

21. Harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development. He now is a healthy, happy 2-year-old. Harry's ability to survive after being born so early was due in part to his reaching the _____. A) term of postnatal development B) germinal period C) neurogenesis point D) age of viability

22. The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is _____. A) weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg) B) having adequate brain development C) having functioning digestive and respiratory systems D) surviving at least 28 weeks past conception

23. On average, fetuses gain about _____ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy, which brings the average birth weight to about 7.5 pounds. A) 1.5 B) 2.5 C) 4.5 D) 6.5

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24. In a first birth, the average length of active labor is _____. A) several days B) about 12 hours C) about 8 hours D) a few minutes

25. In the third stage of labor, the _____. A) cervix begins to dilate B) baby's head moves into the birth canal C) mother experiences intense contractions D) placenta is delivered

26. At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor. A) fetal brain B) maternal brain C) placenta D) germinal period

27. When healthy babies are born, they usually _____. A) do not breathe on their own until the umbilical cord is cut B) do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut C) breathe and cry on their own immediately D) breathe on their own, and cry when the umbilical cord is cut

28. Which step is usually done immediately after birth ? A) mucus in baby's throat is removed B) baby is placed in an incubator C) umbilical cord blood is drawn D) baby is assessed for eye color

29. The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to _____. A) evaluate the newborn's sensory abilities B) evaluate the health of the new mother C) help the mother recover from childbirth D) evaluate the health of the newborn

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30. A baby is assessed at one minute after birth according to the Apgar scale. Three of the five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and grimaces. The two vital signs the medical team is concerned about are _____. A) muscle tone and heartbeat B) respiratory effect and color C) muscle tone and reflex irritability D) reflex irritability and respiratory effect

31. Henry was just given the five-minute Apgar and his score was 4. This means Henry is _____. A) experiencing good health B) a slow-to-warm-up infant C) in need of emergency medical attention D) in average health

32. In addition to customs of the culture the birth process depends on _____. A) the personality of the obstetrician B) position and size of the fetus C) grandparents' wishes and expectations D) parents' genetic heritage

33. A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, is also referred to as a(n) _____. A) epidural B) cesarean section C) induced labor D) doula

34. In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via c-section. A) 1/3 B) 1/2 C) 2/3 D) 3/4

35. Compared to vaginal births, c-section births _____. A) are less expensive B) increase the risk of complications after birth C) usually take longer D) are less safe for the baby

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36. Children born by cesarean section _____. A) spend more time being held by their mothers in the hours following delivery B) are more likely to breast-feed from the beginning C) have double the rate of childhood obesity D) score lower on the Apgar test

37. Who is most likely to drink alcohol during her pregnancy? A mother who _____. A) is under age 25 B) never attended college C) is over age 35 D) belongs to a minority ethnic group

38. What does the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test do? A) diagnoses HIV infection B) suggests the presence of Down syndrome C) measures the mother's genetic weaknesses D) provides an estimate of the fetus's gestational age

39. Currently in the United States, newborn mortality is about _____. A) 1 in 100 B) 1 in 150 C) 1 in 200 D) 1 in 250

40. Which statement is TRUE about rates for c-sections? A) They have been relatively steady over the past three decades. B) They are the same in the United States as in most other developed nations. C) They vary by doctor, hospital, and even day of the week. D) They are higher for births attended by midwives.

41. Most births in the United States take place in _____. A) birthing centers B) hospital labor rooms C) homes D) pools of water

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42. An alternative to giving birth in a hospital is to arrange to give birth at home. In the United States, less than _____ of births occur at home. A) 1 percent B) 5 percent C) 10 percent D) 15 percent

43. A person who supports a mother through the birth process from early labor at home through delivery at home or in a hospital is called a _____. A) humanitarian B) doctor C) postpartum nurse D) doula

44. Tina went into labor at her home. Joan arrived soon after and began to time her contractions and give gentle massages. She assisted Tina and her partner when it was time to leave for the hospital and accompanied them through the birth process. Joan was Tina's _____. A) postpartum nurse B) doctor C) couvade D) doula

45. Research indicates that _____ can benefit from a doula-assisted birth. A) low-income women B) married women C) mothers of multiples D) all women

46. A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for _____. A) prenatal abnormalities B) damage to the placenta C) extra chromosomes D) male infertility

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47. Rita is 1 month pregnant and consults with her doctor about teratogens. The doctor tells her that one category of teratogens is _____. A) drugs B) food C) the media D) nutrients

48. Agents and conditions that can harm the prenatal brain, impairing the future child's intellectual and emotional functioning, are called _____. A) chromosomal abnormalities B) genetic mutations C) cell differentiation D) behavioral teratogens

49. Jill is 5 years old. She has been diagnosed with ADHD and shows signs of learning disabilities. Her doctor suggests that Jill's problems could be the result of prenatal exposure to _____, though he stresses that the link is not straightforward at this time. A) chromosomal abnormalities B) genetic abnormalities C) cell differentiation D) behavioral teratogens

50. With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____. A) increase the risk of prenatal abnormalities B) decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities C) always cause prenatal abnormalities D) do not cause prenatal abnormalities

51. Chantal and Larry are considering having a baby. Chantal's doctor recommends that they stop using recreational drugs and update their immunizations _____. A) before Chantal gets pregnant B) as soon as Chantal knows she is pregnant C) anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy D) as soon as the baby is born

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52. The first days and weeks after conception (the germinal and embryonic periods) are _____ for body formation. A) sensitive B) critical C) crucial D) imperative

53. Some teratogens have a threshold effect, which means that they are _____. A) harmful no matter what the level of exposure B) rarely harmful C) harmless until exposure reaches a certain level D) always harmless

54. Thresholds, as they relate to harm from any teratogen, are difficult to set because one teratogen may _____ the threshold of another teratogen. A) reduce B) increase C) cancel D) improve

55. Mandy is pregnant yet she still has four alcoholic drinks each day. Her baby may be at increased risk for the development of _____. A) fetal alcohol syndrome B) fetal anoxia syndrome C) fetal alcohol situation D) functional alcohol syndrome

56. A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins' blood alcohol levels are equal, yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles for the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence the effects of teratogens. A) kinds of substance B) genes of the parent C) genes of each twin D) doses of teratogen

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57. Which factor influences the effects of teratogens? A) timing of the teratogen B) awareness of the parent C) genes of the mother D) season of the year

58. Low folic acid during pregnancy can result in _____. A) heart defects B) lung defects C) limb deformities D) neural-tube defects

59. Alice is pregnant and wants to ensure that she does everything she can to prevent the occurrence of a neural-tube defect in her child. She makes sure that she has the proper amount of _____ in her diet. A) vitamin D B) zinc C) folic acid D) vitamin K

60. Early prenatal care can help decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities; however, it CANNOT provide pregnant women with information about _____. A) substances to avoid B) proper nutrition C) exact thresholds for teratogens D) treatments for preexisting conditions

61. Pregnant women should _____. A) rely on self-education for information about pregnancy B) never trust their doctors' advice and treatment recommendations C) consider their doctors' advice and treatment recommendations and engage in some

self-education about pregnancy D) avoid prenatal care in the early months of pregnancy

62. When it comes to the research on prenatal development and teratogens, scientists _____. A) always agree on the interpretation of research B) can disagree on the interpretation of research C) have not yet started to analyze the data D) tend to disagree with doctors

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63. Gabby received good quality prenatal care from the care team at her local hospital. She was informed about what to eat and what to do. They also coached her on what to _____, such as cigarette smoking and very high stress. A) avoid B) seek out C) experience D) continue

64. Genetic counseling may be most useful to parents at which stage? A) before becoming pregnant B) during the last month of pregnancy C) during delivery D) after the birth of a special needs child

65. A common reason that couples do not seek genetic counseling is that _____. A) they have never been exposed to teratogens B) they already eat a well-balanced diet C) their pregnancy is unplanned D) they are well over the age of 35

66. With respect to test results, a false negative is the result of a laboratory test that reports something as _____. A) true when in fact it is not true B) false when in fact it is not false C) true when in fact it is true D) false when in fact it is false

67. Babies born under 1,000 grams (2 pounds 3 ounces) are considered _____. A) low birthweight B) very low birthweight C) extremely low birthweight D) ultra low birthweight

68. Babies born slightly under 1,500 grams (3 pounds 5 ounces) are considered _____. A) low birthweight B) very low birthweight C) extremely low birthweight D) ultra low birthweight

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69. Babies born slightly under 2,500 grams are considered _____. A) low birthweight B) very low birthweight C) extremely low birthweight D) ultra low birthweight

70. A baby born three or more weeks early is called _____. A) premature B) preterm C) low birthweight D) small for gestational age

71. A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since conception is referred to as _____. A) preterm B) premature C) low birthweight D) small for gestational age

72. Cigarette smoking is implicated in _____ percent of all low-birthweight births worldwide. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25

73. Bruno and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just had their first baby. Bruno and Juliana's SES is lower than their peers who are of Mexican ancestry but were born in the United States. Bruno and Juliana's baby was born at a healthy weight, due in part to the support of their social network. This phenomenon is called the _____. A) immigrant paradox B) Hispanic paradox C) native-born paradox D) SES paradox

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74. Adults who were low-birthweight babies have higher rates of _____. A) diabetes B) malnutrition C) normal-range weight D) obesity

75. Possible consequences of low birthweight include infant death, hearing impairment, and _____. A) death in adolescence B) delayed walking C) teen pregnancy D) spatial skills

76. The frequency of low birthweight in the United States decreased throughout most of the twentieth century, and then _____ in the 1990s and early 2000s. A) increased B) further decreased C) remained stable D) was nearly eradicated

77. Statistically, which woman has characteristics that make her likely to have a baby with low birthweight? A) Ashley, who is 27 years old and middle-class SES B) Jody, who has been diagnosed with diabetes C) Kate, who regularly misses meals D) Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant

78. In the United States, which is a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of low-birthweight babies? A) plentiful food B) drug use C) exercise regimens D) genetic factors

79. Birth complications are more likely when _____. A) a baby is full term B) a mother is over age 40 C) a baby is female D) a mother is unmarried

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80. Sammy is 5 years old and spends his day in a wheelchair, assisted by an aid. Sammy can't control any of his muscles due to brain damage. Sammy's condition has been evident since birth, during which he was deprived of oxygen. Sammy has _____. A) anoxia B) cerebral palsy C) Huntington disease D) Parkinson's disease

81. Cerebral palsy was once thought to be the result of something that happened during the birth procedure, but we now know it can result from many factors, including _____. A) a specific gene for cerebral palsy B) maternal nutritional deficits C) maternal infection D) Huntington disease

82. Anoxia refers to _____. A) cerebral hemorrhaging B) signs of cerebral palsy C) a lack of oxygen D) toxic substances in the bloodstream

83. When Alexia was born, she had a lack of oxygen for a small amount of time. Alexia experienced _____. A) cerebral hemorrhaging B) cerebral palsy C) couvade D) anoxia

84. Parents of newborn Renata are amazed at their daughter's responsiveness and reflexes when a professional administers the _____. A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale B) Apgar scale C) Child Behavioral Checklist D) Strange Situation

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85. When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are demonstrating the _____. A) Moro reflex B) rooting reflex C) sucking reflex D) thrashing reflex

86. Newborn babies have _____ designed to maintain oxygen supply, maintain a constant body temperature, and manage feeding. A) genes B) habits C) reflexes D) strategies

87. A father's presence at a child's birth _____. A) has no impact on birth complications B) only has an impact on birth complications if the mother and father are married C) reduces the likelihood of birth complications D) increases the likelihood of birth complications

88. The phenomenon in which fathers experience symptoms of pregnancy and birth is known as _____. A) postpartum depression B) couvade C) false labor D) the Moro reflex

89. While Bill's wife was pregnant, he experienced weight gain and indigestion. When she gave birth, he felt sharp physical pain as well. Bill was experiencing _____. A) postpartum depression B) couvade C) false labor D) the Moro reflex

90. Postpartum depression _____. A) is a normal development and no cause for concern B) has no treatment C) does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn D) can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding

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91. Julia had a baby three weeks ago. She has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mother, which has made caring for her newborn difficult. Julia may be experiencing _____. A) post-traumatic stress disorder B) postpartum depression C) generalized anxiety disorder D) separation anxiety

92. Kelley just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. She may have _____. A) couvade B) behavioral teratogens C) kangaroo care D) postpartum depression

93. Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression. A) breast-feeding B) having a home birth C) couvade D) epidurals

94. A commitment by both parents to cooperate in raising the child is referred to as parental _____. A) alliance B) cooperation C) commitment D) support

95. Rebecca and Bob just had a baby. They agreed that they would each be responsible for the baby every other evening to give the other parent a break from childcare. They have also discussed how to share responsibility for daycare drop off and pick up once they are both back at work. Rebecca and Bob are demonstrating _____. A) parental alliance B) bonding C) postpartum depression D) couvade

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96. The strong, loving connection that forms as parents hold, examine, and feed their newborn is called _____. A) couvade B) a doula C) kangaroo care D) the parent–infant bond

97. Phil is holding his newborn child for the first time and is overwhelmed by the love he feels for his child. What Phil is experiencing is called _____. A) couvade B) a doula C) kangaroo care D) the parent–infant bond

98. A form of newborn care in which mothers (and sometimes fathers) rest their babies on their naked chests is called _____. A) couvade B) a doula C) kangaroo care D) parent–infant bond

99. Rumasia places her baby on her chest so that they are skin to skin. This is called _____. A) couvade B) a doula C) kangaroo care D) parent–infant bond

100. Kangaroo care has been associated with a newborn _____. A) sleeping more shallowly B) gaining weight more quickly C) spending more time asleep D) smiling at a younger age

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Answer Key

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C

10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. D

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45. D 46. A 47. A 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. A 56. C 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. C 61. C 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. C 66. B 67. C 68. B 69. A 70. B 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. C 78. B 79. B 80. B 81. C 82. C 83. D 84. A 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. B 89. B 90. D

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91. B 92. D 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. D 97. D 98. C 99. C

100. B

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1. Describe the germinal period, embryonic period, and fetal period of prenatal development. Identify the length of each period and detail the major developmental milestones that occur during each period.

2. Explain the procedure known as a cesarean section, and discuss at least two benefits and two risks associated with this kind of delivery.

3. Define behavioral teratogens and name at least two common ones. State two potential consequences of exposure to them.

4. Identify at least three teratogens. Since teratogens' impact depends on multiple factors, briefly describe two such factors.

5. Name four of the factors that contribute to low birthweight.

6. List two of the hypotheses developed to explain the increase in low birthweight in the United States.

7. Define reflexes. Describe the three kinds of reflexes that are necessary for newborn survival and give an example of each.

8. Define couvade and give two examples.

9. Describe the maternal symptoms of postpartum depression. What are two possible causes of postpartum depression?

10. Describe kangaroo care and list two of its benefits.

11. Give a general description of the embryonic period. Detail the fetal status at the end of this period.

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Answer Key

1. The first two weeks (14 days) of prenatal development are the germinal period. During this time the zygote experiences cell duplication and differentiation. The major milestone is the transformation of the zygote into a blastocyst, which forms the embryo and placenta, enabling implantation in the uterus. The embryonic period lasts from the third through the eighth prenatal week (day 14 to 56). The major developmental milestones are body structure and system formation, including a rudimentary central nervous system and circulatory system. The fetal period starts at the ninth prenatal week and ends at birth. Fetal growth, sex organs, and refinement of all the body structures and systems are the major developmental accomplishments. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Describe the three prenatal developmental periods, including their lengths

Describes the three prenatal periods, including the length of each one

Describes just two of the prenatal periods or does not accurately describe the length of all three

Describes one or none of the periods or their lengths accurately or confuses the periods

Detail the milestones that occur during each period

Details the major milestones for each period

Details the milestones for two of the periods

Details the milestones for one or none of the periods or confuses them

2. A cesarean section (c-section) is also known as a surgical birth. Incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, instead of being delivered through the vagina. Generally, cesareans are 1) safe for mother and baby and 2) can save a baby's life when the infant experiences distress during a vaginal delivery. Advantages for hospitals include 3) ease in scheduling, 4) quicker than vaginal deliveries, and 5) more profitable than vaginal deliveries. Drawbacks include 1) a longer recovery period for the mother, 2) complications after birth, 3) a reduction in breast-feeding, and 4) by age 3, children born by cesarean have double the rate of childhood obesity. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Explain the procedure

Explains the procedure, stating that it is also called a c-section or surgical birth

Explains the procedure without extra details

Does not explain the procedure

Discuss the risks and benefits

Discusses two or more risks and two or more benefits

Discusses two risks or two benefits or one risk and one benefit

Does not discuss at least one risk and one benefit

3. Behavioral teratogens are substances and conditions that do not cause physical defects in a developing fetus but increase the risk of harm to the child's brain. For example, if a pregnant mother 1) smokes, 2) drinks alcohol, 3) uses marijuana or other drugs, or 4) has a virus (such as the flu), the fetus's brain could be damaged. Consequences of exposure to behavioral teratogens include 1) hyperactivity, 2) learning disabilities, and

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3) antisocial behavior. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Define behavioral teratogens

Defines the term and expresses that these cause brain damage, not physical defects

Defines the term such that it could also include physical defects

Does not accurately define the term

Name at least two behavioral teratogens

Names at least two behavioral teratogens

Names one behavioral teratogen

Does not name a common behavioral teratogen or gives an example of one that causes physical defects

State two potential consequences

States two potential consequences

States one potential consequence

Does not state a potential consequence or states a physical defect

4. Teratogens include any influence on the pregnant mother, including 1) malnutrition, 2) stress, 3) exposure to drugs, 4) viruses, or 5) pollutants, and even 6) supplements (vitamin A is mentioned in the text). Teratogens increase the risk of harm to a developing embryo or fetus, but they do not always cause damage. 1) Timing is critical because some teratogens may cause damage only during a critical period. 2) The dose and/or frequency of exposure is important. Usually, the greater the dose or exposure, the greater the risk of fetal abnormalities. 3) Finally, the genes of the developing embryo or fetus can influence the effects of teratogens, since some are more genetically vulnerable to certain teratogens. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Identify teratogens Identifies three or

more teratogens; answer may be specific (alcohol, crack, marijuana, pesticides, etc.)

Identifies two teratogens; answer may be specific (alcohol, crack, marijuana, pesticides, etc.)

Fails to identify more than one teratogen

Describe two factors that influence teratogens' impact

Describes two factors from the list above

Describes one factor from the list above

Does not describe a factor

5. Low birthweight can be caused by 1) maternal drug use, 2) maternal smoking, 3) maternal underweight, 4) poor diet during pregnancy, 5) maternal failure to gain adequate weight in the last six months of pregnancy, 6) underage mother, and 7) polluted environment. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Name four factors of low birthweight

Names four of the factors from the list above

Names three of the factors from the list above

Names two or less of the factors from the list above

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6. The hypotheses that explain the increase in low birthweight in the United States include: 1) a lack of adequate maternal nutrition, 2) an increase in food insecurity, 3) increased maternal drug use, and 4) increasing rates of assisted reproduction that lead to twins and triplets, since multiple babies always weigh less than one infant. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) List two hypotheses Lists two of the

hypotheses Lists one of the hypotheses

Cannot list a hypothesis

7. Reflexes are unlearned actions that are involuntary responses to particular stimuli. Those that are necessary for newborn survival are ones that 1) maintain oxygen supply (breathing, hiccupping, sneezing), 2) maintain constant body temperature (crying, shivering, kicking off blankets), and 3) encourage feeding (sucking and rooting). Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Define reflex and describe three types

Defines reflex and lists the three types

Defines reflex and lists two types

Cannot define reflex or lists one or no type

Give an example of each kind

Gives three examples, one for each kind

Gives two examples Gives one or no example or confuses examples

8. In some cases, expectant fathers have biological experiences related to pregnancy and birth; this is called couvade. Many fathers experience symptoms of pregnancy including 1) weight gain, 2) indigestion, and 3) pain during the mother's labor. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Define couvade Defines couvade Gives a vague

definition Fails to define couvade

Give two examples Gives two examples Gives one example Gives no example or an incorrect example

9. Symptoms of postpartum depression include a mother's 1) deep sadness and 2) feelings of inadequacy, including 3) feeling burdened by baby care, 4) ignoring the baby's needs, and 5) thoughts of neglecting or hurting the infant. Possible causes include 1) hormonal changes, 2) financial stress, 3) marital problems, 4) giving birth without support, 5) birth experience differing from what was imagined, 6) infant health, feeding, or sleeping problems. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Describe the maternal symptoms of postpartum depression

Describes two of the symptoms

Describes one of the symptoms

Does not describe a symptom

Name two possible causes

Names two possible causes

Names one possible cause

Does not name a possible cause

10. In kangaroo care, mothers or fathers hold their infants to their chests skin-to-skin, allowing them to feel their body heat and listen to their heartbeats. Studies show that infants who receive kangaroo care 1) experience deeper sleep, 2) spend more time alert,

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3) gain weight more rapidly, and 4) adjust to life outside the womb more easily. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Describe kangaroo care

Describes kangaroo care as an effective means for both parents

Describes kangaroo care as if only mothers can do it

Cannot describe kangaroo care

List two benefits Lists two benefits Lists one benefit Does not list a benefit

11. The embryonic period covers the third through the eighth week of development. It is during this time that differentiation into layers occurs, leading to the formation and development of all major internal and external body systems. Although the head is too large in comparison to the rest of the body, by the end of this period, all body systems are present and functioning with the exception of sex organs. Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Weak (1-0 pts) Describe the embryonic period

States the time period and what occurs to the embryo (differentiation into layers)

States the time period or what occurs to the embryo

Cannot state the time period covered or what occurs to the embryo

Detail fetal status States that all body systems are present with the exception of sex organs

States that all body systems are present—but includes the sex organs

Does not state that all body systems are functioning

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1. During the embryonic period, the fingers form after the arms, and the toes form after the legs, reflecting the _____ pattern of development.

2. _____ is the process in which the developing organism embeds itself into the lining of the uterus.

3. A(n) _____ uses sound waves to generate an image of a fetus in utero.

4. The point at which a fetus may survive if born early is known as the age of _____.

5. The fetus usually gains at least _____ pounds in the third trimester.

6. On average, a first baby is born after _____ hours of active labor.

7. The _____ is used to assess the newborn's health at one minute and five minutes after birth.

8. A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, is referred to as a(n) _____.

9. In the United States, _____ of births occur via c-section.

10. Violeta is in labor and is using a birthing stool. This decision has been influenced by Violeta's _____.

11. The _____ is delivered during the third stage of labor.

12. The baby is delivered during the _____ stage of labor.

13. Newborn mortality is currently about 1 in _____ in the United States.

14. Most births in the United States take place in a(n) _____.

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15. In the United States, less than 1 percent of births occur at _____.

16. A woman who helps with the birth process, who is likely to arrive at the woman's home during early labor and later work alongside a hospital's staff, is called a(n) _____.

17. A(n) _____ is any agent or condition that increases the risk for prenatal abnormalities.

18. Agents and conditions that can harm the prenatal brain, impairing the future child's intellectual and emotional functioning, are called _____ teratogens.

19. Some teratogens are not harmful unless exposure reaches a certain level; this is called the _____ effect.

20. Risk of fetal _____ defects may be substantially reduced by a maternal diet adequate in folic acid.

21. Factors that contribute to the effect of a teratogen include the timing of exposure, the dose, and _____ factors.

22. A laboratory test result that reports something as false when in fact it is not false is called a(n) _____.

23. _____ is the term for a baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected, given the time since conception.

24. Sammy is 5 years old and spends his day in a wheelchair assisted by an aid. Sammy can't control any of his muscles due to brain damage. Sammy's condition has been evident since birth. Sammy has _____.

25. When Alexia was born she had a lack of oxygen for a brief amount of time. Alexia experienced _____.

26. A newborn's involuntary response to a particular stimulus is a(n) _____.

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27. When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are

demonstrating the _____ reflex.

28. A father's presence at a child's birth _____ the likelihood of birth complications.

29. Malek gained weight and experienced nausea when his wife, Elenor, was pregnant. Malek experienced _____.

30. After giving birth to her first child, Mae experienced a deep sadness that made caring for her child (and herself) difficult. Her husband noticed and called the family's doctor, who suggested Mae may have _____.

31. A(n) _____ is a commitment by both parents to cooperate in raising the child.

32. The parent–infant _____ is the strong, loving connection that forms as parents hold, examine, and feed their newborn.

33. _____ is a form of newborn care in which mothers (and sometimes fathers) rest their babies on their naked chests.

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Answer Key

1. proximodistal 2. Implantation 3. ultrasound 4. viability 5. 4.5 (4 1/2) 6. 12 7. Apgar scale (Apgar test) 8. cesarean section (c-section) (section) (cesarean) 9. one-third

10. culture 11. placenta 12. second 13. 250 14. hospital 15. home 16. doula 17. teratogen 18. behavioral 19. threshold 20. neural-tube 21. genetic 22. false negative 23. Small for gestational age 24. cerebral palsy 25. anoxia 26. reflex 27. rooting 28. reduces 29. couvade 30. postpartum depression 31. parental alliance 32. bond 33. Kangaroo care

Page 1

1. Every person starts life as a single cell called an embryo. A) True B) False

2. The first two weeks of prenatal development are called the fetal period. A) True B) False

3. Couvade is when the zygote embeds itself into the lining of the uterus. A) True B) False

4. Prenatal development follows a cephalocaudal and a proximodistal pattern. A) True B) False

5. At the end of the embryonic period, the embryo has all of the basic organs and body parts (except sex organs) of a human being. A) True B) False

6. The fetus gains about 2 pounds in the third trimester. A) True B) False

7. Birth takes place around 266 days after conception. A) True B) False

8. The Apgar scale refers to the age at which a fetus might survive if born. A) True B) False

9. A newborn's cry is assessed when assigning an Apgar score. A) True B) False

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10. The Apgar scale measures color, heart rate, cry, muscle tone, and breathing. A) True B) False

11. The rate of both cesarean sections and induced labor is declining worldwide. A) True B) False

12. Home births are more common in European nations than in the United States. A) True B) False

13. Doulas have been shown to have little benefit in helping women during the birth process. A) True B) False

14. About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens. A) True B) False

15. The effects of behavioral teratogens may last a lifetime. A) True B) False

16. Behavioral teratogens cause physical defects and brain abnormalities. A) True B) False

17. The last months of prenatal development are a critical period for body formation. A) True B) False

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18. A threshold effect means that some teratogens are virtually harmless until exposure reaches a certain level, at which point they become damaging. A) True B) False

19. Embryos exposed to large amounts of alcohol may develop fetal alcohol syndrome. A) True B) False

20. Genes can influence the effects of teratogens. A) True B) False

21. Teratogens increase the risk of harm but do not always cause damage. A) True B) False

22. Low birthweight is defined as a newborn that weighs less than 2,500 grams. A) True B) False

23. A “small for gestational age” baby means the same as an “underweight preterm” newborn. A) True B) False

24. Fathers do not seem to have any impact on birthweight outcomes. A) True B) False

25. The nations of sub-Saharan Africa have low rates of low-birthweight babies. A) True B) False

26. The term for a temporary lack of oxygen is anorexia. A) True B) False

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27. The status of the fetus, but not the status of the mother, is associated with birth

complications. A) True B) False

28. The rooting reflex helps a newborn infant find a nipple. A) True B) False

29. Birth-related complications are more likely when there is a father listed on the birth record. A) True B) False

30. Between 8 and 15 percent of all women experience postpartum depression in the days and weeks after giving birth. A) True B) False

31. The parental alliance is especially beneficial when an infant is physically vulnerable. A) True B) False

32. The strong, loving bond that forms as parents hold and feed their newborn is known as couvade. A) True B) False

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Answer Key

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A

10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. A 31. A 32. B

Page 1

1. The first two weeks of development after conception is called the _____. A) fetal period B) germinal period C) embryonic period D) implantation period

2. The stage of prenatal development that lasts from week three through eight is the _____. A) blastocyst B) embryonic C) fetal D) germinal

3. The stage of prenatal development that lasts from the ninth week after conception until birth is _____. A) fetal B) blastocyst C) embryonic D) germinal

4. The Apgar scale measures the _____. A) adequacy of prenatal growth B) duration of labor C) newborn's health following birth D) intensity of pain during labor

5. In what percentage of births in the United States are cesarean sections performed? A) 11 B) 21 C) 34 D) 41

6. A doula is a woman who _____. A) is pregnant for the first time B) helps with the birth process C) helps couples with infertility problems D) counsels women who have postpartum depression

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7. Agents and conditions that harm the prenatal brain and impair learning and behavior are called _____. A) behavioral risks B) critical risks C) primitive streaks D) behavioral teratogens

8. The likelihood of many developmental complications can be greatly reduced through _____. A) extreme exercise B) the science of risk analysis C) exposure to teratogens D) There is no way to reduce such complications

9. Moderate use of which of these substances has been associated with fetal abnormalities? A) chocolate B) tobacco C) caffeine D) trans fat

10. Low birthweight (LBW) is defined as a body weight less than _____ at birth. A) 3 pounds B) 5 1

2 pounds C) 7 pounds D) 10 pounds

11. What is anoxia? A) lack of oxygen during birth B) lack of emotional support during labor C) toxins in the bloodstream D) brain damage

12. Which term refers to an involuntary response to a particular stimulus? A) motor skill B) habit C) reflex D) symbolic representation

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13. The term couvade refers to _____. A) a male doula B) the father's experience of pregnancy C) the father's impact on a child's development D) a male birthing physician

14. When parents cooperate to raise their child, they have _____. A) lower cortisol rates B) an increase in birth hormones C) a decrease in brain activity D) formed a parental alliance

15. The strong loving connection between a parent and newborn is called the _____. A) Oedipus complex B) parent–infant bond C) love connection D) prenatal bond

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Answer Key

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. B

10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. B