Chapter 1Multiple Choice Questions

 1. Mrs. Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes, without interpretation, that the student is not completing the class work and is constantly speaking out of turn. Which of the following objectives does she appear to be using?a. prediction b. descriptionc. explanationd. exploration 2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems? a. action research b. basic researchc. predictive researchd. orientational research

3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study? a. you should completely trust a single research study.b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have found the same findingsc. neither a nor bd. both a and b

4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research?a. basic researchb. action researchc. evaluation researchd. orientational research 

5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?a. rationalismb. deductive reasoningc. inductive reasoningd. probabilistic 6. The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal explanatory value, one should select the theory that is the most simple, concise, and succinct is known as ____________.a. criterion of falsifiabilityb. critical theoryc. guide of simplicityd. rule of parsimony

7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but different people" is which of the following?a. explorationb. hypothesisc. replicationd. empiricism

8.  ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.a. rationalismb. deductive reasoningc. logicd. empiricism

9. According to your text, what are the five key objectives of science?a. prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, descriptionb. influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answersc. exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influenced. questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary

10. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was:a.  Explanationb.  Descriptionc.  Influenced.  Prediction 11. There is a set of churches in the U.S. where part of the service involves snake handling. The researcher wants to find out why the people attending these churches do this and how they feel and think about it. In this case, the primary purpose of the study is:a.  Explorationb.  Descriptionc.  Influenced.  Prediction 12.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or explanation?a.  It is parsimoniousb.  It is testablec.  It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or persond.  All of the above are characteristics of good theories 13.  Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science?a.  Science cannot provide answers to all questionsb.  It is possible to distinguish between more and less plausible claimsc.  Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms and practicesd.  Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as whether abortion is immoral 14. What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher advance an ideological or political position?a.  Evaluation research  b.  Basic researchc.  Action researchd.  Orientational research 15. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?a. Inductiveb. Deductivec. Imductived. Top down 16. Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge generation?a. Empiricismb. Rationalismc. Expert opiniond. None of the above 17. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?a. Deductive methodb. Inductive methodc. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method

 18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?a. Deductive methodb. Inductive methodc. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method 19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?a. Deductive methodb. Inductive methodc. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method 20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?a. Deductive methodb. Inductive methodc. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method 21. Which of the following statements is true of a theory?a. it most simply means “explanation”b. it answers the “how” and “why” questionsc. it can be a well developed explanatory systemd. all of the above are correct Answers:1. b2. a3. b

4. a5. b6. d

7. c8. d9. c

10. a11. a12. d

13. d14. d15. a

16. b17. a18. b

19. a20. b21. d

 

Chapter 2Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?a. quantitative researchb. qualitative researchc. mixed researchd. none of the above

 2. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?a. quantitative researchb. qualitative researchc. mixed researchd. none of the above

 3. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?a. the collection of nonnumerical datab. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypothesesc. research that is exploratoryd. research that attempts to generate a new theory

4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.a. a constantb. a variablec. a cause-and-effect relationshipd. a descriptive relationship

5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):a. categorical variableb. dependent variablec. independent variabled. intervening variable

6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical datab. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effectc. it uses the deductive scientific methodd. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment

 7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interestb. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and picturesc. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the worldd. it uses the inductive scientific method

 8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships?a. nonexperimental Researchb. experimental Research

9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?a. extraneous variables are never presentb. a positive correlation usually existsc. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent variable

10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate the independent variable.a. basic researchb. quantitative researchc. experimental researchd. causal-comparative and correlational research

11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?a. resistance to manipulationb. manipulation of the independent variablec. the use of open-ended questionsd. focuses only on local problems

12. A positive correlation is present when _______.a. two variables move in opposite directions.b. two variables move in the same direction.c. one variable goes up and one goes downd. several variables never change.

13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______.a. action researchb. basic researchc. quantitative researchd. mixed method researche. mixed model research

14. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research within a stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.a. action researchb. basic researchc. quantitative researchd. mixed method researche. mixed model research

15. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?a. experimental researchb. historical researchc. replicationd. archival research

16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.a. causal-comparative researchb. experimental researchc. ethnographyd. correlational research

17. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?a. age, temperature, income, heightb. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performancec. gender, religion, ethnic groupd. both a and b

18. What is the opposite of a variable?a. a constantb. an extraneous variablec. a dependent variabled. a data set

19. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is categorical?a. causal-comparative researchb. experimental researchc. qualitative researchd. mixed research

20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?a. ageb. annual incomec. grade point averaged. religion

21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.a. variableb. methodc. constantd. control group

22. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two variables, it is very important to avoid _______.a. checking the strength of relationshipb. jumping to the conclusion of causalityc. checking the direction of the relationshipd. expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient

 23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She believes that parent involvement has an impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study?a. Manipulated variableb. Extraneous variablec. Confounding variabled. Mediating or intervening variable 24. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods?a. Experimentalb. Causal-comparativec. Correlationald. Ethnography 25. Which correlation is the strongest?a.   +.10b.   -.95c.   +.90d.  -1.00 26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:a. Positiveb. Negativec. Perfectd. They are not correlated Answers:1. c2. b3. b4. b

5. c6. d7. a8. b

9. d10. d11. b12. b

13. d14. e15. b16. b

17. d18. a19. a20. d

21. c22. b23. d24. a

25. d26. a

 

Chapter 3Multiple Choice Questions

 1. A good qualitative problem statement:a. Defines the independent and dependent variablesb. Conveys a sense of emerging designc. Specifies a research hypothesis to be testedd. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find  2. The “tool” function of theory is to:a. Summarize existing knowledgeb. Summarize existing hypothesesc. Suggest new relationships and make new predictionsd. Suggest new theories 3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:a. Identify the design of the studyb. Identify the intent or objective of the studyc. Specify the type of people to be used in the studyd. Describe the study

 4. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive development of school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research question?a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitivedevelopmentb. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activitiesto conduct the studyc. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricularactivitiesd. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of thevariables being investigated 5. A qualitative research question:a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be exploredb. Is generally an open-ended questionc. both a and b are correctd. None of the above 6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the development of a research idea?a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesisb. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesisc. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesisd. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose 7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.a. Trueb. False 8.  One step that is not included in planning a research study is:a.  Identifying a researchable problem b.  A review of current researchc.  Statement of the research question d.  Conducting a meta-analysis of the researche.  Developing a research plan 9.  Sources of researchable problems can include: a.  Researchers’ own experiences as educatorsb.  Practical issues that require solutionsc.  Theory and past research d.  All of the above 10.  A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that: a.  Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions b.  Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer 11.  Which of the following is a function of theory?a.  Integrating and summarizing current knowledgeb.  Making predictionsc.  Explaining phenomenad. All of the above are important functions of theory

 12.  A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which of the following?a.  To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interestb.  To identify potential methodological problems in the research areac.  To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest d.  All of the above 13.  Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not recommended by grounded theorists.a.  Trueb.  False 14.  What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched? a.  Effectiveness of different methods of instructionb.  Description of educational practicesc.  Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schoolsd.  Factors helpful in predicting future drug use  15.  Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during the literature review?a.  ERICb.  PsychINFOc.  SocioFILE d.  all of the above are potentially useful data bases 16.  Computer database searches can be done:a.  With a computer with CD-ROM driveb.  At the libraryc.  Onlined.  All of the above 17.  The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:a.  Cost and time required to conduct the studyb.  Skills required of the researcherc.  Potential ethical concernsd.  All of the above 18.  A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally ______.a.  Is made prior to the literature review b.  Is made after the literature reviewc.  Will help guide the research process d.  All of the abovee.  b and c 19.  Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly stated”? “The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing encounters of patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of the surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital.”a. It is a well statedb. It is poorly stated 

20.  Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?a.  “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic performance?” b.  “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall grade point average during the football season?” 21.  A statement of the quantitative research question should:a.   Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will      addressb.   Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures, and      materials c.   Specify the variables of interest d.  All of the above 22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?a. Introductionb. Methodc. Data analysisd. Discussion 23.  Research hypotheses are ______.a.  Formulated prior to a review of the literature b.  Statements of predicted relationships between variablesc.  Stated such that they can be confirmed or refutedd.  b and c 24.  Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.a.  Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the studyb.  Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzedc.  Are never usedd. Are always stated after the research study has been completed 25.  A research plan _____.a.  Should be detailedb.  Should be given to others for review and comments c.  Sets out the rationale for a research studyd.  All of the above 26.  The Method section of the research plan typically specifiesa.  The research participants b.  The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest c.  The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research studyd.  The planned research procedurese.  a, c and d 27.  The Introduction section of the research plana.  Gives an overview of prior relevant studiesb.  Contains a statement of the purpose of the studyc.  Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it includes      the research hypothesis d.  All of the above 

28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?a. Everyday lifeb. Practical issuesc. Past researchd. Theorye. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas Answers:1. b 2. c3. b4. d

5. c6. a7. a8. d

9. d10. b11. d12. d

13. a14. c15. d16. d

17. d18. e19. a20. b

21. d22. b23. d24. b

25. d26. e27. d28. e

Chapter 4Multiple Choice Questions

1. Ethics is the set of principles and guidelines that help us to uphold the things we value.a. Trueb. False 2. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent?a.  A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried outb.  A description of the purpose of the researchc.  A description of the reliability and validity of test instrumentsd.  A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years 3. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children?a.   Informed consent from the parent or guardianb.  Assent from the child if he or she is capablec.  Informed consent from the childd.  Both a and b 4. Which of the following is true about the use of deception in research?a.  It should never be used b.  It can be used anytimec.  If there is deception in a study, the participants may need to be debriefedd.  The use of deception must be outweighed by other benefits of the studye.  Both c and d are true 5. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies conducted in the field?a.  Getting informed consentb.  Keeping participants from physical harmc.  Maintaining consent formsd.  Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality  6. What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical acceptability of a research study?a.  Utilitarianismb.  Deontologyc.  Ethical skepticismd.  Comparativeism 

7. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be judged on the basis of some universal code?a. Deontologicalb. Ethical skepticismc. Utilitarianism

8 Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans?a. Getting informed consent of the participantb. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been completedc. Keeping participants’ identity anonymousd. Telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time

9. Which of the three ethics approaches says research ethics should be a matter of the individual's conscience?a. Deontological approachb. Ethical skepticismc. Utilitarianismd. Ontological skepticism

10. ________ means that the participant's identity, although known to the researcher, is not revealed to anyone outside of the researcher and his or her staff.a. Anonymityb. Confidentiality

11. Which of the following is not true?a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonestb. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detectc. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detectd. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem

12. Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher. This is called:a. Anonymityb. Confidentialityc. Deceptiond. Desensitizing

13. Which of the following approaches taken by people to resolve ethical issues is the primary approach used by the federal government and most professional organizations? a. Deontological approachb. Ethical skepticismc. Utilitarianismd. None of the above

14. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and staff?a. Confidentialityb. Anonymityc. Ethicsd. Discretion

15. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?a. Guidelinesb. A commitmentc. Informed consentd. Private information

16. There are three basic approaches that people tend to adopt when considering ethical issues in research. Which one of the following is not one of the approaches?a. Ethical skepticismb. Deontologyc. Ontologyd. Utilitarianism

17. Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in which all aspects of the study are revealed, reasons for the use of deception are given, and the participants’ questions are answered?a. Desensitizingb. Debriefingc. Dehoaxingd. Deploying 18. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called ____.a. Research ethicsb. Deontological approachc. Utilitarianismd. None of the above

19. IRB is an acronym for which of the following?a. Internal Review Boardb. Institutional Rating Boardc. Institutional Review Boardd. Internal Request Board 

20. When it is necessary to engage in a good amount of deception to conduct a scientifically valid study, what procedure(s) should a researcher consider following?a. Debriefingb. Dehoaxingc. Desensitizingd. All of the above should be considered

21. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or publication refers to which of the following professional issues:a. Partial publicationb. Duplicate publicationc. Deceptiond. Full publication 22. Concerning "authorship" in educational research, intellectual ownership is predominantly a function of:a.   Effort expendedb.   Creative contributionc.   Professional positiond.   Level of higher education

23. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large study?a. Duplicate publicationb. Partial publication

c. Triplicate publicationd. None of these

24. Which of the following is a right of each participant according to the AERA?a. Deceptionb. Utilitarianismc. Freedom to withdrawd. Participants have no rights Answers:1. a2. b3. d

4. e5. d6. a

7. a8. b9. b

10. b11. b12. a

13. c14. a15. c

16. c17. b18. a

19. c20. d21. b

22. b23. b24. c

 

Chapter 5Multiple Choice Questions

 1. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and measurement?a.  Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be usefulb.  Error is rarely present in the measurement processc.  Present-day behavior predicts future behaviord.  Testing and assessment benefit society 2. Systematic error is associated with:a.  Reliabilityb.  Validity 3. Which of the following is a type of criterion–related validity evidence?a.  Concurrent evidenceb.  Predictive evidencec.  Internal consistencyd.  Both a and b are correct answers 4. If a test measures a single construct then:a.  The items should correlate with the total scoreb.  The items should not correlate with the total scorec.  The test should not correlate with other measures of the same constructd.  There must be a reliable alternative form. 5. Professor X develops a test of emotional intelligence. Which of the following represent convergent and discriminant evidence?a.  The test correlates highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is                 uncorrelated with self-efficacyb.  The test correlates with highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is            highly correlated with self-efficacyc.  The test does not correlate with another test of emotional intelligence, but does                 correlate with self-efficacyd.  The test does not correlate with other tests of emotional intelligence nor with self-            efficacy 6. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics.a. Trueb. False 

7. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?a. Nominalb. Ordinalc. Intervald. Ratio

8.  ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal learning that goes on in life.a. Personalityb. Achievementc. Aptituded. Intelligence 9. Let’s say that a test accurately indicates participants’ scores on a future criterion (e.g., the PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). This test would clearly have which of the following?a. Face validityb. Concurrent validityc. Predictive validityd. Content validity 10. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used?a. Interval scaleb. Ratio scalec. Nominal scaled. Ordinal scale 11. According to the text, most of the outcome/dependent variable characteristics and attributes measured in educational research probably exist at the ______________ level of measurement.a. Nominalb. Ordinalc. Intervald. Ratio 12. Which of the following is most clearly an example of a psychological trait?a. Anxiety enduring for months or yearsb. Anxiety over just seeing a spiderc. Shyness when meeting a stranger for the first timed. Depression caused by the loss of a ball game 13. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________:a.  Wechsler Scalesb.  Stanford-Binetc.  Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)d.  Slosson 14. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?a.  Consistency or stabilityb.  Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scoresc.  Ways in which people are the samed.  A rank order of participants on some characteristic 15. An ordinal scale is:a. The simplest form of measurementb. A rank-order scale of measurementc. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbersd. A scale with an absolute zero pointe. A categorical scale

16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability?a. Test-retestb. Split-halfc. Contentd. Internal consistency

17. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability?a.  Measure of consistency of test scores over timeb.  Measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of the same testc.  Measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or conceptd.  Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or raters 18. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores over time?a. Equivalent forms reliabilityb. Split-half reliabilityc. Test-retest reliabilityd. Inter-scorer reliability

19. Identify the following term that most closely refers to a judgement of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees' performance in some activity:a. Content reliabilityb. Face validityc. Criterion-related validity d. Inference validity 20. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens’ four levels of measurement?a. Ordinal, nominal, ratio, intervalb. Nominal, ordinal, interval, ratioc. Interval, nominal, ordinal, ratiod. Ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal

21. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores?a. Validationb. Validityc. Reliabilityd. Prediction

22. When evaluating tests and assessments, “reliability” refers to asking ourselves which of the following questions?a.  Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?b.  Are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something?c.  Does it give consistent results?d.  Does it measure multiple constructs? 23. Validity of a test designed to measure a construct such as self-esteem is best described by which of the following?a.  Scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence testsb.  Scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different constructsc.  Scores from the test are not correlated with anythingd.  Scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive correlation with other tests of thesame construct (i.e., with other measures of self-esteem) but much lower correlationswith tests of different constructs 24. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals' scores on two  equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic? a.  Split-halfb.  Test-retest

c.  Split-formsd.  Equivalent forms

25. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that has taken place after a person has been exposed to a specific learning experience.a.   Trueb.   False 26. _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic.a. Construct validity evidenceb. Criterion-related validity evidencec. Content validity evidenced. Face validity evidence Answers:1. b2. b3. d4. a

5. a6. a7. a8. c

9. c10. b11. b12. a

13. c14. a15. b16. c

17. a18. c19. c20. b

21. a22. c23. d24. d

25. a26. c

Chapter 6Multiple Choice Questions

 1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?a. Fiveb. Fourc. Tend. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points 2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your current age?”1-55-1010-2020-3030-40a. The categories are not mutually exclusiveb. The categories are not exhaustivec. Both a and b are problemsd. There is no problem with the above set of response categories 3. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths and nonoverlapping weaknesses. This is known as the fundamental principle of mixed research.a. Trueb. False 4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place when?a. In the past (retrospective questions)b. In the present (current time questions)c. In the future (prospective questions)d. All of the above 5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructsb. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs

c. Avoid double-barreled questionsd. All of the abovee. Only  b and c 6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.a. Questionnairesb. Interviewsc. Experimentsd. Observations

7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?a. Official documentsb. Personal documentsc. Archived research datad. All of the above

8. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response is called a ____________.a. Response setb. Probec. Semantic differentiald. Contingency question 9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?a. Primary datab. Secondary datac. Experimental datad. Field notes 10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s predetermined response categoriesb. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own wordsc. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own wordsd. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words 11. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.a.  Confirmatory datab.  Qualitative datac.  Predictive datad.  None of the above 12. Which of the following is true concerning observation?a. It takes less time than self-report approachesb. It costs less money than self-report approachesc. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they dod. All of the above 13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also called ___________ observation.a. Structuredb. Naturalisticc. Completed. Probed 

14. As discussed in chapter 6, when constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following except  ______.a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questionsb. Use natural languagec. Understand your research participantsd. Pilot your test questionnaire 15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):a. Interview protocolb. Event samplingc. Summated rating scaled. Ranking

16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by educational researchers?a.  Observationb.  Interviewsc.  Questionnairesd.  Checklists 17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called:a. The interview guide approachb. The informal conversational interviewc. A closed quantitative interviewd. The standardized open-ended interview 18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:a. Questionnairesb. Interviewsc. Secondary datad. Focus groupse. All of the above are methods of data collection 19. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is known as a:a. Probeb. Filter questionc. Responsed. Pilot 20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?a. Standardized testsb. Interviewsc. Secondary datad. Observations 21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being studied. This researcher may be which of the following?a. A complete participantb. An observer-as-participantc. A participant-as-observerd. None of the above 22. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?a. Questionnairesb. Focus groups

c. Correlational methodd. Secondary data

23. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the immediate context or course of things?a. Interview guide approachb. Informal conversational interviewc. Closed quantitative interviewd. Standardized open-ended interview

24. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you mean?, Why do you feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:a. Contingency questionsb. Probesc. Protocolsd. Response categories 25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you should adhere. Which of the following is not one of those principles?a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questionsb. Avoid double-barreled questionsc. Avoid double negativesd. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct Answers:1. d2. c3. a4. d

5. d6. c7. d8. d

9. b10. c11. b12. c

13. b14. a15. c16. d

17. a18. e19. a20. b

21. a22. c23. b24. b

25. d

 

Chapter 7Multiple Choice Questions

  1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:a. A nonrandom sampling methodb. A quota samplec. A snowball sampled. An Equal probability selection method 2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participateb. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from withineach ethnic group at random.c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random numbertable to pick cases from the table.d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school. 3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroupsb. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportionsc. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough       subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be doned. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample   4. Which of the following statements are true?a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling errorb. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger

 the sample neededc. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample neededd. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval 5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the original sampling?a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample sizec. Proportion likely to respond/population sized. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond 6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?a. Simple random samplingb. Systematic samplingc. Proportional stratified samplingd. Cluster sampling using the PPS techniquee. All of the above are EPSEM 7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?a. Snowball samplingb. Convenience samplingc. Quota samplingd. Purposive samplinge. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling

8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling techniqueb. A small sample based on simple random samplingc. A large sample based on simple random samplingd. A small cluster sample 9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?a. Simple random samplingb. Systematic samplingc. Quota samplingd. Purposive sampling 10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?a. Cluster samplingb. Simple random samplingc. Systematic samplingd. Proportional stratified sampling 11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?a. Every yearb. Every five yearsc. Every ten yearsd. Twice a year 12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called ______.a.  Simple random samplingb.  Cluster samplingc.  Systematic sampling

d.  Convenience sampling 13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples from those groups?a.  Proportional stratified samplingb.  Quota samplingc.  One-stage cluster samplingd.  Two-stage cluster sampling 14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that disconfirm the researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________.a.  Extreme case samplingb.  Typical-case samplingc.  Critical-case samplingd.  Negative-case sampling 15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research study with a population of 120,000?a. 242b. 331c. 377d. 384

16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants?a. Snowballb. Conveniencec. Purposived. Quota 17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter?a. Simple random samplingb. Proportional stratified samplingc. Cluster random samplingd. Systematic sampling

18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.a. Independent variableb. Dependent variablec. Stratification variabled. Sampling variable

19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the population is called which of the following?a. A datumb. A statisticc. A parameterd. A population

20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called _________.a. Sampling without replacementb. Sampling with replacementc. Simple random samplingd. Systematic sampling

21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?a.  Cluster samplingb.  Convenience samplingc.  Quota samplingd.  Purposive samplinge.  They are all type of nonrandom sampling 22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency?a. One stage cluster samplingb. Simple random samplingc. Two stage cluster samplingd. Quota sampling 23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.a. Cluster samplingb. One-stage samplingc. Two-stage samplingd. Probability proportional to size or PPS

24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.a. Samplingb. Censusc. Survey researchd. None of the above 25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population size is of what size?a. 500 or lessb. 100 or lessc. 1000 or lessd. you should always use a sample 26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?a. Purposiveb. Quotac. Convenienced. Cluster 27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population?a.  Convenience samplingb.  Quota samplingc.  Purposive samplingd.  Random sampling 28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.a.  Sampleb.  Populationc.  Statisticd.  Element 29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?a. Simple Random Samplingb. Stratified Random Samplingc. Systematic Sampling

d. Cluster sampling 30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.a. Convenience samplingb. Quota samplingc. Purposive samplingd. Snowball sampling Answers:1. d2. c3. b4. b5. d

6. e7. e8. c9. d10. a

11. c12. d13. b14. d15. d

16. a17. b18. c19. c20. b

21. a22. b23. d24. a25. b

26. d27. d28. a29. c30. c

Chapter 8Multiple Choice Questions

 1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable, it is called:a. Another dependent variableb. A confounding variablec. A moderating variabled. An unreliable variable

2. Which of the following statements is true?a.  A statistical relationship is sufficient evidence to infer causalityb.  Temporal order of the cause and effect is not important in inferring causalityc.  A statistical relation of X and Y is insufficient evidence for inferring causalityd.  Temporal order of cause and effect variables and statistical relation are all that are            needed to infer causality 3. A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor readers improve their reading performance.  The children in the program are at the 4th percentile at pretest.  At posttest they are around the 20thpercentile. While it is possible that the program made the difference, another reason for the change in scores could be:a. History b. Regression artifactc. Multiple-treatment interferenced. Differential selection 4. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular classrooms are assigned to treatment or control conditions.  After the study, the researcher finds out that the students in the control group are higher achievers than those in the experimental group.  He found no treatment effect.  The failure to find an effect may be due to:a.       A treatment effectb.      A testing effectc.       A differential selection effectd.   A maturation effect

5. A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor readers' reading achievement. He looks at two different schools.  One serves as the control and the other the experimental group. Both schools had reading achievement that was around the 50th percentile. During the time that the mentoring program is in place in the experimental group, a statewide reading initiative is started in randomly selected schools. The experimental, but not the control school is involved in the initiative. At the end of the

year, the experimental group does better than the control.  From the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity of the study is: a. Selection by mortality interactionb. Mortalityc. Selection-history effectd. Selection-maturation effect 6. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between two variables is causal?a. Internal validityb. Population validityc. Ecological validityd. Statistical conclusion validity

7. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and dependent variables are related ant that the measured strength of the relationship is accurate?a. Internal validityb. Population validityc. Ecological validityd. Statistical conclusion validity 8. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________.a  Confounding variableb. Third variablec. Second variabled. Both a and b are correct

9. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to make sure that the investigators agree with what took place is known as _______.a. Interpretive validityb. Researcher biasc. Multiple operationalismd. Investigator triangulation 10. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the participant’s own words.a. Participant feedbackb. A verbatimc. Data triangulationd. Investigator triangulation 11. ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.a.  Instrumentationb.  Historyc.  Maturationd.  Testing 12. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized across time?a.  Ecological validityb.  External validityc.   Internal validityd.   Temporal validity 13. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?a.  Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcherb.  Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is being studiedc.  Degree to which a theoretical explanation fits the data

d.  Ability to generalize the study results across settings 14. Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively engages in critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and predispositions.a.  Experimenter effectb.  Reactivityc.  Investigator triangulationd.  Reflexivity

15. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality?a. Evidence that the independent and dependent variables are relatedb. Evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is not due to aconfounding extraneous variablec. Evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable Bd. The temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter because arelationship is all that is really needed 16. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one strategy that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of the following terms describes this strategy?a. Data matchingb. Pattern matchingc. Data triangulationd. Data feedback 17. What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different history event?a. History effectb. Selection-history effectc. Selection effectd. Group effect 18. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?a. Last variableb. First variablec. Third variabled. Fourth variable 19. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed?a. Instrumentationb. Maturationc. Testingd. Selection 20. Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the sample of individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target population of individuals and across different subpopulations within the larger target population?a.  External validityb.  Population validityc.  Ecological validityd.  Temporal validity 21. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research validity?a.  Peer reviewb.  Theory triangulationc.  Extended fieldworkd.  Random assignment 

22. The use of several measures of a construct is called:a. Multiple operationalismb. Multiple construct measurementc. Operationalismd. Methods triangulation 23. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their performance on the dependent variable is called ________.a. Instrumentationb. Maturationc. Regressiond. None of above 24. Attrition generally occurs in research where ____.a. You do demographic researchb. The study failsc. Some participants do not complete the studyd. The study is very brief 25. Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group are different from the others in their group or from the people in the comparison group.a. Trueb. False 26. Internal validity refers to which of the following?a. The ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variablesb. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across populations of persons,settings, and timesc. The use of effective measurement instruments in the studyd. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the study

27. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research methods to study a phenomenon?a. Data triangulationb. Methods triangulationc. Theory triangulationd. Member checking 28. Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher?a. Ecological validityb. Temporal validityc. Descriptive validityd.  None of the above 29. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?a. Maturationb. Instrumentationc. Temporal changed. History 30. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across settings.a. Temporal validityb. Internal validityc. Ecological validityd. External validity 

31. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?a. Historyb. Testingc. Sampling errord. Differential selection 32. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study is known as ______.a. Operationalismb. Reactivityc. Temporal validityd. Mortality 33. The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different sets of people, the more confidence we can place in the finding and in generalizing beyond the original participants is known as ___________.a. Naturalistic generalizationb. Methods generalizationc. Data triangulationd. Replication logic Answers:1. b2. c3. b4. c5. c

6. a7. d8. d9. d10. b

11. c12. d13. b14. d15. d

16. c17. b18. c19. a20. b

21. d22. a23. b24. c25. a

26. a27. b28. c29. c30. c

31. c32. b33. d

  

Chapter 9Multiple Choice Questions

 1. Analysis of covariance is:a.  A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variablesb.  A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effectsc.  A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groupsd.  Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables 2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a researcher has one group solve math problems in a quiet room and another group solve math problems in a noisy room. The group solving problems in the noisy room completes 15 problems in one hour and the group solving problems in the quiet room completes 22 problems in one hour. In this experiment, the independent variable is ____________ and the dependent variable is _____________.a.  The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problemsb.  The number of problems solved; the noise level in the roomc.  The noise level in the room; the number of problems solvedd.  The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems 3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for which of the  following threats to internal validity:a.  Historyb.  Differential selectionc.  Additive and interactive effectsd.  Differential attrition 4. When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is susceptible to:a.  Order effects

b.  Carryover effectsc.  Analysis of covarianced.  a and b 5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a potential extraneous variable in her study, she picks children to study who are only from low SES homes. The control technique she used in this study was:a.  Matchingb.  Random assignmentc.  Holding the extraneous variable constantd.  Statistically controlling the extraneous variable 6. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?a.  The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of another independent variableb.  Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variablesc.  Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions are administeredd.  The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable 7. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable? a.  Experimental controlb.  Differential influencec.  Matchingd.  Analysis of covariance 8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?a. Presence techniqueb. Amount techniquec. Type techniqued. Random technique

9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.a. One-group pretest-posttest designb. Pretest-posttest control group designc. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groupsd. Both b and c 10. Counterbalancing is _________.a.       Usually based on random selection of participantsb.      Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlledc.       Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*d.      All of the above 11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.a. Experimental groupb. Control groupc. Participant groupd. Independent group 12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables?a. Building the extraneous variable into the designb. Matchingc. Random assignment

d. Analysis of covariance 13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.a. Experimental groupb. Control groupc. Treatment groupd. Independent group 14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?a. Random assignmentb. Matchingc. Counterbalancingd. None of the above 15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups in an experimental study?a.  Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)b.  Even versus odd numbersc.  Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization programd.  Let the researcher decide which group will be the best 16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?a.  Carryover effectb.  Order effectc.  Sequencing effectsd.  Matching 17. A cell is a combination of two or more ____  in a factorial design.a.  Research designsb.  Research measurementsc.  Dependent variablesd.  Independent variables 18. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment? a.   Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groupsb.   Posttest-only control-group designc.   Pretest-posttest control-group designd.   Both b and c are excellent designs 19. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent variable that is presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.a.  Amount techniqueb.  Absence techniquec.  Type techniqued.  Presence technique

20. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions are administered?a.  Carry-over effectb.  Order effectc.  Sequencing effectsd.  None of the above

21. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment, which of the following describes this method?

a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence techniqueb. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is administeredc. The researcher varies the type of the independent variabled. All of the above are possible 22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence over all other methods?a. Matching individual participantsb. Holding extraneous variablesc. Building the extraneous variable into the research designd. Counterbalancinge. Randomly assign research participants to the groups 23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the ____.a. Dependent variableb. Extraneous variablec. Independent variabled. Confounding variable 24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental treatment conditions.a. Factorial designb. Repeated measures designc. Replicated designd. Pretest-posttest control-group design 25. A factorial design is one in which ____.a. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent variableb. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their independent and interactive effects on the dependent variablec. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their independent and interactive effects on the dependent variabled. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects 26. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of research participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.a. One-group posttest-only designb. One-group pretest-posttest designc. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groupsd. time series design 27. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.a. Interaction effectb. Reactive effectc. Main effectd. Proactive effect 28. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as ____.a. Counterbalancing effectb. Carryover effectc. Treatment effectd. Order effect

29. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent variables?a. There is only one main effect present               b. There are two main effects present

c. There are two main effects and an interaction effect presentd. All of the above are possible 30. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are randomly assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all levels on another independent variable?a. One-group pretest-posttestb. Pretest-posttest control-group designc. Factorial designd. Factorial design based on a mixed model Answers:1. a2. c3. a4. d

5. c6. a7. d8. d

9. b10. c11. a12. c

13. b14. a15. c16. d

17. d18. d19. c20. b

21. d22. e23. c24. b

25. c26. c27. c28. b

29. d30. d

 

Chapter 10Multiple Choice Questions

 1. A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program. He uses a nonequivalent comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his experimental group is greater than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds that in general children who live in the area where he drew his experimental group tend to grow faster cognitively than children who were from the area where he drew his control group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to the internal validity of his study?a.  Selection-maturation effectb.  History effectc.  Selection-instrumentation effectd.  Testing effect 2. For a treatment to be deemed effective when used in the context of an A-B-A single case design, what has to occur?a. Behavior should change as the treatment is implementedb. Behavior should return to baseline levels when the treatment is removedc. When the treatment is removed, behavior should stay at the level that was created by the               treatment rather than revert back to the baselined. Both a and b 3. In a changing-criterion design, changes in criterion are best done:a. As soon as the prior criterion is metb. When the previous criterion is met and the behavior has stabilizedc. Regardless of the previous criteriad. After a fixed number of trials 4. The non-equivalent comparison group design is a quasi-experimental design in which, for reasons of practicality, we cannot insure that the control and experimental groups are equivalent to each other when the experiment begins. The major interpretational difficulty imposed by this design is:a.  Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the posttestb.  Deciding how much each group has gainedc.  Determining when enough data points are collectedd. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the experiment aredue to the independent variable’s influence and not due to preexisting groupdifferences 5. A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design by:a.  A discontinuity in the regression line

b.  A significant difference in the pretest and posttest scoresc.  Analysis of covarianced.  The demonstration of an interaction  6. Which of the following is a primary threat to the interrupted time-series design?a.  History effectb.  Selection-history     c.  Selection-maturationd.  All of the above        

7. A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not randomly assigned to the groups is which of the following?a.  Interrupted time-series designb.  Nonequivalent comparison-group designc.  Single case designd.  A-B-A-B design 8. A form of the nonequivalent comparison-group design is recommended when ____.a.  It is not possible to control for a basic history effectb.  It is not possible to randomly assign participants to groupsc.  It is not possible to identify two groupsd.  All of the above 9. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____ effect.a.  Selection-maturation effectb.  Selection-history effectc.  Selection-regressiond.  All of the above are threats 10. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____ effect.a.  Maturation effectb.  Selection-history effectc.  Failure to revert to baselined.  All of the above 11. How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a single-case design?A.  4B.  3C.  2D.  1 12. In quasi-experimental research designs, causal interpretations can be made _______.a.  Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausibleb.  Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausiblec.  Only when the participants have been randomly selectedd.  Only when there is a single participant in the experiment 13. In single-case research, “baseline” refers to ________.a.  The beginning point of the treatment conditionb.  The end point of the treatment conditionc.  The rate of response established prior to the experimental interventiond.  The time during which a treatment condition is administered 14. Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-by-step increase (or decrease) in the amount, accuracy, or frequency of some behavior over a period of time?a.  Nonequivalent comparison-group design

b.  A-B-A-Bc.  Changing-criterion designd.  A-B design 15. Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group?a.  Main effectb.  Sequencing effectc.  Order effectd.  Selection-maturation effect 16. An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to change this response is known as the ___________.a. Flat lineb. Baselinec. Varianced. Reverse 17. The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________ design.a. Nonequivalent comparison-groupb. Interrupted time-seriesc. Changing-criteriond. Regression discontinuity 18. A baseline _____________.a. Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is assessedb. Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural statec. Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatmentd. All of the above are true 19. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?a. A-B-A designb. Single-case designc. Multiple-baselined. Changing-criterion 20. In a single-case design, you hope that the behavior of the participants prior to the administration of a treatment condition is ________.a.       Not highly variableb.      Highly variablec.       Moving at a steep rate of changed.      None of the above 21. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the dependent variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is withdrawn.a. Changing-criterion designb. A-Bc. A-B-A designd. Interrupted time-series design 22. Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?a. Nonequivalent comparison-group designb. Interrupted time-series designc. Changing criterion designd. A-B-A-B design 

23. The interrupted time-series design can also be viewed as a(n):a.  A-B designb.  A-B-A designc.  A-B-A-B designd.  Control-group design 24. Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case designs?a. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the changeb. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent variablesc. Both a and b are trued. None of the above

25. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?a. Both designs end on the treatment conditionb. Neither design ends on a treatment condition c. Baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B designd. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last phase

26. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?a. Baseline measurementb. Introduction of treatmentc. Introduction of a second treatmentd. Removal of treatment 27. Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-maturation effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by matching experimental and control participants on important variables.a. Trueb. False 28. Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs.a.  Trueb.  False Answers:1. a2. d3. b4. d

5. a6. a7. b8. b

9. d10. b11. d12. b

13. c14. c15. d16. b

17. a18. d19. a20. a

21. c22. a23. a24. c

25. d26. c27. a28. b

Chapter 11Multiple Choice Questions

 1. The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related.  This relationship is:a.  A causal relationshipb.   A direct relationshipc.   A probabilistic causal relationd.   A spurious relationship 2. A research studies the relation between early reading and later school achievement. She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is IQ. In developing her groups for her study, she pairs each child who was an early reader with a child of the same IQ level who was not an early reader. The control technique she used was:a.       Holding the extraneous variable constantb.      Statistical control

c.  Matchingd.  Random assignment 3. Partial correlation analysis involves: a.  Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for additional            variables statistically b.  Including only one group in a correlational analysis  c.  Matching participants on potential confounding variablesd.   Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous variable 4. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They randomly sample students from the program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking about the types of jobs they have had. They also are asked to describe the roles they play in their current positions. This project is best described as having what kind of objective:a.        Descriptiveb.       Predictivec.        Explanatory 5. When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why phenomena operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research is:a.   Descriptiveb.   Predictivec.   Explanatory 6. The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative explanation is called a(n) _________ variable.a. Matchingb. Independentc. Dependentd. Partial 7. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?a. Panelb. Cross-sectionalc. Trendd. Both a and c are longitudinal designs 8. The positive correlation between teachers’ salaries and the price of liquor is _________.a. Spuriousb. Due to a third-variablec. Nonspuriousd. Both a and b 9. Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear model?a.  A variableb. Partial correlationc. Analysis of covarianced. Both b and c 10. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards, it is called ________.a.  Predictive researchb.  Retrospective researchc.  Exploratory researchd.  Descriptive research 11. The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying rival explanations.a. True

b. False 12. GLM refers to which of the following?a.   General Logit Modelb.   General Limited Modelc.   General Lab Modeld.   General Linear Model 13. The post hoc fallacy is ____.a.       Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused Bb.      Making the argument that because A preceded B, A and B must be correlatedc.       Making the argument that because A preceded B, they cannot be correlatedd.      None of the above 14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?a.       Determine research problem and hypothesesb.      Analyze datac.       Interpret resultsd.      All are steps 15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.a. The observed result is probably not due to chanceb. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chancec. The observed result is probably a chance resultd. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true 16. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?a. The relationship conditionb. The temporal antecedence conditionc. The lack of alternative explanation conditiond. All of the above 17. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research study?a.  Genderb.  Ethnicityc.  Intelligence and other traitsd.  None of ht above can be manipulated in a research study 18. __________  is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher develops a theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine how well the model fits the data.a.  Causal modelingb.  Predictive researchc.  Descriptive researchd.  Exploratory research 19. Nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is categorical is sometimes called_____________.a. Causal-comparative researchb. Correlational research 20. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?a. Causal-comparativeb. Correlationalc. Experimentald. Historical 21. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?

a. Causal-comparativeb. Correlationalc. One CANNOT say without additional information (i.e., it could be either dependingon how well the researcher established the three necessary conditions for causeand effect) 22. _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for extraneous variables in nonexperimental research.a. Matchingb. Holding extraneous variables constantc. Statistical controld. Static control 23. It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____.a. You are finished with your researchb. You are planning your research studyc. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research resultsd. None of the above

24. Matching can be done when your independent variable is categorical or quantitative.a. Trueb. False 25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the relationship is ____.a. Weakb. Strongc. Statistically significantd. b is true and c is probably true 26. What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher controls for a confounding third-variable?a  The relationship between the original variables will get strongerb. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchangedc. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1.0d. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or, if the original relationshipis fully spurious, it will disappear (i.e., the original relationship will become zero asmeasured by a correlation coefficient) 27. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always problematic in nonexperimental research?a.  Condition 1:  Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship condition).b.  Condition 2:  Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence condition).c.  Condition 3:  The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be due to some confounding extraneous variable"d. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions 28. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?a.  Trend studyb.  Panel studyc.  Cross-sectional study 29. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for concluding that the relationship is a causal relationship.a. Trueb. False 30. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended period of time.

a. Trend studyb. Panel studyc. Both a and bd. Neither a nor b 31. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why a phenomenon operates as it does.a. Descriptive researchb. Predictive researchc. Explanatory researchd. None of the above 32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of  _________ relationship present between two variables.a. Curvilinearb. Nonlinearc. Linear and quadraticd. Linear 

Answers:1. d2. c3. a4. a

5. c6. a7. d8. d

9. d10. b11. a12. d

13. a14. d15. a16. d

17. d18. a19. a20. c

21. c22. c23. b24. a

25. d26. d27. c28. c

29. a30. b31. c32. d

 

Chapter 12Multiple Choice Questions

 1. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?a.  Generalization to the populationb.  Random samplingc.  Unique case orientationd.  Standardized tests and measures 2. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:a.  Philosophyb.  Anthropologyc.  Sociologyd.  Many disciplines 3. The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:a.  Open, axial, and selective codingb.  Holistic description and search for cultural themesc.  Cross-case analysisd. Identifying essences of a phenomenon 4. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a phenomenon is called:a.  Axial codingb.  Design flexibilityc.  Bracketingd.  Ethnography 5. A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high

school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like they had little control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of control was an invariant part of the students’ experiences suggests that lack of control is _______ of the “flunking out” experience.a.  A narrativeb.  A grounded theoryc.  An essenced.  A probabilistic cause 6. The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a culture hold to be true or false are called  ______.a. Shared attitudesb. Shared beliefsc. Shared valuesd. Norms 7. The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behavior are called _____.a. Shared attitudesb. Shared beliefsc. Shared valuesd. Norms 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of studying multiple cases?a. Multiple cases can be compared for similarities and differencesb. Multiple cases can more effectively test a theory than a single casec. Generalizations about population are usually better when based on multiple cases.d. Cost is lower and depth of analysis is easier when you study multiple cases in asingle research study 9. _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable or undesirable.a. Shared attitudesb. Shared beliefsc. Shared valuesd. Norms 10. _________ is the study of human consciousness and individuals’ experience of some phenomenon.a.       Phenomenologyb.      Ethnographyc.       Grounded theoryd.      Case study research 11. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?a. Design flexibilityb. Inductive analysisc. Context sensitivityd. All of the above

12. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data systematically gathered and analyzed.a. Theory confirmationb. Grounded theoryc. Theory deductiond. All of the above 13. The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________.a. Axial codingb. Theoretical saturationc. Constant comparative method

d. Selective coding 14. Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real world situations as they unfold naturally?a.  Holistic perspectiveb.  Naturalistic inquiryc.  Dynamic systemsd.  Inductive analysis 15. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to individuals’ inner worlds of experience?a.  Phenomenologyb.  Ethnographyc.  Grounded theoryd.  Case study 16. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is called ____.a. Phenomenologyb. Grounded theoryc. Ethnographyd. Case study 17. The grounded theorist is finished analyzing data when theoretical saturation occurs.a. Trueb. False 18. In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus her primary interest on understanding something more general than the particular case?a. Intrinsic case studyb. Instrumental case studyc. Collective case studyd. It could be b or c 19. Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"?a.  Special words or terms used by the people in a groupb.  An external, social scientific view of realityc.  The study of the cultural past of a group of peopled.  Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your own culture 20. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative research? a.  Design flexibility b.  Dynamic systems c.  Naturalistic inquiry d.  Deductive design 21. Which of the following involves the studying of multiple cases in one research study? a.  Intrinsic case study b.  Single case study c.  Instrumental case study d.  Collective case study 22. Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?a. Data are often words and picturesb. Uses the inductive scientific methodc. Ends with a statistical reportd. Involves direct and personal contact with participants 

23. The difference between ethnographic research and other types of qualitative research is that ethnographers specifically use  the concept of “culture” to help understand the results.a. Trueb. False 24. What term refers to the insider's perspective?A. EthnocentrismB. Emic perspectiveC. Etic perspectiveD. Holism 25. In data analysis of the grounded theory approach, the step which focuses on the main idea, developing the story line, and finalizing the theory is called ________.a. Open codingb. Axial codingc. Selective codingd. Theoretical saturation 26. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative research.a. Ethnographyb. Phenomenologyc. Case studyd. Grounded theorye. Nonexperimental 27. In "phenomenology," a well written report will be highly descriptive of the participants’ experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they feel as though they are experiencing the phenomenon themselves. This experience is called _____.a. A phenomenal experienceb. A vicarious experiencec. A significant experienced. A dream 28. You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month period to learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that particular tribe. You want the book to be accurate and authentic as well as informative and inspiring. What type of research will you likely be conducting when you get to New Mexico?a. Ethnographyb. Phenomenologyc. Grounded theoryd. Collective case study 29. The emic perspective refers to an external, social scientific view of reality.a. Trueb. False 30. _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics of a group of people.a.       Phenomenologyb.      Ethnographyc.       Grounded theoryd.      Instrumental case study 31. Terms such as “geeks,” “book worms,” “preps,” are known as _____ terms.a. Emicb. Etic 

32. When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied that he or she can no longer remain objective you have what is called _________.a. Culture shockb. Going nativec. Regressiond. Cultural relativism Answers:1. c2. a3. b4. c

5. c6. b7. d8. d

9. c10. a11. d12. b

13. d14. b15. a16. c

17. a18. d19. d20. d

21. d22. c23. a24. b

25. c26. e27. b28. a

29. b30. b31. a32. b

 

Chapter 13Multiple Choice Questions

1. A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered:a.  Primary sourcesb.  Secondary Sourcesc.  External criticsd.  Internal critics 2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as:a.  Sourcingb.  Internal criticismc.  Secondary criticismd. External criticism 3. A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as:a.  Positive criticismb.  Internal criticismc.  Secondary criticismd.  External criticism 4. A historical researcher studying the implementation of the “new math” during the 1960s uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic who was a mathematics teacher during that time period. As she examines the document, she discovers that the data that the individual based his or her conclusions on was falsified. Hence, the conclusions drawn were erroneous. Her analysis of the document to check its accuracy is referred to as: a.  Positive criticismb.  Internal criticismc.  External criticismd.  Secondary criticism 5. A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools during the 1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no author or copyright date in the book. She examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style. After investigating further, she finds a reference to the book from a teacher’s diary from the 1800s. The diary also mentions an author’s name. After further searching around she is able to identify the author of the book. The investigator was engaged in what process?a.  Sourcingb.  Positive criticismc.  Presentismd.  Axial coding

 6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?a.  To identify the relationship that the past has to the present b.  To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities c.  To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live d.  To uncover the unknowne.  All of the above 7.  Historical research is interpretative.a. Trueb. False 8.  The following is a step in the process of historical research?a.  Preparing a report or narrative exposition  b.  Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or questionc.  Data synthesisd.  Data collection and/or literature reviewe.  All of the above 9.  Oral histories can be based on ______.a.  Interviews with people b.  Stories and talesc.  Songs d.  All of the above 10.  In historical research, a primary source _________.a.  Consists of first hand accounts by witnesses to events b.  Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the minutes of a meeting, and photographs c.  Both a and b 11.  In historical research secondary sources are _________.a.  Generally considered more useful that primary sources b.  Generally considered less useful than primary sources  12.  In evaluating historical research sources, external criticism ________.a.  Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts b.  Helps determine the validity, trustworthiness or authenticity of a sourcec.  Can involve use of historical linguists’ knowledgeable with the writing style of the period d.  All of the above 13.  Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took place. a.  Trueb.  False 14.  The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the sources collected is known as ______.a.  External criticismb.  Internal criticismc.  Vaguenessd.  Presentism 15.  Presentism in historical sources ________.a.  Is the presence of the author in a historical sourceb.  Is a first-hand accounts of eventsc.  Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in the pastd.  Is the assumption that the past influences the present

 16. “Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same information or reach the same conclusion” is known as ________.a.  Contextualization b.  Sourcingc.  Corroborationd.  Negative criticism 17. The “identification of when and where an event took place” is known as _____.a.  Contextualization b.  Sourcingc.  Corroborationd.  Negative criticism 18.  Three heuristics suggested by Wineburg (1991) for evaluating documents are:a.  Corroboration, sourcing, and contextualizationb.  Sourcing, internal criticism, and external criticism c.  Corroboration, internal criticism and external criticism d.  Contextualization, corroboration and presentism 19.  In historical research, data synthesis usually does not include ______.a.  Defining and interpreting key words, phrases and terms b.  Chronologically ordering events c.  Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did behave d.  Inferring causation based on simple correlatione.  Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences  20.  When writing their narratives, many historical researchers prefer to use _____.a. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994)b. The Chicago Manual of Stylec. The Historical Manual of Styled. The Historian’s Manual of Style Answers:1. a2. d3. d4. b

5. a6. e7. a8. e

9. d10. c11. b12. d

13. a14. b15. c16. c

17. a18. a19. d20. b

  

Chapter 14Multiple Choice Questions

 1. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and qualitative techniques are mixed in a single study is specifically called:a. Mixed researchb. Mixed method researchc. Mixed model researchd. Multimethod research 2. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and qualitative approaches are mixed within or across the stages of the research process is specifically called:a. Mixed researchb. Mixed method researchc. Mixed model researchd. Multimethod research 

3. According to the typology used in your text, research in which a quantitative phase and a qualitative phase are included in the overall research study is specifically called:a. Mixed researchb. Mixed method researchc. Mixed model researchd. Multimethod research 4. The use of a qualitative research objective, collection of qualitative data, and performance of quantitative analysis is an example of:a. Mixed method researchb. Within-stage mixed model researchc. Across-stage mixed model researchd. Monomethod research 5. The use of a quantitative research objective, collection of quantitative data, and the use of quantitative data analysis is known as: a. Mixed method researchb. Within-stage mixed model researchc. Across-stage mixed model researchd. Monomethod research 6. Mixed researchers typically use the pragmatist philosophy.a. Trueb. False 7. The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the following positions?a. The incompatibility thesisb. The compatibility thesis 8. Which of the following is a weakness of quantitative research?a. Provides precise, numerical datab. The researcher’s categories that are used might not reflect local constituencies’ understandingsc. Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collectedd. Can study a large number of people 9. Which of the following is a weakness of qualitative research?a. The results are more easily influenced by the researcher’s personal idiosyncrasiesb. Data are based on the participant’s own categories of meaningc. Can determine idiographic causationd. Useful for describing complex phenomena 10. Which of the following is a weakness of mixed research?a. Words, pictures, and narrative can be used to add meaning to numbersb. Researchers can generate and test a grounded theoryc. Numbers can be used to add precision to words, pictures, and narratived. It is more time consuming and expensive 11. If you develop and use a questionnaire that includes closed-ended and open-ended items then you have done which type of research?a. Within-stage mixed model researchb. Across-stage mixed model research 12. Here is a mixed design using notation: “QUAL-->quan” What type of mixed research is this?a. Mixed modelb. Mixed method 

13. Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL + QUAN. What does this mean?a. Qualitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a quantitative phaseb. Quantitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a qualitative phasec. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status but the qualitative phase occursbefore the quantitative phased. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status and they are done concurrently 14. What would this mixed method design be called:  Qual-->QUANa. Dominant-status sequential designb. Equal-status sequential designc. Dominant-status concurrent designd. Equal-status concurrent design 15. What would this mixed method design be called:  QUAL-->QUANa. Dominant-status sequential designb. Equal-status sequential designc. Dominant-status concurrent designd. Equal-status concurrent design 16. What would this mixed method design be called:  Qual + QUANa. Dominant-status sequential designb. Equal-status sequential designc. Dominant-status concurrent designd. Equal-status concurrent design 17. What would this mixed method design be called:  QUAL + QUANa. Dominant-status sequential designb. Equal-status sequential designc. Dominant-status concurrent designd. Equal-status concurrent design 18. Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed research design?a. Triangulationb. Complementarityc.  Developmentd. Initiatione. Expansionf. All of the above can be purposes 19. Which of the following mixed research rationales seeks elaboration, enhancement, illustration, clarification of the results from one method with the results from the other method?a. Triangulationb. Complementarityc.  Developmentd. All of the above 20. What two questions must be answered in order to select one of the specific mixed method designs provided in the textbook?a.  Is the qualitative or quantitative paradigm going to be given priority, or will they be given equal status in your study?b.  Should the qualitative and quantitative components be carried out concurrently or sequentiallyc.  Should the study be theory driven or data driven?d.  a and ce.  a and b 

21. A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle snakes as a part of their church activities in several rural churches in Tennessee, Alabama, and Georgia. He makes qualitative observations at several churches but also hands out fairly lengthy instruments that quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ, religiousity, self-esteem, and a political attitudes). He keeps the qualitative and quantitative data separate during analysis. He does some mixing during the discussion of his report about the qualitative and quantitative insights are related. Which design is this?a. Dominant-status sequential designb. Equal-status sequential designc. Dominant-status concurrent designd. Equal-status concurrent design Answers:1. a2. c3. b

4. c5. d6. a

7. b8. b9. a

10. d11. a12. b

13. d14. a15. b

16. c17. d18. f

19. b20. e21. d

  

Chapter 15Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the median of the following set of scores?18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?a. 10b. 14c. 18d. 12 2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution?a. 34%b. 95%c. 99%d. 68% 3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula isa.      The standard deviationb.     The difference between a score and the meanc.      The ranged.     The mean 4. Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number of yearsof education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is the regressionequation    Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2,where X1 = years of education and X2  = aptitude test score.What is the predicted score for someone with 10 years of education and a aptitude test score of 5?a. 25b. 50c. 35d. 80 5. The standard deviation is:a. The square root of the varianceb. A measure of variability

c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the meand. All of the above 6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.a. Trueb. False 7. A set of data organized in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.”a. Trueb. False 8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.a.  Line graphb.  Bar graphc.  Scatterplotd.  Vertical graph 9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of data.a.  Inferential statisticsb.  Descriptive statisticsc.  None of the aboved.  All of the above 10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.a. Meanb. Medianc. Moded. Range 11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is more precise.a. Meanb. Medianc. Moded. Range 12. Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and making inferences is the difference between _______.a. Central tendency and common tendencyb. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive propertiesc. Descriptive and inferentiald. Positive skew and negative skew 13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability?a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical analysisb. They are the most simple to calculate with large data setsc. They provide nominally scaled datad. None of the above 14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.a. Regression analysisb. Regression coefficient

c. Regression equationd. Regression line 15. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.a.  Meanb.  Medianc.  Moded.  All of the above 16. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.a. Bar graphsb. Pie graphsc. Line graphsd. Scatterplots 17. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely skewed.a. Meanb. Medianc. Moded. Range 18. Which of the following is the formula for range?a.   H + Lb.   L x Hc.   L - Hd.   H – L 19. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units?a.   z scoreb.   SDU scorec.   t scored.   e score 20. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?a.  Medianb.  Variancec.  Standard deviationd.  Range 21. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?a.  Modeb.  Rangec.  Mediand.  Mean 22. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?a. 7.5b. 6c. 7d. 4 

23. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?a. 7.5b. 400,005.2c. 7d. 4 24.  Which of the following  is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference group that falls below a particular raw score?a.  Standard scoresb.  Percentile rankc.  Reference groupd.  None of the above 25. The median is ______.a.  The middle pointb.  The highest numberc.  The averaged.  Affected by extreme scores 26. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?a. Meanb. Medianc. Moded. Range 27. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores, then the distribution of scores would be _____.a. Positively skewedb. Negatively skewedc. Not skewed at alld. Normal 28. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?a. Oneb. One or morec. Two or mored. Two 29. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set of numbers arranged in order of magnitude?a. Modeb. Medianc. Meand. Variance 30. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.a. Negatively skewedb. Positively skewedc. Symmetrically skewedd. Symmetrical 

31. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?a. Mutually exclusiveb. Exhaustivec. Both A and Bd. Neither A nor B 32. When a set of numbers is heterogeneous, you can place more trust in the measure of central tendency as representing the typical person or unit.a. Trueb. False 33. Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as ______.a.       Inclusiveb.      Exhaustivec.       Mutually exclusived.      Mutually exclusive and exhaustive 34. To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables, a contingency table should be constructed with either column or row percentages, and ----.a. If the percentages are calculated down the columns, then comparisons should be made acrossthe rowsb. If the percentages are calculated across the rows, comparisons should be made down thecolumnsc. Both a and b are correctd. Neither a nor b is correct  Answers:1. d2. d3. a4. d5. d

6. b7. a8. b9. b10. c

11. a12. c13. a14. a15. a

16. d17. b18. d19. a20. a

21. b22. c23. b24. b25. a

26. a27. b28. a29. b30. a

31. c32. b33. c34. c

Chapter 16Multiple Choice Questions

 1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?a.  SDb.  c.  rd.  0 2. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each of the samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of those means, what would you have?a.  A population distributionb.  A sample distributionc.  A sampling distributiond.  A parameter distribution 3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?a.  The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long runb.  You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter

c.  You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population parameterd.  All of the above statements are true 4. What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a 99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval?a.  It will be narrowerb.  It will not changec.  The sample size will increased.  It will become wider 5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?a.  The coin is not fairb.  There is a correlation in the populationc.  There is no difference between male and female incomes in the populationd.  The defendant is guilty 6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means?a. Three or moreb. Two or more 7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?a. Sampling errorb. Sample errorc. Standard errord. Simple error 8. Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of inferential statistics?a. Trueb. False 9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.a. Sample, populationb. Population, samplec. Statistic, parameterd. Parameter, statistic 10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical characteristic of a population.a. Sample, populationb. Population, samplec. Statistic, parameterd. Parameter, statistic 11. A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?a.  Sample meansb.  Sample correlationsc.  Sample proportionsd. All of the above 12. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.a. 99%b. 95%c. 50%d. none of the above 13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she is engaging in hypothesis testing?

a.  The alternative hypothesisb.  The null hypothesisc.  Both the alternative and null hypothesisd.  Neither the alternative or null hypothesis 14. When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).a. Trueb. False 15. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).a. Trueb. False 16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.a.       Confidence intervalsb.      Confidence limitsc.       Levels of confidenced.   Margin of error 17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false.a.       Type I errorb.      Type II errorc.       Type III errord.      Type IV error 18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.a.  Repeated sampling      b.  Small sample       c.  Large sample      d.  Large population 19. The car will probably cost about 16,000 dollars; this number sounds more like a(n):a. Point estimateb. Interval estimate      20. Identify which of the following steps would not be included in hypothesis testing.a.  State the null and alternative hypothesesb.  Set the significance level before the research studyc.  Eliminate all outliersd.  Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSSe.  Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical decision 21. A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a certain probability of including the population parameter over the long run.a.  Hypothesisb.  Lower limitc.  Confidence intervald.  Probability limit 22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.a.  Standard errorb.  Sample standard deviationc.  Replication error

d.  Meta error 23. An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship.a.   Trueb.   False 24. Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator?a.  r-squaredb.  rc.  Eta-squaredd.  Omega-squarede.  All of the above 25. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.a.   Type Ib.   Type Ac.   Type IId.   Type B 26. A post hoc test is ___.a.  A test to compare two or more means in one overall testb.  A test to determine regression to the meanc.  A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more groupsd.  A follow-up test to the independent t-test 27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as ___________.a.  Descriptive statisticsb.  Inferential statisticsc.  Sample statisticsd.  Population statistics 28. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as _____.a.  One-way analysis of varianceb.  Post hoc testc.  t-test for correlation coefficientsd.  Simple regression 29. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically significant is called the ___________.a.  One-way analysis of varianceb.  t-test for independent samplesc.  Chi-square test for contingency tablesd.  t-test for correlation coefficients 30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:a.  Significance levelb.  Alpha levelc.  Probability valued.  Both a and b are correct 31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least precise) for a particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?a.  99%b.  95%c.  90%d.  None of the above

 32. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?a.  They become more preciseb.  They become more narrowc.  They become widerd.  Both a and b 33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.a.       Type I errorb.      Type II errorc.       Type A errord.      Type B error 34. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis testing?a.  When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejectedb.  When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejectedc.  When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejectedd.  When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejectede.  Both b and c are true 35. What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?a.  Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population parameter?b.  Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?c.  Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null hypothesis?d.  There is no key question in statistical estimation 36. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an innocent person is found guilty.a.  Trueb.  False 37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter.a.  Standard errorb.  Sampling errorc.  Difference errord.  None of the above 38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis testing?a.  Nullb. Alternativec.  It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis 39. A Type I error is also known as a ______.a. False positiveb. False negativec. Double negatived. Positive negative 40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.a. False positiveb. False negativec. Double negatived. Positive negative 41. If a finding is statistically significant one must also interpret the data, calculate an effect size indicator, and make an assessment of practical significance.a. True

b. False 42. The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how strong a relationship is. For example, if relationship A has a p=.04 and relationship B has a p=.03 then you can conclude that relationship B is stronger than relationship A.a. Trueb. False Answers:1. b2. c3. d4. d5. c6. b

7. c8. a9. a10. c11. d12. b

13. a14. a15. b16. b17. b18. c

19. a20. c21. c22. a23. a24. e

25. a26. c27. b28. a29. d30. d

31. a32. d33. b34. e35. a36. a

37. b38. a39. a40. b41. a42. b

Chapter 17Multiple Choice Questions

 1. A researcher does a study of students' phenomenological feelings about problem solving. One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. Two subcategories of that category of positive affect are smiles when solves the problem, and shouts hooray when finished. The relation between these subcategories and the overall category of positive affect is:a.       Spatialb.      Sequencec.       Strict inclusiond.      Function 2. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation, "X is a place in Y; X is part of Y" in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:a.  Spatialb.  Rationalec.  Means-endd.  Strict inclusion 3. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation X is a kind of Y in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:a. Spatialb. Rationalec. Means-endd. Strict inclusion 4. A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. She interviews 5  girls and 5 boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence, she decides to generate her codes as she scans through her transcriptions of her data. These codes are labeled:a.       A priori codesb.      Post hoc codesc.       Inductive codesd.      Master list codes  5. Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents interact in Head Start Centers. As she examines her data (videotapes and transcripts), she jots down notes concerning the interactions, generating

hypotheses, suggesting relationships among categories of information she is examining and so on. This process of jotting notes as she examines the data is called:a.       Memoingb.      Transcriptionc.       Facesheet codingd.      Drawing diagrams 6. Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing branch of research methodology.a. Trueb. False 7. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words, or category names is known as _______.a.       Concurringb.      Codingc.       Coloringd.      Segmenting 8. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study called?a. Interim analysisb. Inter analysisc. Inter-item analysisd. Constant analysis 9. What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from your data during data analysis called?a. Codingb. Segmentingc. Memoingd. Reflecting 10. Which of the following is one of Spradley’s types of relationships?a. Strict inclusionb. Sequencec. Cause-effectd. All of the above 11. Which of the following is not one of Spradley’s types of relationships?a. Strict inclusionb. Sequencec. Cause-effectd. Correlational 12. Codes that apply to a complete document or case are called ________.a.   Cover codesb.   False sheet codesc.   Factual codesd.   Facesheet codes 13. A classification system generally used in the social sciences that breaks something down into different types or levels is called a ________.a.   Diagram

b.   Flow chartc.   Hierarchical category systemd.   Category 14. When you have high consistency among different coders about the appropriate codes for a set of data, you have ____.a. High intercoder reliabilityb. High intracoder reliability 15. Codes developed before examining the current data being coded are called ______.a. Co-occuring codesb. Inductive codesc. A priori codesd. Facesheet codes 16. The process of quantifying data is referred to as _________.a.  Typologyb.  Diagrammingc.  Enumerationd.  Coding 17. Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study?a.  Memoingb.  Segmentingc.  Codingd.  Interim analysis 18. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _______.a. Can reduce time required to analyze data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)b. Help in storing and organizing datac. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraintsd. All of the above 19. _________ are codes that are developed during the process of coding.a.       Inductive codesb.      A priori codesc.       Co-occurring codesd.      Facesheet codes 20. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.a. Trueb. False 21. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.a. Categoriesb. Unitsc. Individualsd. None of the above 22. When a segment of textual data has overlapping codes, this is called a(n) __________.a. Inductive code

b. Co-occurring codesc. Priori coded. Facesheet code 23. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text.a. Segmentingb. Codingc. Transcriptiond. Memoing 24. Network diagrams show only direct links between variables or events over time.a. Trueb. False 25. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data.a.  Trueb.  False Answers:1. c2. a3. d4. c5. a

6. a7. b8. a9. c10. d

11. d12. d13. c14. a15. c

16. c17. d18. d19. a20. a

21. a22. b23. c24. b25. a

 

Chapter 18Multiple Choice Questions

 1. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the first author is cited followed by et al.a.  3b.  4c.  5d.  6 2. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you shoulda.  State the first and last name of the authorb.  Use the author, date citation methodc.  Use an asterisk and a footnoted.  Insert the complete citation in parenthesis 3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?a.   IQb.   sec. for secondc.   yr. for yeard.  mo. for month 4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.a.   Italicsb.   Abbreviationsc.   Headings

d.   Both a and b 5. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of you study for a conference or for publication isa.   Whether the study is free from flawsb.   Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publicationc.   Whether others would be interested in the workd.   All of the above 6. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research reports?a.  You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.b.  You should avoid labeling people whenever possiblec.  You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possibled.  All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines 7. Regarding disabilities, writers should “avoid equating people with their disabilities” such as in mentally retarded people.a.  Trueb.  False 8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.a.  Trueb.  False 9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?a.  A stroke victimb.  A person who has had a stroke 10. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.a.  Trueb.  False 11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.a.  Trueb.  False 12. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are below ten.a.  Trueb.  False 13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.a.  Trueb.  False 14. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?a.  Resultsb.  Abstractc.  Methodd.  Footnotes 15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.a.  Trueb.  False 16. The abstract should be about how many words?a.  50b.  75

c.  120d.  300 17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.a. Trueb. False 18. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.a.  Introductionb.  Methodc.  Resultsd.  Discussion 19. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and participants did during the research study?a.  Introductionb.  Abstractc.  Procedured.  Design 20. References should be single spaced.a.  Trueb.  False 21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.a. Trueb. False 22. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern should be to provide sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions.a.  Trueb.  False 23. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an appropriate balance between description and interpretation.a.  Trueb.  False 24. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in qualitative research reports.a.  Trueb.  False 25. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important to fit the research findings back into the relevant research literature even if the study is exploratory.a.  Trueb.  False Answers:1. d2. b3. a4. d5. d

6. d7. a8. a9. b10. b

11. a12. a13. a14. d15. a

16. c17. b18. d19. c20. b

21. b22. a23. a24. b25. a