58
Important Instructions: 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/ black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must havdover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 6. The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the lnvigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklets and the Answer Sheets. 7. The Candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the lnvigilator. 1 0. No candidate, without specia permission of the superintendent or lnvegilator, would leave his/her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer sheet to the lnvigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet the second time will be deemed not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. 12. Use of Electonic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given 1. \3"'\'R '1?f 1:1il&n -g;ffircrr cB" "WIT 'g" I \Jf"CI 1:1il&n -g;ffircrr Cf51 "i.f)5j \3"'\'R "Cj?f "9:t0-110i "9:t0-2 "CR c.B"qc;:r <ffc;:r "iT"'l fcrcRuT 1 2. 1:1il&n q\1 3 tR 'g" 10i 1:1il&n l'f 180 'g I 43icl> <PT 'g" I \3"'\'R cB" Cf5T 43icl> I \3"'\'R cB" <TfTf l'f ajq; t:rCl"'Tf 3. "CR fcrcRur -q:::( "CR wlFr cB" -Wcwr o(R;:r tr"' <PI m 1 4. 1:1ilarr -g;ffircrr l'f f.imffil "CR 5I 1 5. "QX, <P&f/i;lc;:r uRR 'ici Bffi "Q?I <P&I" <P'I "ffi-q 1 !Jfufcnr q;) \ill I 6. PI <PT \3"'\'R '1?f cB" "9:t0-2 Wt f1'lc;:rffi 'g" 1 3'fTR <15 m en 1:1ilarr -g;ffircrr 3ft>:" \3"'\'R "Cj?f <B" Cf5T 3fCITI\l I 7. fcr \3"'\'R "CJ?f Cf5T >fr'?T "'1 10i \Rl "CR 3F<I f.i"w"'l "'1 I 31CA1 31J"W11i<P -g;ffircrr;\3"'\'R "Cj?f i'r f.imffil cB- "'lT 1 8. \3"'\'R '1?f "CR fcl>"m J<<PR cB" %g cB" q\1 1 o. <n f.iilafCI> q\1 31Jl1"R't cB" fcron m 11 . 1:1ilafCI> Cf51 m \3"'\'R '1?f fcron 10i "CR f<Fn 1:1ilarr ifc;:r "'lt\ 1 fcl>"m 'fR "CR "'lt\ en '15 lfA1 fcr \3"'\'R-"CJ?f "'lt\ c;i'rCT<n 'g" 3ft>:" '15 31Jftfll W'<Ff Cf5T lfA1 I 12. Cf5T 'g" I 13. l'f cB" <frt cB" 10i &RT 'g 1 m'<Ff cB" w'il <PT cB" 10i cB" "6111T I 14. fcl>"m l'f 1:1ilarr -g;ffircrr \3"'\'R-"CJ?f <PT 'l1TTf "'1 www.examrace.com

AIPMT 2014 - · PDF fileImportant Instructions: 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and

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Important Instructions:

1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are

directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and

fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/

black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180

questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct

response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect

response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The

maximum marks are 720.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on

this page/marking responses.

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose

in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must havdover

the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the Room/Hall. The

candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet

with them.

6. The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE printed on

Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. In

case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the

matter to the lnvigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklets

and the Answer Sheets.

7. The Candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded.

Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write

your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the

Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer

Sheet.

9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to

the lnvigilator.

1 0. No candidate, without specia permission of the superintendent or

lnvegilator, would leave his/her seat.

11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without

handing over their Answer sheet to the lnvigilator on duty and

sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has

not signed the Attendance Sheet the second time will be deemed

not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an

unfair means case.

12. Use of Electonic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the

Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All

cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and

Regulations of the Board.

14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached

under any circumstances.

15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given

1 . \3"'\'R '1?f ~ 1:1il&n -g;ffircrr cB" ~ "WIT 'g" I \Jf"CI ~ 1:1il&n -g;ffircrr -&r~ Cf51 "i.f)5j ~.en \3"'\'R "Cj?f ~ ~ "9:t0-110i

"9:t0-2 "CR c.B"qc;:r ~~~ <ffc;:r cTf~c "iT"'l ~ fcrcRuT "~-R 1

2. 1:1il&n q\1 ~ 3 tR 'g" 10i 1:1il&n ~ l'f 180 ~ 'g I ~

~ 43icl> <PT 'g" I ~ ~ \3"'\'R cB" ~ 1:1il&n~ Cf5T 43icl> ~ ~ I ~ ~ \3"'\'R cB" ~ ~ <TfTf l'f ~ ~ ajq; t:rCl"'Tf

~I ~3icl>720'g1

3. ~ ~ "CR fcrcRur ~~~\3m -q:::( "CR ~ wlFr cB" ~

-Wcwr .wr;~ o(R;:r ~ tr"' <PI m ~ 1

4. ~ ~ ~ 1:1ilarr -g;ffircrr l'f f.imffil ~ "CR 5I ~ 1

5. ~&11 ~ !;)~ "QX, ~&11~ <P&f/i;lc;:r uRR ~ 'ici Bffi "Q?I

<P&I" ~&I"<P <P'I 31~ "ffi-q ~ 1 ~&rr~ ~ m~ ~~ !Jfufcnr q;) ~ \ill ~ !¥ I

6. ~:J:ffircrr<PT ~~'g" PI '15~~~ fcr~~

<PT ~. \3"'\'R '1?f cB" "9:t0-2 ~ Wt ~~ ~ f1'lc;:rffi 'g" 1 3'fTR <15

~ m en 1:1ilarr~ ~"fRl 1:1ilarr -g;ffircrr 3ft>:" \3"'\'R "Cj?f ~~ <B"

~ f.iil&~"<P Cf5T g~ 3fCITI\l ~ I

7. 1:1il&n~ ~~ ~ fcr ~ \3"'\'R "CJ?f Cf5T >fr'?T "'1 ~ 10i \Rl

"CR Cf))~ 3F<I f.i"w"'l "'1 ~ I 1:1il&n~ 31CA1 31J"W11i<P 1<~ -g;ffircrr;\3"'\'R "Cj?f i'r f.imffil ~ cB-~ ~ "'lT ~ 1

8. \3"'\'R '1?f "CR fcl>"m J<<PR cB" ~w'<Ff %g ~ ~ cB" ~ q\1

~·'l1~H1

1 o. 31t\I&~"<P <n f.iilafCI> q\1 ~ 31Jl1"R't cB" fcron ~ 1:1ilarr~ m

~"'1~1

11 . ~'[\1 1:1ilafCI> Cf51 m \3"'\'R '1?f ~ fcron 10i ~-"CJ?f "CR

~aR ~ f<Fn Cf>T~ 1:1ilarr~ 1:1ilarr ifc;:r "'lt\ ti'r~if 1 ~ fcl>"m 1:1ilarr~ ~ ~"fR\ 'fR ~-"Cj?f "CR ~aR "'lt\ ~ en '15 lfA1 ~'TT fcr ~ \3"'\'R-"CJ?f "'lt\ c;i'rCT<n 'g" 3ft>:" '15

31Jftfll W'<Ff Cf5T ~ lfA1 ~'TT I

12. ~c1cr~IP1Cf>/6'«1i1fc1\1 ~ Cf5T ~Tf ~ 'g" I

13. 1:1ilarr-~ l'f ~ cB" ~ 1:1ilarr~ <frt cB" ~ 10i ~

&RT ~ 'g 1 ~ m'<Ff cB" ~ w'il ~ <PT ~ ~ cB" ~ 10i ~ cB" 31J~ "6111T I

14. fcl>"m ~ l'f 1:1ilarr -g;ffircrr ~ \3"'\'R-"CJ?f <PT Cf>T~ 'l1TTf ~ "'1

~I www.examrace.com

1.

Ans.

Sol.

PART- A : Physics (Code - P) 1lPT - A : 1l'lfacp ~-;::r

If force (F), velocity(V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, the dimensions of mass are (1) [FVT-1] (2) [FVP] (3) [FV-1T-1] (4) [FV-1T] ~ 6fC'l (F), ~'T (V) cr~ ~ (T) co'r ~c>llff?ICP ~ ~ \JfT<:f ill, ~~ CJ5T fcrw'i -gl-TjT :

(1) [FVT-1] (2) [FVP] (3) [FV-1T-1] (4) [FV-1T] (4)

L ML F=Mx-=-

T2 TT

MV F=T

FTV-1 = M

2. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms-1 and angle 8 with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3ms-1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is : (given = 9.8 ms-2)

(1) 3.5 (2) 5.9 (3)16.3 (4)110.8 100 >r~"Qf co'r ~~ CJ5T ~ ~ 5ms-1 ct ~'T ~ cr~ 1.\lfe'r\Jf ~rr ~ 8 ~ co'rur -qx B'r~ \JlTClT ~ 1 "FcPm ~ n-g ~ 3ms-1 ct ~'T cr~ ~ co'rur (8)-qx B'r~ 'Tit 100 >r~"Qf cpr >r~Ll Ll~, ~~ ~ B'r~ 'Tit >r~ Ll~ ct x=rclx=r=r (x=rcl~ ~) ~ 1 ~ ~~ -qx ~ g = 9.8 ms-2 ~ ill, ~ n-g -qx ~~ C'CRUf cpr ~ ms-2 ij -gl-TfT

(1) 3.5 (2) 5.9 (3)16.3 (4)110.8 Ans. (1) Sol.

g a

9 a= 9.8 x

25 a= 3.5

3. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x,y) are (2m, 3m) at timet= 0, (6m,7m) at timet= 2s and (13m, 14m) at timet= 5 s,

Average velocity vector (vav) from t = 0 tot= 5 sis:

(1) ~{13i +141) (2) ~(i + 1) (3) 2(i + 1)

100 cpur ~ J:l""CJ)l\ Tffd ~ ~ Fco, ~ ~ f.1c'f~ITCf) (x,y) "F-19 J:l""CJ)l\ ~ :

(2m, 3m)~ t = 0, -qx

(6m,7m) ~ t = 2s -qx

(13m, 14m) ~t = 5 s -qx

ill t = o ~ t = 5 s Cf(f), 3tl"x=rcl ~'T ~T (vav) -gl-TfT :

1 f. A ~) (1) -\13i +14 j

5 (2) I(i + 1)

3 (3) 2(i + 1)

11 (A ~) (4)-i+j

5

11 (A ~) (4)-i+j

5 www.examrace.com

Ans (4)

Sol. re = 2i +3j

rf = 13i + 14j

111+11] <v>=-----'-s

4. A system consists of three masses m1

, m2

and m3

connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m

1 hangs freely and m

2 and m

3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction= f.!). The pulley is

frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is : (Assume m

1 = m

2 = m

3 = m)

Ans.

Sol.

(1) g(1-gf.l) (2) 2gf.l 9 3

g(1- 2f.l) (3) 3

g(1- 2f.l) (4) 2

~ ~Th) TTir ~ ii cfl-:l ~ m 1

, m2 3fR m

3 100 ~ "fr ~~ ~ \JlT 100 fER";:1T P cfi "GJCR -gl(j)\ lJ~ % I m

1 ~

~ "fr ~ ~ 3fi-x m2 cr~ m

3100 ~~;T 1.\lfe'r\Jf itiJf -qx ~. ~ tl"1fur lJuTTCP = f.1 ~ 1 fER";:1T tl"1fur ~% 3fi-x ~

~czr::rpr ~ % I ~ m 1 = m

2 = m

3 = m % en, m

1 Cf)l 31tTrlj@ ( m CJ5T 311-x ) C'CRUT -glTfT :

(1) g(1-gf.l) (2) 2gf.l 9 3

g(1- 2f.l) (3) 3

(3)

mg-2f.lmg a=

3m

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5. The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 sis:

.--..... z i::i::' 0 -l'--+---1--+--+--

-3 6 8

t(s)--+

(1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns (3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns

'm' ~czr::rpr "ct -FcP"m cpur -qx 31R'f-FQ-cr 6fC'l 'F' co'r 6fC'l ~ TJ:rll) 8RT ~rt<:rr Tf<TI ~ I ~ t = 0 ~ 8 s CfCP "ct 31'CRIC'l ij CJ)UT ct xfcr<T ij ~-;or -g'r'TT :

(1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns

t(s)--+

(3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns) Ans. (3)

Sol. ~P = ( ~ J (2) (6)- (3) (2) + (4)2 (3)

=6-6+12 =12

6. A balloon with mass 'm' is descending down with an acceleration 'a' (where a< g). How much mass should be removed from it so that is starts moving up with an acceleration 'a'?

Ans. Sol.

2ma 2ma ma ma (1) g+a (2) g-a (3) g+a (4) g-a

'm' ~czr::rpr COT 100 ~Ci-;::r (lJ~) 'a' "fCRUT ~ m \3CR W ~ I (~ a < g) ~ ~ ~ ~ COT LfC:T~ W ~ \JfT<'r fcp <:rg I a I "fCRUT ~ "GJCR CJ5T ~\ ~ c>fl'r ?

2m a 2m a (1) g+a (2) g- a

(1) mg-F= ma . .... (1)

F F

c:p t· ' ta

mg (m- m')g

F - (m - m')g = (m - m')a from (1) F- mg + m'g = ma- m'a mg- ma- mg + m'g = ma- m'a m'(g +a)= 2ma

2m a m' = g+a

ma (3) g +a

ma (4) g- a)

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7. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (u). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is :

3 (1)mu2 (2) -mu

2 (3) 2mu2 (4) 4mu2

2 4m ~~ COT 100 fit~ (~) x-y ~ LR fcRr:r ~ ij ~ I ~ ~ ~ -g'r~ LR, ~ efT lfllT, (~ J:r~CJ) COT ~~ 'm' ~) 100 BT ~ 'u' "fr 100 ~"ffi: CJ5T ~ ~TT ii llfCl ~ WTc'r 'g I ill, ~ cfi "CJ)"RUT ~ cgc>l ~ \3?\Jlf COT 1=f"lrf -gl"T[T :

(1)mu2 3

(2) -mu2

2 (3) 2mu2

Ans. (2) Sol.

y

--+--7X

P; =PI

0 = mv i + mv J + 2m v v ~ v ~

- = --1-- J v 2 2

v lvi=.J2

v 2 v 2 v ( v J2 mv2 3 KE = 2 mv + 2 mv + 22m .J2 = mv2 + -

2- = 2 mv2

(4) 4mu2)

8. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation, X= A cos (cot) where X= displacement at timet co =frequency of oscillation Which one of the following graph shows correctly the variation 'a' with 't' ?

t-+ (2)

Here a= acceleration at timet T =time period fcO"m ffl~ (~) cfl ~ 1.\ffe'r\Jf "9:1D (~) lR cfrc>r-l'f cfl '{'14\CJ)'(DI cp'r

X= A cos (cot) 8RT

~ fcp-m \JfTCfT ~. ~ X=t~LR~

co = cfrc>r-l'f CJ5T 311CJ:fc'r ill 't' cfi "fiT~ 'a' cfi ~ (Llftcrcf-;=r) co'r ctf-;::r "fiT 11111) (~~) ~ "WI ii ~rtcrr ~ ?

~a=~tLR~ T= 31TC[~

Ans. (3) Sol. X =A cos cot

v = Aco sin cot a = - aco2 cos cot

t+

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9. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s-2

(1) 25 N (2) 50 N (3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N

50 kg ~czr::rr;:r Cf~ 0.5 m ~ <PT100 irx=r fflf(;hs\ (~c;r;=r) ~ ~m 311;1" ct ~: ~?[ ~ ~ ~-;::r Cj)'( ~

~ 1 ~ LR 100 ~ ~ "Writ ~ t ~ 100 ffRT ~ ffl f(;hs'< ~ ~~ ~ 3fix ~"ffil" ffRT ljCITT ffRT ljCITT ~

~ C'fCCfi W ~I ~ ij ~ ~ (Y!T["f<Tf I:Jl1<:f fcO cp'rufi<:r ~ 2 4Rm'""lul ~-2 -g'r ?

(1) 25 N (2) 50 N (3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N Ans. (4)

Sol. (T) x (R) = [ M~2 }a)

T

(MRJ (50 x 0.5J T = 2 (a) =

2 (2 x 2n) = 157N

10. The ratio of the acceleration for a solid sphere (mass 'm' and radius 'R') rolling down an incline of angle '8' without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is : (1)5:7 (2)2:3 (3)2:5 (4)7:5

"FcP"m ~ ~ <PT ~ cp'rq '8' ~ ~ LR 'm' ~czr::rr;:r Cf~ 'R' ~ <PT100 irx:r TfrcYIT \3?LR ~ m CJ5T 31'fx ~ J:r<PT\ l"lfCl ~ ~ f¢ >r~ ~TT ij l"lfCl '!_uTCf : c>frcf.1cp ~ 3fix ~ (~) ~ t Cf~ ~00 ~TT ij l"lfCl "ctcrc>l ~ ~ 3fix c>frcf.1cp ~ ~ I en, ~ cfr-;:ff ~rr311 ii Tfr~ "ct "fCRUti <PT 31]"4"Rf -g'r'TT : (1)5:7 (2)2:3 (3)2:5 (4)7:5

Ans. (1)

Sol. gsin8

a = I 1

1+--MR2

gsin8 5 . a = = -gsm8

1

1+~MR2 7 5

~ 5 = -

a2 7

11. A block hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass= 5.98x1 024 kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole? (1) 10-9 m (2) 10-6 m (3) 10-2 m (4) 100m

CJlUIT fclcR (~cp -glc>1) 100 ~x=rr fQ~ t ~ lJ~ al"?r ~ >r61C'l -glcrr ~ fcO ~ ~ >r~T ~ ~ ~ ~ x=fCJ)CfT 1 '! Q,cft CJ)T C'fTf'l'FT fcocr-;:ft !?Tv-<:n Cfcp x=i eft~ cr fcO<:rT IJfTit fcO cr~ ~ "LUT fcrcrx 61-;::r IJfTit. ?

('!~ CJ5T ~czr::rr;:r 5.98x1024 kg) (1) 10-9 m (2) 10-6 m (3) 10-2 m (4) 100m

Ans. (3) www.examrace.com

Sol. Light is unable to escape so

>l"~T~-;:::rCJ5\~

V=C e

{28M ~R = 3 X 108

2x(23° x10-11 )(6x10 24

)

---'------------'----- = 3x 108

R

get R""' 9 mm""' 10-2m

12. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by :

R r--..

"9:~ cfi lJ~ ~?f CJ5T cfurcrr(E) CJ5l, "9:~ cfi cfi~ -fr '1,_~ (r) LR, frr~\ill co'r ctf-;:::r x=rr 11111) ~ J:rCJ)R ~ Cj)\CfT

~?

Ans. (1)

GM ~ Sol. E = - R3 x r (if r < R)

GM ~ E = - - 3- x r (if r ~ R)

r

R r-..

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13. Copper of fixed volume 'V' is drawn into wire of length'£'. When this wire is subjected to a constant force 'F', the extension produced in the wire is 'M'. Which of the following graph is a straight line? (1) M versus 1/£ (2) M versus J!2 (3) M versus 1/£2 (4) M versus J!

f.n:rcr ~ 'V' cfi en~ "fr 't ~ COT 100 CfR q;:m:rr ll<Tr ~I ~ CfR LR 100 f.n:rcr (3rOR) 6fC'l 'F' ~ "fr, ~ ~ ij I M' CJ:f& -g'r \JfTCfi t en f.19ifcp-cf ij "fr CJ)f-;::r "fiT TJ:rlj) m ~m -g'rlll ?

(1) M Cf~ 1/£ cfi ~ (2) M Cf~ Pcfi ~ (3) M Cf~ 1/Pcfi ~ (4) M Cf~ J! cfi ~ Ans. (2)

Sol. V = AJ!

F/A Y=~

J!

Y/IJ F =

J! A

M=££=~.u YA Y V

M=_i_p YV

M oc£2

14. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius 'r' coalesce to form a single drop of radius 'R' and volume 'V'. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid then:

(1) Energy= 4VT u- ~J is released. (2) Energy= 3VT U+ ~J is released.

(3) Energy= 3VT ( ~- ~ J is released. (4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed.

~ ~cr ctl 'r' ~ ctl ll'f~ cgB" "{~ ~ 'R' ~ Cf~ 'V' ~ ctl 100 "{c:- 6f'l \JfTCfi t ~ ~cr COT ~1'0 ~ T -g1 en. ~ >rWll ii :

(1) 4VT u- ~J ~ ljCITT -gl<ft I

(3) 3VT u- ~ J ~ ljCITT -gl<ft I

Ans. (3) Sol. ~U = (ST) (~A)

A(initial ~) = (4nr2)n

A(final ~) = 4nR2

~A= (4nr2)n- 4nR2

( ~nr3 Jn = ~nR3

R3 n=­r3

8A = 4t: r' -R'] = 4x[ Rr' -~ l = [ 4n3R' w -~ l ~A= 3V[~- ~]

~u=3vTU- ~] www.examrace.com

15. Steam at 1 00°C is passed into 20g of water at 1 0°C When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass

of water present will be:

Ans. Sol.

[Take specific heat of water= 1 cal g-1 ° C-1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g-1]

1 0°C CfTCI "ct 20g IJlC'l -q, 1 00°C CJ5T CfTlii ~~ ~ IJlC'l COT CfTCI 80°C -g'r~ -qx ~ IJlC'l COT ~czr::rA ~ -gl-T[T?

[ IJlC'l CJ5T ~ \3?u:rT = 1 cal g-1 o c-1 cr~ crru:r CJ5T ~'Cf \3?u:rT = 540 cal g-1 ]

(1) 24 g (2) 31.5 g (3) 42.5 g

(4) m(g) steam at 1 ooo ~ m(g) water at 1 oooc + 540m ..... (1)

m(g) water at 1 oooc ~ m(g) water at aooc + (m)(1) (20) ..... (2)

(1) + (2)

m(g) steam at 1 oooc ~ m(g) water at 80° + 560m (cal) ..... (3)

20 g water at 1 ooc + (20) (1) 70 ~ 20 g water at aooc ..... (4)

from (3) and (4) mix+ 1400 cal~ (20 + m) g water at aooc + 560m (cal)

1400 = 560m

2.5 = m

Total mass of water present = (20 + 2.5)g

= 22.5g

(4) 22.5 g

Sol. m(g) 'l'fTLI 1 ooo -qx ~ 1 oooc -qx m(g) 'l'fTLI + 540m ..... (1)

m(g) 'l'fTCI 100°C -qx ~ aooc -qx m(g) ~ + (m)(1) (20) ..... (2)

(1) + (2)

m(g) 'l'fTCI 1 oooc -qx ~ 80° -qx m(g) ~ + 560m (cal) ..... (3)

10°C -qx 20 g ~ + (20) (1) 70 ~ aooc -qx 20 g ~ ..... (4)

(3) Cf~ (4) "fr fii.5J.TUT + 1400 cal~ aooc -qx (20 + m) g ~ + 560m (cal)

1400 = 560m

2.5 = m

~ COT cgc>l ~ ~czr::rA = (20 + 2.5)g

= 22.5g

16. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The

Ans.

Sol.

temperature of the surroundings is;

IJlC'l CJ5T cgB" 11T?IT coT 70°C "fr 60°C CfCP i~ -g'r~ -q ~ I cfr IJlC'l "ct ~ (~~T) COT CfTCI -gl-TfT I

(1) 45°C (2) 20°C

(1)

60-70 = -K(65- T) 5

54-60 K(57- T) 5

-10 65- T

-6 57- T

285- 5T = 195 - 3T

90=2T T=45o

(4) 1 0°C

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17. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is : (take y = 5/3)

-FcP"m 100 q ''U"ll fOq ¢ frx:r "CJ)l c;-rq P 311-x ~ V ~ I ~ ~ fP""l C"ll ell Gl ~ ~ 2V ~ CfCf) 311-x ~ ~u:r ~ ~ 16V ~ CfCf) >r"ffR -glw ~ I ~ y = 5/3 -g'r ill, ilx:r "CJ)l ~ c;-rq -g'r<n I (1) 64 P (2) 32 P (3) P/64 (4) 16P

Ans. (3) Sol. Isothermally fli""JC"llcllGJ >rfiO<:rr ~ PV = P

12V

p P1= 2 Adiabatically~ ~

p 2 (2V)Y = PI (16V)Y

p

(2)(2)5

18. A thermodynamics system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is:

Ans. Sol.

Sol.

19.

Ans.

Sol.

~ \3? U"J I' I f2l ¢ ~ 31"R~ ii ~rtir 'T<'J 31J"ffR ~ >l"Wl""l ABCDA "4\ ~ ~ I ill, ~ m ~ "i!W ii "FcP<:rf Tf<TI ~ -g'r<n:

(1) POVO

(4) Work done in process ODA = 1/2 x P

0 x V

0

t

While work done in the process OBC = -1/2 P0V

0

0 DA >rfiO<:rr ij "FcP<:rr Tf<TI ~ = 1 /2 X p 0 X v 0

0 BC >rfiO<:rr ij "FcP<:rf Tf<TI ~ = -1 /2 P 0 V

0

cgc>l ~ = 0

(3) PaVo 2

(4)Zero~

The mean free path of molecules of a gas (radius 'r') is inversely proportional to:

~ -FcP-m frx=r cfi ~311 CJ5T ~ 'r' -g'r ill,~ "'""lTRT-ljCfd"-Ll~ ~~"Cflefi -glw ~:

(1) r (2) r2 (3) r (4) Jr (2)

Mean free path 311-X1C"l ~:;;r Ll~ £ = -1-

.J2nd2

1 So 31Cf: £ oc -

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20. If n1

, n2

and n3

are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by:

Sol.

21.

Ans.

Sol.

Sol.

22.

Ans.

~ -FcP"m xm- co'r cfl-:1 ~if ii fct~ ~ -qx \Yl" ~if CJ5T ~C'l 311CJ:fu<:l'f ~T: n1

, n2 cr~ n

3 -g'f ill~ xm- CJ5T

>rlii1i<P ~C'l 311CJ:fu" n cfi ~ ~tr -g'r'TT:

1 1 1 1 (1) -=-+-+-

n n1 n2 n3

(3) Fn = rn; + [r1; + .A

1 1 1 1 -=-+-+­n n1 n2 n3

1 1 1 1 (2) Fn = rn; + rn:; + jrl;

The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 em whose frequencies lies below 1250Hz are: (velocity of sound = 340 ms-1)

~ ~ ii ~ COT ~'T 340 ms-1 -g'r ill, 1250 Hz -fr CBl1 311CJ:~ ~ 85 em ~ 100 ffR -qx ~ ~ (~) ii ~-~ ct x=tlfCI >rlC!lm cfrc>r-l'f CJ5T ~ -gl-<11: (1)4 (2)5 (3)7 (4)6 (4)

v 340 Fundamental freuency of a closed organ pipe is f1 =

4£ =

4 x

0_85

= 100 Hz

The natural freuencies of the organ pipe will be f = 100Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz, 900 Hz, 1100Hz which are below 1250 Hz

. ~..... ......<+ .p,........ .p,. v 340 61<::" 311•1-;:::r ~ co1 ~C'l >flC!liClco 3ITCJ:ICl f1 =

4£ =

4x

0_85

=100Hz

31Cf: ~ ;m<f-;:::r ~ CJ5l ~ >flC!lfc'r 311CJ:fu<:rr l:il'r 1250 Hz -fr CBl1 -g'r f = 1 00 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz, 900 Hz,

1100Hz,

A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be:

~fitcp ~ll cfi CJ)l"\U]" 100 l=i'r~fcpc;f ~ ~ "il"TC'l CBl1 ~ s~ ~ 36km >rfe'rtl?: CJ)\ ~ill~ I ~fitcp CBl1 -g'r~

-qx, ~ 3Wr 18 km >rfe'rtl?: CJ5T "il"TC'l -fr ~ s~ 100 CJ)R, 1392 Hz 311CJ:fu" COT "g'f-;::f ~ ~ I ~ ~ CJ5T "il"TC'l

343 m/s ~ ill, l=l're\ ~fcpc;f ~ co'r ~ "g'f-;::f CJ5T 311CJ:fu" ~ ~<11: (1) 1332Hz (2) 1372Hz (3) 1412Hz (4) 1454Hz 3

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Sol.

10m/sec ---7

EBve ~

~~~~~5m/sec

1 0 m/sec EBve ---7 ~

~~~~~5m/sec Appearent frequency heard by the observer is

tfalcP 8RT ~ ~ 311~ 311CJ:fc'r

(343- (-10)J

f' = (1392) 343 _ ( -S) = 1412 Hz

23. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K

2 ( K

1 < K) are inserted between plates of a parallel

plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field 'E' between the plates with distance 'd' as measured from plate P is correctly shown by:

Ans.

Sol.

~ ~ ~ftcpr (~c) x:lmfa CJ5T efT~ cfi ~ ii, K1 Cf~ ~ ( K

1 < K

2) 4\I~\@C1iCJ) cfi efT~ ~61 (~)

~ ii ~Tfit 'Tit 31J"fl"R xm ~ ~ I x=fmful CJ5T efT ~ftcpr31'f cfi ~ fclqcr al?f COT~ 'E' ii, ~ftcpr P "fr ~~ 'd'

cfi x=rr~ ~-;::r co'r ctf~ 11111) ~"WI "fr ~rtcrr ~?

Q

(3)

E I~:: thllil (4)

: : : : : I 1 I 1 I I 1 I I I

0 : : : : :

d-11> d-11>

(3)

+

+

+

+

+

+

E

Eu EG

k1 §_ k2

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24. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are:

Ans. Sol.

100 ~ 'l'r~ CJ5T ~ R ~I ~ LR Q 31fcr~T ~I ~ 'l'r~ cfi cfi~ LR fclqcr fctlfCI Cf~ fclqcr ~?f ~T: -g'fiy:

Q Q (1) Zero and 4 R2 nso

(2) 4 R and Zero ns0

(2) For a conducting sphere Electric fidld at centre = 0

KQ Q Potential at centre = R = 4nsoR

Q Q (3) 4 R and 4 R2 m>o m>o

(4) Both are zero.

Sol. ~ <Tr~ cfi ~

cfi~ LR fclqcr ~?f = 0

25.

Ans. Sol.

KQ Q cfi~ LR fctlfCI = R = 4nsoR

In a region the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x- 8xy -8y + 6yz, where Vis in volts and x, y, z, are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1,1) is :

fcom ~?f i'i fctlfCI col, V(x, y, z) = 6x- 8xy -8y + 6yz ~. ~ fco<:rr \JlTCfT t ~ V, crrc;c; i'i Cf~ x, y, z, ID i'i ~ I en ~ ( 1 , 1 , 1 ) LR ~ 2 ~c>ffl=f 31fcr~T LR wA "CflC'ff fclqcr 6fC'l -g'r'TT :

(1) 6 J5 N (2) 30N (3) 24N (4) 4 J35 N

(4) v(x, y, z) = 6x - 8xy - 6y + 6yz

av E = -- = -6 + 8y

x ax

av E = -- = 8 x + 8 - 6z

y 8y

av E = -- = -6y

z az

E = (-6 + 8y), i + (8x + 8- 6z) J - 6y k

E<1.1,1) =2i+10]-6k

IE I = 2J35 NC-1

F = qE = 2 X 2v'35 = 4v'35 N

26. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall

of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Q The power loss in the wire is:

100 ~ ~ fclwr ~Tfclcr col, 150 km ~ ~ 100 3F'I1 ~ CfCP, ~ cfi ~ ~ ~ \JlTClT ~ 1 :qfdfCl5C1'i4lcx fctlfCI-LffCf 8 crrc;c; cr~ "!>l"fc'rfcPc;frro 3fix=rcl "!>l"ft'R'rtr o.5 o t en ill\ i'i ~Tfclcr-~ -gT'lT:

(1)19.2W (2)19.2kW (3)19.2J (4)12.2kW Ans. (2) Sol. Total voltage drop= 150 x 8 = V

total resistance of wire R = 0.5 x 150

V 2 (150 x 8)2 Power loss= R =

0_5

x 150

= 19.2 KW

Cf)C'f fctlfCI ~ : 150 X 8 : V "'

ill\ Cf)T cgc>l "!>l"fc'R'rtr R = 0. 5 X 150

~Tfclcr m = y.:_ = <150

x 8

)2

= 19.2 Kw R 0.5x 150

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27. The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Q and R Q , respectively. When the resistance R is

shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at 1.6 J! 1 . The resistance 'R' is :

~ ~-~ CJ5T c;'r :!\J!T31'f COT ~~ 5 Q Cf~ R Q ~ I \Jl6f ~~ R "fr ~ (me!) Wl=fl=i R ~COT 100 3FI1

>rft'R'r~ (~R) cYrTT ~ \JlTClT ~ ciT -;:p:rr ~c>Pl ~ 1.6 J! 1 -qx >l"r:Cf -glcrr ~ I >rft'R'r~ 'R' COT 1=f"lrf -g'fTfT :

(1) 10 Q (2) 15 Q (3) 20Q (4) 25Q Ans. (2)

5 j!1

R 100-£1 Sol.

5 1.6£1 R/2 100-1.6£1

Solving £1 = 25 em and R = 15 Q

w ~ -qx J! 1 = 25 em cr~ R = 15 Q

28. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance, R, connected acrose the given cell, has values of.

Ans. Sol.

(i) infinity (ii) 9.5 Q

The 'balancing lengths, on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is:

~ ~ Tfir "frc;f COT ~ >rft'R'r~ m ~ cfi ~ >r~CITT 100 fct~ cfi CTR CJ5T ~ 4m ~ 3fi-x ~ ffRT "fr ~~ lj"&:r ~cit COT fct"WJ" C[l"gCj) 6fC'l (~-~-~) 2.0 V ~ I ~cit COT~ >rft'R'r~ ~ ~ I ~ Tfir ~ cfi ffRT -qx I:Jl'r"* Tfir >rft'R'rt[Cf) R COT >rft'R'r~:

(i) ~ (ii) 9.5 Q

ffi -qx fct~ CJ5T '~c>Pl C'11'qi~GJI ~T: 3m cr~ 2.85 m ~ 1

ciT, ~ COT ~ >rft'R'r~ -g'rT[T:

(1) 0.25Q (2) 0.95 Q (3) Internal resistance of the unknown cell is

r=U: -1J R= ( 2 .~5 -1J (9.5Q)=0.5Q

~~COT~~~

r =U: -1J R = ( 2 .~5 -1J (9.5Q) = 0.5Q

(3) 0.5 Q (4) 0.75Q

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29. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has

magnetic dipole m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

Ans.

N

(a)

s s N

(b) 1~---~----~-11 (c)~ ~ (d)

(1)a (2)b (3)c (4)d

3ffi:~ ii ~~ (~) ~~ CJ5T ~311 ct fcR:rm ~rtit 'Tit ~ 1 >r~CJ) ~l'6fCP CJ5T f&~cr ~uf m ~ 1 fcp-ff fcR:rm ii ~c: ~~ f&~cr ~uf Cf5T ~ ~ -g'r'TT?

N

(c)~ (a) (b) I~ ~I s s N

S N (d)

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

(3)

Sol. (a)

(b) ---t---- Mnet = m- m = 0

(d)

is configuration (c) 8 is least so Mnetis maximum.

fcR:rm (c) ij 8 ~~ ~ 31Cf: Mnet~ -g'r'TT I

30. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:

1 G 499 G 1 G 500 G (1) 499 (2) 500 (3) 500 (4) 499

fcO"m ~ ii lj~ trRT Cf5T 0.2% lfTlT ~-;:fr~ CJ5T ~~ "fr lj~ ~I~ ~-;:fr~ CJ5T ~~ Cf5T >rft'R'rtr G

~ en. ~ ~ C[)T >rft'R'rtr -g1'TT :

1 G (1) 499

Ans. (3)

1 G (3) 500 www.examrace.com

Sol.

499. -I

T:: I I

500

( i J (499 ·J as (G) and the shunt are in parallel combination i9

R9

= is Rs => 500

(G) = 500

1 (S)

G => s = 499

Equivalent resitance of the ammeter

~ COT g0'11 >rft'R'rtr

1 1 1 -=-+--Req G __Q_

499

G R =­

eq 500

31. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that '0' is their common point for the two. The wires carry I

1 and I

2 currents, respectively. Point

'I' is lying at distance 'd' from '0' along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The

magnetic field at the point 'P' will be :

(3) ::d (I~ - I~)

efT x=rcfx=r=r (100 -fr) ~ ~ em: AOB Cf~ COD 100 ~-ffi: cfi "GJLR 311W ii ~ ffi ll<'J l 3fix '0' ~ LR

100 ~ co'r ~ ~ I ~ ~T: I 1 Cf~ I 2 ~ ~ ID W ~ I ~ '0' Cf~ 'd' ~ LR c;'r-;:fr Cl"Rf cfi oo cfi ~ ~TT cfi ~~T ~ FcP-m ~ 'P' LR ~~ ~?[ COT ~ ID'TT :

(1) ::d U: J Ans. (4) Sol.

X

z

- - (floi1 J~ B due to wire (1) 81 = 2nd 1

y

(3) ~(I~- I~) 2nd

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- - (floi2) A B due to wire (2) 8 2 = 2nd (- j)

IB 1- _!:L_Q_ ~ net- 2nd \fl1 +12

32. A thin semicircular conducting the ring (PQR) of radius 'r' is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. Teh potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is:

X X X X

B X X Q X X

x~x X (p X X R\ X

(1) Zero (2) Bvnr2/2 and Pis at higher potential (3) nrBv and R is at higher potential (4) 2rBv and R is at higher potential

'r' ~ CJ5T 100 ~ ~~ ~ ~'T (~) PQR ~ 1.\lfC'r\Jf ~~ ~ B ii fTR W ~I fTR"c'r ~ ~ ~ 3ffi:\'Sf ii ~rtit 'Tit 31J"fl"R "GJ~tR ~ ~ 1 \Jl6[ fTR"c'r s~ ~'T CJ5T "illC'l v ~ en. ~ efT ffR'f ct ~ Rl Cj) ffl e1

fct'lfC!iCR -g'fTfT :

(1)~

(3) nrBv Cf2IT R "CJ)l fctlfCI ~ (~) ~ I

X X X X

B X X Q X X

x~x X (p X X R\ X

(2) Bvnr2/2 Cf2IT P ~ fctlfCI -qx -g'fTfT 1

(4) 2rBv Cf2IT R "CJ)l fctlfCI ~(~)~I

Ans. (4) Sol.

emf= VB£ eq = VB(2R) where R is at higher potential and P is at lower potential

emf= VB£ eq = VB(2R) ~ ~ R ~ fctlfCI Cf2IT P "F-19 fctlfCI -qx -g'fTfT I

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33. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6 A the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are: (1)300V, 15A (2)450V, 15A (3)450V, 13.5A (4)600V, 15A

100 ~t~* CJ5T c:-~ 90% t <:ffi 200 Va. 3 kWCJ5l "QTCR ~ -qx CJ5l11 CJ5\ W ~I~ f&e1lll¢ ~~ ~ 6A

CJ5T trRT >rcrrf%cf -g'r W ~ en, ~ ~~ cfl ffRT cfl titq ~ Cf~ m~ ~~ ij ~ trRT CJ)T ~ ~T: -g'r'TT: (1) 300 V, 15A (2) 450 V, 15A (3) 450 V, 13.5 A (4) 600 V, 15A

Ans. (2)

p 3000 Sol. Current in primary coil = V =

200 = 15A

34.

Ans.

Sol.

35.

Ans. Sol.

. p 3000 >rT~ cg~ ij trRT = V =

200 = 15A

V . 90 2 12 =-X (3000)

100 (v

2) (6) = 2700

V2

= 450 volt

Light with an energy flux of 25 x 104 wm-2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm 2

, the average force exerted on the surface is: (1)1.25 X 10-6 N (2) 2.50 X 10-6 N (3) 1.20 X 10-6 N (4) 3.0 X 10-6 N

25 x 1 04 wm-2 \3?\Jlf lfc'fCR1 CJ)T >r~T "FcP"m 'lufcr: ~Cj) ~15 (~) -qx ~ ~ -g'rw ~ 1 ~ ~ ~15 CJ)T

~~ 15 cm 2 -g'r en, ~15 -qx 31R'r"f'Qcr 3fix=rcl qc;f -g'r'TT : (1)1.25 X 10-6 N (2) 2.50 X 10-6 N (3) 1.20 X 10-6 N (4) 3.0 X 10-6 N (2)

2IA 2(25 x 1 o4 )(15 x 1 o-4)

F =- = 2.5 x 10-6 N C 3 X 108

A beam of light of A = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is : (1) 1.2 em (2) 1.2 mm (3) 2.4 em (4) 2.4 mm

~ ~ "FcP"m "IDcf ~ 3ffilT s311, A= 600 nm CJ)T ~ ~. 1 mm ~ ~ -qx ~ -g'rw ~ I ~ ~ ~ t)~ cp'r ~~2m ?i,\ ~ cfcf -qx ~m \JfTCfT ~en, cfi~ ~ ~ cfi cfr-;:ff 311-x CJ5T >r~ ~ ~ cfi titq

CJ5T ?i,~ -gl<fl" : (1) 1.2 em (2) 1.2 mm (3) 2.4 em (4) 2.4 mm (4) Angular width of 1st maxima

28 = 2A a

2AD linear width of 1st maxima= (D) (28) = -­

a

2 X (600 X 1 o-9 )(2) = 2.4 mm

1 x 1 o-3

Sol. 1st ~ CJ5T co'rufi<:r "ill~

28 = 2A a

1st ~ CJ5T ~~ "ill~ = (D) (28) = 2AD = 2 X (600 X 1 o-9)(2)

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36. In the Young's double slit experiment the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is 'A is K, ('A being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is ?J4, will be : (1) K (2) K/4 (3) K/2 (4) zero <i'T cfi f&-~ >r<:fr'T ii, cfcf cfi fcO"m ~ LR 'A Ll~m -g'r~ "fr, cffiT >r~T CJ5T cfurcrr K t ('A >r~CITT >r~T CJ5T

"Cli<RR! ~) I en, cfcf cfi "\3X1 ~ LR ~ Ll~ 'A/4 t cfurcrr -g'r<jT : (1) K (2) K/4 (3) K/2 (4) ~

Ans. (3)

Sol. I max 4 I 0 = k

'A at the other point, path difference= 4

2n A n so phase difference 8 = klix =-x- =-

'A 4 2

K p = 2I = -

0 2

Sol. I max 4 I 0 = k

2n A n 31Cf: CJ)C'11'"f1\ 8 = klix = -x- =­

'A 4 2

K p = 2I = -

0 2

37. It the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of: (1) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease (2) microscope and telescope both will increase (3) microscope and telescope both will decrease (4) microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase. ~ ~~<TCJ) ~x=r CJ5T l15'r(j)ff ~~ co'r qq; ~ \JfT<'r en : ( 1 ) Xi~lT CJ5T 3ITCI~-;::r ~ qq; \Jfl<'r<jT Cf~ ~~f¢ CJ5T "CJ)l1 -g'r \Jfl<'r<jT I (2) Xi~lT Cf~ ~~f¢ cfr-;:ff CJ5T 3ITCI~ ~ ~<11 I (3) Xi~lT Cf~ ~~f¢ cfr-;:fr CJ5T 3ITCI~-;::r ~ "CJ)l1 -g'r \Jfl<'r<jT I ( 4) Xi~lT CJ5T 3ITCI~-;::r ~ "CJ)l1 -g'r<jT Cf~ ~~f¢ CJ5T qq; \Jfl<'r<jT I

Ans. (4)

Sol. M.P. of a microscope= ( ~ J( ~ J if f

0 t =>M.P. of the microscope will decrease

fo M.P. of telescope= f

e

if f0 t => M/0. of telescope will increase.

w. Xj~lT CJ5T 3ITC[~-;::r ~ = ( ~ J( ~ J ~ fo t => en Xj~lT CJ5T 3ITC[~-;::r ~ tR:<1T

fo ~~Tf CJ5T 3ITC[~-;::r ~ = f

e

~ f0 t => ~~Tf CJ5l 3ITC[~-;::r ~ ~<11"

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38. The angle of a prism is 'A'. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index fl, of the prism is:

1 (1)2sinA (2)2cosA (3) 2cosA (4)tanA

fcO"m ft:r\Jll COT coTUT 'A' ~ I ~ ft:r\Jll cfi 100 ~CJ) "9:15 (~) ~ CJ)\ ~CJ) q;:n ~ ll"nT t ~ ~ "9:15 LR, 2A coTUT LR ~ )Fl5T~T CJ5T fcR"ul, ~ "9:15 "fr ~-;::r cfi ~"iffi'( ~ l1l"'f LR C[Tq""ff 31Tcfi ~I en, ft:r\Jll cfi "QC;T~ COT ~-;:TIC!) fl -g'r'TT :

(1) 2sin A (2) 2 cos A 1

(3) -cosA 2

(4) tan A

Ans. (2) Sol.

~-

39.

Ans. Sol.

To retrace its path light rays should fall normally on the reflecting surface. So r

2= 0

=> r1 =A- r

2 => r

1 = A

Now applying snell rule between incident ray and refracted ray. (1) sin (2A) = n sin (A)=> 2 sin A cos A= n sin A => n = 2 cos A

Ll~ co'r cfrm ct ~ ~ ~cp ~ ct ~ ~ ~ 1 31Cf:

r2= 0

=> r1 =A- r

2 => r

1 = A

~ 3ft~ ~cr ~ cfi ~ Frc>l (snell) COT f.1<:rcr ~ LR

(1) sin (2A) = n sin (A)=> 2 sin A cos A= n sin A => n = 2 cos A

When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased fro m emitted 0.5 eV to 0.8eV. The work function of the metal is : (1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.0 eV (3) 1.3 eV (4) 1.5 eV

mg cfi fcO"m ~ LR ~ fClfcp;zufi CJ5T ~ co'r 20% ~ LR ~ \3ct1f\AC1 l15'rir ~~<rs{f.,'i (~ fctwr ~~crs{f.,'i) CJ5t ~ ~ 0.5 eV "fr 6[(j',"CJ)\ 0.8eV -g'r \JfTCfi ~ I en, ~ mg COT ~ ~ ~ :

(1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.0 eV (3) 1.3 eV (4) 1.5 eV (2) KEmax = hv - \jf

0.5eV = hv- \If .... (1) 0.8eV = 1.2 hv- \If .... (2)

solving w ~ LR \If= 1 eV www.examrace.com

40. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the

de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is:

(1) 25 (2) 75 (3) 60 (4) 50

~ fcO"m CJ)UT CJ5T ~ ~ cp'r ~ >r~ ~ COT 16 lJ-;:n Cj)\ ~ \JfT<:f ill, Wm ~ -:qflC>1T cRllT CJ5T

Cli<RR! ij ):f~lcf ~-;or -g'r'TT :

(1) 25 (2) 75 (3) 60 (4) 50 Ans. (2) Sol. KE = 16 times=> V = 4 times

De-broglie wavelength (A = ~V J =one forth ( Ao ---+ A4° J . So De-Brogli wave will decrease by 75%

~- KE = 16lj-;:n => V = 4lj-;:n

tl"-§ITTC>11 Cli<RR! (A = ~V J = 100 "ill~ ( Ao ---+ A4° J ~ I 31Cl: tl"-§ITTC>11 Cli<RR! 75% CJ)l1 -g'r \Jfl<'r<jT I

41. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of A= 975 A. Number of spectral

lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be :

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 10

~ ~ ~ ii !31~{1\iFi ~coT, A= 975 A ~R[ cfi ~ ~ "fr ~ f'¢<:rr "\JfTffi ~I ill,~

x=tl~l=f ii x=t)~"l'jt ~m311 CJ5T ~ -gl-<11 : (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 10

Ans. (3)

he 1240 Sol. Energy of the photone E = T =

97 _5

= 12.75 eV

This energy is equal to energy gap between n = 1 (-13.6) and n = 4(-0.85). So by this energy, the electron

will excite from n = 1 ton= 4. When the electron will fall back, numbers of spectral lines emmitted = n(n2-

1)

= (4)(4 -1) 6 2

~ he 1240 ~- l15'rcr-;::r CJ5l ~ E = T =

97_5

= 12.75 eV

<l!3 ~ n = 1 (-13.6) cr~ n = 4(-0.85) cfi \3?\Jif'"fl'< cfi 6Rl6R ~ 1 31Cf: ~ ~ "fr ~c'i<rs{f'l n = 1 "fr n = 4 ii ~

-g'r'TT \Ji6f ~~1-;::r g-;=r: n = 1 ij ~'TT Cf6f n(n 2-1) ~~l=f ~~ ~cr ~'TT

= (4)(4 -1) 6 2

42. The Binding energy per nucleon of ~Li and iHe nucleon are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the

nuclear reaction ~Li +1 H ---+i He +i He+ Q, the value of energy Q released is:

(1) 19.6 MeV (2)-2.4 MeV (3) 8.4 MeV (4) 17.3 MeV

~Li +1 H ~i He +i He+ Q, ii lj<ffi" ~ Q COT ~ -g'r'TT :

(1) 19.6 MeV (2) -2.4 MeV (3) 8.4 MeV (4) 17.3 MeV Ans. (4)

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Sol. 4LF +

1H1 ------+

2(2He4

)

BE of products= (5.6 MeV) x 7 + 0

~ CJ5T 61~ \3?\Jlf BE = (5.6 MeV) x 7 + 0

= 39.2 MeV

E = -39.2 MeV I

BE of reactant= (7.06) x 4 x 2

~ CJ5T q~ \3?\Jlf BE= (7.06) X 4 X 2

= 56.48 MeV

E1 =- 56.48 MeV

As nuclear energy decreases, so some energy will be released

~fcp ~ \3?\Jlf t1C ~ ~ 31Cf: cgB" \3?\Jlf ljCITT -g'r<jT

Qrelease = E1- E1 = (-39.2)- (-56.48) = 17.28 MeV

43. A radio isotope 'X' with a half life 1.4 x 109 years decays to 'Y' which is stable. A sample of the rock from a

cave was found to contain 'X' and 'Y' in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is :

(1) 1.96 x 109 years (2) 3.92 x 109 years (3) 4.20 x 109 years (4) 8.40 x 109 years

100 ~~G!'i~fcrcq ~'X' CJ5T 31>l-~ 1.4 X 109 Cf11' ~I <:ffi ~ m 'Y' ij Xil41'f1RC1 -g'r \JlTC1T ~ ISI'r ~~I

"FcP"m ~"45T CJ5t 100 ~ ii 'X' Cf~ 'Y' COT 31"]"4TC"l" 1 : 7 "4nTf Tf<TI I cfr, ~ ~ CJ5t ~ -g'r<jT :

( 1 ) 1 . 96 X 1 09 Cf11' (2) 3.92 X 109 Cf11' (3) 4.20 X 109 Cf11' (4) 8.40 X 109 Cf11'

Ans. (3)

Sol. X

t = 0 N0

at timet N0-x

N0 -x = _

X 7

------+ y

0

X

7N0 x= --8

N N So remaining nuclei of X= N

0- x = f = 2~

So three half life periods would have been passed

=> t = 3 t112

= 3 x 1.4 x 109 = 4.2 x 1 09year

X ------+ y

t=O N0

0

"FcP"m ~ t "4\ N0

- X X

N0 -x = _

X 7 7N0 x= --

8

No No 3jCf: X ct ~Tlf ~ = N -X = - = -

0 8 23

3jCf: cfl-l ~~ Cj)]"(>f c>fl'TTi

=> t = 3 t112

= 3 x 1.4 x 109 = 4.2 x 1 09year www.examrace.com

44. The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device.

Which of the following statement is correct? (1) It is V-I characteristic for solar cell where, point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current. (2) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively. (3) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current respectively. (4) It is for a LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively. <:ffi'f 11111) (~~)it 100 31~-~ ~fcffi" COT V-I~~ ~Tf<:rr ll<Tf ~I

~ ~ f.'p:"lf21ft!C1 it fr q)f~ cp~ ~ ~7 (1) <:ffi 'ffi ~· COT V-I~~~, ~A,~~ ir cfrc;c:crr Cl'2IT B c>1]-~ ~ m\1 c#f ~ CJ)\CfT ~ I (2) <:ffi 'x-tfx ~· cfi ~ ~ Cf~ A 3fix B ~~ ~~ it ~T: cfrC'CC!T Cf~ fuqcf tiT\T coT ~ m ~ I (3) <:ffi 'l15'rir ~~· cfi ~ ~ cr~ A 3fix B ~~ ~~ it ~T: cfrC'CC!T cr~ fuqcf tiT\T coT ~ m ~ I (4) <:ffi LED cfi ~ ~ 3fix A cr~ B ~~ ~~ it ~T: cfrC'CC!T cr~ ~-~~ it fuqcf tiT\T coT ~ m ~ I

Ans. (1) Sol.

45.

Ans. Sol.

It is V- i cherecterstic curve for a solar cell, where A represent open circuit voltage of solar cell and B represent short circuit current.

<:ffi x-tfx ~ COT ~ V- i 11111) ~, ~ -qx A x-tfx ~ COT ~cYIT ~~ fct~ 6fClTClT ~ Cf~ B ~ ~~

tiT\T 6fClTClT ~ I

The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on : (a) type of semi conductor material (b) amount of doping (c) temperature Which one of the following is correct? (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

"FcP"m p-n x=ffu COT \'rt[Cf) fctlfCI frrl'f-x ~ ~ : (a) 31~-~ cfi "QC;T~ -qx

(b) ~.SJ.TUT CJ5T lff?IT -qx

(c) crrq -qx

f.19if"¢cf it fr CJ)f-;::r "fiT ~ ~7

(1) cficrc>1 (a) cr~ (b) (2) cficrc>1 (b) (3) cficrc>1 (b) cr~ (c) (4) (a), (b) cr~ (c)

(4) The barrier potential depends on type of semiconductor (for Si Vb = 0.7 volt & forGe Vb = 0.3 volt), amount of doping and also on the temperature.

31CR'ft[cp fctlfCI ~~ cfi >rCJ5TX, ~.SJ.TUT CJ5T lff?IT cr~ crrq -qx frrl'f-x ~ ~ (Si vb cfi ~ = 0.7 ctrc;c; cr Ge vb cfi ~ = 0. 3 cfrc;c;)

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PART- 8 : Chemistry (Code- P) 1lPT-8:~~~-;::r

46. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum number

Ans. Sol.

n = 3, £ = 1, m = a (Atomic structure) (XI) (easy) (1)1 (2)2 (3)3 (4)4

f.19 CfClTC11 ~ cfi ~ ~ ~clful cp~ CJ5T ~ Cfm -gl-TjT ?

n = 3, £ = 1, m = a (1)1 (2)2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) It is 3P orbital with magnetic Q.N. =a So, it should be 3P z

<:ffi 3P CJ)~ ~ ~ ~~ CfClTC11 ~ = a~

47. Calculate the energy in corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h = 6.63 x 1 a-34 Js: speed of light c = 3 x 1 as ms-1) (Atomic structure) (XI) (Moderate) (1) 6.67 X 1 a15 (2) 6.67 X 1 a11

(3) 4.42 X 1 a-15 (4) 4.42 X 1 a-1S

45 nm cfi ffi<RR! cfi >r~T cfi ~ \3?\Jlf CJ)T 1=f"lrf \JlC'l ii ~: (L(>f[cp ~CJ) h = 6.63 x 1 a-34 Js: >r~T CJ)T ~Tf C : 3 X 1 as ms-1)

(1) 6.67 X 1a15

(3) 4.42 X 1 a-15

(2) 6.67 X 1 a11

(4) 4.42 X 1 a-1S

Ans. (4)

Sol.

48.

Ans. Sol.

E = he = 6.63 x 1 a-34

x 3 x 1 a8

= 4.4 x 1 a-18 A- 45 x 1 a-9

Equal masses of H2

, 02

and methane have been taken in a container of volume Vat temperature 27°C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H

2:0

2 : methane would be-

(Mole concept) (XI) (easy) (1)8:16:1 (2)16:8:1 (3)16:1:2 (4)8:1:2

~ ~czr::!A ii H2

, 02

311-x fii~-;:::r co'r 100 ~ V cfi "QT?f ii 27°C -qx ~ ~ ii fW:rr Tf<TI ~ 1

H2:0

2 : fii~-;:::r frx=ff cfi ~ CJ)T 31]"Qicf irTfT -

(1)8:16:1 (2)16:8:1 (3)16:1:2 (4)8:1:2 (3)

~ 0 2 CH4

32 32 32 16 2 mole ratio

49. If a the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom one corner atom in the cube will be- (Solid state) (XII) (Moderate)

(1) ~a (2) ~a (3) ~a (4) ~a ~ a tr-=r cfi ~ CJ5T ~ t en tr-=r cfi ~:cfiRTI ~ 10i co'r~ ~ ~ cfi ~ CJ5T ~~ ir<1T -

2 (1) J3 a

Ans. (4)

4 (2) J3a (3) J3 a

4 www.examrace.com

Sol.

50.

Ans. Sol.

51.

Ans.

Sol.

~12

Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles? (Surface chemistry) (XII) (Easy)

(1) Coagulation (2) Electrophoresis (3) Electro-osmosis (4) Tyndall effect

<o'rc>ff~ CI5T ctf~ lJUT <o'rc>ff~ cpur cfi 31Tcr~T LR frr~"'{ ~ ~ ~ ?

(1) ~ (2) ~~Cf Cj)Uf ~ (3) ~ LRTm (4) ~ j;[lfTCI

(4) Tyndal effect is due to Scattering of light and not due to charge.

~ >llfTCI >l~T cfi :q"$fupr cfi ~ -g'rw ~I (31fcr~T cfi ~ ~)

Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water? (Ionic equilibrium) (XI) (easy) (1) KCI (2) NaCI (3) Na

2C0

3 (4) CuS0

4

f.'19 fC1 Ftl C1 c>fCIUl'f it ctf-;::r \JfC>l it ~ pH ~'TT ?

(1) KCI (2) NaCI (3) Na2C0

3 (4) CuS0

4

(3)

Na2C0

3 is basic due to hydrolysis of co~- ion (co~- ~ cfi \JfC>l ~ cfi ~ Na2C03~ ~ I)

co~- + Hp ~ HC03 + OH-

52. Of the following 0.1 Om aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression ?

Ans. Sol.

(Solution & Coligative property) (XII) (Easy) (1) KCI (2) C

6H

1p

6 (3)AI

2(S0}

3 (4) K

2S0

4

f-19 it "fr ~ 0.1 Om ~ ~ CI5T ~ ~ f%lncp it ~ -g'r'TT?

(1) KCI (3) ~T1 = iK1

m i is highest for AI

2(S0

4)

3

Al2 (SO

4)

3 cfi fW'T i CI5T 1=f"lrf ~ -g'r'TT

53. When 22.41itres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.21itres of Cl

2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCI(g) formed is equal

to- (Mole concept) (XI) (easy) (1) 1 mol of HCI(g) (2) 2 mol of HCI(g) (3) 0.5 mol of HCI(g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCI(g)

\Jl6f 22.4 ~ H2(g) cp'r 11.2 ~ Cl

2(g) cfi "fiT~ STP LR ~ f'¢<:rr \JfTdT t cfr HCI(g) cfi l=!'rc>l ~Tr-

(1) 1 l1'rC'f HCI(g) (2) 2l1'rc>l HCI(g) (3) 0.5l1'rc>l HCI(g) (4) 1.5l1'rc>l HCI(g) Ans. (1)

Sol. H2

+ Cl2

------+ 2HCI 22.4 It 11.2 It

1 mole 1

= 2 mole

Limiting reagent is Cl2

. So, 1 mole HCI is formed.

Cl2 ~ ~CJ) ~ 31cl: 1 mole HCI ~'TT

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54. When 0.1 mol Mno~- is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely Mno~- to Mn04 is-

(Electro chemistry) (XII) (Moderate) (1) 96500 C (2) 2 X 96500 C (3) 9650 C (4) 96.50 C

3PR 0. 1 m o I M no~- coT '!_ul \3 q il Fll C1 ( M n 0~- "fr M n 0 4 ) ~ l en ~ fclqcr lff?IT CJ5T ~<:[Cl)dT -g'r<jT -

(1) 96500 C (2) 2 X 96500 C (3) 9650 C (4) 96.50 C Ans. (3)

Sol. Mno~- ------+ Mn04

0.1 mole

55.

Ans. Sol.

56.

Ans.

Sol.

v.f. = 1 So, 0.1 mole = 96500 x 0.1

= 9650 C charge is required (~T ~<:fCP -g'rn)

Using the Gibbs change, ~Go=+ 63.3 kJ, for the following reaction, Ag2C0

3(g) ~ 2Ag+ (aq) + co~­

(aq) the Ksp of Ag2C0

3(s) in water at 25°C is (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1

)

(Therodynamics+lonic equilibrium) (XI) (Tough) (1) 3.2 X 10-26 (2) 8.0 X 10-12 (3) 2.9 X 10-3 (4) 7.9 X 10-2

~ ~ ~~, ~G0 = + 63.3 kJ coT >PTI'T ij ~~ S~ f1""9 ~ cfi ~ "\Jf(>f ij 25°C lR

Ag2C0

3(g) ~ 2Ag+ (aq) + CO~- (aq), Ag

2C0

3(s) COT Ksp -g'r'TT (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1

)

(1) 3.2 X 10-26 (2) 8.0 X 10-12 (3) 2.9 X 10-3 (4) 7.9 X 10-2

(2) ~Go=- 2.303 RT log Ksp 63.3 x 103 =- 2.303 x 8.31 x 298 log K -11.09 =log Ksp 8 X 10-12 = K sp

sp

The weight of silver (at.wt. = 1 08) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 ml of 02 at STP

will be- (Electro chemistry) (XII) (Moderate) (1) 5.4 g (2) 10.8 g (3) 54.0 g (4) 108.0 g ~ (q.lfT = 1 08) COT~ lfR ~ -g'r'TT ~ fclqcr "fr \YI'r f¢ 5600 ml 0

2 coT STP LR ~ ~ 'g ?

(1) 5.4 g (2) 10.8 g (3) 54.0 g (4) 108.0 g (4)

5600 1 n - -02 -22400-4

w w 0 ~x1=-2 x4 108 M02

WAg =..!_x4 108 4

WAg= 108 g

57. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas? (1) ~Sis negative and therefore, ~H should be highly positive (surface chemistry) (XII) (Easy) (2) ~Sis negative and therefore, ~H should be highly negative (3) ~Sis positive and therefore, ~H should be negative (4) ~S is positive and therefore, ~H should also be highly positive 1'1"9 ii "fr ctf~ cp~ frx=r ct "fC!Cf: ::rcrfc'fcr 31imrr1fUT ct ~ ~ 'g ?

(1) ~S ?fi 0 II\'""ICJ) t ~, ~H ~ ~ -g'r~ ~ (2) ~S ?fiDII\'"1¢ t ~, ~H ~ ?fiDII\'"1¢ -g'r~ ~

(3) ~S ~ t ~, ~H ~ ?fiDII\'"1¢ -g'r~ ~

(4) ~s ~ 'g, ~, ~H ~ ~ -gT~ ~ Ans. (2)

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Sol. ~G = ~H - T ~S

58.

~S = -ve for adsorption So, ~H must be-veto make ~G = -ve ~G = ~H- T~S

~: >rcrfc'fTI ~TrtfUT ct ~ ~s = -ve

31Cf: ~G cpr 1=f"lrf ?fiDII\'""lCJ) -g'r~ ct ~ ~H cpr 1=f"lrf 31fucp ?fiDII\'""lCJ) -g'r-;:n ~ ~G = -ve

~G = ~H- T~S

For the reversible reaction: (Chemical equilibrium) (XI) (easy)

N2(g) + 3H

2(g) ~ 2NH

3(g) + heat

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction-(1) by increasing the concentration of NH

3(g)

(2) by decreasing the pressure (3) by decreasing the concentrations of N

2(g) and H

2(g)

(4) by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature

~ \3fWiiD'flGI ~ ct ~: N

2(g) + 3H

2(g) ~ 2NH

3(g) + heat

~ 3ITT ~TT ij ~ -g'r-r'f)--

(1) NH3(g) CJ5T ~ill ~A -qx

(2) c;-rq ij CJ)I"f)-~ -qx

(3) N2(g) 10i H

2(g) CJ5T ~ill "CJ)11 ~ -qx

( 4) c;-rq ij <tt& 10i CfTLI ij CJ)I"f)-~ -qx

Ans. (4)

Sol. According to Le-Chatalier principle. (~m'r~ ~ ct ~)

59. For the reaction : ~ ct fW'T X20 4 (1) ~ 2X02(g)

~U = 2.1 k cal, ~s = 20 cal K-1 at 300 K

300 K -qx ~u = 2.1 k cal, ~s = 20 cal K-1

Hence en, ~G is~: (1) 2.7 k cal (2) -2.7 k cal

Ans. (2) Sol. ~H = ~U + ~ng RT

= 2.1 + 2x 2x 300

1000

~G = ~H- T~s

26

= 1.2

= 3 3 - 300 x -- = 3 3 -6 = -2 7 K cal . 1000 . .

(Thermodynamics) (XI) (Tough)

(3) 9.3 k cal (4) -9.3 k cal

60. For a given exothermic reaction, KP and KP' are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2 respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperatures range between T 1 and T2 , it is readily observation that: (Chemical equilibrium) (XI) (Moderate)

\3lSI1f~-q't ~ "ct fW'T ~ T 1 10i T 2 -qx fll R:ll q '{QIT ~Cf) ~T: KP 311"-x KP ~ I 31'R <:ffi 1=f"lrf ~ f¢ ~

~ T1 "10i T2 "ct ~ ~ CJ5T "G)lJ1T ~~I en~ "fr ~~ ~:

(1) KP> KP'

Ans. (1)

1 (4) KP = K~

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Sol. log K2 = ~Ho ( 1 1 J K1 2.303R T1 T2

T2 > T1 So KP < Kp' (exothermic reaction) (assuming T2 > T1 , although it is not mentioned, which temprature is higher If T 1 > T 2 then KP > Kp' then answer should be (2).

log K2 - ~Ho (_!_- _!_J K1 - 2.303R T1 T2

T 2 > T 1 So KP < Kp' (\31SI1T~ ~)

(<:ffi ~ s~ FcP T 2 > T 1 <:rUfQ <:ffi ~ cpgr Tf<TI ~ em~ ~ ~ ~

~ T 1 > T 2 Cf6l KP > Kp' en ~ (2) -g'r-;:n ~

61. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?

f-19 ii "fr ~ 81"\T ~ ~ COT Wl1 ~ "WI "fr >rc:fficr ~ ?

Ans. Sol.

(1) H- > W > H

BONUS F- = 133 P m

0 2 = 140 P m

Na+ = 102 P m

(Periodic table) (XI) (Moderate) (2) Na+ > F- > 0 2- (3) F- > 0 2- > Na+

There is no correct option. (CBT~ 'llt fctcp-c;q ~ ~ ~)

(4) Al 3+ > Mg2+ > N3-

62. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g 0 2 in a closed vessel. Which reaction is left in excess and how much? (At, wt.Mg = 24; 0 = 16) (Mole concept) (XI) (Moderate)

1.o g l'rfl''l~IG!Ii CB'r o.56 g o2 ct x:rr~ 6ic:- "QT?[ ii \JlCYfT<TI \JlTClT ~ 1 cm-;=r-x:rr ~ ~'ttf \%TfT w-x ~? (Mg COT ~ lfR = 24 10i 0 COT ~ lfR = 16)

(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) 0 2 , 0.16 g (3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) 0 2 , 0.28 g Ans. (1)

1 Sol. Mg + 2 o2 ~ MgO

1.0 0.56

24 32

0.5 0.07

12 4

0.5 0.07 X

12-x -4--2

~~~A~""'~ 0.07 X Oxygen is limiting reagent so (31Tcrui\Jl'l x-11'11'\1 011'1C0'1Cfi t> l<~l\.'1\) -4--2 = 0

0.07 x= --

2

A~ 0.5 0.07 excess (0111t~cr<-~) Mg = 12--

2- mole

mass of Mg is ( Mg COT ~czr::rr;=r ~) = 1-0.7 x 12 = 0.16 gram.

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63.

Ans. Sol.

64.

Ans. Sol.

65.

Ans. Sol.

66.

Ans.

Sol.

67.

Ans.

Sol.

68.

The pair of compounds that can exist together is:

<llfTrco'f COT ~l11 l:il'r 100 x=rr~ ~ xg ~ t ~: (Redox reaction) (XI) (Moderate) (1) FeCI3 , SnCI2 (2) HgCI2 , SnCI2 (3) FeCI2 , SnCI2 (4) FeCI3 Kl (3) FeCI2 and SnCI2 (both are reducing agent and have lower oxidation no.)

FeCI2 cr~ SnCI2 (cfr-;::ff BT ~ ~ cr~ ~ 31'lffl¢'< 0 1 ~ ii ~ 1 )

Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions? (Atomic structure) (XI) (Easy)

f-19 ~ ii "fr se2+ ~ ~~1m ~ ?

(1) w (2) u+ (3) Na+ (4) Mg2+ (2) Be2 = 1s2 = u+

Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?

f-19 ii "fr ~ ~ COT f&~Jcr ~uf x=rcrfm ~ ? (Chemical bonding) (XI) (Easy)

(1)C02 (2)CH4 (3)NH3 (4)NF3

(3) C02 CH4 NH3 NF3

fl=O fl=O fl=1.47D fl = 0.230

Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?

f-19 m\TI:Jr ii "fr ~ ~ ~ f?rco'rufi<:r ~? (Chemical bonding) (XI) (Moderate)

(1) N3 (2) N03 (3) N02 (4) C02

(2)

0 -.....__ N = 0

0~ sp2 (triangular planer) (~C'f f?rcfi'tuft<:r)

Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order:

~ ~ ii ~Tftco ~ CJ5T ~ COT qq;crr s3IT W11 ~ : (p-block ) (XII) (Easy)

(1) H2S < H2Se < H2 Te (3) H2 Te < H2S < H2Se (1)

(2) H2Se < H2S < H2 Te (4) H2Se < H2 Te < H2S

(a) H20 2 + 0 3 ~ H20 + 202 (p-block) (XII) (Easy) (b) H20 2 + Ag 20 ~ 2Ag + H20 + 0 2

Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:

"GJCR eft~ ~311 ii ~~ w~ COT~ ~: (1) oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)

(2) reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)

(3) reducing in (a) and (b)

(4) oxidizing in (a) and (b)

(a) ii \34illl!CJ) 10i (b) ii ~ (a) ii ~ 10i (b) ii \34illl!CJ)

(a) 10i (b) ii ~ (a) 10i (b) ii \34illl!CJ)

Ans. (3) Sol. 0 3 is reduced into o-2 ion and

Ag 20 is reduced to Ag so H20 2 is reducing agent in both (a) and (b)

0 3 COT ~ o-2 ~ cr~

Ag 20 COT ~ Ag ij -glcrr ~ ~

H20 2 cfr-;::ff (a) cr~ (b) ii ~ ~ I www.examrace.com

69. Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold conditions only is : (1) Saccharine (2) Sucralose (3) Aspartame (4) Alitame

~ 11~\cf) l:il'r "ctcrc>1 itt ~ ii BT ~ ~ : (Chemistry in everyday life) [Class XII] (easy)

(1) ~ (2) X'[w1e1'1*1 (3) ~11 (4) ~

Ans (3) Sol. Aspartame is stable at cold conditions but unstable at cooking temperature.

~11 ~ ~ ii ~ -grill ~ ~fct;rr ~ ~ ~ ~ lR ~ -grill ~ I

70. In acidic medium, H20 2 changes Cr20 7- 2 to Cr05 which has two (-0- 0-) bonds Oxidation state of Cr in Cr05 is : (Redox) (XI) (Easy)

~ llTRfll ii H20 2 ,Cr20 7- 2 coT Cr05 ~ f¢ ~ (-0- 0-) 3116itr ~ ii ~cr ~~I Cr05 ii Cr CJ5T

311ffl\Ji'"i ~~I (1)+5 (2)+3 (3)+6 (4)-10

Ans. (3)

0 o II o

Sol. I ...____ Cr.......-- I 0---- ---0 71. The reaction of aqueous KMn04 with H20 2 in acidic conditions gives:

(Redox/d-block) (XI) (Easy)

~ KMn04 CJ5T ~ ~ ~ ii H20 2 ~ ~ -qx ~ill~: (1) Mn4+ and 0 2 (2) Mn2+ and 0 2 (3) Mn2+ and 0 3 (4) Mn4+ and Mn02

Ans. (2) Sol. 3H2S04+ 2KMn04 + 5H202 ~ 502 + 2MnS04 + 8H20 + K2S04

72. Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilizations energy (CFSE)

"F-19 "&cgill ii ~ 100 l:il'r ~L~ ~ ~?f ~14'i¢'<ul ~ (CFSE) >rc:ftfcr ~ ~: (Co-ordination compounds) (XII) (Moderate)

(1) [Nn(H20)6j3+ (2) [Fe(H20)6j3+ (3) [Co(H20)6j2+ (4) [Co(H20)6j3+ Ans. (2) Sol. [Fe(H20)6 ]3+

73.

Fe+2 = 3ds (t 1.1,1 e 1.1) 2g g

so C.F.S.E. is= [-0.4 x 3 + 0.6 x2] ~0 = 0

Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (At.nos.Ti=22,Cr=24, Mn=25, Ni=28)

frr:'"iifcpcr ~ ii ~ ~ ~~ ~uf 2.83 BM ~ ?

(Lf.x=i": Ti=22,Cr=24, Mn=25, Ni=28) (1) Ti3+ (2*)Ni2+ (3) Cr3+

Ans. (2) Sol. fl = 2.83 , n = 2

74.

Ans. Sol.

so (~) Ni2+ (3d84s0)

Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent? "F-19 ii ~ ctf-;::r - ~ "&cgc>1 "CJ)T ~'T >rft'r ct~ CJ)l'[cp ~ ii -glcrr ~ ?

(1) mer-[Co(NHJ3CI] (2*) Cis- [Pt CI

2(NHJ

2] (3) cis- K

2[Pt CI

2Br

2]

(2) Cis- [Pt CI

2(NHJ

2] known as cis platin is used as an anticancer agent.

(d-block) (XII) (easy)

(4) Mn2+

(Co-ordination compounds)

(XII) (Moderate)

(4) Na2CoC1

4

ffR:r- [Pt CI2(NHJ

2] coT ffR:r ~ft'"i" cpgc'r ~ ~ ~'T >rm~ CJ)l'[cp "ct ~ ii -glcrr ~I www.examrace.com

75.

Ans.

Sol.

76.

Ans.

Sol.

Reason of lanthanoid contraction is : (1) Negligible screening effect of 'f orbitals (3) Decreasing nuclear charge

~~-;:fr~ "&cg"if-l COT Cj)]"\UT ~ :

(1) 'f' Cf)~ COT ~ ~ >l"lJTCI

(3) ~ 31Tcr~ it ~ (1)

(Periodic table) (XI) (easy) (2) Increasing nuclear charge (4) Decreasing screening effect

(2)~~Tit~

(4) ~ ):l"lJTC[ it~

Poor screening effect off-orbital. (f-Cf)~ COT~ ~ >rlJTCI)

In the following reaction, the product (A)

f.19 ~ it ~ (A) ~ :

+ N=NCI NH2

6 +~ ~ (A) is: l2J l2J Yellow dye

(Topic-Aromatic[O]) (Ciass-XII) (Moderate)

NH2

(1) @-N=N-NH-@ (2)@-N=N-@

It is an electrophilic substitution reaction. Coupling reaction of aniline takes place at the para-position to NH

2 group in benzene nucleus gives azodye.

<:ffi 100 ~~1~ >r~ ~~I

~ it N H2 CJ5t lt\T ~ LR ~~ ~ 81"\T ~\Jl'r ~\J!CP >rl'D -glcrr ~ I

77. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN~x- ? (Aromatic[O]) (Ciass-XII) (easy)

Ans. Sol.

(1) CH3N~x­

(2) Benzene diazonium chloride is most stable due to conjugation

~~ ~~f.n:r:r crc>fr~ Wj~ cfi Cj)]"\UT ~ -glcrr ~ 1

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78. D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yield an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be: (Topic-Biomolecules/Carbohydrate[O]) (Ciass-XII) (easy)

D( +) TcicoT~ ~fcR:rc;f ~ "ct "fiT~ fiO<:rr ~ 311~ ~err ~ I 311~ CJ5T ~ ~ ~ :

CH=NOH CH=NOH CH=NOH CH=NOH I I I I

H-C-OH HO-C-H HO-C-H H-C-OH I I I I

HO-C-H HO-C-H H-C-OH HO-C-H I I I I

(1) HO-y-H (2) H-C-OH (3) HO-?-H (4) H-C-OH

I I H-C-OH H-C-OH H-C-OH H-C-OH

I I I I CHPH CHPH CHPH CHPH

Ans. (4)

CH=O CH=NOH I I

H-C-OH H-C-OH I I

HO-C-H HO-C-H I I H-C-OH H-C-OH

I I Sol. H-C-OH +NHpH~ H-C-OH

I I CHPH CH 20H

D(+) glucose Oxime

79. Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human being? (Topic-Biomolecules/Harmones[O]) (Ciass-XII) (easy) (1) Thyroxin (2) Insulin (3) Adrenaline (4) Estradiol

f-19 ij "fr ctf-;=r-x=rr -gr:ff-;::r ~ CJ5T ~ ij ~ ~ ij ~~~ffrfr \3(\~ ~ ~ ?

(1) ~~~{IRffi'l (2) ~~f(;j'l (3) ~){lf.'1~'l (4) ~x11'SI~~ Ans. (3) Sol. Adrenaline hormone is produced by adrenal glands after receiving a massage from the brain that a stressful!

situation has presented itself. It is commonly known as fightorflighthormone.

~ CJ5T ~ ij fcrrr'l" 81"\T x:R~T >freD -g'r~ LR ~ ~'l fC;j 'l 11~ "fr ~ ~ f.'1 fC;j 'l Nl1'f-;::r COT ~-;::r -g'fcrr ~ ~ Nl1'f-;::r COT

~ "'lTl1 fight:W-x flightNl1'f-;=r ~

80. Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?

f-19 ii "fr ctf-;::r ~q; 6fSC'fCP COT \3c;l!'?'<ul ~ ? (Topic-Polymer[O]) (Ciass-XII) (Moderate)

-( CH 2 - C = CH - CHJ;;- -f CH 2 - CH);;-(1) I (2) I

Cl Cl

Ans. (4)

Sol. (1) Neoprene rubber(~ '(61""\)

~CH2~CH2~ <4

*) -tv () ~n

(2) PVC is a thermoplastic (PVC ~011R-c¢ -glcrr ~)

(3) Nylon-6,6 is a fibre ('ln:rc>ff-;::r-6 6 ~~) ~)

(4) Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer (~"ct~ ~~ 6fSC'fCP ~ I)

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81.

Ans.

Sol.

82.

Ans. Sol.

83.

Ans. Sol.

Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron? (1) Propylene and paraHO- (C

6H

4)- OH (Topic-Polymer[O]) (Ciass-XII) (Moderate)

(2) Benzolic acid and ethanol (3) Terepthalic acid and ethylene glycol (4) Benzoic acid and para HO- (C

6H

4)- OH

f.19 ii -fr ctT-;=r--fr CJ5T61m -mm 61S~ -g1Cj)\ -qr~ ~-;or ~c'r ~ ?

(1) >rT~ 3fix tl\T HO- (C6H

4)- OH

(2) ~~~ ~ -ctcr ~~-;:ffc>1

(3) ~~cmfuco ~ -ctcr ~ ~co'rc>1

(4) ~~~ ~ -ctcr tl\T HO- (C6H

4)- OH

(3)

Polyester Dacron

COOH

¢ CH2-0H

+I ~ CH 2-0H

COOH

Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog? (Topic-Environmental chemistry[O]) (Class-Xi) (easy)

(1) Ozone (2)Acrolein (3) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (4) Chloroflurocarbons

f.19 ij -fr ctf-;::r >l"~T "<I fll Gl Pi CJ) ~~ "CJ)l ~ "EfCCf) ~ ~ ?

(1) ~ (2) ~¢tilf~Fi (3) q{I<Rfl~~ ~c (4) ~ lf<cMI¢14'"1

(4)

In the Kjedahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75g of sample neutralized 1Om I. of 1M H

2SO

4 The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is: (Topic-POC[O])

(Class-Xi) (easy)

~cr cfi ~~ ii -fr ~T~ CJ5T ~ ~ ~ CJ5T cfi~ fctfu ii 0. 75g ~~ -fr \3 ct1 RY\e1 wnf.n:rr co'r 1 Om I.

1 M H2SO

4 -fr ~ "fcO<:rr IJiTd1 ~ I ~cr ii ~T~ "CJ)l >r~m ~ :

(1) 37.33 (2) 45.33 (3) 35.33 (4) 43.33 (1) Volume of 1M H

2S0

4 =10m mol

Volume of NH3

consumed = 20 m mol

14 x20 Weight of N =

1000 g = 0.280 g

0.280 % N = --x100=37.33%

0.75

1M H2S0

4 "CJ)l ~=10m mol

~Cf NH3

"CJ)l ~consumed = 20 m mol

14 x20 N "CJ)l ~czr:rr;:r = 1000 g = 0.280 g

0.280 % N = --x100=37.33%

0.75

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84. What product are formed when the following compound is treated with Br2

in the presence of FeBr3?

-F-19 <llm CJ5T fiO<:rr Br2 ct x=rr~ FeBr

3 CJ5T ~ ii ~ -qx crm ~ ~TfT?

(Topic-Aromatic[O]) (Ciass-XII) (easy)

CH CH3

(1) &Br and(3\R) 6 ~CH ¥cH3

3 Br

(2)

8~ and (dR) & Br

CH3 CH3

(3)

8~ and (3\R) r5 ~CH ¥cH3 3 Br

Ans. (3)

Sol. 6CH3 _B_;;;._r/F----'eBr3~ B~OCH, and ~CH3 Electrophilic ~ CH

CH substitution CH 3 3 3 Br

85. Which of the following compoundds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolysis?

-F-19 ij -fr ctf~ <ilfTrco'f COT K 0 H ct ~ -fr \JfC>l ~ ct ctf~ ~ f14) CJ)\ a I -glcrr ~: (Topic-Reaction Mechanism[O]) (Ciass-XII) (Moderate)

Ans. Sol.

(i)

(1) (i) and (ii)

(1) (i) 3fR (ii) (BONUS)

(2) (ii) and (i)v

(2) (ii) 3fR (i)v

CH3

(iii) H c-e!~H-CH Cl 3 2

(3) (iii) and (iv)

(3) (iii) 3fR (iv)

Answer is only (iv) but there is no correct option.

~ "ctcrc>1 (iv) ~ ~fcp.:j" ~ fclcp-c;q ~ ~ ll<Tr ~I

CH3

I

(iv) H/?"-cl C2Hs

(4) (i) and (iv)

(4) (i) 3fR (iv)

86. Among the following sets of reaction which one produces anisole? (Topic-Reaction Mechanism[O])

-F-19 ii -fr ctf~ ~Wi-g ~frR:I'rc>1 ~err~? (Ciass-XII) (Moderate) (1) CH

3CHO; RMgX (2) C

6H

50H; NaOH; CH

31

(3) C6H

50H; neutral (~)FeCI3 (4) C

6H

5- CH

3; CH

3COCI; AICI

3

Ans. (2)

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R I

Sol. (1) CH3

- CH = 0 + RMgx ~ CH3-CH-OH

87.

Ans. Sol.

88.

alcohol

(2) C6H

5- OH + NaOH ~ C6H5 - ONa CSH~I C6H5 - OCH3 (Williamson's synthesis) (RlfC:HF"lfFi mtfUT)

N (Anisole)

(3) C6H

50H + neutral FeCI

3 ~Violet colour complex(~~ ~Tf COT "&cgc>l)

Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate? (Topic-GOC[O]) (Ciass-XII) (1) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (2) Benzoic acid (Moderate) (3*) o-Nitrophenol (4) Benzenesulphonic acid

f.19 ii -fr ctf-;::r "fiT~ ~~ CJ5T61f~c: ii ~<:r ~ ~ ?

(1) 2, 4, 6-S::I~'ll~s:;lfcb'llc>i

(3) 0-'ll~s:;l fcb'llc>i

(3)

(2) q"'i'l~¢ ~

(4) 6i<J'l'lf"JC'L!ilf.'1CJ) ~

Acids stronger than H2C0

3 give C0

2 gas with sodium hydrogen carbonate and also soluble in it.

H2C0

3 -fr J:r61C'l ~"fiT~~~ CJ5T6if~c: "ct "fiT~ C0

2 fr"ff ~c'r ~ Cf~ ~ ~<:! 'llt -g'rc'r ~I

Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction ? (Topic-Carbonyl compounds[O]) (Ciass-XII) (easy)

f.19 ii -fr ctf-;::r ~-gr <:IT~ ~ ct J:rfc'r ~ 31fucp ~ ~ ?

(1)

~COCH3

(2)~

CHO

(4)

Ans. (4) Sol. Electron withdrawing (-1, -M) groups increases reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction.

CHO

In ~ NO, (-I, -M) group increases the reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction at CHO group.

NO,

~qs:;'f-;::r~ (-1, -M) "ffli-g ~ <:fr~ ~ "ct J:rfc'r ~~ 6[(j',"T ~c'r ~ I

~ ii NO, (-1, -M) '"l!' CHO '"l!' 'R ~ ~ 3lfi'!filRrr ci> mil ~ 'lir %1 <ten ~ I NO,

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89. Identify Z in the sequence of reactions: (Topic-Alkene/Reaction mechanism[O])(Ciass-XII) (Moderate)

~31JW11ii z~:

Ans.

Sol.

(1) CH3-(CH)

3-0-CH

2CH

3

(3) CH3(CH)

4-0-CH

3

(1)

Br

(2) (CH)2CH

2-0-CH

2CH

3

(4) CH3CH

2-CH(CHJ-O-CH

2CH

3

HBr I C2H50Na CH3CH2CH=CH2 CH 3CH2CH-CH2 CH

3-(CH)

3-0CH

2CH

H202 1

H

HBr in presence of peroxide gives anti Markovnikoff addition product. 1 °alkyl halide on reaction with C

2H

50Na gives SN2 reaction.

Br HBr I C2H50Na

CH3CH2CH=CH2 H O CH 3CH2CH-CH2 CH3-(CH)3-0CH2CH3 2 2 1

H

H Br COT -qx3ff~ CJ5t ~ ii <TfTf m ~ <-ti '""II ¢lf.1coT'l) ~ >l""f'D -glcrr ~ I 1 o ~ %~ C

2H

50Na ct x=rr~ SN2 ~ ~err ~ I

90. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product -(CO)? (Topic-GOC[O])(Ciass-XI) (easy)

(1) Ethane (2) Ethyne (3) Ethene (4) Ethanol

f-19 ii "fr ~ "CJ516lfrrcp <:tffTrcp COT ~ ~ ~ ~ (CO) ~x:rr ~ ?

(1)~~ (2)~~ (3)~~ (4)~~ Ans. (2) Sol. In Ethyne (CH=CH) both carbon atoms are sp hybrid as the hybridisation of combustion product, carbon

atom of O=C=O (CO).

~~ (CH=CH) "ct cfr-;:ff "CJ516l-;::r COT ~ sp ~ ~x:rr CJ5t ~ ~ ~ O=C=O (CO) COT ~ -glcrr ~ I

PART- C : BIOLOGY 1lPT - C : "Gft-q ~-;::r

91. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?

(1) Sargassum (2) Ectocarpus (3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra

f.'19 FC1 Ftl e1 ii "fr ctf-;::r, m~ ~l"lfCPT CJ5T ~ "fr ~l"lfCI)dT ~rtcrr ~? (1) fll'<'llfl'""l (2) ~Cfii<Wlfl (3) ~ (4) *'""ll~fi'IIGI\1

Ans. (4)

92. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on: (1) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus (2) Mode of reproduction (3) Mode of nutrition. (4) Complexity of body organisation

31R. 10f. iW;"Cj)\ m ):l"~ Lfl'q \JflTd" q-rjfcp\Uf f.'1 '""i fC1 Ftl d ij "fr ~ -qx 311mful ~ ~? (1) ~~ ~ CJ5T ~ 31"f;z: 31]~ (2) >l"~ COT <iTf ( 3) cfrtfUT COT <iTf ( 4) "CJ)l<:[ ~ CJ5T \J1 fe C'1 C1 I

Ans. (1)

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93. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?

(1) Morchella escu/enta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Usti/ago sp.

f.'19 fC;j Ftl d ij "fr CJ)f-;::r "fr Cj)C[Cj) ij ~c>frffr;:fr~ ~ ?

(1) ~m ~~ (2) ~ ii«mRm (3) ~0'<4M u:rrfc7 (4) ~'IT u:rrfc7

Ans. (2) Sol. Amanita muscaria is a species of poisonous mushroom. It contains a psychoactive compound known as

muscimol having hallucinogenic properties.

~ ~#<JT ~ffill CJ5T 100 ~c>1T ~ ~ 1 ~ 100 l1-l'r~ <:tfm ~C'l ~ -glcrr ~ ~ >TCJ:fc'r

llfC'r1lll ~ CfTC'1T -glcfi ~ I

94. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:

(1) Cell membrane structure (2) Mode of nutrition

(3) Cell shape (4) Mode of reproduction

311€1J'lql'j (~~). ~"'lql'j31'T (<!_~RtcRG!I) "fr ~ i1i?r -g'rc'r ~?

( 1) ~ cpc;ff ~ (2) cfrtfUT COT <i'T (3) ~ ~ (4) >l~ COT <i'T

Ans. (1) Sol. Archaebacteria show the presence of branched chain lipids in cell membrane than eubacteria. That in­

creases tolerance against adverse conditions.

1~fCtcRGJI CJ5T gc;r-=n ii 31lf¥~FctcRGJI CJ5T ~ cpc;ff ii ~ ~~ ~ ~ t \YI'r f¢ ~ ~ cfi >rft'r >rfcRrt[Cl)dT >l~ ~ ~

95. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara? (1) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium

(2) Globule and nucule present on the same plant

(3) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium

(4) Globule is male reproductive structure

CJ)RT cfi fcrn:r ij f.'19 fC;j Ftl d ij "fr q)f~ 'TC'ld ~ ?

(1) ~ ~ 3fi-x ~ ll'rc>1 j~ 1

(2) 'c'l'r&lc>l 3fix ~Cf1c>l CJ5T 100 BT cth1 ii ~ 1

(3)~j~~~3f~

(4) 'c'i'r&lc>l ~ >r~ ~ ~ I Ans. (3)

96. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?

(1) Marchantia (2) Riccia (3) Funaria

-q'R; ~ cfi ~ q)f~ \3"d\c;l4l ~ ?

(1) iilci!AJ41 (2) ~ (3) lf<t,-iRm Ans. (4)

97. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in :

(1) Apple (2) Banana (3) Tomato

ifi\JiiD'SifFi 3fix ~. cfr-;:ff ~ <:frn:r lJTTf ~ ~?

( 1 ) 'frq ( 2) cfic;rr ( 3) Clil'C\

(3)

( 4) Sphagnum

(4)~

(4) Potato

(4)~

Ans. Sol. Tomato has berry fruit in which all the parts of fruit including placenta and pericarp are edible.

Clil'C\ ii ~~ 'C!5C'l -glcrr ~ ~ 'C!5C'l cfi wll' lfTTf ~ 6fi\Jii0'Sf1'l cr~ l!~L[ ~Tlfiic;f t ~ <Trn:r -g'rc'r ~ www.examrace.com

98. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as: (1) Vexillary (2) Imbricate (3) Twisted (4) Valvate

\Jl6f ~ j\Jf <:rr c;c;l j\Jf CJ5T ~, fi:RT fcO"m mTtf ~TT -fr 100 ~-ffi: co'r 31 R191 fC: C1 ~ ~ ill ~ ~TT co'r cpgr

\JlTdT ~:

(1) ~cMlC'1~ (2) CJii'Wicfl (3)~ Ans. (2)

Sol.

99. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will your use to distinguish between the two? (1) Secondary xylem (2) Secondary phloem (3) Protoxylem (4) Cortical cells

~ 100 f8 6fl \iN::tl ~ 311~ 100 f8 6fl \JN::tl ~ cfi ~ ~ ~~ ~ <r'J ~ I 31fLI \Yl cfr-;:ff ij >r-ife:-~ cfi ~ f.'19 FC1 Fti e1 ii ctT-;::r m ~~ ~311 COT ~l1TC'1" ~-rr ?

(1)~~ (2)~~ (3)~ (4)~CJil~l¢1ii Ans. (3) 100. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic. (2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit (3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain. (4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode.

f.'19 fC;j Fti d "Cj)~ ij -fr CJ)f-;::r "fiT ~ ~ ?

( 1 ) "£1Tfli cfi ~ ~urcfrft ~ ~ I (2) 31ll1100 ~~ "Cj)('1" ~ I

(3) lfCfCPT cfi c:Fr ii 100 ::r't~cr ~\'r-;::r LRCf ~ -glcfi ~ 1

( 4) 100 6iRT ~"ffi: cp'r 6iRT jcfix=R cpgr \JlTdT ~ I Ans. (3)

101. Tracheids differ from the tracheary elements in : (1) Having casparian strips

Ans.

102.

(3) Lacking nucleus

qlf%f.'1c6l, ~ qlf%c6lGI ~ -fr "$-fr ~ -g'fcfi ~ ?

(1) "$~~~COT~

(3) ~"CJ) COT 31lfiCI

(2)

An example of edible underground stem is:

(2) Being imperforate (4) Being lignified

(1) Carrot (2) Groundnut (3) Sweet potato

~ <:i'rn:r 1i~ ~COT 100 \3~1!5\DI ctf~ ~?

(1) llT\JR (2) li~ (3) ~ICJ)\CJ)rcfl

(4)

(4) Potato

(4)~

Ans.

Sol. In potato- Edible part is underground tuber that is modification of underground stem. In carrot and sweet potato the edible parts are conincal root and tuberous root respectively while in groundnut edible part is cotyledons.

~ ij ~ <:i'rn:r lJTTf 1i~ CJ5c:- -g'fcrr ~ "\Jl'r 1i~ ~COT Xil41'"f1\DI ~I TfT\J'R Cf~ ~ ~ ij ~T: ~ <:i'rn:r lfTTf ~leg~ ~"C'1" cr~ CJ5~ ~"C'1" -glcfi ~ ~ 1~ ii ~ <:i'rn:r lfTTf ~ -g'rc'r ~ I

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103. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria? (1) Nucleoid (2) Ribosomes (3) Cell wall (4) Mesosomes

~31'f ij *['51¢fDI¢1 COT con:[ CJ)f-;::r frrlffill ~ ?

(1) ~ (2) \1~41*1'1'"1 (3) ~ flifu Ans. (4)

Mesosome of Bacteria is analogous organ of Mitochondria. Both has respiratory enzymes.

~ COT ~-fi'P=r, ~cp'f~ COT "fllfCJ:fu" 3f'T ~ I ~ cfr-;:ff ij ~~ ~ ""\J1 I~ '"ii -g'fc'f ~ I

104. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as: (1) Microtubules (2) Microfilaments (3) Intermediate filaments (4) Lam ins

100 o'Rr ~ fll ~ 21 ci \J1 '< ~ "ClfTfl" 6 n m ~ 3fR "\J1'r ~ m cfi ~ "fr q;=[T t fcR=r -;::rr=r "fr "\JlAT \JfTCfT ~ ?

(1) Xia<i'lfC1¢1 (2) Xi~

(3)~:~ (4)~ Ans. (2)

105. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by: (1) Mitochondria (2) Vacuoles (3) Plastids (4) Ribosomes

IJlC'l ij xm 100 cp'rftrcor COT 4\lflx 0ftGJ ~ lj~: ~ m f.n:if?rcr -glen ~ ?

(1) *['51¢fDI¢1 (2) ~ (3) C'fCfCJ) (4) \1~41*1'1'"1

Ans. (2)

106. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4 C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C ? (1) G

0 and G

1 (2) G

1 and S (3) Only G

2 (4) G

2 and M

~ tl-.1['1.~. CJ5T >r~ lff?IT 2C -g'r, cfr co'rftrcor "i!W CJ5T fcR=r J:rlCRlm ii, co'rftrcor ii tl-.1['1.~. CJ5T lff?IT 4 C ~ LR

~~?

107. Match the following and select the correct answer: (a) Centriole (i) lnfoldings in mitochondria (b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids (c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids (d) Ribozymes Qv) Basal body cilia or flagella

A B c (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) (iv) (iii) (i)

f.'19FC1ft!C1 coT "WI~~ 3fix: ~ \3"'d\ ~~: (a) ClT\CJ) cfi~ (i)

(b) ~ (ii)

(c)

(d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

31cl "Cf)"CCj)

\I ~q'l \J1 I ~'i

A (iv) (i) (i) (iv)

B (ii) (ii) (iii) (iii)

(iii)

Qv)

c (i) (iv) (ii) (i)

D (iii) (iii) (iv) (ii)

*['51¢fDI¢1 ij ~:~

~~~c'i¢1~-s

~fcfc;rcp ~

Lflffi'l'f <TI ~TP=r CJ5T 31Tti"R CJ)l"<:l

D (iii) (iii) (iv) (ii) www.examrace.com

108. Dr F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly- cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ? (1) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin. (2) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth- promoting substances. (3) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin. (4) It demonstrated polar movements of auxins

"if. ~- ~ ~ ~a=rur fcO<:rr fcp <:1ft ~ ~ coT 31c'rT Cj)X ~ ~ t:R: cfi ~ 31lTR ij xm \JlTT.r en 31lTR ~ ~ ~ ~. <:1ft ~ ~ ~ sq ~ ~ cto cfi ~ 3fR ~ fcO<:rr "\JfT<:f I ~ >n:l'rT COT Cfm ~ ~ ?

(1) ~ 311~ COT "9:~ 311-x ~ ~ ~ s3IT I

(2) <:ffi CJ:~~ "QC;T~ ctl CJ51111T?IT cfi '"11'511,'"1¢ frrt:TfXUT COT 31Tti"R ~ I

(3) <:ffi ~ 4R¢0Fil COT "fll'f~-;::r ~ ~ fcO ~-~-~- 311~ ~I ( 4) <:ffi 311~ COT ~elm ~ coT ~Tfcrr ~ I

Ans. (1)

109. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in: (1) Senescent leaves (2) Young leaves (3) Roots

~'t~ 311-x Ll'r~ftr<:r:r ctT ~ cfi c>1a=rur ~ ~ cp-gl ~ ~ ?

( 1 ) \J1l uj '""II 'i "Cffu<:IT ii (2) ~ "Cffu<:IT ii (3) ~ ii

Ans. (1) Nitrogen and Potassium are mobile elements.

~'t~ cr~ Ll'r~ftr<:r:r il C11 GJ '""II 'i ~ ~

110. In which one of the following processes C02

is not released?

(4) Buds

(4)~ii

(1) Aerobic respiration in plants (2) Aerobic respiration in animals (3) Alcoholic fermentation (4) Lactate fermentation

f.'19 fC;j Ftl d ij fr fcp-ff >rfm"<n ij c 0 2 lj"Cfd" "'itt itcfi ?

(1) ~ ij ~ ~~ (2) ::rlfUr<:IT ij ~ ~~ (3) ~C'Ciill3C1l f¢ucr'i" (4) ~<Rc: f¢ucr'i"

Ans. (4)

111.

Ans. Sol.

In lactate fermentation neither C02

releases nor NADH.H+ forms.

2CH3CO COOH + 2NA D H.H+ l (Pyruvic acid) Lactate dehydrogenase,

FMN, Zn ..

2CH3CHOHCOOH + 2NAD+ (Lactic acid)

i'r<Rc: f¢ucr'i" ii -;::r en C02

f1¢C'1cl"i ~ 311-x -;::r Bl NADH.H+ q;::rcrr ~

2CH3CO COOH + 2NA D H.H+ l (Pyruvic acid) Lactate dehydrogenase,

FMN, Zn ..

2CH3CHOHCOOH + 2NAD+ (Lactic acid)

Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of: (1) Rhodospirillum (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamydomonas

3A"fCR'll" >l~T ~i'ftfUT ~ ~afUT ~ ?

(1) {rilf41$RC1ii

(1) Rhodospirillum isAnoxygenic Nitrogen fixing photosynthetic bacteria.

"iritf47$RC1ii ~. ~'t~ ~. >r~ ~1\T ~ ~ 1

(4) Ulva

(4) 31c'CfT

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112. A few normal seedling of tomato were kept in a dark room.After few days they were found to have become white- coloured like albions , Which of the following terms will you use to describe them ? (1) Mutated (2) Embolised (3) Etiolated (4) Defoliated

C11l"C\ cfi cgt9 ~~em 3itR cp~ l:i xm ll<Tf 1 cgt9 f0:IT cfi "6fTC:" ~ qOJCJ)Sl'l cfi V'rfr ~ ~ LfT<'t ~ 1 ~ quf;:j" ~ cfi ~ 31lLI PP"l ~ Rsl C1 l:i "fr ~ ~ "CJ)T w:frrr ~~ ?

(1) \3~RqRfC1 (2) 31'i1\lflf%C1 (3) ~ (4) ~ Ans. (3)

113. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as stress hormone? (1) Abscissic acid (2) Ethylene (3) GA

3 (4) Indole acetic acid

f.'19 fC;j Rsl C1 ij "fr ctf-;=r-"fiT CJ:fo& ~ ~ -gr:ff-;::r cfi "'lll1 "fr \JfT'lT \JfTC1T ~ ?

(1) ~6\flfflcp ~ (2) ~

(3) GA3

Ans. (1)

114. Geitonogamy involves (1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant

(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another same flower. (3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population (4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

~ :3~ WlTDT ii crm -glcrr ~ ?

( 1 ) 100 :3u::f "CJ)T f¥f"if-l ~ ~ cfi ~"ffi: :3u::f cfi LRTTr "fr ( 2) 100 :3u::f "CJ)T f¥f"if-l ~ :3u::f cfi LRTTr "fr (3) 100 :3u::f "CJ)T f¥f"if-l ~ ~ cfi ~"ffi: ~ cfi :3u::f cfi LRTTr "fr ( 4) 100 :3u::f "CJ)T f¥f"if-l ~~ ~ cfi ~"ffi: ~ cfi :3u::f cfi LRTTr "fr

Ans. (1)

115. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in : (1) Pteris (2) Funaria (3) Lilium

emfucor311 CJ5T ~"'l""dl1 ~ qrc;rr "l'( ~"l"lfCJ)'rc;:~ ~ -glcrr ~ ?

(1) ~ (2) L«<~RGJI (3) FC1FC1GJ'i

Ans. (3)

(4) Pinus

(4)~

Sol. Lilium is angiospermic plant, in which male gametophyte is 3 - celled and most reduced gametophyte as compared to Funaria (Bryophyte). Pinus (Gymnosperm), Pteris (Pteridophyte)

FC1FC1GJ'i 311CJ:~ ~ ~ fuRrii "l\ ~Piir~ 3 -em~ -glcrr ~ cr~ LRI~Wn (Bryophyte), ~

(Gymnosperm), ~-m, (Pteridophyte) cfi ~Piir~ CJ5T Cjc>f'lT l:i ~ ~ ~ ~ 1

116. An aggregate fruit is one which devloped from (1) Multicarpellary syncarppous gynoecium (2) Multicarpellary apocarups gynoecium (3) Complete inflorescence (4) Multicarpellary superior ovary

100 j\Jf "Cj)(>f erg ~ \Jl'r Rl Cj) ffl C1 -glcrr ~:

(1) 61S~ ~~ ~ "fr (2) 61S~ RlgCfd j;scl) \Jll<TI'T "fr ( 3) '!_ul :31I1"Wl1 "fr ( 4) 61S~ Bulcrcfl ~m "fr

Ans. (2) www.examrace.com

117.

Ans. 118.

Ans. Sol.

Pollen tablets are avalable in the market for: (1) In vitro fertilization (2) Breeding programmes (3) Supplementing food (4) Ex situ conservation

LRTTr ~ 6fT\JfR ij ~ ~ ~ ~ ?

(1) L1T?f i'¥f"if-l cfi ~ (2) ~ <Tr~311 cfi ~

(3) ~ ~\UT cfi ~ (4) ~ -m:~ cfi ~ (3)

Function of filiform apparutus is to : (1) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma (3) Producer nectar

~"WI x=PjTZT COT Cfm con:[ ~ ?

( 1 ) crfc'fCJ)ffi -qx ~Cfd" LRTTr cp'r q !'?ili'"Fi I

(3) ~c;- COT~

(4)

(2) Stimulate division of genrative cell (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube

(2) \Jf'"l'l cp'rfucor cfi fct~ cp'r ~ful ~

( 4) LRTTr ~ cfi >fcr~T COT li"l'f~f-.=r

Filiform apparatus finger like projections of synergids of embryo sac that guide the entry of pollen tube in embryo sac

cfg~ \3 q CJ)\ a I, ffl'N F\ii 'S CJ5T 3f~c;1T ~~<:! ~t&<Tf ~ IJ"I'r 'Jiurco'rtf ij q "<I ' I '"i e1l cfi >l"~~T cp'r f.1c'fftrcr ~ ~

119. Non- albuminous seed is produced in: (1) Maize (2) Castor (3) Wheat (4) Pea

~fii;:j- \f%cf ~ ~ \W11 fC: C1 -g'rc'f ~?

(1) lfCfCPT (2) ~ (3) Tft (4) -.:rc:\

Ans. (4)

120. Which of the following showns coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? (1) Polio virus (2) Tobacco mosaic virus (3) Measles virus (4) Retrovirus

~~ 31R ~ ~ ~Cj) Jtf-x l!ftcoi~T"CJ) f.'1 hl f(;j Ftl e1 ii "ff ctf-.=r ~rtcrr ~ ?

(1) ~31'1-~ (2) ~ ~Cj) ~

(3) ~ ~ (4) ~"if fcl1fr:! Ans. (2)

121. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (1) Transcription- Writing information from DNA to- RNA (2) Transcription- Using information in m- RNA to make protein (3) Repressor protein - Binds to a operatore to stop enzyme synthes (4) Operon- Structural genes, operator and promoter.

f.'1 'i'"C:i Ftl d it "fr ctf-.=r "'lC'fd" -wr~ ~ ?

(1) 31]~~- tl" ~ ~ "fr it 31R ~ ~ co'r ~ ~ I (2) 31]~ - mil"-.=r frr:rfq cfi ~ ~-31R ~ ~ ii ~ COT ~"'ilC'l ~ I

(3) ~ mm - >l"f¢ucr ~~tfU]" co'r x'r~ ct ~ >rme>fCj) co'r 6ifucr ~ ~ 1

( 4) 31'1-l!\l-.=r - xi "< il '"i I ''i CJ) ~, >rme>fCJ) Jtfx \3 '""'"i I Gl CJ) I

Ans. (1) Sol. Transcription- writing information from DNA tom-RNA.

31]~~ - tl".~.~- "fr ~ - 31R.~.~- cp'r ~ ~

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122. Transformation was discovered by: (1) Meseson and stahl (3) Griffith

~m CJ5T m\Jf ~ 8RT CJ5T ~ ?

(1) it~ 3fi-x ~ (3)~

Ans. (3)

123. Fruit colour in squash is an example of: (1) Recessive epistasis

Ans.

124.

(3) Complementary genes

cg~ ct ll5C'l COT ~Tf ~ \3<:;:1!5\DI ~ ?

(1)~~

(3) '!_w ~

(2)

Viruses have : (1) DNA enclosed in a protein coat (3) Single Chromosome

~311 ii crm -g'rcrr ~ ?

(2) Hershey and chase (4) Waston and crick

(2) ~1 3fi-x -ilx=r (4) ~ 3fi-x fipcp

(2) Dominant epistasis (4) Inhibitory genes

(2) Prokaryotic nucleus (4) Both DNA and RNA

(2) >JICI)_cfl~ c8l ~ < 1) m-m 3ffCRUT -q ~ tt ~ ~ (3)~~ (4) tt ~ ~ 3fi-x 31R ~ ~ cfr-;:ff

Ans. (4)

125. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA tecnology is: (1) Insulin (2) Estrogen (3) Thyroxin (4) Progesterone

:3-;:n:ITTf\Jf tt ~ ~ mwfTrc!5T 8RT \3 ~ 1 R: e1 ~ ~ ~-;or ctT~ ~ ?

(1) ~ (2) ~fdl\iFi (3) ~~~~lffl'l 125. (1)

Sol. The first hormone to be genetically engineered i.e. insulin is commercially available as humulin.

~~ftco ~hJif.'iG~RTf 8R1 m "\JfA" "CflC'iT >r~ ~-;or ~~FC1'l, &:jq'{ilfll¢ "WI ii ~itf&l ct "WI ii ~ ~ 1

126. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybrization technique does not use: (1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting (3) Autoradiography (4) PCR

lJUT ~ tl" ~ ~ "ct m~tfDT it ~ ~ ~ it Cfm ~Cfd" ~ -g'rcrr ?

(1) ~"Wf CJ)OT ~ (2) ~ (3) «~RIRP;zuft ~ (4) -qr m 31R

Ans. (4)

127. In vitro clonal propagation in plants in characterized by: (1) PCR and RAPD (2) Northern blootting (3) Electrophoresis and HPLC (4) Microscopy

~ -q ~ crc>fr";:jt >fCI~-;::r ~ 8RT ~ -g'rcrr ~ ?

< 1 ) -qr_ m. 31R. 3fi-x 31R. ~- -qr_ tt. (2) "'lTcf-;::f ~l'rfur

(3) ~-wr CJ)OT ~ 3fi-x 10l" -qr ~ m (4) Xi~c;:~fcGl Ans. (4)

128. An alga which can be employed as food for human beings: (1) Ulothrix (2) Chiarella (3) Spirogyra (4) Polysiphonia

erg q)f~ ~'T"CflC'l ~ fuir ~ ct ~ ~ ct "WI -q f.n:trfG:rcr fcp-m \JfTdT ~ ?

(1) ~ (2) ~ (3) f'11~~i'IIGI\I (4) qiftifil~q}lf.'iGII Ans. (2)

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129. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA? (1) Bactrial artifical chromosome (2) Yeast artificial chromosome (3) Plasmid (4) Comid

q)f~ ~ tt 1f'l ~ cfi cficrc>l 100 -m~ ~~ cp'r qc;fr-;::r Cj)\ ~ ~ ?

(1) ~COT~ lJ~ (2) m COT~ lJ~ (3)~ (4)~

Ans. (3) Sol. Length of DNA in cloning vectors.

Plasmid 5-10 kb Cos mid Bacterial

40-45 kb

Artificial Chromosome- 200- 350 kb Yeast artificial chromosome - 1 Mb

crc>frf.trr ~ ii DNA CJ5T ~ Plasmid Cos mid Bacterial

5-10 kb 40-45 kb

Artificial chromosome- 200- 350 kb

Yeast artificial chromosome -1 Mb

130. An example of ex situ conservation is : (1) National Park (2) Seed Bank (3) Wildlife santuary (4) Sacred Grove

~ x=i\l;fUT COT 100 \3c;lg'(vl ctf~ ~?

(1)~~ (2)~~cp

(3) cpl:[ >JTOfl" 31~ (4) ~ ~

Ans. (2)

131. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the : (1) Trees are very healthy (2) Trees are heavily infested (3) Location is highly polluted (4) Location is not polluted

fcO"m ~ LR CJ:ffi LR ~-;:ff CJ5T ~;z: lff?IT ii CJ:fo& qm "&cficr ~err~ ?

(1) CJ:~ ~ ~ ~ (2) CJ:~ ~ ~ "fr nx=cr ~ (3) erg~~ ~f1hl ~ (4) erg~ ~f1hl ~ ~

Ans. (4) Sol. Lichens are indicators of S0

2 pollution. If location is not polluted by S0

2 than growth of lichen will enhance.

~~ S02 >r~1fDT ct ~ ~. ~ co'r~ ~ S02 ID\T >r~f1hl ~ ~ en qgi ~-;:or CJ5T CJ:fo& ~ "!5l<1T 1

132. Match the following and select the correct option: (a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species (b) Succession (ii) Detrivore (c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality (d) Population growth (iv) Pollination

a b c d

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) Qv) (i) (iii) (ii ) (3) (iii) (ii) Qv) (i ) (4) (ii) (i) Qv) (iii)

f.'19 fC;j Ftl d cp'r ~ftlcr ~ ~\ ~ fclcPc;q ~f1ir-

(a) ~311 (i) ~ ~

(b) 31JW11DT (ii) 314\c;lgl{l

(c)~ ci?r "frcrr (iii)~ www.examrace.com

a b c d (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) Qv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) (iii) (ii) Qv) (i) (4) (ii) (i) Qv) (iii)

Ans. (4)

133. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called: (1) Vulnerable (2) Endemic

(3) Critically Endangered (4) Extinct

100 \JflfCl, vn- f.1cp--c ~ it fclc;fr-q-;=r ct ~ vrrfu+:r CJ5T ~ COT ~ CJ)\ w ~ ~ crm CJ)gT \JfTCfT ~ ?

(1)~ (2)~

( 3) wifC'rcp ti CJ) c I q "l ( 4) fclc;frq

Ans. (3)

134. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is: (1) Ionosphere (2) Mesosphere (3) Stratosphere (4) Troposphere

~~ COT erg ~?f ~ 311\Jl'r-;::r LRCf ~ t ~ Cfm ~ ~?

(1) 311Gl11'J0'8('1 (3) fli'JC1141'J0'8('1 (4)afr~

Ans. (3)

135. The orgatnization which published the Red List of species is : (1) ICFRE (2) IUCN (3) UNEP (4)WWF

ctf-;::r "fiT ~ ~ CJ5T ~;s ~ >l CJ) I~ I C1 Cj)\C1T ~ ?

(1) ~- m. ~- 311\. t (2) ~- <r. m. lf'l.

(3) <J. l['l. t -qr_ (4) ~- ~- ~-Ans. (2)

136. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species : (1) Echionoderms (2) Ctenophroa (3) Cephalocoradata (4) Cnidaria

~ ~ ~Cffl'r-;:ff it \3""flCPT ~-;:ncr ~ ~ cft-;:ff x=rjtl" 3fi-x ~ ~ ~ -glcfi ~

(1) ~CJ)I~'I'I-s4fl (2) 2;.,'1q)'l\1

(3) Ricfie1'l¢l~cl (4) ~

Ans. (4) Sol. Echinoderms, Ctenophores and Cephalochordates are exclusively marine. However, Cnidarians live in both

marine as well as fresh water habitats.

~¢1~.,h4fl, f2;.,'1q)'1f1 cr~ Ricfie1'1¢1~<:;fl ~ ~ -gm ~I~ f.'1~RGJ"fl ~ cr~ ~ \JfC'1" c;'r;=IT "Sl" ~

it LfT<'r \JfTC'r ~ I

137. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall? (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Sea- fan (Gorgonia) (3) Saccharomyces (4) Blue- green algae

f.'19 fC1 ftl C1 it "fr f'¢fl" ~ mufi it cp'rfucor t1im COT ~uf 3:rlfTCI ~ ?

(1) fliGI'I'I~CfelRGJI (2) ~ ~ ('l'rrif~

(3) fl ct{II'J I~ fl1 \J1 ( 4) ~ -gffil ~'lciTC'l

Ans. (2) Sea fan (Gorgonia) is an animal belonging to Phylum Cnidaria. The animal cells are devoid of cellulosic cell wall.

x=rjtl" ci~ ('l'rrif~ x:m ~ "fr ~fucr 100 \JRj ~I \JRj cp'rfucpr31'f it~~ ~Cf ~ i1ifu COT m

IDcrr ~I www.examrace.com

138. Planaria possess high capacity of: (1) metamorphosis (2) regeneration

Ans. Sol.

139.

Ans. Sol.

140.

Ans. Sol.

141.

(3) alternation of generation

-cc?-;'J-#<JT ij ~ ~ ~ -g)cfi ~?

(1) <WliC1\0I

(3) ~ ~CbiC"l\01

(2)

(4) bioluminescence

(2) ~l[q.=[

(4)-v'rcr-~

Lower animals such as sponges, cnidarians and flat worms like Planaria are known to exhibit high degree of regeneration.

~ ~ ~"fr ~\If, f.'1~Rll'"\i cr~ ~ CJlfii ~"fr -cc?-;'J-#<JT ~ co'r~ CJ5T :3~l[q.=[ ~ >rc:ftfcr ~ ~ I

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is: (1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Trygon (4) Scoliodon

100 x=Pjtl ~ ~ \Jl'r fclwr trRT ~ "Cj)\ ~ ~ :

(1)~ (2)~ (3)~ (2) Torpedo (electric ray) possesses modified muscles acting as electric organs.

iT~ (~~"Cj) ~) ii ~"C1"f«f itmm ~-qcr 3fll'f "CbT ~ "Cb@ ~ 1

Choose the correctly matched pair: (1) Tendon-Specialized connective tissue (3) Areolar tissue- Loose connective tissue

~-~ ~ ~ \Jl'r~ "CbT ~-;:nq ~ :

(1) q5~ (~~)- fCl~p:ilcpC1 "W:I'r~ ~

(3) "fCf'm l"l"fc'f"CbT ~-~ "W:I'r~ ~

(3)

(2) Adipose tissue-Dense connective tissue (4) Cartilage-Loose connective tissue

(2) CR1T ~-~ "W:I'r~ ~

(4) ~-fW:rc>l ~ ~

Areolar connective tissue is a type of loose connective tissue and is most widely distributed in human body.

"fCf'm l"l"fc'f"CbT "W:i'r~ ~ 100 J:r"CbT\ "CbT ~ "W:i'r~ ~ ~ Cf~ <:ffi ~ ~RR ii "flC!ffucp ~ s311 ircrr ~I

Choose the correctly matched pair: (1) Inner lining of salivary ducts- Ciliated epithelium (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity- Glandular epithelium (3) Tubular parts of nephrons- Cuboidal epithelium (4) Inner surface of bronchioles- Squamous epithelium

~ ~ ~ \Jl'r~ "CbT ~-;:nq ~ :

(1) cYI"I\ ~ "CbT ~ X'C1\-Lfa+IP1 ~

(2) lj~ l]f%"CbT CJ5T ~ ~-"lifuc>l ~

(3) ~~ ct 'lfc1Cb1Cbl\ 'l'fTT[-~ ~

(4) ~qflf.'1Cbl CJ5T ~ ~-~~ ~

Ans. (3) Sol. The tubular parts of nephron (except Bowman's capsule and thin limbs of Henle's loop) are lined by cuboidal

epithelium

~):!)'f-;::r ct '"i fc1 c6l G~ 'l'fTTf (61'rit-;::r ~c: cr~ %~ CJ5T "ilTLf ct ~ :!\JIT31'T co'r B'r~) ~ ~ "fr ~ irc'r ~ 1

142. In'S' phase of the cell cycle: (1) amount of DNA doubles in each cell. (2) amount of DNA remains same in each cell. (3) chromosome number is increased (4) amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.

co'rfucor "i!W ct ·~· >rTCRlm ii crm ircrr ~ ?

( 1 ) >r~"Cb co'rfucor ii tl". lf'l. ~- CJ5T lff?IT ~~ ID \JfTcfi ~ I (2) ):f~"Cj) cp'rfucor ij tl".l['l. ~- CJ5T lff?IT qgr ~ ~ (3) lj~ CJ5T ~ ~ ID \JfTcfi ~ I ( 4) >r~"Cb co'rfucor ii tl".l['l.~. CJ5T lff?IT 311~ xg \JfTcfi ~ I

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Sol. Repliction of DNA takes place inS-phase of interphase.

~'""C\cfi\Ji ~ CJ5T S->r~ ij DNA COT ):l"~~ IDCIT ~

143. The motile bacteria are able to move by: (1) fimbriae (2) flagella (3) cilia (4) pili

~ ~ fcp-ff cfi 8T"'<T l"lfCl ~ ~ ?

(1)~ (2)~ (3)Lf~ (4)~

Ans. (2)

144. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action: (1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.

Ans. Sol.

145.

Ans. Sol.

(2) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate (3) A non- competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate (4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

~ filxrr cfi "&c:"~ ij "\3X1 fctcPc;q coT ~f.n'r "\Ji'r l"lC'fCl ~ :

(1) filxrrtrR ~ cfi ~ ~ "fr ~~ \JfTCfT ~ I

(2) 6fSC1 x=rr ~c: ~ "fr *1 ct4l f.'1 ¢ il g 1 ~)'?'1~\Jf COT itc>fr~c: 8T"'<T ~ ~ ~ IDW 1

(3) 10P ~fC'rfqtrf"fllCJ) ~ ~ cfi "\3X1 ~ "fr ~~ ~ "\Ji'r filxrrtrR cfi ~~ cfi ~ cfi Pi?~ ~ I ( 4) itc>fr~c *1 CRfl f.'1 CJ) ~~\If COT 10P J:rfC'rfqtrf"fllCJ) ~ ~ I

(2) Inhibition of the enzyme, succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of competitive inhibition. Such inhibition is overcome by edition of excess substrate (succinate) in the medium.

~ (~ ~) cfi 8RT XicMl~c ~g~~~~f\;l~\Ji ~COT~.~~ COT10f? ~ ~ ll=fTR!lll:i

~ ~ l:i ~ (Xicffil~c:) ~ ~ m cfi ~ "fr ~ ~ "\JiT ~ ~ 1

Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate? (1) Maltose (2) Sucrose (3) Lactose (4) Ribose 5-phosphate

f.'1 '""l F21 Ftl e1 ii "fr ctf-;::r x=rr 10f? 3fl-~ ~~c: ~ ?

(1)~ (2)~ (3)~ (4)~-5~ (2) Sucrose is a disaccharide. It is composed of each one of the glucose and fructose molecules joined together by a.-1, 2 glycosidic bond. It is an example of nonreducing sugars.

~ 10P ~~~I <:rg ~ Cf~ ~ ):l"~"Cj) cfi 10P ~ "fr ~ q;:n IDCIT ~ "\Ji'r a.-1, 2 'C'11~¢1ffi~Cj)

6itr 8T"'<T ~~ "!3'rc'r ~ I

146. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis: (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Diplotene

R¢ftq~\Jf ~ 31ci~ fct~ CJ5T fcp-ff ~ ii ~<TCJ) ~ ?

(4) Diakinesis

(1)lt~ (xq~c:) (2)~il-l (<J~c) (3) ~c~i'lf"2>"i(~) Ans. (1) Sol. Replection of DNA takes place in S-phase of interphase stage.

~'""C\cfi\Ji ~ CJ5T S->r~ ij DNA COT ):l"~~ IDCIT ~

147. The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by? (1) Lipase (2) Trypsin (3) Rennin

ll"ACI'f ij ~t[ cfi ~ CJ5T 311~ filxrr fcp-ff cfi 8T"'<T CJ5T \JfTCfi ~ ?

(1)~ (2)~ (3)A

(3)

(4) Pepsin

(4)~

Ans. Sol. The enzyme rennin is responsible for the coagulation of milk by converting soluble milk protein (casein) to

insoluble milk protein (paracasien). This is the initial step of digestion of milk.

A~. ~flc;f ~t[ ~ (~) coT ~flc;f ~t[ ~ ~ffr-:1) l:i ~ ~t[ cfi ~ %g \3\Nc;l4l www.examrace.com

148. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called

(1) active transport (2) facilitated transport (3) simple diffusion (4) co-transport mechanism

~\If COT ~TrtfUT 31icr cfi ~~u:n cp'rfucor311 ii -fr -g'r<l?\ \'m ii ~ ~ cfi 8RT -glcrr ~ ?

(1) ~ ~ (2) "WfTRI ~ (3) "flllfR:r fcRRuT (4) "fffi ~ fThGJifCJ~

Ans. (2) Sol. Passive transport of fructose involves a carrier protein without utilisation of ATP. Hence it is also called

facilitated transport.

~ COT ~ ~ fi:RT ATP ~ fcR'r 100 C[l"gCl) ~ cfi 8RT ~ -g'rcrr ~ I 31Cf: ~ ~ ~ ~ cpgr

\JfTCfT ~ I

149. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:

(1) as bicarbonate ions (2) in the form of dissolved gas molecules (3) by binding to R.B.C. (4) as carbamino-haemoglobin

\'m 8RT ~rrf1hl "CJ516l-;::r ~311~ COT c>flTlflT 70 >r~m lfTlT ~ CfCP ~ ct-fr -glcrr ~? (1) ql~¢16i'f~c ~ cfi "WI ij (2) frx:r cfi ~311 CJ5T ~c;1T s~ ~ ij

(3) C'llC'l \'m ~311 -fr 6itr-=r ~ (4) CJ)Iqflfl.,'l MTC>frfi:r-:1 CJ5T ~

Ans. (1) Sol. About 70% of C0

2 is converted into bicarbonates inside RBCs in presence of an enzyme carbonic anhydrase .The

bicarbonates are transported as salts of sodium and potassium in blood plasma as well as RBCs.

c>flTlflT 70% C02

c>nc>l ~ ~311 ii COT6l'fm C!'l!'?I~~\Jf ~ 8RT ql~¢16i'f~C,:X1 ii ~Cf -g'r \JfTCfT ~I ql~¢16i'f~C,:"ff COT "fiT~ Cf~ LJ'r~ftr<:r:r c>fCIUl'f cfi "WI ij ~ ~ Cf~ ~ ~311 ij x=rci~ -g'rcrr ~I

150. Person with blood groupAB is considered as universal recipient because he has:

(1) both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

(2) both A and B antibodies in the plasma.

(3) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma (4) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

AB \'m Wi-g "CflC'ff ~ crm "flTCf ~ (nM) lfr'"iT \JfTCfT ~?

( 1) c>nc>1 ~ cp'rfucor311 LR A 3fix B cfr"'"i'f >r~ -g'rc'f ~ Cf~ ~ ii >rft'R$1- 31]~ -glcfi ~ (2) ~ ii A 3fix B cfr"'"i'f >rft'R$1- -glcfi ~ (3) c>nc>1 ~ cp'rfucor311 ii cp'r~ >r~ ~ -g'rc'r 3fi-x ~ ii >rft'R$1-~ -glcfi 1

( 4) ~ ii A 3fix B cfr"'"i'f >r~ -g'rc'f ~ LR >rft'R$1-~ -glcfi I Ans. (3) Sol. Person with blood groupAB is considered as universal recipient because he has no antigen on RBC and no

antibody in the plasma.

AB ~ crrf ~ ~ x=rrcfm nmt ~ \JfTC'r ~ crmfcO ~ ~ ~ ii cp'r~ ~ >rft'R$1-~ -glcrr ~ 1

151. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart.

(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output (2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.

(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase

(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

LRTJCI5-qr crf?rcon:r -&ctcr ~ ct CJ)T<:[-~ CJ5T ct-fr >r~ ~ ~ ?

(1) ~ ~~ l"lfel, ~ f.1co"m LR fi:RT >flfTCI fcR'r, qq; \JfTCfi ~I (2) ~ ~~ l"lfel, ~ f.1co"m LR fi:RT >flfTCI fcR'r, qq; \JfTCfi ~ I (3) ~ ~~ l"lfCl 3fi-x ~ f.1co"m cfr"'"i'f qq; \JlTC'r ~ 1

( 4) ~ ~~ l"lfCl "CJ)l1 -g'r \JfTCfi ~ ~~ ~ f.1co"m qq; \JfTCfT ~ I Ans. (1) Sol. Parasympathetic signals reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.

LRT]CJ5-q't "&cficr ~ l"lfCl CJ5T c;x cr~ ~ ~ cfr"'"i'f cp'r ~ ~ 1 www.examrace.com

152. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule? (1) Increase in aldosterone levels (2) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels (3) Decrease in aldosterone levels (4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

f.'19 FC1 Ftl e1 ii -fr ~ m ~~ ~ ~ ii x=IT~ COT :3~Tr1fUT ~ \JfTdT ~ ?

( 1 ) ~C'firR\'r-;::r cfi "fd\ cfi ~~ -fr (2) ~ t1 'S I~*[~ ftcp -gr::ff-;::r cfi "fd\ cfi ~~ -fr (3) ~C'firR\'r-;::r cfi "fd\ cfi ~ -fr (4) ~~~ftco -gr::IT-;::r cfi "fd\ cfi ~ -fr

Ans. (1) Sol. Aldosterone is secreted by zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex and also known as salt retaining hormone.

~~-;or ~ co'ftcm cfi \YI'r-;:n TC>frit~x=rr -fr ffifctcf Ncn" ~ cr~ c>fCIUT J:l"fdtrRCP -gr::IT-;::r cfi "WI ii "\JfAT \JfTdT ~ 1

153. Select the correct matching of the types of the joint with the example in human skeletal system:

Ans. Sol.

154.

Ans. Sol.

155.

Ans. Sol.

Types of joint Examples (1) Cartilaginous joint between frontal and pariental (2) Pivot joint between third and fourth cervical vertebrae (3) Hinge joint between humerus and pectoral girdle (4) Gliding joint between carpals

1=f"lriCI cfi CJ5CJ)]"(>l cf?f ij \YI'r~ cfi J:l"CJ)R 31'fx ~ \3 c; I !5'\ a I cfi ~ iJC'l COT ~ ~ :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(4)

"Gil'? mt -s:f"C:f)R

~"TP~ ~(~)~ "Cj)6\JfT (Sf~) \YI'r~

~ ('C11~~·1) ~

"BGT~UT

~ 3fi-x t)~ cfi ~

cflffi: 3fi-x "ill~ "lflcrr ~T~ cfi ~

~~ 3fi-x 3fx=r it~ cfi ~

CJ)l""C[C'X1cfi~

Gliding joint occurs between carpals.

CJ)l""C[C'X1 CJ5T ~ ii 'C11 ~ ~' I x=i"fu ~ I:JlTCfi ~ I

Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at: (1) the neuromuscular junction (2) the transverse tubules (3) the myofibril (4) the sacroplasmic reticulum

~w ~\1-;::r m l!~\T erg COT ~ cpg'f LR "!5'rw ~? (1)~lt~lT~ (2)~~

(3) q>ifl\:~ICb (4) ~fu:"ocr ~

(1)

Stimulation of a muscle fiber, by a motor neuron, occurs at the sarcolemma of neuromuscular junction due to the release of a neurotransmitter(acetylcholine).

"ilTC1"Cb ~ 8RT cif:fCb cfg COT~ ~-~\T x=i"fu cfi *11¢lc1'il LR 100 ~ ~ (~flf2:c>¢@'l) cfi "jill~

-fr "!5'rw ~ 1

Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt: (1) short- term memory (2) co- ordination during locomotion (3) executive functions, such as decision making. (4) regulation of body temperature

~~"c1-lR1 CfCj) ~ ffi'd x:llfCI"d": f-19 ~ ij -fr ~ 100 cp'r ~ ~<\T ?

(1) ~-~ ~fc'r (2) ~ ij '{il'jrqGJ'l

(3) ~~ >l"~, ~-fr f¢ f.1uf<:r "c1"-;:n (4) ~RR cfi ~ COT ~

(4) Thermoregulatory centre is present in the hypothalamus.

~~"c1-lR1 ii m ~ cfi~ ~ "!5'Tw ~ 1

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156. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (1) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments. (2) In retina the rods have the photopigments rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments. (3) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C. (4) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.

f.'19 fC;j Ftl d cp~ ij "fr CJ)f-;::r "fiT ~ ~ ~ ~ ?

( 1) ~~ crre >l"~T crufcp CJ)T >l"~T ~TrtfUT ~ CfTCYIT lJTTf ~ I

(2) ~ft;:n ii >r~T qufcp \lit~ ~311 ii -glcrr ~

(3) ~~ Rlc:1fl'1'l c CJ)T ~~ ~ 1

(4) \lit~ ~~ c>nc>1 >r'til'l" ~ \Jl'r cficrc>1 ~lC'ffCPT311 ii Bt ~ -glcrr ~ 1

Ans. (3) Sol. Retinal is derivative of vitamin A.

~~ Rlclfl'1'l ACJ)T ~~~I

157. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function: (1) Oxytocin- posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands. (2) Melatonin- pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.

(3) Progesterone- corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities offemale secondary sex organs. (4) atrial natriuretic factor- ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.

-gll=l'f-;::r CJ5T ~ cfi x=rr~ ~ ~ fficr 311-x ~ ~ cfi ~ ~ co'r ~f.n'r : < 1 ) 31'r~ffr'l" - ~"if ~1f -rt~-~·tr "tim CJ)T fctcom 3fi-x ffi m 1

(2) it~irfrr'l"-~ "rt~- ~RR cfi ~m c;p:r CJ)T ~ 1

(3) >r~~-cp'f~fb:rq-ffin:IT ii ~ ~fTrcp 3f<if CJ5T CJ:fo& cr~ fiO<:rr311 CJ5T ~\UTT I

( 4) ~<TC'l ~~~~ftcp CJ)T\Cj)-~ CJ5T f.1c;p:r i1ifu" \m c;-rq coT 6[(j',"Till ~

Ans. (2) Sol. Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland and regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.

it~irfrr'l" ~ -rt~ 8RT ~Tfctcr -glcrr ~ 3fi-x "fl"Tl1R:r ~m c;p:r co'r ~ Cj)\CfT ~ 1

158. Fight- or- flight reaction cause activation of: (1) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate. (2) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin angiotensin-aldosterone pathway. (3) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene (4) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

~c: <:rr ~ ~311 cfi CJ)RUT fcp-ff CJ)T ~ -glcrr ~? ( 1 ) tl\T~~ "tim CJ)T ~ CJ)RUT \3 q I q il4'1 c:\ qq; \JlTd1 ~ I

(2) CJ:Eil CJ)T ~ CJ)RUT ~frr'"i"-~~~ ~C'firfu:ir-;::r Ll~ ii ~ -g'r \JfTCfi ~I (3) 31fucJ:m CJ)T ~ CJ)RUT ~~ 3ft-x 'll '< ~ fCl ~ ~ CJ)T "ffiCfUT qq; \JlTd1 ~ 1

( 4) ~T<:f CJ)T ~ CJ)RUT ~ ~TCI5\T CJ)T ~ "EfC \JlTd1 ~ I

Ans. (3) Sol. The secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene are secreted by adrenal medulla and are associated with

fight are flight reactions.

~~ cr~ "'"iT~~ 31fucJ:m lf\NfT "fr ~ -g'rc'r ~ cr~ ~ 10i ~ fiO<:rr311 "fr ~fucr -g'rc'r ~ 1

159. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is: (1) Urethra (2) Ureter (3) Vas deferens (4) Vasa efferentia

1=fT'lCI ~ ii \Jl"'l"'l" 3fi-x ~?f >rUJl"C'1T CJ5T d 3f~ crrf%cor ~: ( 1 ) ~?f l1l"'f (2) lf'f ~ (3) WI? C[l"gCj) ( 4) '{(mq 1 f%¢

Ans. (1) Sol. The ejaculatory duct opens into the urethra which is a common passage both, for urine and semen.

~ ~ CJ)T 3ffc'r:r lJTTf ~~ ij ~C'fdT ~ \Jl'r ~?f cr~ c1n:f cfr"'l'f cfi ~ \3"~ l1l"'f ~ I www.examrace.com

160. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce: (1) estrogen only (2) progesterone (3) human chorionic gonadotropin (4) relaxin only

«1 '"i q 14'1 CJ)f"C[x:r q__~ COT lj~ cpp:[ Pi 9 FC1 Ftl C1 co'r B1 t)c;-r ~ -g'rw ~ :

(1) cficrc>1 ~T~ (2) l'l'1Gix1H

(3) lfr'"iCI ¢'1 RG~'I Pi¢ 'f1 ~ i1 (1 RH ( 4) cficrc>1 m;rfcR:r-:1 Ans. (2) Sol. After successful fertilization the ruptured graafian follicle converts into corpus luteum. It cheifly secretes

progesterone.

~ f¥l""if-l cfi "6fTC:" ~its~ ~ :3ftcor CJ)f"C[c>Rf Ci~ ii ~Cffur -g'r \JfTCfi ~I <:ffi lj~: >rT~\1-;::r COT "IDCfUT

~~I

161. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female: (1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium (2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo. (3) high level of hCG stimulates the synthesize of estrogen and progesterone (4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

100 "fl"Tl1R:r 'T~crcfi ~ ij llT~if~Tf'it'"i" CJ5T ~ *1 fSbGJ C"ll COT quf-;::r ~ ~ fclcPc;q COT ~ ~­

( 1 ) ~ "'P1 10l" 3fix 10l" 10l" cfi ~ "«1\ 81"\T ~it~<:fll cfi xqc;r-=r COT "\3C\~ I

(2) ~ "'P110l" 3fi-x ~ 10l" cfi ~ "«1\ 81"\T 1LDT cfi 3l"C1"\'rlfUT co'r ~m \Jf'"iCP q;:rr;:n 1

(3) 10l" m ~ COT ~ "«1\ ~~T~ 3fix >rT"G1"~'t-;::r cfi ~~tfUT COT "\3C\~ ~ ~ I

( 4) 10l" m ~ COT ~ "«1\ ~it~<:fll cfi xqc;r-=r COT ~~ ~ ~ I Ans. (3) Sol. Human chorionic gonadotorpin(hCG) is secreted by placenta. It maintains the corpus luteum and thereby

stimulate the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.

l1T'"iCI co'rR~ •fl~i1(1RH (hCG) ~ "fr ~~~I <:ffi ~ ~ co'r ~ m ~ cr~ ~ m ~x11\Jl'"i cr~ >r't"\J1"x=t\'r-;::r cfi ~~tfUT co'r ~ ~ ~ I

162. Tubectomy is method of sterilization in which: (1) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up. (2) ovaries are removed surgically (3) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up. (4) uterus is removed surgically

q61CfC'r-.:1T 6i~ cfi 100 fctfu ~ ~ : ( 1) ~61 q If% 'll ~ COT BTCT lJT'T ~ <TI qft[ ~ \JlTC1T ~ I

(2) 3l~n:r CJ5T ~I c>'l:l fSbGJI fctfu "fr ~ ~ \JlTC1T ~ I

(3) "Cf"R1 rn~ COT -mer lJT'T ~ ~ \JlTC1T ~ <:rr 61itr ~ \JlTC1T ~ 1

( 4) 'T"Bf~ ~I c>'l:l fSbGJI fctfu 81"\T ~ ~ \JlTC1T ~ I Ans. (1) Sol. Tubectomy is a sterlization method of birth control in which small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied

up.

<_1q Cfd <fl ~ ~ CJ5T 100 6i~ fctfu ~ ~ ~61 q If%;-?) COT 100 BTcr "fiT lJT'T ~ ~ \JlTC1T ~ <TI 61itr ~ \JlTC1T ~ I

163. Which of the following is a hormone releasing intra Uterine Device (IUD)? (1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG- 20 (3) Cervical cap (4) Vault

Pi 9 fC;j Ftl C1 ij "fr CJ)f-;::r 100 N'1'f-;::r l=l'rfircr ~ crrc>1T ~~17!.~~ ~fu? ( ~ <!. tl") ~ : (1) '"1C'i?le1'1;s 375 (2) ~ ~ ~- 20

(3) n~crr m < 4) "CflC'C:

Ans. (2) Sol. Multiload- 375 and LNG-20 are copper releasing and hormone releasing IUDs.

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164. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of:

(1) Ovum into the fallopian tube.

(2) Zygote into the fallopian tube.

(3) Zygote into the uterus

(4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.

~ ~ >r'twfTrc!5T, IVF cfi 3Rfllef ~ ~ -glcrr ~ ?

(1) ~COT ~-q'j" ~ ij

(2) ~l"lf\Jf COT ~-q'j" ~ ij

( 3) ~l"lf\Jf COT Tf'Bf~m ii (4) 16 ~~ ~ ~ur COT ~-qr ~ ii

Ans. (2) Sol. The transfer of zygote and early embryo upto eight blastomere stage is carried out into the fallopian tube. It

is known as Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) and is a type of IVF.

~ cr~ 3110 ¢'1'<¢\'Sluii ~ ~ ~ur COT ~l'"il'"fl\01 ~.-qqlf%<11 ii "FcP<:rr \JlTCff ~ 1 <:ffi" ~ 3iC1'<1~1'61qlf%.,1

~l'"il'"fl\DI (ZIFT) ¢!5C'11C11 ~ Cf~ IVF COT~ >fCJ)T'( ~I

165. A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ? (1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 75%

~ l=f]1SI:I ~ fimT qurf~ "fr nmcr ~ ~ ~m ~ "fr fclq-rg ~ ~ ~ lfrC1T qurf~ "fr nmcr 3fi;z: fimT "fl"Tl1R:r ~ I ~ ~lTC'1" cfi "'"1\ ~ COT ~ >r~TC"l" qurf~ -g'fTfT ?

(1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 75%

Ans. (3)

Sol. xcx Female

(Normal & Carrier)

XY Male

(Normal eyed)

Male children 50% will be coleublind of this couple.

~ ~ cfi 50% "'"1\ ~ crurftr -gl"T]'

166. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to a a, Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is :

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7

1 000 ~ CJ5T ~ ii 360 ~~ AA, 480 Aa 3fi;z: ~Ttf 160 a a cfi 3Rfllef 31TC'r ~ I ~ 311~ cfi 3ntrR -qx A

~ CJ5T 311CJ:fu" ~ ~ ij -gl"Tjt :

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7 Ans. (3)

167. A human female with Turner's syndrome:

(1) has 45 chromosomes with XO

(3) exhibits male characters

~ "'"i""RT \Jl'r ~\ ffi~'P=r "fr "lT"fd" ~:

(1) ~ 45lJURp" XO cfi "ffi~ ~I (3) qg "'"1\ cfi "C'1"~ ~rtcfi ~ I

Ans. (1)

(2) has one additional X chromosome.

(4) is able to produce children with normal husband.

(2) ~ ~ 31fuCj) X lJURp" ~ I

( 4) ~ "fl"Tl1R:r LffC'r cfi "ffi~ ~ tlc:T CJ)\ ~ ~ I

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168. Select the correct option:

Direction of reading of the Directionof RNA synthesis template DNA strand

(1} 5'- 3' 3'- 5' (2) 3'- 5' 5'- 3' (3) 5'- 3' 5'- 3' (4) 3'- 5' 3'- 5'

"?:~c m."{['l.~. Qf~ cf; ~

3TR. "1['1. ~. cfJ ~TUT ctT ~-m ctt ~-m (1) 5'- 3' 3'- 5' (2) 3'- 5' 5'- 3' (3} 5'- 3' 5'- 3' (4} 3'- 5' 3'- 5'

Ans. (1)

169. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are: (1) T- DNA (2) BAC and YAC (3) Expression Vectors (4) T/A Cloning Vectors

1=f"lriCI flll 31"JW1'fUT cfJ ~ ~\ -qx >l"~CITT ~"Cfe\ ~ :

(1) T- m."{['l.~. (2) 61T.~.m. 3fi-x ~.~.m. (3)~~"Cfe\ (4)T/A~~

Ans. (2)

170. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of: (1) Analogous organs (2) Adaptive radiation (3) Homologous organs (4) Convergent evolution

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( 1 ) WiCJ:fu"<:r 3fll

(3)~3fll

Sol. (3)

(2)~~

(4)~fctcom

Forelimbs of cat, lizard, whale and bats are structurally similar and functionliy different. Such organs are called as homologous organs.

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3fll~~l

171. Which one of the following are analogous structures? (1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon (2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man (3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita (4) Flippers of Dolphin and legs of Horse.

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( 3) q'r' I 'l fCl fC1 Gil cfJ CJ5i"?; 3fix cgcg~ cfJ cfg (4) ~ cfi ~ 3fi-x -m~ cfi tr-x

Ans. (1) www.examrace.com

Sol. The structurally different but functionally similar organs are called as analog us organs.

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172. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plants whose one flowering branch is shown below?

Ans. Sol.

173.

(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (3) Stimulant (4) Pain- Killer

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( 1 ) g C'[ffi'l '1 \iFi

(1)

(2)~ (3) \3c;_cflqcp ( 4) c;cf - f.1crRcp

The branch of the plant given above is of Datura. It is a source of psychoactive compound which causes hallocinations.

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At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? (1) With in 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person. (2) When the infected retrovirus enters host cells. (3) When HIV damages large number of helper T- Lymphocytes. (4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.

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(1) ~ ~ ct x=rr~ ~m ~ ~ ct 15 f0iT ct ~ -gT 1

(2) \Ji6f ~ ~~T~ cfrtfCJ) <P'rfucor ii >r~~T ~ ~ I (3) \Ji6f 10f.~.c11. mTTC'l ~ ij %C'CR it-~~ <P'r 1~ffinrx=cr ~ ~ I

(4) \Ji6f ~ ~T~\Ji 81"\T ~ tl".~.~-~ -g'rw ~ 1

Ans. (3) Sol. HIV selectively destroys helperT-Iymphocytes. It therefore causes symptoms of immunodeficiency due to

critically low number of helper T-lymphocytes.

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174. To obtain virus- free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken ? (1)Apical meristem only (2) Palisade parenchyma (3) Both apical and axillary meristems (4) Epidermis only

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(1) cficrc>1 ~M ~ (2) ~ iR~

(3) ~M 3fi-x 31~ fct~ClCP cfrir B1 (4) cficrc>1 ~ Ans. (3)

175. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters? (1) Methane and C0

2

(2) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and C02

(3) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and C02

(4) Hydrogen Sulphide and C02

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(1) cficrc>1 <11~-;::r 3fi-x C02

(2) <1!~-;::r, ~"I:JP=r fl('lf)I~'S ~ C02

(3) <1!~-;::r, !31~)'?hFi fl('lf)I~'S 3fix C02

(4) !31~)~'1\JFi fl('lf)I~'S ~ C02

Ans. (2) Sol. During sludge digestion, bacteria (sludge digesters) produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen

sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas which can be used as source of energy.

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176. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to: (1) Western Ghat (2) Meghalaya (3) Corbett National Park (4) Keolado National Park

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(1)~mc (2)~

(3)~c:~~ (4) Fcl5G~'IC'11cfl ~~ Ans. (4)

177. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.

Uptake

Run off

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Options:

A B c D

(1) Rock minerals Detritus Litter fall Producers

r<;>T Litter Producers Rock

Detritus minerals

(3) Detritus Rock

Producer Litter fall minerals

(4) Producers Litter fall Rock

Detritus minerals

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~ 4!5il1Pi~:

Options:

A B c D

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"~ (~)

(2) ~ \OC'lJC';Cfi ~c:Fll

3fCRC'; <STFliSI

(3) 3fCRC'; '<l~Fli

\OC'lJC';Cfi ~ <Sm

(4) "~ ~ ~c:Fll

3fCRC'; <STFliSI

Ans. (3)

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178. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?

Option

A B c D

(1) Insects Crustaceans Other animal

Molluscs groups

(2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal

groups (3) Molluscs Other animals groups Crustaceans Insects

(4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal

groups

Option

A B c D

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lllc>lx=q) ~-g

(2) ~fum cmc: lllc>lx=q) ~-muTt ~-g

(3) lllc>lx=q) ~-muTt ~-g ~fum cmc: (4) cmc: lllc>lx=q) ~fum ~-muTt ~-g

Ans. (4) Sol. The insects comprise largest number of species in the animal kingdom while Mollusca is the second largest

animal phylum.

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179. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes: (1) Gases like sulphur dioxide (2) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above (3) Gases like ozone and methane (4) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less

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(1) ~ ~311~ ~m frx=r (2) 5 ~ro ct <:rr ~ ~ CJ)DicfilGJllCITcil

(3) 311\YI'r-;::r 3tR l'jt~ ~m frx=r (4) 2.5 ~ro ct <:rr ~ m~ ~ lfCITci

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180. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain? plant ---+ mice ---+ snake ---+ peacock (1) 0.02 J (2) 0.002 J (3) 0.2 J (4) 0.0002 J

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Lllm ---+ ~ ---+ x=riLf ---+ l=l'r-x (1) 0.02 J (2) 0.002 J

Ans. (1) Sol. 10% rule of Lindman is applicable

plant ---+ mice ---+ snake ---+ peacock 20J 2J 0.2J 0.02J

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(3) 0.2 J (4) 0.0002 J

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