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DIRECTIONS
1 Time allowed for this test is 2 hours 30 minutes.
2 There are 80 questions in this book.
3 The test contains a range of material drawn from mathematics, science, social science, and the humanities.
4 You will obtain your best possible score if you observe these points:
(a) Work carefully through the questions in the order in which they are given.
(b) Don’t waste too much time on any one question; if necessary, go on to the next question and come back to the difficult ones later.
(c) If you think you know an answer, mark it — even if you are not certain you are correct. Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
5 Each question has four alternative answers, represented by the letters A B C D. You must choose one answer from these alternatives. Having chosen, you should mark your answer correctly on the answer sheet. If you want to change an answer, follow the instructions on the answer sheet.
6 After testing, this test book must be handed in with your answer sheet.
7 Now look through this book, but don’t start writing until the supervisor tells you to do so.
ACT Scaling Test Sample Test 2005 - adapted from 2004 AST. To be used in schools in an electronic form.
Published by Australian Council for Educational Research Limited, 19 Prospect Hill Road, Camberwell, Melbourne, Victoria 3124
Candidates from Culturally and Linguistically Diverse Backgrounds Candidates who have been officially recognised as being from a Culturally and Linguistically Diverse Background were required to sit an abridged version of the test. If this situation, such candidates would omit questions 66 – 80, but would have the same time available. Please check if the policy on abridged papers still applies and if you have been so identified.
UNIT 1
Questions 1 – 3
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People born in 1978 or later are known as Generation Y because they came after Generation X, the cohort born between 1965 and 1977. Generation Y is composed mostly of the children of the Baby Boom Generation (1946 to 1964). Having grown up in an even more media-saturated, brand-conscious world than their parents, members of Generation Y respond to advertisements differently, and they prefer to encounter those advertisements in different places. The marketers that capture Generation Y’s attention do so by bringing their messages to the places these kids congregate, whether it’s the Internet, a snowboarding tournament, or cable TV. The advertisements may be funny or disarmingly direct. What they don’t do is suggest that the advertiser knows Generation Y better than these savvy consumers know themselves. This is the first generation to come along that is big enough to hurt a Baby Boomer brand simply by giving it the cold shoulder. Well-known products that have prospered by predicting and shaping popular tastes since the Baby Boomers were young simply aren’t generating the same excitement with Generation Y.
1 Generation Y is a group that
A comes immediately after the Baby Boomers. B is after both Generation X and the Baby Boomers. C comes after the Baby Boomers but before Generation X. D are the children of the cohort born between 1965 and 1977.
2 The passage suggests that members of Generation Y
A are too materialistic. B are easily manipulated by advertising. C have a discerning attitude towards advertising and material possessions. D are similar to their parents in regard to advertising and material possessions.
3 Generation Y ‘responds to advertisements differently’ (line 5) because its members
A have no respect for the media. B have a high level of respect for the media. C believe they are misrepresented in the media. D understand the nature of the media focus on them.
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UNIT 2
4 The cartoon suggests that the program ‘All about the Media’ will be
A amateurish. B well-informed. C self-indulgent. D unsympathetic.
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UNIT 3
Questions 5 – 8
The figure below is a block diagram of a section of the Earth’s crust. The kinds of rock shown include:
● sedimentary rocks, such as mudstone, sandstone, limestone and cobblestone, which were originally deposited on the sea-floor, and later uplifted and squeezed into folds;
● molten material forced upwards (from below the sedimentary layers in this case) that cooled to a solid form, such as granite, which solidified beneath the surface, and basalt, which poured out of a volcano onto the surface; and
● rock baked by the molten granite, such as marble, which is baked limestone.
A fault is a crack along which one section of crust has moved past another. For the following, assume that the sedimentary layers are in the same order in which they formed (e.g. they were not flipped upside down).
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5 Which of the following is the order in which the sedimentary rocks were deposited on the sea-floor?
A cobblestone, limestone, sandstone, mudstone B cobblestone, limestone, mudstone, sandstone C mudstone, sandstone, limestone, cobblestone D mudstone, sandstone, mudstone, cobblestone
6 What kind of rock is the section represented by the ???s most likely to be?
A cobblestone B limestone C mudstone D marble
7 After the George River crosses the fault, what are the rocks, in order, that it cuts through in a horizontal line across the surface?
A mudstone, sandstone, limestone, cobblestone B mudstone, sandstone, marble, sandstone, mudstone C mudstone, sandstone, limestone, sandstone, mudstone D mudstone, sandstone, limestone, marble, sandstone, mudstone
8 On the basis of the information provided, which one of the following statements is most supported by evidence?
Basalt first poured out of the volcano
A after the fault occurred. B before the granite solidified. C after the granite solidified. D after the sedimentary rocks had been folded.
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UNIT 4
Questions 9 – 12
The following table is from a book about web ‘usability’.
Site version
Sample paragraph
Usability improvement
(relative to the control condition)
Promotional writing (control condition) Uses the ‘market-ese’ found on many commercial websites
Nebraska is filled with internationally recognised attractions that draw large crowds of people every year, without fail. In 1996, some of the most popular places were Fort Robinson State Park (355,000 visitors), Scotts Bluff National Monument (132,166), Arbor Lodge State Historical Park & Museum (100,000), Carhenge (86,598), Stuhr Museum of the Prairie Pioneer (60,002), and Buffalo Bill Ranch State Historical Park (28,446).
0% better (this was the control condition)
Concise text About half the word count as the control condition
In 1996, six of the best-attended attractions in Nebraska were Fort Robinson State Park, Scotts Bluff National Monument, Arbor Lodge State Historical Park & Museum, Carhenge, Stuhr Museum of the Prairie Pioneer, and Buffalo Bill Ranch State Historical Park.
58% better
Scannable layout Uses the same text as the control condition in a layout that facilitated scanning
Nebraska is filled with internationally recognised attractions that draw large crowds of people every year, without fail. In 1996, some of the most popular places were: • Fort Robinson State Park (355,000 visitors) • Scotts Bluff National Monument (132,166) • Arbor Lodge State Historical Park & Museum
(100,000) • Carhenge (86,598) • Stuhr Museum of the Prairie Pioneer (60,002) • Buffalo Bill Ranch State Historical Park (28,446)
47% better
Objective language Uses neutral rather than subjective, boastful, or exaggerated language (otherwise, the same as the control condition)
Nebraska has several attractions. In 1996, some of the most-visited places were Fort Robinson State Park (355,000 visitors), Scotts Bluff National Monument (132,166), Arbor Lodge State Historical Park & Museum (100,000), Carhenge (86,598), Stuhr Museum of the Prairie Pioneer (60,002), and Buffalo Bill Ranch State Historical Park (28,446).
27% better
Combined version Uses all three improvements in writing style: concise text, scannable layout, and objective language
In 1996, six of the most-visited places in Nebraska were: • Fort Robinson State Park • Scotts Bluff National Monument • Arbor Lodge State Historical Park & Museum • Carhenge • Stuhr Museum of the Prairie Pioneer • Buffalo Bill Ranch State Historical Park
124% better
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9 The author considers the phrase ‘most-visited places’ to be an example of
A neutral language. B boastful language. C promotional writing. D exaggerated language.
10 According to the table, a passage is made easier to scan by
A omitting unnecessary text. B starting every sentence on a new line. C reducing the overall number of words. D placing elements within a list on different lines.
11 The method of calculation of the ‘usability improvement’ percentages for each version is
A not specified but must be different for each version. B based solely on the reduction in the number of lines. C based solely on the reduction in the number of words. D not specified and cannot be determined from the information supplied.
12 Compared to the original text, the Combined version is
A less accurate. B more accurate. C less informative. D more informative.
7
UNIT 5
Questions 13 – 15
At a school, there is a race between three students at lunchtime. After lunch, one student in one class (Jeff) knows the result but no one else in that class knows. The students in the class try to guess the order of the runners at the end of the race. As indicated in Table 1, one person makes a guess (First Guess, I) that the order was Ewing, Franco, Gustafson. However, Jeff correctly says that for this guess, no runner is in the right place. Another person makes a guess (Second Guess, II). This time, one runner is in the right place but no runner immediately follows the person who was actually immediately in front of them at the end of the race (immediate predecessor). The people in the class make four other guesses: III, IV, V, VI.
Table 1
Other Guesses First Guess
(I)
Second Guess
(II) III IV V VI
First Ewing Ewing Gustafson Franco Gustafson Franco
Second Franco Gustafson Franco Ewing Ewing Gustafson
Third Gustafson Franco Ewing Gustafson Franco Ewing
Clue from Jeff
• No one in right place
• One runner in right place
• No one immediately follows immediate predecessor
? ? ? ?
13 Which of the other four guesses could be correct if just the clue given by Jeff in relation to the First Guess is considered (that no one is in the right place)?
A III, IV, V and VI C V and VI only B IV, V and VI only D VI only
14 On the basis of all three of Jeff’s clues, which of the four other guesses could be correct?
A V and VI only B IV and VI only C IV and V only D None of the above, or there is insufficient information to decide between A, B and C.
15 If there were four runners, how many possible orders are there?
A 8 C 16 B 12 D 24
8
UNIT 6
Questions 16 – 19
Magicicada tredecim and Magicicada septendecim are two species of periodic cicada (a type of insect). Periodic cicadas live most of their lives underground, emerging after a certain number of years to breed. When the adults of these two species breed, they produce young that live totally underground for 13 years and 17 years, respectively, until they emerge as adults. The adults breed and die within a few weeks.
16 Suppose the Magicicada tredecim and Magicicada septendecim cicadas in an area breed at the same time.
For the cicadas in this area, which one of the following statements is most consistent with the information provided?
After the breeding,
A Magicicada tredecim adults will next breed at the same time as Magicicada septendecim adults.
B Magicicada septendecim adults will next breed before Magicicada tredecim adults. C Magicicada septendecim cicadas will emerge before Magicicada tredecim cicadas. D Magicicada tredecim cicadas will emerge before Magicicada septendecim cicadas.
17 Suppose that Species X and Species Y are periodic cicadas that emerge every 4 and 6 years respectively. Assume that the two species emerge in the same year.
How many years is it before the two species next emerge in the same year?
A 4 years C 20 years B 12 years D 24 years
18 Assume that Magicicada tredecim and Magicicada septendecim cicadas in an area emerge together in the same year.
How many years is it before the two species in the area next emerge in the same year?
A 17 years C 153 years B 51 years D 221 years
19 Suppose that in an area Magicicada septendecim cicadas emerged in the year 2000, and Magicicada tredecim cicadas emerged in the year 1999.
In what year will both species next emerge in the area?
A 2016 C 2051 B 2029 D 2221
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UNIT 7 Questions 20 − 22
Below are translations by six different authors of a short poem called a haiku by the Japanese poet Basho.
The Autumn Crow by Basho
I On a withered bough A crow has stopped to perch And autumn darkens.
II Bare, barren branch on Which a crow has alighted: autumn Nightfall darkening.
III A black crow Has settled himself On a leafless tree, Fall of an autumn day.
IV A branch shorn of leaves A crow perching on it – This autumn eve.
V Autumn evening: on a withered bough A solitary crow is sitting now.
VI On a dead limb squats a crow autumn night.
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20 In which one of the following translations is the language least dignified?
A III B V C IV D VI
21 Which one of the following translations attempts to give the most direct record of the experience?
A VI B IV C III D II
22 Which one of the following translations has the least ominous undertones?
A I B III C II D IV
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UNIT 8
Questions 23 – 26
In the following text a writer comments on a television program called Buffy the Vampire Slayer in which a young woman with supernatural powers fights against evil.
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Buffy, then, is a consciously ‘feminist’ show. But ‘feminism’ encompasses many different political perspectives, from the conservative to the revolutionary. So just what kind of feminism is John Whedon, the creator of Buffy, selling?
The difficulty with celebrating Buffy as a ‘transgressive woman warrior’ is that in many ways the show merely reaffirms race, class and gender hierarchies. Buffy is young, white, blonde, beautiful, and she has become progressively (even alarmingly) thinner with each season. While many feminist writings on Buffy the Vampire Slayer tend to focus on whether Buffy’s appearance negates the show’s feminism, it is worth looking past Sarah Geller’s1 cleavage to ogle the demons she fights. Clearly Buffy is a busy woman. Even though she has a relatively privileged socio-economic background, her experience is not unlike that of most women. Buffy’s experience reflects the insecurity of neoliberal2 labour markets characterized by shifts to part-time and temporary work, low wages, lower rates of unionisation, and a corresponding insecurity for workers that disproportionately affects women. Overall, the show recognises that there is more to fighting women’s oppression than a good right hook and a cute outfit. Women face demons in many forms, from misogyny to patriarchal social institutions and alienating working conditions. It is also clear that these problems can only be addressed by targeting social institutions that perpetuate male power and violence. Through these battles with evil, the Buffy characters strive to create a better and safer world for all. Unfortunately, the show’s vision of a better world fails to substantively address race, class, ability, and other hierarchies. Though, given the options, Buffy the Vampire Slayer remains one of the most interesting and, ironically, realistic shows on television. 1 Sarah Geller: Sarah Michele Geller, the actor who plays Buffy 2 A view of economics that promotes free markets
23 The writer views neoliberalism (line 12) as
A a kind of evil. B a force for good. C both good and evil. D neither good nor evil.
12
24 The tone of voice and the attitude of the following statement:
Overall, the show recognizes that there is more to fighting women’s oppression than a good right hook and a cute outfit. (lines 15 and 16)
is best described as
A angry dismissal. B amused tolerance. C sarcastic dismissal. D moral endorsement.
25 The writer sees Buffy the Vampire Slayer as
A realistic in that it avoids fantasy. B fantasy in that it involves the supernatural. C fantasy in that it avoids real social problems. D realistic in that it reflects actual social problems.
26 The writer sees Buffy the Vampire Slayer as
A not giving a realistic view of the world. B not recognizing real problems in the world. C giving an unrealistic view of a better world. D not giving an adequate view of a better world.
13
UNIT 9
Questions 27 – 30
As a tree grows, it forms growth rings in its wood. One ring is added each year. Figure 1 represents a section of wood from a five-year old tree. The rings vary in thickness, depending on the growing conditions in the year. When growth is rapid, the rings are thick; in years of poor growth, the rings are thin. It is possible to match up the tree-ring patterns of different trees of the same type from the same area.
Figure 1
Figure 2 shows matched tree-ring patterns from three trees of the same type that grew in the same area. Each section covers the full life of the tree. The section from the living tree was taken at the end of 2003.
Figure 2
For this unit, assume that:
● the oldest ring of each section is on the left and that each ring represents a full calendar year; ● trees that the sections came from are of the same type and grew in the same area.
27 When were all three trees alive at the same time?
A only in 1983 B 1983 – 1991 C 1971 – 2003 D at no time
14
Questions 28 – 30 refer to the following additional information:
Amanda is trying to find out how many droughts occurred during a certain time span in the area of her farm. She has four tree-ring sections from trees from her farm (Figure 3), but these have not yet been matched up. She knows that:
• the sections form an overlapping sequence that covers the time span; • each section does not necessarily cover the entire life of the tree; • a frost year causes a distinct tree-ring ; • there was only one frost year during the time span; • aside from frost years, the narrowest rings indicate drought years.
Figure 3
28 What is the total number of years covered by the tree-ring sections in Figure 3?
A 24 B 26 C 28 D 36
29 Sometimes droughts occurred in two or more successive years.
Over the time span covered by the four tree-ring sections, how many such periods were there?
A 2 B 4 C 6 D 8
30 Over the time span covered by the four tree-ring sections, how many drought years were there?
A 7 B 11 C 13 D 17
15
UNIT 10
Questions 31 – 34
Figure 1 shows six nodes (small circles) with interconnecting lines. The shaded circle is a node with five lines connecting it to other nodes. It is therefore known as a five-degree node.
Figure 1
31 In Figure 1, how many nodes are four-degree or more?
A two B three C four D five
32 What is the number of straight lines needed to connect four nodes when each pair of nodes is connected by just one line?
A four B five C six D eight
33 What is the number of straight lines needed to connect five nodes when each pair of nodes is connected by just one line?
A five B six C eight D ten
16
Question 34 refers to the following additional information:
Two graphs are isomorphous if their patterns of connection are the same (i.e. each graph has the same number of nodes of each degree), regardless of the actual shapes of the graphs.
34 Which one of these graphs is isomorphous to the graph in Figure 1?
17
UNIT 11
Questions 35 – 38
The following passage is from an Australian novel set in the 1990s. The speaker is a university student and she remembers the one meeting between her mother and her boyfriend, Wil. The speaker, Wil and some other friends were preparing at that time for an overseas trip. The mother had travelled widely when she was young, and she wanted to meet Wil before they left. The mother died before her daughter returned from the trip.
PASSAGE
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25
30
35
I could almost see Mum approving Wil’s approving. Sometimes I feel those two have me caught in a pincer movement. There’s no doubt that they liked each other. They met only once, but she seemed to like him spontaneously, as well as doing her maddening assessment act on him and telling me afterwards that he had a well-shaped head, and well-set ears, and candid eyes and so on. It was one of those occasions I remember clearly. Wil and I had been lovers for months, but it wasn’t until our journey looked feasible at last that parents were brought into it. So that was his first (and only) visit. We had tea at the big table on the verandah, on the end that wasn’t occupied by gardening gear, and Mum and Wil were doing most of the talking, mainly about travel, Wil saying how tough it was to choose a destination, because to choose one meant to abandon another, and Mum claiming as a consolation that only the places we fail to reach remain intact. They retain, she said, their ideal essence. Wil liked Mum, too, though he said he hadn’t imagined her like that. As I walked those blocks of the street with him, he kept giving me little fresh alert glances, as if seeing her had made him see me in a new light. He said he had known she was quite old, and had that marvellous tall figure, but that he hadn’t imagined her as so pedantic. Well, he said, almost prim. I said she wasn’t prim, but had a kind of scrupulousness that could be off-putting. I also said that one day, he would see that she could burst into such wild and funny moods that she didn’t seem like the same person. But as it happened, he never saw her like that. And as it happened, neither did I, again. I suppose I was pleased they liked each other, and kept asking me questions, but sometimes it made me a bit hostile, or impatient. He asked why, with her intelligence, and the money in the family, she wasn’t equipped to do more interesting work than copying. And I had to explain that in the fifties it was fairly common for girls to get hooked on travel, really addicted, and just to become hot-shot typists and work their way round the world. And now, I said, she loved the freedom of working in her own time and her own way and her own clothes, and wouldn’t change it for anything. That’s what she had told me, and that’s what I passed on to Wil when he asked. And when she said, about him, that though he was so conspicuously handsome, he did have, slightly, ever so slightly, the worn look she had seen in very young fishermen and farm labourers in poor countries, I had to explain that as the eldest child, he had played a part in his parents’ climbing back in, and about the paper deliveries, and all that. And she said, well, that worn look was reversible, sounding so soothing that I had to say coldly that I didn’t mind in the least if it wasn’t. She was right. It was reversible. But because she pointed it out, I occasionally see evidence of it. I have never mentioned it to him, of course. I’ve never told him how much I like this difference between him and those guys who have always lived the Fat Life, which is, of course, another of her terms.
18
35 Wil sees the mother as
A formal and solemn. B casual and relaxed. C anxious and insecure. D arrogant and self-satisfied.
36 The questions the mother and Wil ask about each other sometimes made the speaker ‘a bit hostile and impatient’ (line 23) because the questions
A show a lack of concern for her. B show a lack sympathy for each other. C cause confusion and misunderstanding. D focus on things she would rather not recognise.
37 The speaker responds ‘coldly’ to her mother’s comment about Wil’s look being ‘reversible’ (line 34) because she
A thinks it a harsh judgement. B can see no imperfection in Wil. C knows the comment is inaccurate. D resents the suggestion of motherly soothing.
38 The speaker’s final comment about the ‘Fat Life’ (lines 38 and 39) suggests
A the way she differs from her mother. B the way her mother has influenced her. C her indifference to her mother’s views. D her misunderstanding of her mother’s views.
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UNIT 12
Questions 39 – 41
To estimate how much water she uses, Janice looked at her water bill (Figure 1). The bill shows her average daily water usage in litres (L), each quarter for 15 months. A quarter is three calendar months, which is about 90 days. For example, the quarter designated as April 01 in the figure covers April, May and June in 2001.
Figure 1
39 The volume of water used by Janice in the April 02 quarter is closest to
A 1000 L. B 3000 L. C 90 000 L. D 100 000 L.
20
Questions 40 and 41 refer to the following additional information:
Janice considers collecting rainwater from her roof into storage tanks. Where Janice lives the average annual rainfall is 500 millimetres (mm).
• If all 500 mm of rain fell at once and did not soak in or flow away, water would cover the ground to a depth of 500 mm (i.e. 0.5 metres).
• 1 mm of rain produces 1 litre (L) of water per square metre of roof that can run off into storage tanks.
• Assume the roofs of Janice’s house and carport are flat, and virtually horizontal, and there is no water loss (e.g. by evaporation).
• 1 cubic metre = 1000 litres Figure 2 shows the roof plan of her house.
Figure 2
40 After 10 mm of rain, the maximum volume of water that could run off the roof of the house and carport combined is
A 440 L. C 4400 L. B 2200 L. D 22 000 L.
41 Suppose all the rain that fell on the roofs of Janice’s house and carport ran into her storage tanks.
How much water is this for an average year?
A 100 000 L B 110 000 L C 220 000 L D 110 000 000 L
21
UNIT 13 Questions 42 – 45
In researching the history of an island, Paul finds some old records about the people living in the eight villages on the island a century ago. From the records, he is able to work out the following:
● four of the villages were on the coast and the other four were in highland areas; ● 350 of the people had brown hair and the rest black hair; ● 400 of the people were non-vegetarian and the rest were vegetarian.
Also, he found a page with the following. Some numbers he could not read are indicated by a ‘?’:
Village I: highland, 50 people, all of whom were vegetarian and had brown hair
Village II: highland, 50 people, all of whom were non-vegetarian and had brown hair
Village III: highland, 20 people, all of whom were vegetarian and had black hair
Village IV: highland, ? people, all of whom were non-vegetarian and had black hair
Village V: coast, 170 people, all of whom were non-vegetarian and had black hair
Village VI: coast, 150 people, all of whom were non-vegetarian and had brown hair
Village VII: coast, ? people, all of whom were vegetarian and had black hair
Village VIII: coast, ? people, all of whom were vegetarian and had brown hair
42 Of the highland people, the greatest number were
A vegetarian. B non-vegetarian. C black-haired. D brown-haired.
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43 How many people were in Village IV?
A 30 B 170 C 230 D There is insufficient information to determine this.
44 How many people were in Village VIII?
A 50 B 100 C 150 D There is insufficient information to determine this.
45 If the total number of people on the island had been 850, altogether how many were vegetarian and had black hair?
A 300 B 280 C 180 D There is insufficient information to determine this.
23
UNIT 14
Questions 46 and 47
Passage 1 and Figure 1 provide descriptive and statistical information about asylum-seekers from Afghanistan over the years between 1993 – 2002.
Passage 1
During the decade up to the end of 2001, the number of Afghan asylum-seekers spreading outside the immediate region climbed dramatically, especially during the last five years. As conditions in Afghanistan spiralled downwards, the refugees in neighbouring countries lost hope of ever being able to return home, and simultaneously felt increasingly insecure in their first countries of asylum. In all, during 2001, Afghans applied for asylum in at least 76 countries across the world, including countries as diverse as Brazil, the Ivory Coast, Cuba and Singapore. Europe, in particular, saw a sharp increase in numbers, with arrivals more than doubling over the past two years, as Afghans rose to become the single largest group in Europe.
Figure 1
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46 According to Passage 1 there was a dramatic increase in ‘the number of Afghan asylum-seekers spreading outside of the immediate region in the decade up to the end of 2001’.
One of the key reasons given for this trend is that
A the countries in this region mounted a war against Afghanistan. B the asylum-seekers felt unwelcome in the countries to which they had initially fled. C Afghanistan experienced an explosion in its population, resulting in overcrowding. D more resources became available for the asylum-seekers to travel beyond their region.
47 According to Figure 1, between 1993 and 2001, the average monthly number of Afghan asylum claims lodged in Europe increased
A by 12%. B to 3,000. C by over 3,000. D more than six-fold.
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UNIT 15
Questions 48 – 51
The following argument map offers a range of arguments about a proposition.
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48 Which of the following accurately describes the structure of the argument map?
A Rebuttals deny the proposition. B Objections deny the proposition. C Each Objection rebuts a Reason. D Each Reason rebuts an Objection.
49 Which one of the following is best described as a moral statement?
A Objection 1 B Objection 2 C Objection 3 D Objection 4
50 Which one of the following is best described as statement that can be explored as a matter of fact?
A Objection 2 B Objection 3 C Objection 4 D Objection 5
51 Which one of the following makes the most effective challenge to Reason 4?
Immigration should increase, which will result in population increase.
Reason 4
A makes an appeal to emotion rather than reason. B makes an appeal to reason that ignores emotion. C offers a logical result but it is not a reason for wanting that result. D offers a reason for doing something that will not logically produce a result.
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UNIT 16
Questions 52 – 56
Objects in the night sky, such as stars and planets, vary in brightness. Astronomers indicate brightness with a magnitude number. The range of magnitudes of objects in the night sky as observed from Earth (apparent magnitude) varies from the faintest object visible with a telescope (which has a magnitude of about 27) to the brightest object visible, the Moon (which has a magnitude of about –12). Note that, the higher the magnitude, the lower the observed brightness of the object from Earth. On a clear night, people with normal eyesight can just see objects with a magnitude of 6. Objects with a magnitude of 0, or less, appear very bright.
• Unless stated otherwise, questions in this unit refer to apparent magnitude and brightness (i.e. as observed from Earth).
52 According to the information provided, which one of the following statements is most reasonable?
A The brighter an object as observed from Earth, the larger it must be. B The brighter an object as observed from Earth, the closer it must be to the Earth. C As a magnitude 6 comet moves toward the Earth, its apparent magnitude decreases. D As a magnitude 6 comet moves toward the Earth, its apparent magnitude does not change.
Questions 53 – 56 refer to the following additional information:
Difference in
magnitude 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Table 1 is used by astronomers to relate the difference in magnitude (apparent) of two objects to their relative brightness (for a person viewing from Earth). If one object has a magnitude of 1 less than another, it is 2.5 times as bright.
To compare the brightness of two objects using Table 1, first find the difference in their magnitudes. For example, if Star α is magnitude 5 and Star β is magnitude 3, their difference in magnitude is 2. This means their difference in brightness is 6.3. Star β is 6.3 times brighter than Star α. One value in Table 1, represented as x, is missing.
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Table 1
Relative brightness
objectfainter objectbrighter
1.0 2.5 6.3
15.8 39.8
x 251.1 630.9
1584.8 3 981.0
10 000.0 25 118. 8 63 095.7
158 489.3 398 107.1
1 000 000.0
53 Star X has a magnitude of 6 and Star Y has a magnitude of 5 .
This means that, compared with Star X, Star Y is
A 2.5 times as bright. B 1/2.5 times as bright. C 251.1 times as bright. D 1/251.1 times as bright.
54 What is the magnitude of a star that is 10 000 times brighter than one with magnitude 11?
A 1 B 7 C 15 D 21
55 Absolute magnitude refers to brightness that would be observed from Earth if all objects were a certain constant distance from the Earth. Consider the following data for two stars.
Star Apparent Magnitude Absolute Magnitude
Canopus –0.7 –2.5
Rigil –0.3 4.4
Based just on this information, which one of the following can be correctly concluded?
A Canopus is actually less bright than Rigil. B Canopus is actually further from Earth than Rigil. C Rigil is actually further from Earth than Canopus. D Rigil is actually brighter than Canopus when viewed from Earth.
56 The Moon has a magnitude of –12. The brightest quasar (a distant space object) has a magnitude of 12.
The difference in brightness between them is closest to
A 40 000 times. B 400 000 times. C 400 000 000 times. D 4 000 000 000 times.
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UNIT 17 Questions 57 – 60
Proofreading is the reading and correcting of drafts of writing, prior to them being published. There are standard proofreading marks used by all editors, to correct the text which is to be published. Each correction is made by placing a special mark in the margin, on the line where the correction is to be made. This is called the marginal mark. A corresponding mark is made in the actual text, at the point where the correction is to be made. This is called the textual mark. Figure 1 shows a table of these standard proofreading marks.
Figure 1
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57 What information do textual marks give about changes to be made to the text?
A They always show the exact position of the change, and sometimes specify the nature of the change.
B They sometimes show the exact position of the change to be made, and always specify the nature of the change.
C They sometimes show the exact position of the change to be made, and sometimes specify the nature of the change.
D They always shows the exact position of the change to be made, and always specify the nature of the change.
58 Which one of the following textual marks conveys enough information for the correction to be made without reference to the marginal mark?
Textual mark number
A 1 B 2 C 15 D 19
59 All of the following EXCEPT one are used to indicate a section of written text which is to be altered. Which one?
A ≡ C ○
B D
60 A proofreader used the marginal mark , referring to the word James, in the text. On the basis of the information given in Figure 1, it can be inferred that the corrected version of the text would read
A James’ C James1 B ‘James’ D James 1
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UNIT 18
Questions 61 – 64
In the following text a political philosopher responds to the question ‘Under what conditions, if any, can violent action be said to be legitimate?’
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10
15
20
My general feeling is that this kind of question can’t be answered in a meaningful way when it’s abstracted from the context of particular historical concrete circumstances. Any rational person would agree that violence is not legitimate unless the consequences of such action are to eliminate a still greater evil. Now there are people of course who go much further and say that one must oppose violence in general, quite apart from any possible consequences. I think that such a person is asserting one of two things. Either he’s saying that the resort to violence is illegitimate even if the consequences are to eliminate a greater evil; or he’s saying that under no conceivable circumstances will the consequences ever be such as to eliminate a greater evil. The second of these is a factual assumption and it’s almost certainly false. One can easily imagine and find circumstances in which violence does eliminate a greater evil. As to the first, it’s a kind of irreducible moral judgment that one should not resort to violence even if it would eliminate a greater evil. And these judgments are very hard to argue. I can only say that to me it seems like an immoral judgment. Now there is a tendency to assume that a stand based on an absolute moral judgment shows high principle in a way that’s not shown in a stand taken on what are disparagingly referred to as ‘tactical grounds’. I think this is a pretty dubious assumption. If tactics involve a calculation of the human cost of various actions, then tactical considerations are actually the only considerations that have a moral quality to them. So I can’t accept a general and absolute opposition to violence, only that resort to violence is illegitimate unless the consequences are to eliminate a greater evil.
61 In calling a moral judgment ‘irreducible’ (line 12) the speaker suggests it is a
A cause rather than a consequence. B consequence rather than a cause. C a matter of belief rather than argument. D a matter of argument rather than belief.
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62 The speaker sees an ‘absolute moral judgment’ (line 15) about violence as
A a matter of group agreement. B inferior to specific judgments. C superior to specific judgments. D a matter of individual conscience.
63 The speaker believes that
A assumptions must be matters of fact. B assumptions cannot be matters of fact. C a smaller evil can eliminate a greater evil. D a smaller evil cannot eliminate a greater evil.
64 The speaker sees opposition to ‘violence in general, quite apart from any possible consequences’ (lines 5 and 6) as
A moral. B amoral. C immoral. D both moral and immoral.
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UNIT 19
The painting below by Jeffrey Smart is called Truck and Trailer Approaching a City.
65 This painting gives the impression that the truck is
A clumsy and ugly. B substantial and powerful. C tedious and commonplace. D sophisticated and complicated.
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UNIT 20
Questions 66 – 69
Water-Rite makes control systems for automatically watering plants. These systems are controlled by electronic components. In the case illustrated in Figure 1, the Water-Rite system is designed to turn on the water sprinkling system only when the soil is dry and it is dark (e.g. at night or when it is cloudy). In this system there are two sensors. The soil moisture sensor sends electric current along a wire when the soil is dry. The sunlight sensor sends electric current along a wire when conditions are bright and sunny. Of the four electronic components labelled I — IV, two are logic gates. A logic gate may have electric current flowing into or out of it, or both. The output from a logic gate depends on the input and the type of gate. Of the two logic gates, one is an AND gate, one is a NOT gate. For the two components that are not logic gates, electric current flows straight through them (though the electric current may be increased).
An AND logic gate has two inputs and one output. Only when the gate has current entering from both inputs will current flow from the gate’s output.
A NOT logic gate has one input and one output. The output is opposite to the input. For example, if no current is the input into the gate, the output is current out of the gate.
Figure 1
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66 If the system is operating properly as described, current would flow to IV only when the soil is
A dry, and it is dark. B wet, and it is sunny. C either wet or dry, and it is sunny. D either dry or wet, and it is dark.
67 For this system to work as described,
A I is a NOT gate and III is an AND gate. B II is a NOT gate and III is an AND gate. C II is an AND gate and III is a NOT gate. D III is an AND gate and IV is a NOT gate.
Question 68 refers to the following additional information:
An OR logic gate has two inputs and one output. When current flows into either of the two inputs, or into both, current will flow from the gate’s output.
68 Suppose the system is working properly as described in relation to Figure 1. Component III is then replaced with an OR gate with no other changes.
As a result, current would not flow to IV when it is
A wet and sunny. B wet and dark. C dry and sunny. D dry and dark.
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Question 69 refers to the following additional information:
A NOR gate has two inputs and one output. Current flows from the gate’s output only when current does not flow into either input.
A NAND gate has two inputs and one output. Current flows from the gate’s output at all times except when current flows into both inputs.
69 Suppose II is the NOT gate for the system described in Figure 1.
For the system to work properly as described in relation to Figure 1, with no other changes, the AND gate could be replaced with
A an OR gate. B a NOR gate. C a NAND gate. D none of the above gates.
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UNIT 21
The painting on the opposite page is by the 20th century American artist Edward Hopper and is called ‘Conference at Night’.
70 Some viewers have suggested that this painting depicts people on the wrong side of the law.
Which one of the following comments is both true, and plausibly supports this view?
A The characters are meeting at night in an apparently little-used, unlit room. B The room’s furniture is shabby, and the characters look poor and desperate. C The characters are leaning towards each other in an intimate and conspiratorial manner. D The severe contours of the woman’s face and dress are contrasted with the more flexible lines of the seated figure.
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UNIT 22
Questions 71 – 75
The following is adapted from an article in a magazine. Debate continues in a long-running dispute over the authenticity of a medieval map (the Vinland Map) drawn on parchment showing Greenland and North America. The map surfaced in 1957, when it was offered for sale bound with an authentic 15th-century manuscript called Tartar Relation. The British Museum declined to buy the map after its keeper of manuscripts, Bertram Schofield, concluded it was a fake. But philanthropist Paul Mellon bought it for $300,000. The Vinland Map appears to be a German 15th-century* copy of a 13th-century* original. If genuine, central Europeans must have known of visits to America long before Columbus set sail. In 1995, scientists cut a sliver of parchment from the edge of the map for carbon dating. After a lengthy analysis, Jacqueline Olin of the Smithsonian Institute in Washington DC, concluded that the parchment probably dates from within 11 years of 1434. In 1973, Chicago-based microscopist Walter McCrone found signs of anatase, a form of titanium dioxide first produced in the 1920s, in ink residues on the map. In a second study released last week, Robin Clark of University College London confirmed the finding. He also found the ink contains carbon black, which was used in medieval times. Most of the black has flaked off, leaving yellow lines containing anatase. Clark suggests a modern forger drew the yellow lines to simulate ageing, then added the carbon black. The age of the parchment doesn’t impress Clark. ‘Any possible forger would have to be nuts not to use an old parchment,’ he says. Nor is Olin persuaded by the ink evidence. She thinks deterioration of medieval ink over time could leave yellow titanium residues. Paul Saenger of the Newberry Library in Chicago thinks the map is fake because there are mistakes in the Latin writing on the map, and because it’s oriented to the north. Other medieval maps are oriented toward the east.
• The 15th century is between 1400 and 1499 and the 13th century is between 1200 and 1299.
71 A major aspect of the debate is whether the Vinland Map dates from the
A 13th or 15th century. B 13th century or is modern. C 15th century or is modern. D time of Christopher Columbus’s discovery of America.
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72 Which one of the following most suggests that the map is a modern fake?
A The ink contains carbon black. B The map is not oriented to the east. C Old ink could have left a yellow titanium residue. D The parchment probably dates from within 11 years of 1434.
73 Which one of the following is the best evidence that the map could be from the 15th century?
A The date of the parchment. B The carbon black flakes off. C Old inks may leave yellow residues. D It was bound with an authentic document.
74 Of the following, the members of which pair are most likely to agree about the age and authenticity of the map?
A McCrone and Mellon B Schofield and Olin C Olin and Clark D Mellon and Olin
75 Which one of the following properly evaluates the significance of the carbon black in the ink?
A It proves the map is fake. B It proves the map is genuine. C It shows the anatase could have come from medieval ink that deteriorated. D None of A, B or C.
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UNIT 23
Questions 76 – 80
The Mirror
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10
15
I am silver and exact, I have no preconceptions. Whatever I see I swallow immediately Just as it is, unmisted by love or dislike. I am not cruel, only truthful – The eye of a little god, four-cornered. Most of the time, I meditate on the opposite wall. It is pink, with speckles. I have looked at it so long I think it is part of my heart. But it flickers. Faces and darkness separate us over and over. Now I am a lake. A woman bends over me, Searching my reaches for what she really is. Then she turns to those liars, the candles or the moon. I see her back, and reflect it faithfully, She rewards me with tears and an agitation of hands. I am important to her. She comes and goes. Each morning it is her face that replaces the darkness. In me she has drowned a young girl, and in me an old woman Rises toward her day after day, like a terrible fish.
Sylvia Plath
76 Personification is a device used by writers whereby human characteristics are given to non-human beings, or objects.
In the poem, the human quality that the mirror is depicted as having is
A pity. B sympathy. C sensitivity. D indifference.
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77 The words ‘unmisted by love or dislike’ (line 3) have a similar meaning to
A ‘I am silver and exact’ (line 1). B ‘I am important to her’ (line 15). C ‘I am not cruel, only truthful’ (line 4). D ‘I meditate on the opposite wall’ (line 6).
78 The mirror likens itself to a ‘lake’ (line 10) in the second verse because
A lakes and mirrors are the same. B the mirror sees itself as deep and powerful. C the mirror sees itself as a comforting presence. D a lake is also a naturally occurring phenomenon.
79 The word ‘faithfully’ in line 13 is used
A kindly. B cruelly. C literally. D symbolically.
80 The poet uses the word ‘rewards’ in line 14
A scornfully. B dejectedly. C honestly. D joyfully.
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ACKNOWLEDGMENTS: Addison-Wesley for the extract from ‘The End of Science – Facing the Limits of Knowledge in the Twilight of the Scientific Age’ by J. Horgan; Art Gallery of New South Wales for ‘Truck and Trailer Approaching a City’ by Jeffrey Smart; Austhink: critical thinking at work for the population debate; Faber and Faber for ‘The Mirror from Collected Poems of Silvia Plath’; Jeff Hecht for the extract from ‘Jury still out over the Vinland Map’, New Scientist, 10 August, 2002; McGraw-Hill for extract from ‘The Legitimacy of Violence as a Political Act?’ by N. Chomsky in Dissent, Power, and Confrontation; New Riders Publishing for extract from ‘Designing Web Usability’ by J. Nielsen; New Scientist for the extract from ‘Lights, sound, action!’, New Scientist, 24 April, 1999; Penguin Books for extract from ‘One of the Wattle Birds’ by J. Anderson; Phoenix House for extract from ‘An Equal Music’ by V. Seth; The New Socialist Magazine for extract from ‘Ghoul Power: Buffy the Vampire Slayer Sticks it to the System’ by J. Esmonde; The New Yorker for Sipress cartoon; Todtri for ‘Conference at Night’ by E. Hopper.
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