Name ___________________________ Final Exam Date _____________ 2009 Final Exam Review

Honors BiologyScientific Inquiry

Spontaneous generation vs. Biogenesis Characteristics of life: organization, energy, growth and

development, reproduction, response and adaptation. Scientific method: independent vs. dependent variables,

controls Hypothesis vs. Theory

Basic Chemistry Define atom, element, molecule, isotopes Parts of an atom, atomic #, atomic mass Valence electrons, number of bonds formed by each atom Ionic vs. covalent bonds Single vs. double bonds Polar molecules Properties of water – adhesion, cohesion, surface tension Solutions, solutes, solvents

Biochemistry Define monomer and polymer Carbohydrates –monosaccharides, disaccharides and

polysaccharides. Functions. Examples: sugars, starches, glycogen

Lipids – 1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids, oils, waxes, fats. Energy storage.

o Saturated fats have only single bonds in fatty acid carbon tails.

Proteins – polymer of amino acids. Functions: enzymes, structure, hormones, etc. Function and structure – attractions between amino acids give 3-D shape

Nucleic acids – polymer of nucleotides (A,T, C, G, U). DNA and RNA. Function. Nitrogenous bases and sugar-phosphate backbone.

Enzymes – type of protein. Organic catalyst. “Lock and Key” analogy. Define substrate, active site.

What factors affect the rate of enzyme reaction? Hydrolysis and Dehydration Synthesis

Cell BiologyCell Parts

Robert Hooke and compound microscope Cell theory Cell structures: membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, chromosomes,

ribosomes, ER, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, lysosomes, cilia, flagella, chloroplasts, vacuole, cell wall

Eukaryotic cells vs. prokaryotic cells Plant cells vs. Animal cells

Transport What is the structure of a cell membrane? Define selectively permeable, fluid mosaic model.

Define diffusion, osmosis, passive transport, active transport, equilibrium, concentration gradient.

What factors affect the rate of diffusion? Predict movement of water from hypertonic, hypotonic and

isotonic solutions. Describe/draw endocytosis and exocytosis. Parts of a solution: solvent, solute. Describe results from the following labs: elodea in salt solution,

iodine and glucose moving through dialysis tubing.

Cell Cycle Sexual vs. asexual reproduction Describe the 3 parts of interphase. Major events at each part. Cell division: interphase, replication, stages of mitosis,

cytokinesis Chromatin, sister chromatids, centromeres Mitosis vs meiosis: haploid vs. diploid, homologous pairs Why do cells divide? How does DNA replication occur? Define: base pairing, semi-conservative Describe the structure of a DNA molecule: nucleotide, sugar-

phosphate backbone, nitrogenous bases, hydrogen bonds.

Energy ATP: structure, role, how it supplies energy, ATP vs. ADP Photosynthesis: equation, role of chloroplasts, chlorophyll

(pigments) Major events of light reactions and Calvin cycle (reactants and

products). Cellular respiration: glycolysis vs. aerobic respiration. How

many ATPs made by each? Describe 3 phases of aerobic respiration: glycolysis, Krebs

cycle, electron transport. Overall equation of aerobic respiration: C6H12O6 + 6O2

6CO2 + 6H2O + 36ATP

Mendelian Genetics The pea plant experiments Hybrid vs. purebred, heterozygous vs. homozygous Dominant vs. recessive alleles Mendel’s laws: segregation, dominance, independent

assortment Punnett squares Interpreting pedigrees of sex-linked, dominant and recessive

traits Incomplete dominance, codominance, polygenic traits,

pleiotropy Structure of DNA: nucleotides, bases DNA replication Linked genes, crossing over, recombination Sex linked genes Human genome project Nondisjunction: monosomy, trisomy

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Molecular Genetics Protein synthesis: transcription, translation, where they take

place, components involved, outcome. Splicing: introns vs. exons Codon vs. anticodon Mutations: chromosomal vs. gene mutations, deletion,

duplication, translocation, inversions, frameshift, point. Homologous chromosomes, sister chromatids, centromeres,

genes

Evolution Evolution: Darwin vs. Lamarck Natural selection Gradualism vs. punctuated equilibrium Evidence for evolution: fossils, homologous structures (vs.

analogous structures), vestigial structures, embryology, biochemistry

Types of evolution: speciation, divergent, convergent, coevolution, adaptive radiation

Allele frequencies, gene pool, genetic drift, Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

Distribution curves: directional selection, disruptive selection Peppered moth Heterotroph hypothesis Endosymbiont hypothesis Evolution of primates.

Anatomy Anatomical terms: anterior, posterior, dorsal, ventral, laterial, medial Skeletal system: skull, mandible, humerus, sternum, phalanges, metacarpals, femur, metatarsals Muscular structures: pectoralis, triceps, biceps, obliques, quadriceps, deltoid, trapezius, latissimus dorsi How are skeletal and muscular system connected in both structure and fuction: ligaments, tendons Digestive system: function of major organs. How does structure of each organ complement its function? Respiratory/Circulatory: diaphragm, trachea, larynx, lungs, heart, esophagus, vena cavae, aorta, pulmonary artery and vein Trace the path of blood through the heart and body. Urinary system: function of kidneys, bladder, ureters Reproductive systems: trace the life of a sperm from development until it leaves the male body. Trace the life of an egg from development, to fertilization, to embryonic development. Nervous system: structure and function of neurons, major brain regions, function of spinal cord.

Scientific Inquiry

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?a. cellular organization b. regulationc. adaptation d. breathing

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2. The diagram below shows some of the levels of organization in living things, but it is incomplete. Fill in the missing information.

3. In 1887 a strange nerve disease attacked the people in the Dutch East Indies. The disease was beriberi. Symptoms of the disease included weakness and loss of appetite, victims often died of heart failure. Scientists thought the disease might be caused by bacteria. They injected chickens with bacteria from the blood of patients with beriberi. The injected chickens became sick. However, so did a group of chickens that were not injected with bacteria.

One of the scientists, Dr. Eijkman, noticed something. Before the experiment, all the chickens had eaten whole-grain rice, but during the experiment, the chickens were fed polished rice. Dr. Eijkman researched this interesting case. He found that polished rice lacked thiamine, a vitamin necessary for good health.

State the Problem

What was the hypothesis?

The hypothesis was not supported by the research. What should be the new hypothesis?

Design a controlled experiment to test this new hypothesis.

In the experiment that you developed, what is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable?

4. What is a theory? Why do we say that evolution is a theory? Give an example of a hypothesis.

Basic Chemistry1. The periodic table lists

a. elements in order of increasing atomic number.b. molecules in order of increasing atomic number.c. atoms in order of increasing atomic mass.d. atoms in random order.

2. An atom is called an ion when it has a. either lost or gained electrons. c. more neutrons than protons.b. either lost or gained protons. d. lost its nucleus.

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Atoms

Tissues

Organism

3. An element is made of a. only one type of atom. c. more than one type of atom.b. compounds. d. isotopes only.

4. An atom of oxygen (atomic number 8) has ________ valence electrons. a. 8 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

5. How many covalent bonds will an atom of oxygen make?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

6. Water is a polar molecule. Explain this statement.

7. Which best explains why it is possible to float a paper clip in a glass of ice water?

a. because of cohesion c. because water shrinks when it freezesb. because of adhesion d. because water expands when it freezes

8. Which best explains why water climbs thin tubes found inside tree trunks (xylem)?a. because of cohesion c. because water shrinks when it freezesb. because of adhesion d. because water expands when it freezes

9. Ionic and covalent bonds both a. involve 2 atoms sharing electrons c. help atoms to become

more stableb. involve 2 ions attracting one another d. help atoms to get rid

of electrons.

10. Oxygen has 8 electrons. Which bond would you expect to find holding together an oxygen molecule (O2)?

a. an ionic bond b. a hydrogen bondc. a single covalent bond d. a double covalent bond

11. In a chemical reaction, a. products are combined to form reactantsb. products are combined, but no new substances are formed.c. Reactants are combined to form products.d. Reactants are combined, but no new substances are formed.

12. Two solutions, A and B, are tested using pH paper. Solution A has a pH of 8, solution B has a pH of 7. You conclude:a. solution A is an acid, solution B is neutral c. solution A is a base, solution B is an acidb. solution A is neutral, solution B is a base d. solution A is a base, solution B is neutral.

13. Sodium (Na) has an atomic number of 11. Sodium has _________ valence electrons. Sodium is most likely to form ____________________ (ionic/covalent) bonds. When a sodium atom loses an electron it becomes a ________________________ (positive/negative) ion.

Biochemistry

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1. _______ unsaturated fat a. organic catalyst2. _______ pH of 13 b. molecule made up of repeating

subunits3. _______ dehydration synthesis c. a lipid containing C-C double bonds4. _______ hydrolysis d. connects two amino acids5. _______ C6H12O6 e. building of complex molecules from

simple molecules6. _______ polymer f. base

g. disaccharide7. _______ peptide bond h. digestion is accomplished by this

reaction8. _______ enzyme i. acid9. _______ C12H22O11 j. glucose10. _______ pH 4

11. Label the diagram below using the following words: enzyme-substrate complex, active site, enzyme, substrate, product.

13. Which term best describes salt that has been mixed into a beaker of water?a. solute b. mixture c. isotope d. solvent

14. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons anda. a different number of electrons b. a different number of moleculesc. a different number of neutrons d. the same number of electrons

15. When sodium and chlorine react, they form __________________.a. a gas b. an ionic bond c. a covalent bond d. a polar molecule

16. Which of the following is not a basic function of proteins in living things? a. energy storage b. enzymes c. defense against disease

d. hormones

17. Which process would break down glycogen in your liver?a. hydrolysis b. dehydration synthesis c. condensation

d. isomerization

18. Which of the following is an example of a polymer?

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12. List two environmental factors that can change and enzyme’s rate of action.

a. glucose b. starch c. amino acid d. glycerol

19. In living things, enzymes do not as a rule:a. affect specific substratesb. speed up chemical reactionsc. remain permanently linked to the substratesd. survive their reaction with the substrates

20. Sugars, starches, cellulose, and other similar organic compounds which contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are calleda. amino acids b. proteins c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates

21. Water molecules are polar, with the a. oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side slightly negativeb. oxygen and hydrogen side being slightly positivec. oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side slightly positived. oxygen and hydrogen side being slightly negative

22. Which statement is true? a. simple sugars are made of polysaccharidesb. glycerol is made of fatty acidsc. RNA molecules are made of nucleotidesd. amino acids are made of proteins

23. Fat molecules and carbohydrate molecules contain large amounts of energy because

a. Both contain many hydrogen bonds.b. Both contain many covalent bonds.c. Both are easily dissolved in water.d. Both are polar.

24. What two molecules are produced when two glucose molecules are chemically bonded together?a) a lipid and an enzyme b) a polypeptide and oxygenc) a disaccharide and H2O d.) a polysaccharide and CO2

25. Which is the correct order from smallest to largest?a. amino acid, atom, dipeptide, electron, protein, protonb. electron, proton, atom, amino acid, dipeptide, proteinc. proton, protein, electron, atom, dipeptide, amino acidd. none of these.

26. Many land plants store energy in starch. When energy is needed, the starch molecules can be broken down quickly into its constituent parts. This chemical reaction produces which of the following? a. amino acids b. lipids c. monosaccharides d. RNA chains

d. nucleotides

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Cell Biology

1. Who was the first person to use the term “cells” to describe the structures that make up living things? a. Robert Hooke b. Rudolph Virchow c. Anton van Leeuwenhoek d. Theodor Schwann

2. Which of the following is not a principle of the cell theory?a. All living things are composed of one or more cells. b. All cells are alike in structure and function.c. The cell is the basic unit of structure and organization in

organisms. d. Cells only come from pre-existing cells by division.

3. The microscopes you used in class have a 10x ocular lens. If you align the nosepiece so that you are also looking through the high-power (40x) objective lens, with what total magnification will you see your specimen?

a. 50x b. 100x c. 140 x d. 400x

4. Which organelle is involved in the production of protein?a. ribosomes b. lysosomes c. cilia d.

chloroplasts

5. Most cells lacking chloroplasts also lack ________.a. mitochondria b. cell wall c. cell membrane d. vacuole

6. Which cell part is correctly matched to its function?a. ribosomes – make sugarb. cell membrane – contains genetic codec. chloroplast – controls cell division d. mitochondria – produce usable energy

7. Which organelle is represented by the picture at the right?

a. mitochondria b. chloroplastc. Golgi body d. vacuole

8. The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by

a. covalent bonds b. ionic bondsc. hydrogen bonds d. peptide bonds

9. The solution in the beaker is ______________ to the cell.a. Isotonic b. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic d. Exotonic

10. Which direction will water move in the above diagram?a. up the concentration gradient, out of the cell.

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2% 4%

b. down the concentration gradient, out of the cell.b. up the concentration gradient, into the cell.c. down the concentration gradient, into the cell.

11. Most solutions are a mixture of substances. The ________ is the dissolved substance in a solution. A __________ is the substance in which molecules are dissolved. a.solute, solvent b. solute, solution c. salute, solution d. solvent, solute

12. Organisms obtain energy for their cells by breaking down food molecules to form ATP. This process is known as

a. photosynthesis b. mitosis c. replication d. respiration

What organelles are represented by each of the arrows below?

1. 2.3.4.5.6.8.9.10.11. 13.14.

MATCHING:13. ______ Diffusion A. Movement of molecules from an area of

greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration

14. ______ Equilibrium B. Diffusion of water across a cell membrane15. ______ Hypertonic C. Solute concentration is the same inside

and outside the cell. 16. ______ Hypotonic D. Balance, molecules are equally spread out17. ______ Isotonic E. More solute outside the cell, water leaves

and the cell shrinks. 18. ______ Osmosis F. Less solute outside the cell, water enters the cell.

19. FILL IN:

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chlorophyll matrix thylakoids electron transportKrebs stroma heterotroph granaautotroph light reaction Calvin mitochondriarespiration glycolysis pigment cytoplasm

(outside)

A(n) ___________ is an organism that is able to make its own food. Green plants are organisms whose cells contain specialized organelles called chloroplasts. Within each chloroplast are membranes known as _____________, which are arranged in stacks known as _____________. These membranes contain pigment molecules that absorb certain colors of light. The major pigment found in plant cells is ______________. A gel-like material called ___________ surrounds these membranes and is the location of the _____________ cycle.

A(n) _______________ is an organism that cannot make its own food, and so must consume energy from other organism. These organisms use a process known as ________________ to convert food molecules into usable energy. This reaction takes place in the ___________________ and consists of three parts: ___________________, _________________, and the _______________ cycle. The result of this reaction is production of energy, or ___________ that the cell can use for various functions.

20. Cytokinesis begins and new nuclei form duringa. Metaphase b. Telophasec. Prophase d. Interphase

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancerous cells? a. Progress through the cell cycle slowly b.Invade neighboring tissues c. Divide uncontrollably, forming tumors. d. Lose attachments to neighboring cells

22. In anaphase, the sister chromatidsa. condense and become thicker c. join togetherb. separate into identical sets of chromosomes d. form

nuclei

23. A cell membrane is a thick layer of lipids and __________.a. water b. protein c. monosaccharide d.

prokaryotes

24. The fluid mosaic model presents the modern view of _____________.a. chromosomes b. the nucleusc. a membrane’s structure d. multicellular

organisms

25. Bacteria have all of the following organelles EXCEPT ____________.a. ribosomes b. a cell membranec. a nucleus d. cytoplasm

26. Which combination of concentration gradient and temperature would diffuse fastest?

a. small concentration gradient and low temperatureb. small concentration gradient and high temperaturec. large concentration gradient and low temperatured. large concentration gradient and high temperature

27. The most common solvent inside a cell is10

a. salt b. water c. osmosis d. diffusion

28. What type of organisms provide almost all the energy in the biosphere?a. Heterotrophs b. photosynthesizers c. Eukaryoted. predators

29. What two energy-storing molecules are produced by the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a. CO2 and O2 c. NADPH and ATPb. Lactic acid and ATP d. Pyruvate and ethyl alcohol

30. What types of organisms do cellular respiration?a. autotrophs only c. heterotrophs onlyb. autotrophs and heterotrophsd. yeast and bacteria only

31. What happens to light energy during photosynthesis?a. It is transformed into heat energyb. It is transformed into chemical energyc. It is changed into carbon dioxided. It is reflected

Mendelian Genetics

1. Transferring pollen from the male parts of one plant to the female parts of another plant results in:

a. Self-pollination c. Cross-pollinationb. Hybrids d. Incomplete dominance

2. Because only tall plants were produced when pure short and tall plants were crossed, Mendel concluded that the tall trait is:

a. Dominant b. Recessive c. Pure d. Hidden

3. When pure tall plants are crossed with pure short plants, the recessive trait:

a. Shows up in the first generationc. Shows up in the second generation

b. Never shows up d. Becomes dominant4. When two hybrids are crossed, the ratio of possible phenotypes is:

a. 3:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 2:1 d. 4:1

5. Organisms that have 2 of the same genes for a particular trait are called:

a. Hybrids b. Dihybrids c. Homozygous d. Heterozygous

6. Type of inheritance shown when a red cow is crossed with a white bull and the offspring in the F1 generation appear roan (white and red spots). a. Inbreeding b. polygenic inheritance c. Incomplete dominance d. codominance

7. A trait, such as height, that is controlled by several different genes that are inherited independently from one another.

a. homologous alleles b. polygenic c. autosomes d. multiple alleles

8. The 23rd pair of chromosomes, different in males and females 11

a. autosomes b. multiple alleles c. sex chromosomes d. polygenes

9. If a females fruit fly homozygous for red eyes is crossed with a white eyed male, what percentage of the offspring would have white eyes? (White eyes is an X-liked recessive trait.)

a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%

10. If two of the F1 offspring from question 4 were crossed, what percentage of the F2 generation would have white eyes?

a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%

11. Because the gene for red-green colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, it is NOT normally possible for a _____.

a. carrier mother to pass the gene on to her daughterb. carrier mother to pass on the gene on to her sonc. colorblind father to pass on the gene on to his daughterd. colorblind father to pass on the gene on to his son

12. In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p). Which of the following crosses represents a testcross?

a. PP x PP b. PP x Pp c. Pp x pp d. Pp x Pp

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13. The result from crossing a white snapdragon and a red snapdragon is 100% pink offspring. When two of these pink offspring are crossed, the probable phenotypic ratio of their offspring would be

a. 100% pink c. 75% red, 25% white b. 75% red, 25% white d. 25% red, 50% pink, 25%

white

Molecular Genetics

1. Fruit flies have 8 chromosomes in each body cell. Fill in the chart below.

PhaseNumber of chromosomes

Number of homologous pairs

Is this cell haploid or diploid?

During Interphase

End of MitosisEnd of Meiosis IEnd of Meiosis IIAfter Fertilization

2. The stage of meiosis in which the chromosome number is reduced from 2n to 1n is

a. metaphase II b. anaphase II c. metaphase Id. telophase I

3. A partial diagram of reproduction is shown to the right. Which of the following labels belongs in the oval marked X?

a. egg b. fetus c. sperm d. embryo

4. What is the probability that a human sperm cell will contain an X chromosome?

a. 0 % b. 25 % c. 50 %d. 100 %

5. Human females produce egg cells that have

a. one X chromosomeb. two X chromosomesc. one X or one Y chromosomed. one X and one Y chromosome

6. DNA and RNA…a. are both nucleic acids c. both are double strandedb. have the same nitrogen carrying bases d. both have the shape of a double helix

6. A twin study finds that identical twins score more closely on an intelligence test than do fraternal twins. These findings suggest that

a. intelligence is a learned traitb. intelligence is dependent on a person’s environmentc. intelligence is an inherited trait

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Meiosis Meiosis

Female gamete

Male gamete

Fertilization

Zygote

X

d. a child’s intelligence will be similar to his/her parents’

Use the following diagram to answer questions 7 – 10.

7. Structure A represents a. a chromosome b. a centromere c.

gene d. sister chromatids e. homologous pair

8. Structure B represents a. a chromosome b. a centromere c.

gene d. sister chromatids e. homologous pair

9. Structure C represents a. a chromosome b. a centromere c.

gene d. sister chromatids e. homologous pair

10. Structure D represents a. a chromosome b. a centromere c.

gene d. sister chromatids e. homologous pair

11. Non-disjunction occurs during which process?a. mitosis b. replication c. protein synthesis d. meiosis

12. Place the following stages of protein synthesis in the correct order.

I. transcriptionII. amino acids are linked together with peptide bondsIII. mRNA attaches to a subunit of the ribosomeIV. tRNA matches its anticodon to the codon of mRNA

a. III, I, IV, IIb. I, III, IV, IIc. IV, II, I, IIId. I, IV, II, III

13. The genetic code consists of __________ different codons, which code for ________ different amino acids.

a. 3, 20 b. 64, 3 c. 20, 64 d. 64, 20

14. The major event that occurs during meiosis II isa. formation of 2 haploid cellsb. separation of sister chromatidsc. formation of tetrads and crossing overd. separation of homologous chromosomes

15. Fruit fly body cells contain 8 chromosomes. The diploid (2n) number for fruit flies is

a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 1614

A

B

C

D

Questions 16 – 18 are based on the following diagram:MOLECULE A transcription MOLECULE B translation PRODUCT

16. In the above series of reactions, Molecule A would be…

a) DNA b) RNA c) carbohydrate d) chlorophyll

17. In the above series of reactions, Molecule B would be…a) DNA b) RNA c) protein d) a lipid chain

28. In the above series of reactions, the Product would be…a) DNA b) RNA c) protein d) chromosome

Evolution1. The theory of evolution predicts that:

a. closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences

b. if species have changes over time, their genes should have changed

c. closely related species show similarities in amino acid sequences

d. all of the above

2. The fur color in domestic cats is an example of:a. variation b. choice c. genetic drift d. adaptation

3. Species evolve adaptations for all of the following except:a. Increase variation in a population b. Hide from predatorsc. Catch food d. Attract a mate e. Defend against disease

6. A porcupine’s sharp quills are used to deter predators. They are an example of

a. Mutatioin b. Niche c. Variation d. Adaptation

7. A change in the structure of a gene of a chromosome is called a:a. mutation b. characteristic c. resource d. variation

8. Change in a population over a period of time is called:a. biogenesis b. periodic catastrophe c. extinction d.

evolution

9. Organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring are members of the same:

a. evolved population c. family c. species d. niche

10.The breeding of pigeons to have exaggerated physical characteristics is an example of a. Natural Selection c. Gradualism c Mate Selectiond. Artificial Selection

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11.What is the human tailbone an example of?a. biochemical structure c. fossil recordb. d. homologous structure d. vestigial structure

12.Which of the following lists animals that are members of the same species?

a. Polar bear and Grizzly bear c. Lion and Tigerb. Dalmatian and Golden Retriever d. Horse and Donkey

13.Which organisms probably have more similarity between their DNA?a. Dogs and cats c. Snakes and chickensb. Fish and humans d. Oak trees and elephants

14.What is the source of genetic variability?a. Crossing over c. Mutations

b. Segregation and random recombination d. All of the above

15.How do Mendel’s findings affect Darwin’s work?a. Darwin used Mendel’s theory to explain the source of the

inheritance of variationsb. Darwin was unaware of Mendel’s workc. Mendel’s work did not apply to Darwin’s theoryd. The scientific world immediately accepted Mendel’s findings

and used them to explain Darwin’s theorye. The two were unrelated

16.Which term describes structures similar in purpose but not inherited from common ancestors?

a. Homologous b. Embryonic c. Analogous d. Vestigial

17.Place the following vertebrates in order, from first to most recent in the.

(I) Amphibians (II) Fish (III) Reptiles (IV) Mammals

a. I, II, III, IV b. III, I, IV, II c. II, I, III, IVd. II, III, IV, I

18.The human arm, the whale fin, and the bat wing are traits that may have evolved from a common ancestor. They are:

a. Divergent structures c. Vestigial structuresb. Homologous structures d. Analogous structures

19.Genetic drift is most likely to causea. Quantitative trait loci c. Microevolutionb. Macroevolution d. Chemical evolution

20. Which of these is not a problem that arises when a population is greatly reduced in size?

a. a population bottleneck d. inbreeding depressionb. population polymorphism

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c. a greater number of homozygotes with harmful recessive alleles.

21. Originally, mitochondria were probably most similar toa. Unicellular fungi c. Autotrophic cyanobacteriab. Heterotrophic prokaryotes d. Paramecium

22.The absence of oxygen in Earth’s early atmosphere a. Suggests that early life forms may have been methanogens.b. Resulted in a much thicker ozone layer than we have today.c. Suggests that early life forms were autotrophs.d. Made DNA mutations unlikely.

23.A population of wolves divides into two groups because of the

migration of some individual to a new area in which the environmental conditions are different. Both groups continue to evolve. This is an example of

a. Geographic isolation c. Adaptive radiation b. Behavioral isolation d. Coevolution.

24.What characteristics are shared by all primates? What characteristics are unique to humans and other hominids?

25.According to the heterotroph hypothesis, Earth's earliest life forms____.a. ate other living things for foodb. could not photosynthesizec. evolved under the Earth's surfaced. did not contain DNA

27. Researchers using the technique of Miller and Urey have been able to produce

a. amino acids and nucleotides c. ATP and mitochondriab. proteins and DNA d. cell membranes and simple

cells

28. Why did Edwin Hubble conclude from his observations of light from distant galaxies that the universe is expanding?

a. The intensity of light is decreasing.b. The wavelength of light is increasing.c. The speed of light is decreasing.d. The frequency of light is increasing.

29. What is the current best estimate of the age of the earth?a. 40 billion b. 4 billion years c. 40 million years d. 4 million

years

30. When did oxygen begin to accumulate in the Earth's atmosphere?a. When photosynthetic organisms began to produce it.b. After the first volcanic eruptions.c. As soon as Earth formed.d. When animals evolved to consume it.

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31. In laboratory experiments designed to simulate conditions on early Earth, which of the following molecules is NOT produced?

a. ribose b. DNA c. glycine d. cytosine

32. Why do scientists think RNA, not DNA, was the first genetic material?a. RNA can store information and act as an enzyme.b. DNA copies itself but can not store information.c. DNA did not exist in early cells.d. RNA sometimes forms a double helix.

33. How is biological evolution distinct from chemical evolution?a. Biological evolution preceded chemical evolution in the origin of

life.b. Not all organisms on Earth undergo biological evolution.c. Biological evolution is not affected by mutations.d. Biological evolution happens when organisms can self-replicate.

34. How does the endosymbiont hypothesis explain the evolution of eukaryotes?

a. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes evolved simultaneously and independently.

b. Eukaryotes evolved when large prokaryotes absorbed small prokaryotes.

c. Eukaryotes evolved by competition and natural selection.d. Eukaryotes evolved organelles from free-living eukaryotic cells.

Anatomy1. Describe the function of the following:

Spleen Diaphragm Epiglottis Trachea Esophagus Aorta Small intestine Large

intestine

Pancreas Liver Larynx Vena Cava Seminal

vesicles Fallopian tube Testes Ovaries

Neuron Olfactory Bulb Cerebrum Corpus

callosum Hypothalamus Cerebellum Spinal cord

Label the diagrams below:

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Word BankSmall IntestineLiverStomachLarge IntstineMouthGall BladderRectumPancreasAnusEsophagus

Word Bank:Kidney, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra

Trace the path of oxygenated blood from the lungs, through the heart and body, and back to the lungs. Put the following in order:

____ deoxygenated blood returns to the heart via vena cava.

____ blood enters left atrium and is pumped to left ventricle

____ deoxygenated blood enters the lungs for gas exchange (CO2 out O2 in)

____ Oxygenated blood leaves lungs through pulmonary vein____ blood leaves the heart through the pulmonary artery____ blood is pumped into the right atrium, then the right ventricle____ oxygen-rich blood leaves the heart through the aorta and is pumped

throughout the body

Veins usually carry blood (toward/away from) the heart. Arteries usually carry blood (toward/away from) the heart. An exception to this rule is seen in the ______________ vein and artery.

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Word BankPeripheral nerveSpinal Cord

Word Bank: kidney, urinary bladder, ureters, urethra