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Chapter 8

1. Ancient members of the group __________ were the first living organisms on earth. A) Archaea B) Protists C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Animalia

2. Because protists groups cannot be drawn back to a single common ancestor the group is

considered to be A) polygynous. B) polyphyletic. C) holophytic. D) autotrophic. E) monophyletic.

3. Protists are believed to have arisen about __________ years ago.

A) 100 billion B) 10 billion C) 1.5 billion D) 100 million E) 10 million

4. The most recent classification scheme put forth by the International Society of

Protistologists places protists into six A) phyla B) classes C) kingdoms D) super groups E) genera

5. In a protist, the portion of the cytoplasm that lies just beneath the plasma membrane

(pellicle) is called the A) cell wall. B) cell membrane. C) hypoplasm. D) endoplasm. E) ectoplasm.

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6. Contractile vacuoles in freshwater protozoans function to A) remove excess water. B) remove the nitrogenous by-products of metabolism. C) capture prey. D) increase the efficiency of movement. E) destroy infectious bacteria.

7. In some protists, food may be ingested in a special region, the

A) cytopyge. B) oral hood. C) cytopharynx. D) oral aperture. E) cytosome.

8. In heterotrophic protists, digestion and transport of food occurs in

A) ingestion vacuoles. B) contractile vacuoles. C) egestion vacuoles. D) food vacuoles. E) cytopygial vacuoles.

9. Egestion vacuoles release their contents by

A) simple diffusion. B) osmosis. C) active transport. D) facilitated diffusion. E) exocytosis.

10. Egestion vacuoles release their contents through the A) cytopyge. B) oral pore. C) anus. D) cytopharynx. E) mouth.

11. The principal nitrogenous waste of protozoans is A) guanine. B) ammonia. C) urea. D) uric acid. E) urine.

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12. In protists, both gas exchange and excretion occur by __________ across the plasma membrane.

A) endocytosis B) active transport C) diffusion D) exocytosis E) facilitated diffusion

13. The common means of sexual reproduction among ciliated protists is A) budding. B) fragmentation. C) schizogony. D) conjugation. E) multiple fission.

14. __________ occurs in protists when a large number of daughter cells are formed from a

single parent cell. A) Multiple mitosis B) Fragmentation C) Budding D) Binary fission E) Schizogeny

16. Protists in this super group are amoeboid in morphology and have very fine

pseudopodia called filopodia. A) Excavata B) Amoebozoa C) Rhizaria D) Chromalveolata E) Actinopoda

17. “Red-tides” are caused by A) radiolarians. B) foraminiferans. C) sporooans. D) volvicines. E) dinoflagellates.

18. The protozoan Trypanosoma brucei is the causal organism of the disease A) African sleeping sickness. B) malaria. C) leishmaniasis. D) trichina. E) balantidiasis.

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19. The vectors of Trypanosoma are A) Aedes mosquitoes. B) all species of flies. C) tsetse flies. D) all species of mosquitoes. E) all species of ticks and mites.

20. __________ is one of the opportunistic diseases affecting AIDS patients in the United

States. A) Trypanosoma B) Nosema C) Entamoeba D) Toxoplasma E) Plasmodium

21. Toxoplasmosis is primarily carried to humans by A) the tsetse fly. B) the mosquito. C) chickens. D) consumption of contaminated water. E) cats.

22. Pseudopodia that are broad and are used for locomotion and engulfing food are called A) lobopodia. B) filipodia. C) reticulopodia. D) axopodia. E) amphipodia.

23. Members of the genus Amoeba ingest food by A) absorption. B) active transport. C) phagocytosis. D) exocytosis. E) facilitated diffusion.

24. A(n) ________ protozoan would possess a lobopodium. A) Euglena B) Dinoflagellate C) Sporozoan D) Amoeba E) Ciliated

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25. The pathogenic amoeba that causes dysentery in humans is A) Entamoeba gingivalis. B) Amoeba proteus. C) Entamoeba coli. D) Amoeba difflugia. E) Entamoeba histolytica.

26. The white cliffs of Dover are an example of a/an __________ chalk deposit. A) foraminiferan B) radiolarian C) heliozoan D) difflugian E) arcellian

27. Some of the oldest eukaryotic fossils are A) difflugians. B) radiolarians. C) arcellians. D) heliozoans. E) bacteria.

29. A process known as __________ begins the sexual phase of the coccidean life cycle. A) exogeny B) schizogeny C) endogeny D) gametogeny E) sporogeny

30. Ancient Egyptian records indicate humans were infected with which parasite? A) Toxoplasma. B) Isospora. C) Trypanosoma. D) Eimeria. E) Plasmodium.

31. All ciliates have a large __________ nucleus that controls normal functions. A) diploid B) polyploid C) haploid D) monoploid E) heteroploid

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32. Of the protozoans listed below, which one is capable of photosynthesis? A) Giardia B) Toxoplasma C) Euglena D) Trypanosoma E) Plasmodium

33. Many __________ are symbiotic in the digestive tracts of ruminate ungulates (hoofed

mammals), and aid in digestion for their hosts. A) englenoids B) trypanosomes C) amoebae D) sporozoeans E) ciliates

34. In the ciliates, one or more __________ serve as the genetic reserve of the cell. A) macronuclei B) polyploid nuclei C) triploid nuclei D) heteroploid nuclei E) micronuclei

35. Protozoans in this group are nearly all parasites of humans. A) Apicomplexans B) Dinoflagellates C) Ciliophorans D) Formaniferans E) Tubulineans

36. Ciliates have a distinct “cell mouth” called a A) protostome. B) cytostome. C) picnostome. D) phagostome. E) cytopore.

37. An economically important disease of poultry is A) trypanosomiasis. B) pebrine. C) foul brood. D) coccidiosis. E) sarcocystitis.

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38. Sexual reproduction of ciliates involves a process called A) conjugation. B) gametogony. C) sporogony. D) cohabitation. E) copulation.

39. An important parasitic ciliate that lives in the large intestines of humans, pigs, and other

mammals is A) Entamoeba gingivalis. B) Trypanosoma brucei. C) Balantidium coli. D) Plasmodium falciparum. E) Entamoeba histolytica.

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Chapter 9

1. One proposed mechanism for the evolution of multicellularity involves an ancestral multinucleate cell in which plasma membranes formed between nuclei, resulting in a multicellular organism. This proposed mechanism is referred to as the __________ hypothesis.

A) colonial B) syncytial C) polyphyletic D) metazoan E) synthetic

2. This group of animals does not possess embryological tissue layers.

A) scyphozoans B) ctenophorans C) poriferans D) anthozoans E) hydrozoans

3. Which of the following items is NOT found in sponges?

A) choanocytes B) tissues C) pinacocytes D) porocytes E) mesohyl

4. Contractile pinacocytes that can regulate water circulation in some sponges are called

A) spongiocytes. B) choanocytes. C) porocytes. D) archeocytes. E) amebocytes.

5. Just underneath the pinacocyte layer of a sponge is a jellylike layer referred to as the

A) ectoderm. B) endoderm. C) mesoderm. D) mesohyl. E) endochyme.

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6. The collar of a choanocyte A) regulates the diameter of the osculum. B) filters food from the water. C) creates currents in the water. D) regulates the diameter of the ostia. E) secretes digestive enzymes.

7. The taxonomy of sponges is determined by

A) the shape of the choanocytes. B) the complexity of the osculum. C) the material that composes the skeleton. D) the presence or absence of porocytes. E) the shape of the body of the sponge.

8. The __________ is the simplest, but least common body form of sponge.

A) leucon B) sycon C) demosponge D) ascon E) sclerosponge

9. The porocytes of ascon sponges lead to the outside via openings called

A) spongocoels. B) atriopores. C) blastopores. D) oscula. E) ostia.

10. The single large opening at the top of the spongocoel is the A) osculum. B) atriopore. C) ostium. D) mouth. E) anus.

11. __________ sponges have incurrent canals formed by infoldings of the body wall. A) Sclerosponge B) Sycon C) Leucon D) Calcisponge E) Ascon

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12. Sponges may gain nutrition by all of the following modes EXCEPT A) filtration. B) trapping of food items by the collar. C) active transport of nutrients. D) phagocytosis. E) active predation.

13. The unique adhesive cells of ctenophores are A) statoblasts. B) cnidoblasts. C) colloblasts. D) pleuroblasts. E) statoliths.

14. The most complex sponge body form, the __________, is characterized by multiple

oscula and a complex canal system where choanocytes reside in small chambers. A) leucon B) ascon C) sycon D) polyp E) medusa

15. Excretion and gas exchange in sponges are accomplished by A) active transport. B) diffusion. C) contractile vacuoles. D) nephridia. E) osmosis.

16. Which of the following would NOT be found in the body of a sponge? A) ameboid cells B) choanocytes C) pinacocytes D) spicules E) colloblasts

17. Eggs and sperm of sponges are commonly formed from A) pinacocytes. B) porocytes. C) choanocytes. D) spongiocytes. E) sclerocytes.

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18. Ctenophores move via bands of cilia called A) lappets. B) rhopalia. C) comb rows. D) acontia. E) tentacles.

19. Freshwater (and some marine) sponges form resistant structures which function in

asexual reproduction, called A) brown bodies. B) larvae. C) statoblasts. D) spores. E) gemmules.

20. Gemmules contain masses of __________ which can survive freezing or drying. A) amoeboid cells B) porocytes C) choanocytes D) spongin E) pinacocytes

21. Members of class __________ are those historically used as commercial sponges. A) Calcarea B) Demospongiae C) Hexactinellida D) Syconidae E) Leuconidae

22. Members of the phylum __________ are characterized by radial (or biradial) symmetry,

diploblastic organization, a gastrovascular cavity, and cnidocytes. A) Mesozoa B) Placozoa C) Cnidaria D) Porifera E) Ctenophora

23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of animals in the phylum Cnidaria? A) diploblastic, tissue level organization B) gastrovascular cavity C) nervous system in the form of a nerve net D) bilateral symmetry in the adult form E) specialized cells called cnidocytes

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24. Members of the cnidarian class __________ never have a medusa stage. A) Mesozoa B) Hydrozoa C) Scyphozoa D) Anthozoa E) Cubozoa

25. Cnidarians exchange respiratory gases and nitrogenous wastes via A) active pumping. B) movement of cilia. C) active transport. D) movement of microvilli. E) diffusion.

26. An intracellular structure made of a fluid-filled capsule holding a coiled, hollow tube is

the A) cnidocyte. B) choanocyate. C) cnidocil. D) nematocyst. E) pinacocyte.

27. The __________ body form of a cnidarian is typically asexual and sessile. A) sycon B) polyp C) ascon D) leucon E) medusa

28. The __________ body form of a cnidarian is typically dioecious and motile. A) sycon B) polyp C) ascon D) leucon E) medusa

29. Cnidarians possess a ____________ skeleton. A) calcium carbonate B) silicon based C) spongin D) fluid based E) cartilagenous

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30. The __________ cavity of cnidarians serves in digestion and as a site for exchange of respiratory gases and wastes.

A) intestine B) spongocoel C) gastrocoel D) gastrovascular cavity E) archenteron

31. The free swimming larva of cnidarians is the A) planula. B) pilidium. C) trochophore. D) bipinnaria. E) veliger.

32. The feeding polyps of an Obelia colony are called A) hydranths. B) gastrozooids. C) gonozooids. D) statocysts. E) statoblasts.

33. The Portuguese man-of-war is a colonial A) scyphozoan. B) anthozoan. C) mesozoan. D) hydrozoan. E) cubozoan.

34. Nerve cells of animals in this phylum are considered by many biologists to be the most

primitive nervous elements in the animal kingdom. A) Porifera B) Ctenophora C) Cnidaria D) Mesozoa E) Placozoa

35. Members of this cnidarians class include the sea anemones and coral. A) Cubozoa B) Anthozoa C) Hydrozoa D) Scyphozoa E) Mesozoa

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36. Sensory structures located in 8 notches around the bell of jellyfish medusae are A) statoliths. B) colloblasts. C) manubri. D) nematocysts. E) rhopalia.

37. Until very recently, this class of Cnidarians was included within the class Scyphozoa. A) Hydrozoa B) Staurozoa C) Cubozoa D) Anthozoa E) Metridium

38. The main source of nutrient carbohydrates in coral come from A) zooxanthellae. B) captured prey. C) rhopalia. D) acontia. E) ephyrae.

39. Members of the phylum Ctenophora are commonly called A) jellyfish. B) comb jellies. C) water bears. D) ephyrae. E) polyps.

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Chapter 10

1. When the adult of a descendant species resembles the larval form of the ancestral species, this is

A) neoteny. B) syngamy. C) precocity. D) paedomorphosis. E) pubescence.

2. Animals in this phyla are small flat acoelomate worms that are bilaterally symmetrical,

triploblastic, and do not contain appendages. A) Platyhelminthes B) Nemertea C) Gastrotricha D) Acoelomorpha E) Cycliophora

3. Most turbellarian species

A) are marine scavengers. B) are internal parasites with complex life histories. C) are external parasites of birds and mammals. D) have complete digestive tracts. E) are freshwater predators and scavengers.

4. Which of the functions listed below is NOT a function of the parenchyma of the

platyhelminthes? A) provide skeletal support B) nutrient storage C) oxygen storage D) production of gametes E) transport of materials

5. Among the flatworms, when a digestive tract is present, it has

A) a single opening, the mouth. B) two openings, mouth and anus. C) a single opening, the anus. D) no external opening. E) a nephridiopore opening.

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6. The free-living flatworms are classified in the class A) Cestoidea. B) Turbellaria. C) Trematoda. D) Triclada. E) Acoela.

7. Which of the following is not true of the turbellarian gastrodermis?

A) It secretes digestive enzymes. B) It absorbs digested food. C) It contains smooth muscle cells. D) It consists of a single layer of cells. E) It is derived embryologically from endoderm.

8. __________ are rodlike cells of the turbellarian epidermis that swell and form a

protective mucous sheath around the body. A) Endocytes B) Mucocytes C) Ectocytes D) Rhabdites E) Flame cells

9. The _______ layer of a fluke is composed of carbohydrates and proteins and helps

protect the fluke from the host's enzymes and antibodies. A) syncytium B) tegument C) glycocalyx D) cuticle E) plasmodium

10. Turbellarians glide over substrates using __________ and muscular undulations. A) cilia B) parapodia C) pseudopodia D) flagella E) legs

11. In larger species of turbellarians, the highly branched digestive cavity partially

compensates for the A) lack of anus for egestion. B) lack of an ingestive organ. C) absence of a circulatory system. D) absence of digestive enzymes. E) inability to digest food extracellularly.

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12. Among those turbellarians possessing a digestive cavity, digestion is A) extracellular only. B) intracellular only. C) accomplished before food is ingested. D) both extracellular and intracellular. E) accomplished in the pharynx.

13. The osmoregulatory organs of turbellarians are called A) contractile vacuoles. B) kidneys. C) metanephridia. D) mesonephridia. E) protonephridia.

14. The flame cell system and protonephridia of freshwater turbellarians primarily serve to

remove __________ from the body. A) excess water B) metabolic waste C) urea D) uric acid E) excess carbohydrates

15. In turbellarian nervous systems, neurons carrying information to the brain are

__________ neurons. A) connector B) sensory C) receptor D) association E) motor

16. In turbellarians, the nervous tissue is concentrated anteriorly in clusters of neurons

called A) longitudinal masses. B) ganglia. C) commissures. D) nephridiophores. E) protonephridia.

17. The small subclass of flukes, __________, includes those that are primarily internal

parasites of molluscs. A) Digenea B) Trematoda C) Eucestoda D) Aspidogastrea E) Cestodaria

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18. Chemoreceptors that aid in the location of food are especially dense in the __________ of turbellarians.

A) eyespots B) cerebral ganglia C) statocysts D) ocelli E) auricles

19. The simple eyespots seen in most turbellarians are called A) ocelli. B) auricles. C) statocysts. D) chemoreceptors. E) plasmids.

20. Asexual reproduction by fission in some turbellarians results in a chain of individuals

called __________ that later will become independent individuals. A) larvae B) zooids C) buds D) cocoons E) bursae

21. The free-swimming larval stage of some turbellarians is called a/an A) ephyra. B) planula. C) Muller's larva. D) pilidium. E) scyphistoma.

22. The members of the Class Monogenea have tissues that develop from this many germ

layers. A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

23. A continuous multinucleate layer, formed by cell fusion, is called a/an A) syncytium. B) glycocalyx. C) integument. D) cuticle. E) microvillus.

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24. The epidermis of a fluke has an outer layer called the __________, which forms a syncytium.

A) plasmodium B) opisthaptor C) pellicle D) cuticle E) tegument

25. Flukes in the subclass Digenea always have two or more A) mouths. B) hosts. C) plant hosts. D) intermediate hosts. E) definitive hosts.

26. In the class Trematoda, the phenomena of producing many cercariae is known as A) polylarvany. B) multiple host syndrome. C) polyembryony. D) multiple embryony. E) intermediate host reproduction.

27. The larval stage of members of class Monogenea is called the A) redia. B) oncosphere. C) sporocyst. D) oncomiracidium. E) cercaria.

28. Most flukes belong to the subclass A) Aspidogastrea. B) Monogenea. C) Eucestoda. D) Cestodaria. E) Digenea.

29. The lidlike hatch on a trematode egg is called the A) operculum. B) scolex. C) opisthaptor. D) acetabulum. E) cercaria.

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30. The first larval stage in the life history of a digenetic fluke is the A) redia. B) miracidium. C) cercaria. D) sporocyst. E) oncomiracidium.

31. The encysted cercaria stage of a digenetic fluke is called the A) oncomiracidium. B) sporocyst. C) metacercaria. D) redia. E) oncocercaria.

32. Blood flukes of the genus __________ are important human parasites. A) Fasciola B) Clonorchis C) Opisthorchis D) Schistosoma E) Plasmodium

33. The most highly specialized class of parasites within phylum Platyhelminthes is A) Aspidogastrea. B) Trematoda. C) Platyhelminthes. D) Monogenea. E) Cestoidea.

34. The tapeworm strobila is made of many repeated units called A) proglottids. B) opercula. C) scolices. D) acetabula. E) miracidia.

35. Tapeworms lack A) reproductive organs. B) a mouth and digestive tract. C) excretory structures. D) holdfast structures. E) a tegument.

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36. The holdfast structure of a tapeworm is called the A) strobila. B) acetabulum. C) scolex. D) opisthaptor. E) proglottid.

37. Scolex, neck, and __________ comprise the three body regions of a tapeworm. A) abdomen B) thorax C) tail D) strobila E) trunk

38. The oldest proglottids at the end of a tapeworm are filled with eggs, and are said to be A) adult. B) female. C) pregnant. D) mature. E) gravid.

39. The six-hooked (hexacanth) larva that develops from the egg of the beef tapeworm is

the A) onchosphere. B) miracidium. C) cysticercus. D) bladder worm. E) redia.

40. The larval stage of the beef tapeworm that encysts in skeletal muscles is called the A) onchosphere. B) cysticercus. C) cercaria. D) redia. E) hexacanth.

41. Nemerteans differ from flatworms in that they possess A) a heart. B) one way circulation in blood vessels. C) a complete digestive tract. D) both male and female reproductive structures in the same individual. E) a plerocercoid larvae.

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42. The larval stage of the broad fish tapeworm that encysts in muscle is called the A) coracidium. B) precercoid. C) miracidium. D) pleurocercoid. E) cysticercoid.

43. The proboscis worms belong to the phylum A) Proboscisoidea. B) Nematoda. C) Gnathostomulida. D) Aspidogastrea. E) Nemertea.

44. The proboscis of nemerteans is held within a sheath called the A) rhynchocoel. B) gastrovascular cavity. C) gastrocoel. D) stylet. E) anoplan.

45. Nemerteans differ from flatworms in that they have a complete gut and a A) reproductive system. B) circulatory system. C) well-developed head. D) well-developed bilateral symmetry. E) nervous system.

46. The helmet-shaped, ciliated larva of nemerteans is the A) onchosphere. B) Muller. C) pilidium. D) miracidium. E) cercaria.

47. Animals in the phyla Cycliophora live exclusively on the mouthparts of A) pelicans. B) beetles. C) lobsters. D) elephants. E) snails.

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48. Which phyla is the newest phylum to be named and, to date, only includes one species? A) Platyhelminthes B) Nemertea C) Gastrotricha D) Acoelomorpha E) Cycliophora

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Chapter 11

1. Molluscs are A) deuterostomes. B) ecdysozoaons. C) lophotrochozoans. D) chordates. E) hemichordates.

2. There are roughly this many described species in the phylum Mollusca.

A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1 million E) 10 million

3. The study of similarities and differences in early development of animals is called

A) comparative embrology. B) descriptive embryology. C) descriptive anatomy. D) protostomology. E) comparative analogy.

4. The enterocoel hypothesis suggests the coelom may have arisen

A) due to determinate cleavage. B) due to a splitting of mesoderm. C) in a spiral manner. D) in a radial manner. E) as outpocketings of the primitive gut.

5. The body of molluscs is divided into two main regions called the

A) head-foot and visceral mass. B) mantle and foot. C) head-foot and enterocoel. D) visceral mass and mantle. E) head and foot.

6. The shell of a mollusc is secreted by the

A) radula. B) mantle. C) periostracum. D) foot. E) visceral mass.

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7. The inner layer of the mollusc shell is the __________ layer. A) radular B) prismatic C) nacreous D) helix E) periostracum

8. The space between the mantle and foot in a mollusc is called the

A) hemocoel. B) coelom. C) enterocoel. D) mantle cavity. E) radular cavity.

9. The rasping structure occurring in the mouth of most molluscs is the

A) tongue. B) nacre. C) odontophore. D) operculum. E) radula.

10. Snails, slugs, and limpets belong to the molluscan class A) Gastropoda. B) Pelecypoda. C) Polyplacophora. D) Aplacophora. E) Cephalopoda.

11. The 180°, counterclockwise twisting of the visceral mass, mantle, and mantle cavity of

gastropods is called A) contortion. B) torsion. C) helixing. D) coiling. E) operculating.

12. In gastropods, food is trapped in mucus and incorporated into a rotating mucoid mass

called the __________, which extends to the stomach. A) stylet B) siphonoglyph C) protostyle D) odontophore E) osphradium

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13. The class of molluscs that contains the most species is the class A) Aplacophora B) Cephalopoda C) Gastropoda D) Polyplacophora E) Pelecypoda

14. The circulatory system of most molluscs is A) hydraulic. B) incurrent. C) closed. D) excurrent. E) open.

15. Among molluscs, extension of body structures such as tentacles is accomplished by A) a hydraulic skeleton. B) special extensor muscles. C) tendons and ligaments. D) a system of levers. E) muscles and levers.

16. In some gastropods, a(n) __________ is found on the dorsal, posterior margin of the

foot and when the foot is drawn into the shell, seals the opening. A) radula B) operculum C) tentacles D) siphons E) osphradium

17. The primary excretory product of aquatic gastropods is A) urine. B) urea. C) ammonia. D) uric acid. E) guanine.

18. The gastropod larval stage in which torsion occurs is called the A) dipleurula. B) pilidium. C) Muller's larva. D) veliger. E) trochophore.

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19. Which of the following is not a member of the class Bivalvia? A) clams B) mussels C) oysters D) chitons E) scallops

20. The oldest part of the bivalve shell is the A) umbo. B) periostracum. C) hinge ligament. D) left valve. E) right valve.

21. Muscles responsible for closing the bivalve shell are A) longitudinal. B) adductors. C) retractors. D) circular. E) protractors.

22. The adaptation of bivalves to sedentary, filter feeding life-styles involved loss of the

__________ and the radula. A) mantle B) foot C) head D) visceral mass E) siphons

23. In the bivalves, gas exchange takes place through the A) mantle cavity. B) siphons. C) visceral mass. D) gills. E) foot.

24. In the bivalves, final digestion occurs A) in the adductor muscles. B) in the coelom. C) in the labial palps. D) in the crystaline style. E) in the digestive gland.

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25. The modified veliger of some freshwater bivalves is called the A) glochidium. B) trochophore. C) pilidium. D) dipleura. E) cercoid.

26. Squids, octopuses, cuttlefishes, and nautili belong to the molluscan class A) Gastropoda. B) Cephalopoda. C) Polyplacophora. D) Bivalvia. E) Pelecypoda.

27. The most complex molluscs belong to the class A) Gastropoda. B) Bivalvia. C) Cephalopoda. D) Polyplacophora. E) Scaphopoda.

28. The only living cephalopods that possess an external shell are the A) scallops. B) cuttlefishes. C) toothshells. D) nautiloids E) squids.

29. Unlike other molluscs, the __________ have a closed circulatory system. A) univalves B) gastropods C) chitons D) bivalves E) cephalopods

30. Cephalopods typically locate prey by A) sight. B) tactile senses. C) olfaction. D) gustation. E) echolocation.

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31. The similarity of design between the eyes of vertebrates and the eyes of many cephalopods provides an excellent example of

A) divergent evolution. B) convergent evolution. C) perpendicular phylogeny. D) adaptive radiation. E) cladistic phylogeny.

32. Pigment cells of cephalopods are called A) pinacocytes. B) odontophores. C) chromatophores. D) erythrocytes. E) nautilophores.

33. Sperm packets of cephalopods are called A) cecae. B) stylets. C) cocoons. D) spermatophores. E) gonophores.

34. Tooth shells belong to the molluscan class A) Bivalvia. B) Cephalopoda. C) Polyplacophora. D) Gastropoda. E) Scaphopoda.

35. Neopilina represents the molluscan class __________, that was known only from fossils

until 1952. A) Monoplacophora B) Aplacophora C) Polyplacophora D) Bivalvia E) Gastropoda

36. Solenogasters are cylindrical molluscs that lack a shell; they belong to the class A) Gastropoda. B) Aplacophora. C) Cephalopoda. D) Scaphopoda. E) Polyplacophora.

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37. Chitons belong to the molluscan class A) Monoplacophora. B) Scaphopoda. C) Polyplacophora. D) Cephalopoda. E) Bivalvia.

38. The lack of a __________ in the molluscan class Aplacophora is thought to be a

primitive characteristic. A) head B) foot C) visceral mass D) shell E) radula

39. The segmental arrangement of gills, excretory structures, and nervous elements in the

__________, make them seem like a “missing link” between molluscs and the annelid-arthropod line.

A) cephalopods B) octopods C) gastropods D) solenogasters E) monoplacophorans

40. The diversity of body forms and life-styles in the phylum Mollusca is an excellent

example of A) adaptive radiation. B) convergent evolution. C) emergent evolution. D) parallel evolution. E) homologous evolution.

41. The shell-secreting organ of bivalve mollusks is the A) umbo. B) visceral mass. C) foot. D) mantle. E) crystalline style.

42. The tentacle of male cephalopods that is modified for spermatophore transfer is the A) hectocotylus. B) umbo. C) pneumostome. D) operculum. E) odontophore.

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43. Molluscs possess this type of skeleton. A) endoskeleton B) exoskeleton C) pneumo D) hydraulic E) hepatic

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Chapter 12

1. Traditionally, the annelids have been considered closely related to A) echinoderms. B) hemichordates. C) arthropods. D) chordates. E) poriferans.

2. Recent evidence suggests that annelids share common ancestry with

A) Mollusca. B) Nematoda. C) Chordata. D) Echinodermata. E) Kinorhyncha.

3. Which of the following phyla of animals is not considered lophotrochozoan?

A) Annelida B) Mollusca C) Nemertea D) Arthropoda E) Platyhelminthes

4. __________ is the segmental arrangement of body parts.

A) Metamerism B) Triploblastism C) Tagmatization D) Serialism E) Cephalization

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the phylum Annelida?

A) body with metameric segments B) chitinous exoskeleton C) closed circulatory system D) ventral ganglionated nerve cords E) excretion by metanephridia or protonephridia

6. Some segmented animals have groups of segments specialized for particular functions.

The process of forming distinct body regions is called: A) metamerism. B) eutely. C) tagmatization. D) cephalization. E) differentiation.

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7. A feature that does NOT characterize annelids is A) a ventral nerve cord. B) bilateral symmetry. C) a complete digestive tract. D) an acoelomate condition. E) triploblastic organization.

8. The most speciose class of annelids is __________. Its members are primarily marine.

A) Chaetognatha B) Oligochaeta C) Hirudinea D) Gnathostomulida E) Polychaeta

9. The class of annelids that contains some members with poison glands associated with

their jaws is A) Polychaeta. B) Oligochaeta. C) Hirudinae. D) Gnathostomulida. E) Chaetognatha.

10. Polychaetes are distinguished by lateral extensions of the body called A) parapodia. B) setae. C) prostomi. D) palps. E) tentacles.

11. The region of the polychaete head that is dorsal and anterior to the mouth, and is

sensory in function, is the __________. A) gnathostome B) prostomium C) peristomium D) protostome E) pygidium

12. The body part surrounding the mouth and bearing tentacles is the __________. A) pharynx B) head C) peristomium D) notopodium E) cirrus

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13. The body cavity of most annelids is divided into compartments by “curtains” of tissue called

A) cirri. B) setae. C) muscles. D) septa. E) pleura.

14. External respiratory exchange in most annelids is accomplished by A) ventilation. B) active transport. C) endocytosis. D) facilitated diffusion. E) diffusion.

15. __________ increase the surface area for respiratory exchange in some polychaetes. A) Parapodial gills B) Dermal branchiae C) Annuli D) Septa E) Mesenteries

16. Polychaetes have a __________ circulatory system. A) bloodless B) closed C) lacunar D) open E) countercurrent

17. Every polychaete body compartment has a __________ ganglion which aids in

coordination of swimming and crawling. A) suprapharyngeal B) subpharyngeal C) segmental D) cerebral E) cephalic

18. The __________ are unusual parts of the annelid nervous system responsible for rapid

movements such as escape reactions. A) segmental ganglia B) subesophageal ganglia C) cerebral fibers D) giant fibers E) supraesophageal ganglia

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19. __________ are sensory pits on the heads of polychaetes with chemoreceptors for food detection.

A) Olfactors B) Auricles C) Statocysts D) Phasmids E) Nuchal organs

20. The major nitrogenous waste produced by annelids is A) ammonia. B) urea. C) uric acid. D) guanine. E) urine.

21. __________ are the excretory organs of most polychaetes. A) Chloragogues B) Metanephridia C) Osphradia D) Nuchal glands E) Ommatidia

22. The open, ciliated funnel of the metanephridium is the A) infundibulum. B) epitoke. C) nephrostome. D) nephridiopore. E) flame bulb.

23. Some polychaetes exhibit epitoky; the __________ is the non-reproductive individual. A) anatoke B) heterotoke C) protogyn D) atoke E) hypertoke

24. The two annelid subclasses containing the earthworms and the leeches have now been

united into the class A) Hiruchaeta. B) Chaetognatha. C) Polychaeta. D) Oligodinea. E) Clitellata.

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25. The girdle-like structure used for mucus secretion during copulation in oligochaetes is the

A) clitellum. B) parapodium. C) atoke. D) epitoke. E) prostomium.

26. During feeding, the __________ of oligochaetes helps to pump in food. A) prostomium B) pharynx C) clitellum D) esophagus E) mouth

27. The __________ is a thin-walled storage area in the oligochaete digestive tract. A) pharynx B) stomach C) crop D) esophagus E) gizzard

28. As in birds, the __________ acts to grind food in the oligochaete digestive tract. A) gastric mill B) pharynx C) crop D) gizzard E) stomach

29. The __________ is a dorsal invagination that increases the surface area of the

earthworm intestine. A) crop B) clitellum C) esophagus D) chloragogen E) typhlosole

30. Clitellate reproduction may be characterized by A) the female picking up the spermatophore with the cloaca. B) reciprocal sperm transfer. C) hypodermic impregnation. D) amplexus. E) shedding of gametes into the environment.

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31. In annelids, the __________ is a site of amino acid metabolism. A) liver B) typholosole C) chloragogen tissue D) clitellum E) kidney

32. Chloragogen tissue of annelids is similar in function to the vertebrate A) kidneys. B) pancreas. C) gall bladder. D) liver. E) spleen.

33. Annelids convert ammonia to urea in A) the metanephridia. B) calciferous glands. C) nuchal glands. D) clitellar tissue. E) chloragogen tissue.

34. Clitelates may be characterized as __________ with respect to reproduction. A) monoecious B) dioecious C) asexual D) protandric E) parthenogenic

35. In the class Clitellata, the larval form is A) a trochophore. B) absent. C) a veliger. D) dormant. E) free-living.

36. Leeches belong to the annelid subclass A) Oligochaeta. B) Chaetognatha. C) Hirudinea. D) Gnathobdellida. E) Polychaeta.

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37. The superficial external rings on a leech are called: A) proglottids. B) tagmata. C) metameres. D) annuli. E) strobilia.

38. Leeches typically lack A) segments. B) a digestive tract. C) sense organs. D) a pharynx. E) setae.

39. The anticoagulant secreted by leech salivary glands is A) hirudin. B) saliva. C) salivary amylase. D) hemerythrin. E) prothrombin.

40. Over the last several thousand years, leeches have been utilized by humans A) to attack foreign invaders. B) to remove blood from the body. C) to prevent malaria. D) as food. E) to investigate the functioning of nervous systems.

41. The members of the annelid class __________ are considered closest to the ancestral

annelid condition. A) Chaetognatha B) Gnathobdellida C) Polychaeta D) Oligochaeta E) Clitellata

42. Leeches become __________ when searching for food. A) negatively phototactic B) negatively thigmotactic C) negatively chemotactic D) positively phototactic E) positively thigmotactic

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43. Of the following features characteristic of oligochaetes, which is LACKING in polychaetes?

A) coelom B) spiral cleavage C) setae D) triploblastic development E) clitellum

44. Which of the characters below is not a feature of leeches? A) hypodermic impregnation B) asexual reproduction C) reciprocal sperm transfer D) sexually reproductive E) production of a cocoon

45. Unlike other annelids, echiurans A) have an open circulatory system. B) do not possess setae. C) undergo radial cleavage. D) are not segmented. E) have enterocoelous coelom formation.

46. Which of the following groups of worms are not in the phylum Annelida? A) earthworms B) beard worms C) spoon worms D) peanut worms E) flatworms

47. The echiurans and two groups of deep sea worms are likely to be A) removed from the Clitellata. B) removed from the Annelida. C) added to the subclass Hirudinea. D) added to the subclass Oligochaeta. E) added to the class Polychaeta.

48. The class Clitellata was recently created to A) unite the polychaetes and leeches. B) unite the polychaetes and earthworms. C) unite the oligochaetes and leeches. D) further subdivide the leeches. E) further subdivide the oligochaetes.

Page 1

Chapter 13

1. A pseudocoelom lacks A) peritoneum and mesenteries. B) muscles. C) a digestive tract. D) excretory organs. E) reproductive organs.

2. Recent cladistic analyses of morphological and molecular data suggests that

aschelminths that molt their cuticle are more closely related to _______________ than to other aschelminths.

A) annelids B) arthropods C) cycliophorans D) platyhelminths E) cnidarians

3. Which of the following phyla contains animals that are lophotrochozoan?

A) Loricifera B) Priapulida C) Nematoda D) Rotifera E) Kinorhyncha

4. Animals in which of the following phyla are not aschelminths?

A) Acanthocephala B) Nematomorpha C) Gastrotricha D) Loricifera E) Nematoda

5. Ecdysozoan animals

A) are all pseudocoelomates. B) are all acoelomates. C) are all coelomates. D) molt their cuticle. E) derive their nutrients from symbiotic relationships with algae.

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6. __________ is a condition in which cells, or the nuclei in syncytia, are constant in number for the entire animal, and for a given organ for all members of the species.

A) neoteny B) eutely C) protandry D) autotomy E) protogyny

7. Various hypotheses have been proposed concerning the phylogeny of the aschelminths.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by members of the phyla comprising this group?

A) cuticle B) muscular pharynx C) true coelom D) adhesive glands E) lack of segmentation

8. The osmoregulatory organs of MOST aschelminths are

A) malpighian tubules. B) metanephridia. C) renettes. D) protonephridia. E) kidneys.

9. The aschelminths are the first animal group discussed so far to possess a thin, tough

outer covering called the A) skin. B) tegument. C) pellicle. D) epidermis. E) cuticle.

10. The process of shedding the outer body covering is called A) autotomy. B) ecdysis. C) syncytialism. D) metamorphosis. E) lysis.

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11. The haploid mictic eggs of some rotifers, if not fertilized, develop parthenogenetically into

A) dormant eggs. B) males. C) females. D) winter eggs. E) haploid larvae.

12. Rotifers derive their name from a characteristic ciliated structure called the __________

located on the head. A) mastax B) corolla C) gastrotrich D) corona E) proboscis

13. The rotifer pharynx contains a unique muscular structure called the __________ in

which food is ground and macerated. A) odontophore B) crop C) gizzard D) radula E) mastax

14. Rotifers and other aschelminths exchange respiratory gases A) across the body surface. B) through gills. C) through lungs. D) with a tracheal system. E) with dermal branchiae.

15. In rotifers, two different kinds of eggs are produced. These are __________ and

__________eggs. A) fertile, infertile B) mictic, amictic C) nucleated, unucleated D) large, small E) shelled, unshelled

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16. In the rotifer class Bdelloidea, all females are __________, producing diploid eggs that hatch into diploid females.

A) protandric B) protogynous C) parthenogenetic D) isomictic E) mictic

17. In the rotifer class __________, amictic eggs develop exclusively by parthenogenesis. A) Phasmidia B) Secernentea C) Seisonidea D) Monogononta E) Bdelloidea

18. The wide distribution of rotifers in lakes can be attributed to A) resting eggs which can withstand adverse conditions. B) the distribution of eggs by wind. C) the distribution of eggs by the feet of waterfowl. D) ability to reproduce parthenogenetically. E) all of the answers are correct.

19. Some rotifers have a “shell” composed of a thickened cuticle, called the __________,

that functions in protection. A) test B) lorica C) ossicles D) periostracum E) umbo

20. Rotifers are A) primarily marine. B) relatively large. C) characterized by a corona and mastax. D) characterized by populations dominated by males. E) not eutelic.

21. Kinorhynchs are found exclusively in __________ environments. A) terrestrial B) freshwater C) marine D) stagnant pond E) rapidly flowing stream

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22. The neck of a kinorhynch has spines called A) plastids. B) phasmids. C) placids. D) scalids. E) amphids.

23. The phylum name Kinorhyncha refers to A) their bioluminescence. B) their lack of spines. C) their posterior spines. D) their degenerate nervous system. E) their method of burrowing.

24. The aschelminths known as the __________ are some of the most abundant animals on

earth. A) nematodes B) rotifers C) kinorhynchs D) gastrotrichs E) nematomorphans

25. Much of the success of nematodes is due to their A) hydrostatic skeleton. B) well-developed circular and longitudinal muscles. C) outer, noncellular, collagenous cuticle. D) ciliated covering. E) parthenogenetic reproduction.

26. The nematodes are commonly known as A) flatworms. B) segmented worms. C) roundworms. D) beard worms. E) tongue worms.

27. Structures that function in chemoreception and are found at the anterior and posterior

ends of nematodes are the A) spicules and lips. B) bursa and the nucleus. C) scalids and the placids. D) zonites and the mastax. E) amphids and the phasmids.

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28. Nematodes are typically A) dioecious and dimorphic. B) monoecious and dimorphic. C) dioecious and amorphic. D) monoecious and monomorphic. E) monoecious and amorphic.

29. Nematodes are currently placed into how many classes? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

30. In the osmoregulatory/excretory system of aquatic nematodes, ventral gland cells called

__________ are located posterior to the pharynx. A) coxae B) renettes C) protonephridia D) kidneys E) amphids

31. The pinworm, Enterobius vermicularis, commonly infects humans when A) infective larvae bore through the soles of the feet. B) metacercaria are taken in while eating raw fish. C) poorly cooked pork containing infective larvae are consumed. D) eggs containing infective larvae are consumed. E) mosquitoes carry microfilaria from host to host.

32. One method of avoiding infection by Trichinella spiralis is to A) use insect repellents to prevent mosquito bites. B) wash and peel raw vegetables before eating them. C) wear shoes. D) purify water before drinking it. E) cook pork thoroughly before eating it.

33. A human condition caused by filarial worms is called A) elephantiasis. B) trichinosis. C) brucellosis. D) sclerosis. E) dermatitis.

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34. A filarial worm which infects dogs, particularly common in the United States, is A) pinworms. B) mange. C) ringworm. D) heartworm. E) tapeworms.

35. Members of the phylum Nematomorpha are commonly called A) pinworms. B) hookworms. C) horsehair worms. D) heartworms. E) spiny-headed worms.

36. Adult nematomorphs are freeliving; the larvae are A) found in benthic marine habitats. B) parasitic in the respiratory systems of vertebrates. C) found in the lymph system of humans. D) parasitic in arthropods. E) encysted in muscle tissue of mammals.

37. Acanthocephalans are commonly called A) roundworms. B) blood worms. C) flatworms. D) probosis worms. E) spiny-headed worms.

38. Covering the tegument of acanthocephalans is a __________, consisting of

mucopolysaccharides and glycoproteins. A) glycocalyx B) lorica C) sheath D) cuticle E) pellicle

39. Like the tapeworms, acanthocephalans lack A) a nervous system. B) a digestive tract. C) muscles. D) a reproductive system. E) a cuticle.

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40. The acanthocephalan larval stage that emerges from the egg is called a/an A) acanthella. B) cysticercus. C) acanthor. D) cystacanth. E) coelocanth.

41. The most recent aschelminth phylum to be described is the phylum A) Lobatocercebrida. B) Placozoa. C) Ctenophora. D) Loricifera. E) Gnathostomulida.

42. The spiny head of a loriciferan is called the A) introvert. B) proboscis. C) acanthor. D) corona. E) acanthocephala.

Page 1

Chapter 14

1. Specialization of regions of the body for specific functions, as seen in arthropods, is called

A) tagmatization. B) metamerism. C) truncation. D) differentiation. E) cephalization.

2. Members of class __________ are among the most numerous crustaceans, and are both

marine and freshwater in distribution. A) Cirripedia B) Copepoda C) Branchiopoda D) Malacostraca E) Isopoda

3. Which type of crustacean do many zoologists believe to have the greatest number of

individuals of any type of animal on the planet? A) isopods B) fairy shrimp C) brine shrimp D) copepods E) barnacles

4. Which of the following phyla of animals are not ecdysozoan?

A) Arthropoda B) Nematoda C) Gastrotricha D) Nematomorpha E) Kinorhyncha

5. Which of the following is not a synapomorphy that unites the members of the

ecdysozoan clade? A) the blastopore develops into the anus B) loss of epidermal cilia C) possession of a cuticle D) shedding of cuticle through ecdysis E) all of the above are synapomorphies shared by ecdysozoans

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6. The __________ is the outer layer of the arthropod exoskeleton, and it is composed of a waterproofing waxy lipoprotein.

A) lipocuticle B) mesocuticle C) epicuticle D) endocuticle E) sclerocuticle

7. The tough, leathery polysaccharide in the arthropod procuticle is

A) lipoprotein. B) calcium carbonate. C) scleroprotein. D) chitin. E) glycogen.

8. The arthropod skeleton hardens by __________, which is a formation of chemical bonds

between protein chains. A) carbonization B) tagmatization C) calcification D) chitinization E) sclerotization

9. Sensory receptors called __________ occur in the arthropod exoskeleton in the form of

pegs, bristles, and lenses. A) sensilla B) tactiles C) olfactors D) cirri E) palps

10. The arthropod exoskeleton must be shed to allow growth. The shedding process is

called A) sclerotization. B) ecdysis. C) calcification. D) articulation. E) metamorphosis.

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11. __________ between larval and adult stages of arthropods reduces competition for resources.

A) Asexual reproduction B) Regeneration C) Metamorphosis D) Ecdysis E) Parthenogenesis

12. The extinct arthropod subphylum Trilobitomorpha was named for A) the three known stages of the life cycle. B) the three known larval forms. C) the three geologic ages which were dominated by trilobites. D) the three longitudinal body divisions. E) the three species which have been identified.

13. Appendages of trilobites were divided into two lobes, hence they are called A) biped. B) uniramous. C) quadruped. D) aramous. E) biramous.

14. Horseshoe crabs belong to the arthropod subphylum A) Chelicerata. B) Arachnida. C) Uniramia. D) Crustacea. E) Mandibulata.

15. Chelicerates have a cephalothorax, also known as the __________, which functions in

sensation, feeding, and locomotion. A) chelicera B) prosoma C) abdomen D) opisthosoma E) carapace

16. The chelicerate opisthosoma A) bears the pedipalps. B) is the sensory tagma. C) contains digestive organs. D) bears chelicerae. E) bears walking legs.

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17. Gas exchange between the blood of horseshoe crabs and seawater occurs through A) filamentous gills. B) book lungs. C) alveolar lungs. D) book gills. E) dermal branchiae.

18. How many tagmata do animals in the order Araneae have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

19. Spiders, ticks, and scorpions belong to the arthropod class A) Chilopoda. B) Pycnogonida. C) Insecta. D) Merostomata. E) Arachnida.

20. Most zoologists believe that the __________ were the first arthropods to invade land. A) arachnids B) insects C) millipedes D) crustaceans E) centipedes

21. While aquatic arachnids utilize coxal glands for excretion, most terrestrial forms use

__________ which conserve water. A) nephridia B) malpighian tubules C) diffusion glands D) green glands E) antennal glands

22. Many arachnids utilize __________ for respiration, which are believed to be

modifications of book gills. A) lamellae B) alveolar lungs C) book lungs D) trachea E) malpighian tubules

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23. A genus of scorpions known to have caused human deaths is A) Xiphosura. B) Opiliones. C) Loxosceles. D) Centuroides. E) Limulus.

24. Many spiders produce __________, that are used to trap small arthropods on which they

feed. A) sticky oral secretions B) sandy pitfall traps C) oral venoms D) leaf traps E) webs

25. “Daddy longlegs” belong to the arachnid order A) Opiliones. B) Acarina. C) Pseudoscorpionida. D) Scorpionida. E) Aranaea.

26. The chigger or “red bug” is a member of the arachnid order A) Scorpionida. B) Acarina. C) Opiliones. D) Araneae. E) Pseudoscorpionida.

27. The bacteria that cause Lyme Disease are carried and transmitted by A) black widow spiders. B) tsetse flies. C) ticks. D) mosquitoes. E) mange mites.

28. Sea spiders belong to the class A) Merostomata. B) Chelicerata. C) Arachnida. D) Pycnogonida. E) Trilobita.

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29. Crustaceans are unique among living arthropods as they possess A) chitin in their exoskeleton. B) one pair of antennae. C) only two pairs of walking legs. D) a carapace. E) two pairs of antennae.

30. The majority of crustaceans are A) aquatic. B) terrestrial. C) very large. D) burrowing animals. E) monoecious.

31. The portion of the crustacean exoskeleton that covers the cephalothorax is the A) locomotor tagma. B) carapace. C) telson. D) opisthosoma. E) uropod.

32. The crustacean abdominal appendages that are used for swimming are called A) scaphopods. B) pereiopods. C) pleopods. D) maxillipeds. E) chilipeds.

33. The biramous appendages of the crayfish are based on a similar ancestral pattern. This,

and the sequential development of the segments makes them A) repetitively analogous. B) heteronomous. C) metachronous. D) serially homologous. E) homonomous.

34. Crustaceans have __________, which are sensory structures to provide information

regarding gravitational orientation, movement and vibrations. A) papillae B) ommatidia C) antennules D) antennae E) statocysts

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35. The crustacean compound eye is composed of individual units called A) ommatidia. B) ocelli. C) eyespots. D) statocysts. E) photophores.

36. The antennal or green glands of crayfish function in A) producing digestive enzymes. B) excretion. C) producing molting enzymes. D) sensing water quality. E) sensing gravity.

37. The primary excretory product of a crayfish is A) urine. B) ammonia. C) uric acid. D) sodium chloride. E) urea.

38. Brine shrimp and fairy shrimp are classified in the crustacean class A) Decapoda. B) Amphipoda. C) Branchiopoda. D) Anostraca. E) Isopoda.

39. The class of crustaceans with the largest number of species is A) Maxillopoda. B) Branchiopoda. C) Cladocera. D) Malacostraca. E) Decapoda.

40. Terrestrial crustaceans are quite rare, but terrestrial pill bugs belong to the order A) Amphipoda. B) Maxillopoda. C) Cladocera. D) Anostraca. E) Isopoda.

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41. Barnacles belong to the A) Cirripedia. B) Hexapoda. C) Amphipoda. D) Malacostraca. E) Branchiopoda.

42. Krill belong to the order A) Amphipoda. B) Euphausiacea. C) Cladocera. D) Anostraca. E) Isopoda.

43. Adult barnacles are unusual in lifestyle because they are A) motile. B) sessile. C) predatory. D) free-swimming. E) dioecious.

44. Crayfish, lobsters, and shrimps belong to the order A) Maxillopoda. B) Hexapoda. C) Decapoda. D) Amphipoda. E) Branchiopoda.

45. Many female crustaceans carry developing eggs protected by their A) pauropods. B) ogiverous legs. C) pereiopods. D) pleopods. E) uropods.

46. Some ________ demonstrate a primitive form of vivipary. A) crabs B) crayfish C) shrimp D) scorpions E) barnacles

Page 1

Chapter 15

1. Insect dominance in terrestrial environments is due in part to the evolution of A) flight. B) cephalization. C) metamerism. D) eusociality. E) jointed appendages.

2. Millipedes belong to the arthropod class

A) Insecta. B) Diplopoda. C) Crustacea. D) Chilopoda. E) Branchiopoda.

3. Millipedes may be characterized as

A) active predators. B) venomous. C) scavengers and detritivores. D) monoecious. E) viviparous.

4. A repellent called __________ is produced by the repugnatorial glands of millipedes.

A) carbon disulfide B) formic acid C) carbonic anhydrase D) hydrogen cyanide E) sulfur dioxide

5. Centipedes belong to the subphylum

A) Insecta. B) Crustacea. C) Trilobita. D) Chilopoda. E) Myriapoda.

6. The first trunk appendages of centipedes function as

A) poison claws. B) walking legs. C) periopods. D) chewing mouthparts. E) uropods.

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7. The members of class __________ have soft bodies with 11 segments, and are found in the leaf litter of forest floors.

A) Chilopoda B) Pauropoda C) Diplopoda D) Maxillopoda E) Hexapoda

8. The three tagmata of insects are the

A) prothorax, mesothorax, and metathorax. B) labrum, mandibles, and maxillae. C) coxa, trochantor, and tarsi. D) head, thorax, and abdomen. E) mouthparts, legs, and prolegs.

9. The legs and wings of insects are attached to the

A) cephalothorax. B) head. C) abdomen. D) opisthosoma. E) thorax.

10. Synchronous flight may be characterized by A) each wing beat being the result of one nervous impulse. B) very fast flight. C) considerable deformation of the exoskeleton during flight. D) wing beats up to 1,000 cps. E) utilization of stored energy.

11. Among insects, the upper and lower lips are sensory and are called the A) maxilla and maxilliped. B) labrum and the labium. C) chela and the cheliped. D) uropod and the tenson. E) mandible and the maxilla.

12. The external openings of the respiratory system of insects are A) tracheae. B) malpighii. C) spiracles. D) nephridiopores. E) tracheoles.

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13. Most insects are considered to be __________, as they use external sources of heat for temperature regulation.

A) homeotherms B) endotherms C) heterotherms D) ectotherms E) mesotherms

14. Some insects, such as bees, have variable body temperature, but do use shivering

thermogenesis. They are known as A) ectotherms. B) mesotherms. C) endotherms. D) homeotherms. E) heterotherms.

15. __________ sense physical displacement of body parts. A) Mechanoreceptors B) Tympanal organs C) Ommatidia D) Exteroceptors E) Nociceptors

16. Male mosquitoes and midges have specialized receptors for hearing at the bases of their

antennae called A) tympanae. B) Johnston's organs. C) auricles. D) Jacobson's organs. E) coxal glands.

17. The primary nitrogenous waste excreted by insects is A) urea. B) ammonia. C) urine. D) uric acid. E) guanine.

18. The excretory organs of insects are A) protonephridia. B) renettes. C) malpighian tubules. D) metanephridia. E) coxal glands.

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19. The endocrine glands involved in the control of molting are the corpora cardiaca, the corpora allata and the

A) mandibular glands. B) maxillary glands. C) green glands. D) corpora quadrigemina. E) prothoracic glands.

20. Insect reproduction may be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A) direct sperm transfer B) copulatory organs C) indirect fertilization D) an ovipositor of the female E) sperm storage in the sperm receptacle

21. Which of the following is not a type of insect pheromone? A) attack B) aggregation C) trailing D) sex E) alarm

22. Insects in which the larvae appear to be exact miniatures of the adults exhibit

__________ metamorphosis. A) paurometabolous B) hemimetabolous C) ametabolous D) holometabolous E) amphimetabolous

23. Immature stages associated with hemimetabolous metamorphosis are called A) pupae. B) instars. C) diapauses. D) nymphs. E) caterpillars.

24. Immature stages of aquatic insects with hemimetabolous metamorphosis are called A) nymphs. B) pupae. C) caterpillars. D) puparia. E) naiads.

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25. Mayflies and dragonflies exhibit __________ metamorphosis. A) hemimetabolous B) amphimetabolous C) holometabolous D) ametabolous E) paurometabolous

26. Which one of the following groups is holometabolous? A) grasshoppers B) butterflies C) mayflies D) silverfish E) dragonflies

27. Immature insects undergoing holometabolous metamorphosis are called __________

because they are very different from the adult morphology. A) nymphs B) naiads C) larvae D) juveniles E) pupae

28. Emergence of an insect from a cocoon, chrysalis, or puparium is referred to as A) morphosis. B) instarring. C) pupating. D) eclosion. E) escape.

29. Which of the following orders of insects is ENTIRELY social? A) Diptera B) Homoptera C) Hemiptera D) Coleoptera E) Isoptera

30. Each kind of individual in an insect colony is called a/an A) caste. B) race. C) deme. D) society. E) aggregation.

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31. Reproductive females in a social insect colony are the A) drones. B) queens. C) workers. D) ogivers E) mothers.

32. Some honeybees within a colony may forego the opportunity to reproduce, and instead

work to maintain the colony. This social behavior may be explained as a type of A) female dominance. B) artificial selection. C) kin selection. D) caste selection. E) weakness of some individuals.

33. Most hymenopterans have a _____________________ sex determination system. A) diploid B) haploid C) haplodiploid D) diplohaploid E) diplodiploid

34. Which of the following is NOT a disease carried by an insect in some stage? A) malaria B) yellow fever C) bubonic plague D) Lyme disease E) typhus

35. Millipedes, centipedes, pauropods, and symphylans are placed together in a subphylum

called A) Hexapods. B) Diplopods. C) Maxillopods. D) Chilopods. E) Myriapoda.

36. The arthropod subphyla Crustacea and Hexapoda both share A) mandibles. B) chelicera. C) chelae. D) periopods. E) two pairs of antennae.

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37. Dragonflies and damselflies belong to the order A) Ephemeroptera. B) Odonata. C) Orthoptera. D) Plecoptera. E) Hemiptera.

38. The tympanal organs of some insects in this order are able to hear ultrasonic

frequencies, which helps them to evade bats. A) Coleoptera B) Lepidoptera C) Odonata D) Isoptera E) Hymenoptera

39. Beetles have hardened, protective forewings called A) naiads. B) rhabdomes. C) ommatidia. D) elytra. E) halteres.

40. Insects in this order are characterized by having a single pair of wings on their

mesothorax. A) Coleoptera B) Lepidoptera C) Hymenoptera D) Diptera E) Odonata

41. There are more species of insects in this order than in any other. A) Coleoptera B) Lepidoptera C) Hymenoptera D) Diptera E) Odonata

42. The __________ preadapted insects for success on land. A) biramous appendage B) walking leg C) exoskeleton D) gills E) mandibles

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43. Butterflies and moths belong to the insect order A) Homoptera. B) Odonata. C) Lepidoptera. D) Hemiptera. E) Neuroptera.

44. Bees, ants, and wasps belong to the insect order A) Odonata. B) Plecoptera. C) Coleoptera. D) Ephemeroptera. E) Hymenoptera.

45. In which of the following types of environments would you find insects? A) terrestrial B) freshwater C) salt water D) aerial E) in all the above environments