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Set]\" o. 1 Question Booklet No. 00996
12P/207/31 (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ball-point pen)
Roll :>io.1 L-~-L~ __ ~-L~ __ ~~
Roll ;0(0. (Write the digits in words) .. " ............................................................................................ .
Serial No. of Answer Sheet ............................................. . . ......................................... . Day and Date ..........•......................................................... ( Signature of Invigilator)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Cse only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) 1. Within 10 minutes afthe issue ofthe Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it
contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In caSe of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the SuperintendentJlnvigiiators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet.
2. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hal1 except the Admit Card witlrout its envelope.
3. A ,fJepar4te Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provitle{i. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated.
4. Write your Rol1 Number and Serial Number ofthe Answer Sheet by pen in the space prvided above. 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at
the top and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number anti the Set Number in appropriate places.
6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries oj Roll No., Question Booklet no. and Set no. (if any) on OMR sheet and Roll No. and OMR sheet no. on the Quel'ton Booklet.
7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unjairmeans.
8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate eircle in tl,e corre~ponding row oj tlte Answer Sheet, by pen as mentioned in tIre guidelines given on the first page oj the Answer Sheet.
9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect.
10. Note that the answer once jilted in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave afl the circles in the corre~pol1dil1g row blank (such question will he awarded zero morks).
11. For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet.
12. Deposit only OMRAnswer Sheet at the end of the Test. 13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14. If a candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as
the University may determine and impose on him/her.
Total No. of Printed Pages: 48
12P/207/31 No. of Questions: 150
~qfr~:150 Time : 2 Hours
W1<I:2 ~
Full Marks: 450
9,OIFj; : 450
Note: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three I marks. One mark will be deducted/or each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question.
31f~>jq; m 'lit Q('I q;f.\ "" w:!M q;tl ~ ~ 3 (<iR ) aiq; "" ~I )1m.., 7J'Mff ~ ci; fffl!: ~ 3i<I; cnr.;r "'Iii'll 1 ~ 3lj"Rd ~ ""
~ I '<I i 'li l'F' WTlI (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to
the correct answer. choose the closest one.
"lIfi:: ll:'l>Tf>jq; ~'lif04'li ~ <m ~ '4;- f.f<R: mfi<I -.iT, <it foj'liGdQ <m ~ ~I
Ol. Which planet has the largest number of satellites?
( 11 Jupiter (2) Saturn (31 Mars (4) Neptune
mt "!!O '4;-~ 'lit ~ ~ 31f>jq; ~ ?
(1 ) 'l~f1lfd (2) 'IIf.r (3) *"" (4) m;crr
02. What is the orbital period of Venus?
(1) 88 days (2) 365.25 days
(3) 225 days (4 ) 108 days
3 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
WI> ,.;r ,"aWl 31'If>l 'I<!T ~ ?
(1) 88 fi::I (3) 225 fi::I
(2) 365.25 fi::I (4) 108 fi::I
03. Which one of the following is the monistic concept of the earth's
origin?
(1) Gaseous hypothesis
(3) Tidal hypothesis
(2) Planetesimal hypothesis
(4) Binary Star hypothesis
f.r<;j i! it q;'j-;, ~"'" ,.;r ~ ,.;r 31hct'll~ fi'h<"111 ~ ?
(1) '11~o'Hlfill QR'h<"1'11 (2) ~ QR'h<"1'11
04. Who propounded the Nebular hypothesis for the origin of the earth?
(1) Chamberlin
(3) James Jeans
(2) Kant
(4) Laplace
~ ~"'" ,.;r ~ "tl H€iIR'h1 QR'h<"1'11 QRlQif.;ct ill;<u ?
(1) 4~{r<'H (2) q;J1lC (3) ~ ~ (4) <.'11«.11<1
05. Who conceived of the Continental Drift Theory ?
(1) Lowthian Green
(3) F.B. Taylor
( 1 ) eitf'<'R >fA (3) -q:q; 0 oil 0 Zz;n:
(2) Alfred Wegener
(4) Lord Kelvin
(2) ~~
(4) "<.'ITi 4; "'" '1
4
12P/207/31
06. Who gave the idea of 'Level of compensation' with reference to the
concept of Isostacy ?
(1) Pratt
(3) George Airy
(2) George Everest
(4) Heiskanen
*1 'WI '1 <tt (iili04i1 I i\; ~,f. i! f<Rf.\ '~ "1R'!' 'liT ~ ~ ?
( 1 ) >!R (2) "Il"f Il!« R
(3) "Il"f ~ (4) ~lWH'1
07. Which one of the following is organically· formed sedimentary rock?
(1) Sandstone
(3) Limestone
(2) Chalk
(4) Shale
f.r"'! i! ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ f.!fitr 31'l*1It;l *"r i ?
(1) "l1<jilil'l<'R (2) ~ ~
(3) 'ft 'liT 'l<'R (4) -00
08. Which one of the following is a metamorphic rock?
(1) Gabro (2) Basalt
f.r"'! i! ~ ~ ilil~I'dRd *"r i ?
(1) i\;it (2) ~*1Ii"e
(3) Loess
(3) ~
09. Among the following, mark out the A-zonal soil :
(1) Podzal (2) Chernozem
(3) Alluvium (4) Rendezina
(4) Gneiss
(4) -;fRj
5 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
(1) Qls"lIM
(3) 31<§'1"1Q (~!l!ziI)
(2) i"H;\\"IQ
(4) {osc1l11
10. Which one of the following is said to be an active vo1carw ?
(1) Visuvius (2) Krakatoa (3) Koh Sultan (4) Stramboli
f.!>:! it -« fl!;B ~/"'I1l!<! "cll<?ll'l@ 'I® "ffiIT i ?
(1) f'l\jf'l"lB (2) lIil'hlild1T (3) ~ W"\H (4) ~1","<.'1l
11. Mark out the date & year of the occurrence of Bhuj (Gujarat)
earth -quake?
(1) December 11, 1967
(3) October 20, 1991
(1) 11 RW'''H, 1967
(3) 20 di'I~:'H, 1991
(2) January 26, 2001
(4) March 29, 1999
(2) 26 "I1'H1, 2001
(4) 29~, 1999
12. Which one of the following is a block mountain?
(1) Applacian (2) Ural
(3) Siera Nevada (4) Appenine
R"lf<'lf<ld it -« <li1'I '<'!l'h (omm.n) '!ifu i? (1) 310iFiI"l1 (2) '[Uct (3) ftrro m (4) ditl'lI,Oj
6
12P/207/31
13. Which one of the following is a Caledonian mountain?
(1) Altai (2) Carpathian (3) Dinarik (4) Kunlun
f.r"'I i! ~ 'lit.; ~<!lilr1l11 (wl "") "*' t? (I) ~ (2) ~'l'"I"1 (3) r~1IR'" (4) <t:i1<j'1
14. Who gave the idea of 'Median Mass' in his theory of mountain build
ing?
(1) Jeffreys
(3) Kober
(2) Daly
(4) A. Holmes
:;1'f.t "*' R'lfur i\; r~<GHl i! ~ 'll»ll'lu:g' "" fcr<!R fl:<lT? (1) ~ (2) ~ (3) ~ (4) 11;0 mm
15. Patagonia plateau is a good example of .......... :
(1) Intermounation Plateau (2) Piedmont Plateau
(3) Continental Plateau (4) Domal Plateau
&<!l'ilRlIl "" 'lOR ...................... "" 1l:if> ~ d~l6<ul tl (1) al'<1(Qcfdlll 'lOR (2) IiIRQ~ 'lOR
(3) ~~I4J<illi 'lOR (4) !l'4~I"'R 'lOR
16. Who first presented the periglacial cycle of erosion?
(1) Peltier
(3) L.C. King
(2) Strahler
(4) Chorley
7 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
wru ~ fi.n<:R qfU%'11'11 ~ '"'" "" ~<1!<11",(OI 1%«<?
(1) qR'<!~( (2) "SW'l(
(3) ll:<'l0~o f<i;11 (4) mj-.it#
17. Who has the most known critic of Davisian cycle of erosion?
(1) Krickmay
(3) L.C. King
(2) Walter Penk
(4) Hack
~ it; ~ '"'" "" wru 3U'f<!; ~ ("IRT "Tf.t <WIT) "11 (11 "'" m "IT?
(1) flI;q;it (2) ~ iA;
(3) 1,lJ1'o~o f<i;11 (4) ~
18. Indus and Brahmaputra present the examples of ............... .
(1) Consequent drainage system
(2) Subsequent drainage system
(3) Antecedent drainage system
(4) Superimposed drainage system
~ 1l:'i OliWI~ (~) .......... ~ $I "" ~~I~(OI ~ W il
(1) ~ (2) 'R'«ff (3). 'Lcj~ffi (4) 31vmiMct
19. Which one of the following is an erosional land form by river?
(1) Sand bank
(3) Alluvial cones
(2) Natural Levees
(4) Meanders
8
20.
(I) ~I<jilil <rc
(3) ~~
(2) ~Iq;f<j'h f'lft!
(4) ~ flru<f
12P/207/31
Mark out the depositional land form :
(I) River terrace (2) Peneplain
(3) Flood plain (4) Hogback
f.ioilQI«1'h fI!l(1<i"Q qit ~ "'lr"1~ :
(I) ~ ~rS'h1 (2) '141«11 (+l~~I~ ~)
(3) "'!fil" "" ~ (4) 'Il'M'hc'h
21. To which one of the following categories, does the Nile river delta
belong?
(I) Estuarine (2) Arcuate (3) Bird Foot (4) Truncated
(3) 4"11'hi( (4) ~fii6d
22. Which one of the following is DOt an erosional Karst landform?
(I) Lapies
(3) Cave pillars
(2) Blind Valley
(4) Karst window
f.p:;j if "it <oR :31 Q{~11«1'h W {<I (1 M 'Itt~?
(I) ~ (2) ~
(3) ~"fd"Pli
9 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
23. Mushroom rock is a landform created by _ .... ., ...
(1) River (2) Undergr.ound -NateT
(3) Seawater (4) Wind
(1) ~ (4) '-T'I'l
24. What would be the appr'Jxim.atE length of Gangotri glacier?
(1 ) 25 Km (2) 72 KIn (3) 11 Km
'm 'dfill~, qij WI"'! "'''''i~ '!'IT 1ttft ) (1 ) 25 f<l><Il (2) 72 fil;l:.'\ (:3) 11·~
25. Highest Salinity is fOU:.ld i::1 :
(1) Bering Sea (2) Red Sea 13) B9.ltic Sea
wID'1<li MqOldl fi:lillfi -g : ( 1) ~nll'R it
(3) ~"'~ it
(2) <'IT(1 ~ if
(4) <ih WR if
26. Mark out the lOGation of Diatom ooze:
(1) Shallow seawater (2) Coastal region
(3) Deep seawater (4 ) Sea bottom
<;1'101 "3>iif qij Wlfu ~ Of>1f;;ril :
(1 ) ~ "11'1(1~ "f<"1 (2) <rWl1\R!~~
(3) l]"O-"{ "" Rl '1 "f<"1 (4 ) 'l'l;i!l dMoil
10
(4 ) 40 Knl
(4) 40~
(4) China Sea
12P/207/31
27. Isohalines are the lines showing the distribution of.. ........ .
(1) Rainfall (2) Salinity
(3) Wind pressure (4) Cloudiness
'3U.<:iI~<1I.;;g' ............... "'" fqd(OI ~ qrffi ~ tl
(1) q'If (2) <1,!oldl (3) '!I~I," (4) Q'lI'609I<;1
28. When did Columbus undertake his first voyage?
<iI<1~~ ~ ~ ~ ~ '!BlT ~ 'lit? (1) 1452 (2) 1498 (3) 1506 (4) 1492
29. Which one of the following seas has the highest salinity?
(1) North Sea
(3) Dead Sea
(2) Black Sea
(4) Japan Sea
f.!<:! ~ i:i f<f;~q,'1 <1,!oldl ~ aU,""," i? (1) ~ m'R (2) "%1T m'R
(3) 'Ff m'R (4) 0f1'lR m'R
30. Who postulated the stationary wave theory of tides?
(1) Newton (2) W. Whewell
(3) Laplace (4) Harris
"'1T>:-'10 "'" ~fllil> <WI f~4iHI f'I;Wt ~fctqlf'::d f<o<rr?
(1) "'{G1" (2) ~o ~
(3) <11'<.11~ (4) ~
11 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
31. Mark out the normal lapse rate of temperature per krn :
( 1) 4.5° C (2) 6.4°C (3) 8° C (4)
>Ifu ll!><ft ~lq'1H '1ft ai1ml; (11'11'"1 ~I(I~, M ,"If",~ :
(1 ) 4.50 ~o (2) 6.4° ilo (3) 80 ~o (4)
32. Which one of the following is known as greenhouse gas?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Hydrogen
f.n:;j1J il ~ ~ft~'l~ i\-B i\; ~ il ;;rr;n -;;mn i ?
(1) '11~~1"1'1
(3) 'IiT'A ~31f<ffiI;;S (2) 311%1"1'1
(4) ~I~"'l"l'l
33. The last Great Ice Age was in existence in :
(1) Miocene period (2) Pliocene period
(3) Triassic period (4) Pleistocene period
3!Rr'1 "ffil Fi;'1TI a1ful<q 1J 'IT :
(1) '11~l<i1'1 'liR'l i\ (2) «11~l<i1'1 'liR'l1J
(3) ~1'lfB'h 'liR'l1J (4) «"flRl<il'l 'liR'l1J
9.5° C
9.5° ~o
34. At which approximate height, the geostationary satellites orbit the
earth?
(1) 25 Km
(3) 85 Km
(2) 35,000 Km
(4) 1,000 Km
12
12P/207/31
(1) 25 f<I;1jj
(3) 85 f<I;1jj
35. Sargasso Sea is located in :
(1) South Atlantic Ocean
(3) South Pacific Ocean
':H' II \fI "ffi1R "1 <1 R>!(f * : (1) GO 3lc(1lfiicq, ~"llill'l< iI' (3) GO W/TR[ ~"ml'l{ iI'
(2) 35,000 f<I;1jj
(4) 1,000 f<I;1jj
(2) North Pacific Ocean
(4) North Atlantic Ocean
(2) "00 W/TR[ ~"llill'l{ iI' (4) "00 "1c(1lfiiN ~"llill'l{ iI'
36. Which one of the following is primary consumers?
(1) Green plants
(3) Carnivores
(2) Herbivores
(4) Omnivores
f.r"1 iI' "it '!i'R m"ifi:r<l; ~~ *? (1) ~ -q'\~ (2) ~1Iq,lg'(j (3) ~ilill"l(l (4) lil<1\" 1(1
37. Who coined the term ·Peneplain ?
(1) Peltier (2) Lawson
(3) C.H. Crickmay (4) W.M. Davis
"l1I,,;I1' 'II'<; q;j f.r>:!fuT ~ WIT ?
(1) ql0!~{ (2) "<1TB"'l
(3) "ill 0 '<"I 0 flI;<:f;it (4) ~o 11:'1 0 ~
13 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
38. Who first used the term 'permafrost' for permanently frozen ground?
(1) Sparks
(3) S.W. Muller
(2) L.C. King
(4) W. Penk
~ ~ -B -;;ril ~ 'ffiiffi 'if; ~ 'Q4UIR' ~ q;J m wtr'l"! flr;"if.l fil;<lJ?
(I) ~ (2) "QJ'loWo m (3) ~o~o ~ (4) ~o ~
39. Who first observed the growth of the river Nile delta by annuall1oods?
(I) Herodotus
(3) Ptolemy
(2) Strambo
(4) Eratosthenese
wtr'l"! flr;"if.l <nfi1q; 'Wi\" 'if; &IU -;ffi;j -;¢\ 'if; ~ 'if; f"ilill."l q;J f.rtl~ fil;<lJ?
11) ~ililll."l (2) $it (3) ~ (4) ~~ilfY1;ft"l
40. Which one of the following is known as ·Ringed planet'?
(1) Jupiter (2) Uranus (3) Saturn (4) Pluto
f.p:;[ ii -B m '<§&\GR lljl"' 'if; ~ ii""lR1 -;;mIT t? (1) 'i6{>lfu (2) 3WU1 (3) ~ (4) ~
41. Who propounded the radioactivity hypothesis of mountain building?
(1) Jeffreys (2) Daly (3) A. Holmes (4) Jolly
-q<f<; f.r4fuJ <tt '{f.s<!ll."lfsMdl \iili0HI %<R ~fuQIfG<1 <ttl
(1) ~ (2) m.ft (3) V:o ~ (4) ~ (~)
14
12P/207/31
42. Which diagram shows the distribution of earth's solid surface at
elevation above and depth between Sea level?
(1) Histogram (2) Hypsomctric curve
(3) Cartogram (4) Polygraph
-,;;R -m 31it&/Thnfif> ~(f,"."'"J.'R 3i1, ~ ~ :dh 'ffi'Tt Ti 'l"'ll if; im ~ 'liT r'l(l{UI ~ ,j)
(1) fi:RI~lq (2) fi;q{J~r~", q;<f (Glon)
43. Which one of the following is not a cold ocean current?
(1) . Karnari (2) Bengula ( 3) Falkland
f.p:;j Ti B -,;;R cui\ ,,[ll iF:! 'lm 'nff t? (1 ) 'I>'!Rl (2) if':l."n (3) Q;(,!>0us
44. Hot & dry wind blowing in Australia is known as :
(1) Bora
(3) Brick fielder
(2) Har mattan
(4) Mistral
"11~r<'l~1 Ti ~ qrc.,ft '[If .31'1<: W'l' 0'11 q;tft "Wll t : (1) oitu (2) m l121
(4) 1l1~
45. Which one is a depositional land fo~·m by Sea water?
(4)
(4)
(1) Coastal Cliff
(3) Spit
(2) Wave cut platform
(4) COVe
15
Brazil
<!roll<'!
P.T.O.
12P/207/31
(1) oil<! fw!;
(3) ~
(2) mm;ru~
(4) <"1W'l~~tiht
46. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(I) Chinook (2) Kilmanjaro
(3) Foehn (4) Sirocco
f.tl:;j it' -B 'lit.! 'I'l/~ -B lO114P<re "It\' ~?
(I) ~ (2) f<l><"1Ii"lttl (3) 'fiR
47. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?
(I) Questa & Hogback
(2) Bridge & window
(3) Cave pillars
(4) Tarn
H8f<1f@~ it' -B 'lit.! WtR1~ "It\' ~?
(1) ~ o~ 'Il'Mih<!'h
12) :!<"1 o~ f@{\iI>l
(3) ~"@"!
(4) m
16
Sea water
Wind
Underground water
Glaciers
12P/207/31
48. There are Four Components of Biospheric ecosystem, given below,
which one acts as Intermediary in between them?
(1) Physical or Non-bioelements
(2) Producers
(3) Consumers
(4) Decomposers
~qlOjog<1lq 4IRW<qfct'fi <Br i'f; 'lR = ~!\:it '!it %', ~ ~ <!iR fi'f.i1f<1QI "'fiT
'Wf -..mrr i? (1) ~ 31'l'U 31<J1fq'fi (f(q
(3) ~"11<Rrr
(2) "t<lIG'fi
(4) fi141"l'fi
49. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred in the year:
(1) 1996 (2) 200 I (3) 1980
50. Ozonosphere is a part of .... , .............. .
(1) Troposphere
(3) Mesosphere
(2) Stratosphere
(4) Thermosphere
41"o1IOjog'1 ............... "'fiT Wrn ("IT'll il
(1) ~'1lOjug'1
(3) lJ"1lOjog'1
(2) "IOj(l1440g'1
(4) (l141Ojog'1
17
(4) 1984
P.T.O.
12P/207/31
51. Who first defined geography as humanology?
(I) Hettner
(3) Carl Sauver
(2) H.K Barrows
(4) Huntigton
"om ~ ~ ~ct <1>'; 'lFf#~ if; ¥'l i\ -m'llf'm f'I><n?
(1) ~ (2) ~o~o ~
(3) 'liffi <WR (4) Wi'R'!
52. Who wrote the book --, 'Influences of Geographic Environment'?
(1) F. Ratzel (2) Le Play
(3) E.C. Semple (4) A. Hacckel
'~'1'RjQ:'!l:01 31i'li wiI~fi:I;ij; Wllol"U;o' -~ ~ ftomi\?
(1) ll;!>o ~ (2) fct ~
(3) tomo m~ (4) ~o m
53. Who propounded 'the Zones and Streta Theory' of the evolution of
human races?
(1) I. Bowman (2) G. Taylor
(3) D. Whittlesey (4) G.T. Trewartha
1lR'l ~"IIRpji" if; <fi!l f<"1'W{ 'f1 'c;;f~ ll:"i «R f\1;;;:HI' ~ ~Rlqlf~d f'I><n?
(1) amo -.ltlR (2) emo ~
18
12P/207/31
54. Who is known as the father of human geography?
(1) Ritter (2) Humbolt (3) Blache (4) Ratzel
~ ~ if; ~ if; ""l -q * "IRI ""'" t? (I) 1m (2) ~«ilR (3) 0<ffi1I[ (4) ~
55. Mark out the year of the beginning of Census taking in India?
'lffi<! -q cij1'1°1'11 q;j 'lP"311O '<iT q1f ~ ,,,If''l~ :
(I) 1891 (2) 1857 (3) 1881 (4) 1872
56. Which one of the following does indicate the decadal growth of popu
lation in India during 1991-2001 census?
f.r<:! -q"il * 1991-2001 011'1 01'11 if; llU! 'lffi<! -q cij1~~1 <f.1; '<iT G~lil"l
3RR~t?
(1) 23.85% (2) 24'.66% (3) 21.35% (4) 24.80%
57. Who presented the Demographic Transition Theory of population
growth ?
(1) F.W. Notestein
(3) P.R. Cox
(2) G.T. Trewartha
(4) C.P. Blackar
cij1~~1 <f.1; '<iT cij1if",,,,1"l ~Sf;4ol f{lOlil'<l ~ ~ f<Ii<lr?
(1) ~o~o ;fli!~11 (2) o!\oito ~'1l
(3) <l\o 3!Ro ~ (4) mo<l\o ~
19 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
58. In which stage, birth rate and mortality rate both become high?
(1) Low stationary stge
(3) Late expanding stage
(2) High stationary stage
(4) Early expanding stage
f<Rl _ it "I"1~< W '1<$< <iJ;if ~ m ~? (I) f.r<;{~ _ (2) ~~_
59. Which one of the following has the lowest population as per 2001
census?
(1) Andman & Nicobar (2) Daman & Div
(3) Laksh Deep (4) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
2001 'liT "11'1 0 1'11 if; ~ f<f;B'f>l ~ <li11 ~ ~?
(I) 31 0 ,,411 W f1'f>1 .. R (2) GJlR W f<;q
(3) <'!~ (4) <;IG<T W 'fll{ ~
60. Mark the State with highest density as per 2001 census:
(I) U.P. (2) W. Bengal (3) Kerala (4) Bihar
"11'1 0 111 2001 if; ~ ~ W""' "I1~&l1 ~ ~ ~ <it ~ 'f>lf"l~ :
(I) 'Lo<i\o (2) '[0 ~ (3) m (4) Rm
20
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61. Which one of the following States has the lowest Sex ratio as per
2001 census?
(1) Sikkim
(3) Haryana
(2) Punjab
(4) Uttar Pradesh
,"'1'1 01'112001 it~. R""l i! it f<I><l"U"'l 'liT fCi'":l'll(f ~ q;l1 %7
(1) f<:1f'l'hl1 (2) -q;;jj'I
(3) ~f(~101l (4) "3m: ~
62. Which one of the following has the highest Sex ratio as per 2001
Census?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(3) Tamil Nadu
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Odisha
,"'1'1 01'112001 it~. R""l i! it f<I><l"U"'l 'liT fCi'"i4Id ~ 3TI'l<Ii %7
(1) 0J\WI,. (2) r~qli1<;l ~
(3) dfA<;l'lI\i (4) ~
63. In how many agricultural regions was the world divided by Whittlesey?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Ten (4) Thirteen
(1) <!R (2) -.iR (3) <;B (4) ~
64. Which one of the following is not a nomadic herding region?
(1) Pampas in S.America
(3) Dry desert in Africa
(2) Tibetan plateau
(4) Khirgistan
21 P.T.O.
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WI it ~ 'lit.! 'l<?iql\"ll q'tl"lROI I$l/>Rw -:m t? (1) <;0 aii'lf{ifil it ~ (2) ~ "" 'lOR
(4) PiHfiR<lH
65. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?
(1) N.E. India - Jhooming
(3) Malaysia - Nagasu
(2) Sri Lanka - Chena
(4) Rhodesia - Milpa
WI it ~ 'lit.! \iiWctd -.w t? ( 1 ) "30 'io 'If<<[ - <lfl'rT (3) 4Mf.iI~1 - "l1ll1l
(2) ~-~
(4) {t~f.iI~1 - 1li<"lT
66. Per head production of milk is highest in .......... .
(1) Holland (2) Denmark (3) Belgium
~RlOl4fil<1 ~ (~,,) "" d(qI~1 .............. it ~ 31f'lifi tl
(4) France
(1) ~14os (2) ~1'11<t (3) i'1f0ot~4 (4) ;om
67. Which is the most important iron ore from commercial point of veiw?
(1) Siderite (2) Hematite (3) Limonite (4) Magnetite
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68. Which one of the following countries has the largest iron ore re
serves in the world?
(I) India (2) Brazil (3) Russia (4) U.S.A.
F-1"1F<'If€ld iT tt m ~ "i'iiT <iffct cfu;~li f~ it ~ 31f>]q;~?
(I) "!Ril (2) on~ (3) <"B (4) '!o"""o1l,v
69. Mark out the second largest producer of iron ore in the world?
(I) China (2) Canada (3) Brazil (4) Australia
~ it <[ffi ~ 'iito 3ffi<'I; ~ (~) 'lit ~ q;{ :
(I) -.:iR (2) ,,,"'If:sT (3) ~ (,.) 311~F<1'l1
70. Which one of the following iG the l<?rg.;:-st coal producing region of
India?
(I) Mahanadi Basin
(3) Son Basin
(I) 'l~I'I~ <nil
(3) "BR <nil
(2) Damodar Basin
(4) Godawari Basin
(2) <;1'11<;1. 'l1i1
(4) 'n<;I<"Rl <nil
71. Which one of the following has the largest coal reserve in Russia?
(I) Ural region (2) Moscow- Tula Region
(3) Kuznetsk Region (4) Donetsk Region
23 P.T.O.
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R8 if i! "'" q;r ~ 31f% ~ q;r ~ 'fUm ~ %7
(1) ~ ~ (2) ~-¥" ~
72. Which is the largest petroleum producing country of the world?
(1) V.S.A. (2) Saudi Arabia
(3) Russia (4) Iran
~ q;r wrtf% ~ ift;r ili'MiIi ~ * %1
(1) 'l,01l:B01l;0 (2) ~ ~
(3) "'" (4) ~
73. Where is Dubai located?
(1) Saudi Arabia
(3) lraque
~ ~ 3iqf+>q(j %7
(1) ~~
(3) "fuq;
(2) Kuwait
(4) V.A.E,
(2) -¥o (4) ~~wlRra
74. Which one of the following is the highest potential for Hydel power?
(1) S. America (2) N. America
(3) Africa (4) Asia
R8 if i! f<li{1'l>l ''1<'lfq'il'l 'Ilf<Rl 'Ii\ ili'1IG1 a:fI1(IT ~ 31f% %7
(1) <;0 3iQR"li1 (2) -ao 3iilR"li1
(3) ~ (4) v:Wn
24
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75. Which country is the largest producer of hydel power?
(1) U.S.A. (2) Canada (3) Brazil (4) Russia
~ 'iI<.1f'-lI!l'l WI<! 'liT 00 ~ 3<'11<;q) ~ t? (1) 'l.oll:Bo1l;o (2) 'tHlsl (3) .. 141<.1 (4) """
76. Which one of the following industries is mostly market - localized?
(1) [ron & Steel (2) Sugar
(3) Paper and pulp (4) Cotton textiles
H'"'1f<'lf@(I "WriT i\ it ~ 3lf'lq)i~l(I: OIT"IR ,"u:flq>(I t? (1) ~-~cW1 (2) <iR\cW1
(3) "'fillT"! '-"" ~ cW1 (4) '!1ii om! cW1
77. The largest number of cotton textile mills are found in :
(1) Tamil Nadu
(3) Gujarat
(2) Maharashtra
(4) U.P.
'!1ii om! ~ "\1c!If'lq) q) R @ ~ fJ!ffi\ % : (1) (lfA<.1'111 i\ (2) ~~RI~ i\ (3) TiI{I(I i\ (4) 'l.o'=i\o i\
78. Where is Port Sayeed located?
(1) On the North Side of the Mediterranian
(2) On the Bank of Red Sea
(3) On the North End of Suez Canal
(4) On the South End of Suez Canal
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<iii ~ %T 31C1R><ld t? ( 1 ) 'Pl"l \"II' I ( ~ oWl f<ti"'fR 'R
(2) "('![('f ~ ~ <R: 'R
(3) m "10( ~ oWl M 'R
(4) m "10( ~ <;f~ -,m 'R
79. When was the Panama Canal inagurated?
(1) 1919 (2) 1914 (3) 1956
80. Which is the second largest railway line of the world?
(1) Canedian Pacific Railway
(2) Transsiberian Railway
(3) Australian Transcontinental Railway
(4) Northern Transcontinental Railway of USA
m '1>'\ ~ ~ ~ '(C'l<'l1$1 n<'lAI'f) ~ t? (1) q;~r,M1 ~r{lf4;q; {<'IAl'f
(2) {1@I;;ilR~1 {<'IAI'f
(3) 311~r<1~1 {iMIR:~""cl {clAl'f
(4) 'L0~o1l:0 q;r oWl {1\"Iq;IR:~""cl {clAI'f
(4) 1969
81. Gold mining towns of Kalgoorli and Kulgardi are located in :
(1) Canada (2) Australia (3) India (4) South Africa
26
12P/207/31
Bl"f d<'@ii 'l'R 'hIM'[ffl l(Ci j1M'aif 3jCjR"ld €- : (1) 'hiFsl it (2) 311<?r<1~1 it
(3) ;;ras~1 it (4) <;f~ ~ it
-82. Which one of the following comes nearest to Modern Man in
evolutionary order?
(1) Java Man
(3) Neanderthal Man
( 1 ) "lTCiT liR"'I
(3) r"~as('l<1liR"'1
(2) Cromagnon Man
(4) Peking Man
(2) "'14'1li liR"'I
(4) ~ liR"'I
83. Kroeber's classification of races is primarily based on :
(1) Cephalic Size
(3) Colour
( 1 ) ftR 711 q;lffi'\ <i> 3lf6f>R 'R
(3) t>1 711 quj 'R
(2) Nasal Shape
(4) Cranial capacity
(2) ilf\1'h1 qi\ ~ 'R
(4) ~ 'l1furr 'R
84. Dr. B.S. Guha classified races in India into ... « ............ groups.
"if 0 on 0 ll;B 0 'lm 'I 'lffil il ~ "11 RI>i1 <.fit . . . . . . . .. .. ~ il 'I' Tf'l' d f<li<n * 1
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 6
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85. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?
(1) India - Gond (2) Kalahari - Bushman
(3) Cangi Basin - Semang
f.r<;r it it '!it.! fli1r<.1d "ltf ~? (1) "IR(j - ~
(3) 'litrit itftR - WWr
(4) Amezan Basin - Bora
(2) q>1(11~1(1 -~
(4) ~ itftR - o!tU
86. Which one of the following is suitably matched?
(1) Tharus - Chhota Nagpur Plateau
(2) Santhal - M.P.
(3) Bhil - Gujarat/Rajasthan/M.P.
(4) Joda - Nagaland
R"1f<.1f(5ld it it '!it.! -mT flilf<.1d t? (1) '1m! - <WI ~ '1OR
(2) W'lf<'f - l1"l ~
(3) oft<1 - 2"1{1dj{l"lfl'fR/l1"l ~
(4) ~ - '11'1I8os
87. The highest number of Buddhists are found in :
(1) Sikkim (2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) V.P. (4) Maharashtra
~ 'l~f'l(1fkt4r qij ~ aTI"I'I> <l&rr ~ t : (1) f{ifqq;~ i'j
(3) 'i0-q)o i'j
(2) 31~oll"l(1 ~ i'j
(4) ~~I(le i'j
28
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88. Mark out the native place of Coffee:
(1 ) Brazil (2) S.W. Asia
(3) Ethiopia (4) Latin America
~ 'l>T 'i\'f>$r f.Ifu!: ",If''l4 :
(1 ) jlloil <'I (2) ~o '10 ~
(3) .~ (4 ) ~ 31ilR'li1
89. Hawai Islands constitute the part of:
(1) Polynesia (2) Australasia
(3) Micronesia (4) Melenesia
~ lftq ~ .................. it 'IT'T (W'!i") t : (1) qlf,"~RI~1
(3) ~I$,"I~RI~I
(2) 311~clRI~1
(4) ilf,"~RI~1
90. Mark out the year when the latest National Population Policy was
undertaken?
~ qq 'lit f.Ifu!: ",If"'l4 "I'l '1<4l'1d~ ~ ,,'1BMI -;j\fu f.r'lfftl 'lit <r<ft : (1) 2004 (2) 1978 (3) 2000 (4) 2009
91. Mark out the country which is an important steel producing region
based on its imported iron ore and Coal:
(1) France (2) England (3) Japan (4) Brazel
~ ~ 'lit ~ ",If''l4 ;;it ~ ~ am ~ it = 'l1: 311"lTft! foRq 'l>T
ll:'I' ~ <; i'CI '1'" f ~ d (q I ~'Ii >$r t : (1) >OR! (2) ~lICiu$ (3) "IT'!R (4) jlloil<'l
29 P.T.O.
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92. Who first used the terminology - 'Sequent - Occupance' ?
(I) Hartshorne
(3) 1. Bowman
(2) B.J.L. Berry
(4) D. Whittlesey
~ ~ ~ '~ 3lfmr~' (ffl'!<lc 3l1~&'fl) ~liiGlq01 q;r wWT fi!;<rr ?
(I) ~lbil4 (2) <ftoiro~o ilU
(3) ~o ~ (4) ito ,.lRMfiI
93. Which one of the following is the third largest country of the world?
(I) Russia (2) China (3) U.S.A. (4) Canada
(I) ~ (2) '<1l1 (4) 'l>'lmT
94. India accounts for .......... ...... of the total surface area of the world.
'lmf mer it ~ 'W<li'1 q;r .............. 'lJTI ~ 'li«lT t : (I) 1% (2) 3% (3) 2% (4) 4%
95. The era of Liberalization - Globalization and Privatization begin in
India since:
(I) 1981 (2) J 985 (3) 200 I (4) 1991
96. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on the river ......... .
(I) Sutlej
(3) Luni
(2) Narmada
(4) Tapti (Tupi)
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"\R~n: mTcn: on'l .,. .......... ~ 'R f.!fit! il ( I) f! MNI (2) -;p:fr,r
(3) 'flT
97. Which one of thE" following Soils is locally called -Regur'?
(1) Alluvial Soil
(3) Red Soil
(2) Black Soil
(4) Laterite Soil
f.!P ~ iI' fi<;il ~4 ~ it 'tT:' q;m"IT<IT i? (1) q;fq ~ (2) 'liT<'il ~ (3) "t'1T0 ~ (4) &(I><! ~
98. Tungabhadra is a join~ river project of :
(I) Kerala - Tamil Nadu
(2) Kerala - Karnataka
(3) Karnataka - Andhra Pradesh
(4) Andhra Pradesh - Tamil Nadu
~'ll;[ l:('l> .,.,......,. '1ill:('l> ~ ~ q fi: 41 "I '11 i : (1) ~«'f - nf~<"HIi3 (2) m - 'lHk.,
(3) .,'1k", - 3TIll ~ (4) 31Rl ~ - (1f4<"1'1Ii3
99.. Which State has the highest proportion of Scheduled Caste popula
tion to total population as per 2001 Census?
(1) Bihar
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(2) W. Bengal
(4) Punjab
31 P.T.O.
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200 1 qi] '" '1 , I a H I i);- 3J1BR f'Rl \l""I 'liT ~ '" '1 G&ll i'l 31 :JWil d "<iITf<! 'liT
~ wrft 3lf~ i ?
(1) fim< (2) ~o -;;j"1jm (3) 6<R ~ (4) t<iII'I
IOO.Mark the month and year when Tsunamis hit the India Coasts:
(1) March, 2001
(3) April, 2005
(2) Decembber 2004
(4) November, 2003
'ffi'HJ aih: '1'1 ~ ",lr"l~ "'" p if 'llUil>! dccr<il 'l1'iT'Iit 31lit>f'ld W<r ''IT:
(1) lJI<f, 2001 (2) r~{lkH, 2004
(3) ~,2005 (4) '1cr14(, 2003
101. How many days does a lunar year have?
(1) 360 (2) 365 1
(3) 365 4 (4) 354
102. Which one of the following is called 'a country of farmers for forty
centuries'?
(1) India (2) Egypt (3) China (4) Greece
f.il:;j i'l if cr;R ~ 'ill01{l ~IiIIFo<; <ii if ~ 'liT ~' q;m onnr i ?
(1) 'lffil (2) fi:r!Jl (3) <fA (4) Jim
103. Who first attempted to divide U.S.A. into agricultural regions?
(1) Hartshorn & Dicken
(3) Jonasson
(2) Baker
(4) Kostrowicki
32
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00 ~ m:R ~ = ~~ft<1i1 '!it ~ ri i! f<!'1'RI <m "" >rOO fon<n? (1) elbiH am: ~ (2) im (3) 'i\l~~1 (4) qii0i)f'l'hl
104. Which one of the following is the iargest exporter country?
(1) U.S.A. (2) China (3) Japan (4) Germany
f.p::j i! -,'t em 00 ~ f.jQjct<1i ~ i? (1) 'i0~01l:0 (2) <fA (3) "fT'!R (4) ~
105. Which refinery is established by Reliance Petroleum Ltd.?
(1) Koyali (2) Kochin (3) Jamnagar (4) Haldia
em ~'l"<1i <1iR@111 ftMlq'B q?)f<'lq~ rno s:ro <:>11~ct i ?
(1) qiiqlMl (2) qiiilH (3) "1I~1'1( (4) ~f0;ql
106. Which is the second largest fish producing country?
(1) Japan (2) USA (3) India
em ~ ~ l1w:l a(tll~,*, ~ i? (1) "fT'!R (2) ~oUo :o1~ft<1i1
(3) '1ffif (4) <fA
107. Broad nose is a salient characteristic of:
(1) Mangolian race
(3) Nordic race
~ 1If~<1i1 1l:'I> ~ f'l~qctl i ; (1) 4,ilf<'l'l1 ~ '!it (3) 11~<1i ~ '!it
(2) Negroid race
(4) Caucasian race
(2) -;fuj)~ ~ <tt (4) <1iI<!;~lq1 ~ <tt
33
(4) China
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108. Who first divided India into Four Natural - Geographical regions?
(1) L.D. Stamp
(3) Q.S. Ahmed
(1) 11,('foi\o ~
(3) "'!0'QJI0 3W'lG
(2) Pithawala
(4) O.H. K Spate
(2) Ridl'!I<.11
(4) aito11;'lo","o ~
109. Select the odd item in the following group:
(1) Luni
(3) Raj Mahal
(2) Ghaghghar
(4) Wegai
H"'lR1f61d ~ if ~ 'l<: q;r ~ ifilf",~ :
( 1 ) <'l:ft (2) "11"R
(3) U""i~<.1 (4) ~
110. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(1 ) Hohululu (2) New Guinea
(3) Folk Iseland (4) Celebes
f.I"'I if ~ "1ft'! ~ it ~ "" f.'>f<r "Itf t? (1)
, ~lffl (2) "i,m
(3) -q;fq;- 3i I.~ o:s (4) fi<'l<il"1
34
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111. Which Indian scholar observed first that Earth rotates around its axis?
(1) Varahmihir
(3) Brahmagupta
(2) Aryabhatt
(4) Bha~karacharya
~ 'lmirl ~ 'I ~ ~ f<I; 'F.cft 31'l'ft 3/., 'R '{'lffl~?
(1) '1l{lllr~fu( (2) awl~
(3) ,nwltct
112. Who contributed most to the evolution of population geography as a
special brand of geography?
(1) W. Zelinsky
(3) K. Davis
(2) G.T. Trewartha
(4) I. Clarke
~ q,'\ 1l:'Ii = f<.;i)q ~ i\ "l'Hi&11 ~ it rCj<t>I~ i\ ~ ~ 31f'1<t> O:(I'I~1'l f<;1lr ?
(1) ~o OjrOR<",l
(3) ito ~ (2) ~oito~.n
(4) ~o~
113. Who edited/ authored the book - "Geography in the 20'" Century' ?
(1) G. Taylor
(3) Jean Brunches
(2) E. Huntigton
(4) O.H.K. Spate
';;<itMI'l>l .., c: ",i1;oll{I!f~' - 'l,«I<t> ~ fW;fi/~llllrG~ q,'\?
(1) ~o ~ (2) ~o llRn1
(3) ~ ~ (4) a1Iol(Cloito ~
35 P.T.O.
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114. What is Angora?
(1) a type of goat
(3) a type of fruit
al>Tm 'I<IT %?
( 1 ) ~ ll'!>R q,') 'f'IiU
(3) ~ ll'!>R q;r '"'"
(2) a type of horse
(4) a type of gril-in
115. What would be the approximate - area of Antarctica?
(1 ) 90,00,000 Sq. Km (2) 115,00,000 Sq. Km
(3) 135,00,000 Sq. Km (4) 150,00,000 Sq.Km
3l'i!I<!;f~"'1 q;r ~ WT'l'T 'I<IT;irrr ?
(1 ) 90,00,000 or! %>lI (2) 115,00,000 or! %>lI
(3) 135,00,000 or! %>lI (4) 150,00,000 or! %>lI
116. On 23rd September Sun is vertically over:
(1 ) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn
(3) Equator (4) Prime Meridian
23 f,w'i{ q,') ~ <'1k1'1d m % : (1) q;<!;- WI 'R (2) 'l'R WI 'R
(3) f<l!'j'1C{ WI 'R (4) '5!'IR ll~ WI 'R
36
12P/207/31
ll7. Young Folded Mountain was formed during:
(I) Pleistocene Period (2) Tertiary Period
(3) Cretaceous Period (4) Carboniferous Period
"¥T Ii'I$GI( "t[ifffi' <tl f.rqfu] ~31T :
(1) 1'<10f11'i"TT if (2) -mraru"TT if (3) f"'~ffl~fI"TT if (4) ifilolff1q,U1"TT if
ll8. 'Golden Quadrilateral' is the name given to the:
(I) New Development Corridors (2)
(3) Supernational Hiway Network (4)
Special Economic Zones
New Rail Lines
, fCI fITl G 'lTI:f;r' - 1T<I fu:'lT 7J<IT ~ :
(I) -;;it f'lifilfi ifi'ffl:il4 qij
(3) f!q(~~I;kl mf<l ~m<t qij
(2) mm ~ >$iT qij
(4) -;;it m l1I'lf qij
ll9.Mark out the correct R.F. for a map showing two places with a
distance of 15 em :
<it ~ qij IS -wn qft ~ U ~ ~ GHf'l'1 <tl ~ ~G~iifi f'i>l ~ ",If''l~ :
(I) I: 1,000,000
(3) 1,00,000
(2) 1,500,000
(4) 1,50,000
120, Which does Dot belong to the group?
(I) Redial Method
(3) Resection Method
(2) Intersection Method
(4) Cross Section Method
37 P.T.O.
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'It.! ww /wf "\'t BklR«! '%f ~? (I) '{m>lM f<If>T
(3) f{flillll1 f<If>T
(2) $'i!{flilliH f<If>T
(4) <Pm fl i.ffi 1 f<If>T
121. Which one of the following is considered as unproductive use of land?
(I) Fishing (2) Hunting (3) Housing (4) Grazing
f.I"! if"\'t 'It.! 'WI ~ 3ljNIGili aq""1 l!RT ;;mrr ~?
(1) ~-lfflUT (2) ~ (3) W/3lTW! (4) ~
122. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?
(I) U.S.A. - Intensive Farming
(2) New Zealand - Dairy Farming
(3) S.E. Asia - Plantation Agriculture
(4) Bangladesh - Substensive Farming
f1"lf<.1flild i:i "\'t <.fi'R \"l~f0d ~ ~? (I) • ~ 3lilf{ilil - 1f6'! ~
(2) "{oll4lo,; - ~ Q'i!QIM1 ~
(3) ~ 0 '1.0 lJ,fuqr -qpmjl~
(4) "i'MI~~1 - r+'1f~'L(1ili ~
123. "Indira Point' is located roughly on :
(I) 4' North Lat. (2) 6' N. Lat. (3) 8' N. Lat. (4) 10' N Lat.
(I) 4' (2) 6' (3) 8' (4) 10'
38
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124. Which is the oldest city?
(1) PI ayag (Allahabad)
(3) Mayapuri (Haridwar)
'fiR ~ "lI'J"i'iR 'I'R %?
(1) ';f'lJTf (~n;I~I~)
(3) TjI~13n (ffi&R)
(2) Kashi (Varanasi)
(4) Patliputra (Patna)
(2) ~ (qRIUIBi)
(4) %,.f<'l9>~ ('IZ'lT)
125. Which has the largest share as a component of Soil?
(1) Organic Matter
(3) Soil Solutions
(2) Minerals
(4) Soil Atmosphere
'FO it BQ<!ih it ~ if f"'MI fumr ('ll'T) ~ aU'f'l; %?
(1) $rq; <Iii'.f (2) ~ '1GT'f
(3) '>GT ~
126. Which one does not belong to the group?
(1 ) Population Ecology (2) Community Ecology
(3) Autecology (4 ) Biome Ecology
'li'R Wjj: 'IT qlj it W~Ptrn ~ %?
(1 ) ~ qlftWifd<f>l (2) fI'!G1'I qlftWifu<f>l
(3) fCI q I ftWi fu<f> 1 (4) ~ ('If'irT) qlftWifu'f>l
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127.Merkali Scale is used to measure:
(1) Intensily of Earthquake (2) Eruption of Volcano
(3) Frequency of Landslides (4) Quantum of water flow
Jj('I>I01llT'Fl> 'liT m ,,','"'"",', of; 'IT'R %g W:n -;;mn t : (1) ~ qij <fi<rnT (2) """fllli@) ~
(3) 'i rufl'l qij '1I(141(dl
128. Which lypes of environmental hazards are Floods & Droughts?
(1) Planetary jTerrestrial
(3) Anthropogenic (4)
(2) Atmospheric
Cumulative atmospheric
ow; 31R ~ ~ "lI"f>R" it q~fq( un ~ writ'! ~'? (1) m'rij~ (2) ClI~Jjus01~
(3) 'lHCI"1Hd (4) ~ q~I'I(on~
129. 'Operation Flood' iS'related with:
(1) Green Revolution
(3) BlueRevolution
(2) White Revolution
(4) Yellow Revolution
(1) ~ 'llilRI (2) ~ 'llilRI (3) -;fiffi 'llilRI ( 4 ) <mr 'llilRI
130, Mark the location of Red Basin?
(1) Japan (2) China (3) Taiwan (4) Myanmar
40
12P/207/31
~ ~ '1ft ~ ~ "'lrcij~ : [1) "fTl1R (2) <lR (3) ~W111 (4) R1i"ll(
131. Which of the following soils is predominantly formed under Taga
Forests?
[1) Chernozem
(3) Laterite
[1) 'Roil "I 4
(3) ~l(I~~
(2) Podzol
(4) Brown Soils
(2) QI,,;;il(1
(4) ~~
132. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(1) Netherland
(3) Sweden
(2) Denmark
(4) Norway
f-1"1f<:1r@~ if ii 'fiR-<lT ~ <rl 'IT ~ ii ~ "IW i? [1) 41«~u" (2) il"414; (3) ~ (4) '!lif
133. Which of the following industrial regions does belong to Great
Britain?
(1) Saar-Lorren
(3) Midlands
(2) Flanders
(4) Rhur
41 P.T.O.
UP/207/31
f.i"1 if <nR afleilfllq; mr "ilz ~ ~ 1'I'4f.'«<T i? (1) m\-<'iI't! (2) <M<;lf
(4) ""
134. Where does lie the Karaganda Coal basin?
(1) Russia
(3) Ukraine
(1) ~
(2) Kazakhastan
(4) Georgia
(2) q;"lI@«1I'f (3) ~ (4) "llm~1
13S.Mark out the industrial region where Yakohama-Kawasaki are lo
cated?
(1) Kwanto Industrial Region (2) Nagoya Region
(3) Kinki Region (4) Kita-Kyusher Region
~ aflwfllq; mr <liT ~ q,lfci1~ .m ~1<il~141-q;IClII'II",1 3lCllf<4d i? (1) <i<li<it afI,,"fllq; mr (2) "'1'W!r mr
(3) fii;"q,l mr (4) fil>ffi-<PFR mr
136. When was the 'Open door' policy adopted in China with reference to
its economic development?
(1) 1952 (2) 1966 (3) 1980 (4) 1991
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12P/207/31
137. Mark out the year of the organization of ASEAN (Association of South
East Asian Nations) :
(1) 1960 (2) 1967 (3) 1970 (4) 1985
138. Kumaun Himalaya spreads in between:
(I) Kali and Tista rivers (2) Indus and Sutlej rivers
(3) Tista & Brahmputra rivers (4) Sutlej and Kali rivers
~ f%'1I(1~ q;r r'H<lR ................. ~ ~ 1I~ ~I
(1) q;rffi afu: f<ffiIT (2) fu":! afu: (\i\(1'"
139. Which one of the following is the oldest real mountain range of
India?
(2) Aravali range (1) Vindhyan range
(3) Satpura range (4) Meghalayan rang
f.Il;r iI it ~ 'lffi! qft ~ltft1i1'1 '11<:<114'1; -q<fu ~ t? (1) f<p.zj ~ (2) a!,Ii!('1] ~
(3) (\d~'i>1 ~ (4) q'lI(1~ ~
140. Mark out the number of SARe nations?
"'* ~ qft ~ ~dl~il :
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
43 P.T.O.
12P/207/31
141. Mark the correct location of Golan Heights:
(1) Israel (2) Syria (3) Jordon (4) Egypt
liiffi ~Ik*i 'lit tfflt W!f<r ~ ",,)f,"a :
(I) ."HI~(1 (2) -mR<rr (3) ~ (4) I'll)!
142. Mombasa is the greatest port city of :
(1) Tanzania (2) Somali (3) Keniya (4) Ethiopia
Iil«ll*il ............... q;r wm ~ 'l'R "f1T{ tl
(1) d'"If.!~1 (2) «I~lcll (3) ",,)f.!~1
143. Which one of the following country is the most industrialized?
(1) Arjentina (2) Brazil (3) Mexico (4) Columbia
(2) ~1;sft(1 (4) "'1(1~~1
144.Mark out the country with Centrally Planned Economy?
(1) Japan
(3) Britain
(2) North-Korea
(4) Indonesia
<t1tl~ f.!~lr'"d ar,q01!'1{>l1 mB ~ 'lit ~ ",')r,"~ :
( 1 ) '<iIT"!R (2) -aWl '" 111: ~ I (3) f.it1
44
12P/207/31
145. Which one of the following country does not belong to the group?
(1) Austria (2) Russia (3) Ukraine (4) Armenia
f.r8i(~~~~/wf~~W~?
(2) ~ (3) ~ (4) 3l1iIR~1
146. Which is the largest city of Canada?
(1) Ottawa (2) Taranto (3) Montrial (4) Vankuvar
~ <or w.rn 'W 'I'R ~-m ~?
(1) aim<!! (2) i)(;i\ (3) qjR~IM (4) ~3T{
147. Mark out the location of Angel's Waterfall and Marakaibo lake:
(1) Chile (2) Peru (3) Ecuador (4) Venezuela
~ = 1J}i ~1{1q;I~oii ~ oil ff:>lfu ~ ",lfOlq :
(1) m (2) -m<: (3) ~i"f4~\
148. What would be the approximate length of the Great Barier Reef of
Australia?
(1) 1500 Km (2) 2000 Km (3) 2500 Km (4) 3000 Km
3l1f{f<1~1 oil 11m "5[C{R'f -m'AiT (it< ~ -t\q;) oil ~ <'flT'fIT 'F!1 m? (1) 1500 flI;tft (2) 2000 flI;tft
(3) 2500 flI;tft (4) 3000 flI;tft
12P/207/31
149. Which country was previously known as 'Pearl of the Orient'?
(1) India (2) Sri Lanka (3) Malaysia (4) Myanmar
'If>t.I-m ~ ~ '~ q;r -.mil' "*'1ldl "'?
(1) 'lmI (2) ~ (3) ",<'If.lI~1 (4) "'Ii",,,
ISO. Which country do you consider with fuJI of diversities?
(1) Malaysia (2) Philippines(3) Thailand (4) Indonesia
(1) ",<'If.lI~1
46 2,500
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ii 'I "('fJ'i! I
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8. "..,,-SIMi., if JIfiI>n ".." ~ <m' iI .. fiiil .. o;rr ~ rrit ii JIfiI>n ".." ~ iI .. fiiil .. "'" ~ ~ JmT<it o;rr-w '-1fI" .. f.irn >ifi;r ~.mW ~ rrit ~..r o;rr-w ~ "flIT{ ~ '" ~ >Til tmft' ~ JI3Ii7' iFr it """ q;ro t I
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11. <Gi 'liT'! if; ~ Jm'-~I«Iq;1 if; :!"'~" if; *' 'lIffi '1'8" i1'IT 3m-~I«Iq;1 if; :;ifim '1'8" "ihT m <RI
12. m if; ~ Wm 3i'I '?'7 3fT7: o;rr -w m 'l'I'! ii WlT '1h>: ;; I
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~ "ihT/q;[, IJT1ft ~iMil