A&P II Online 2018 Comp Exam

1) How would a molecule that mimics cAMP affect an olfactory receptor? A) It would increase sodium permeability. B) It would open chemically-gated sodium channels. C) It would depolarize the olfactory receptor. D) It could trigger an afferent action potential. E) All of the answers are correct.

2) Stimulation of nociceptive receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of A) intensely sweet. B) intensely sour. C) quite salty. D) peppery hot. E) bitter.

3) The palpebraeA) are controlled by a cranial nerve. B) contain tarsal glands. C) cover and protect the eye. D) are lined with a conjunctiva.E) All of the answers are correct.

4) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term aqueous humor?A) gelatinous fluid that fills anterior chamberB) secreted in bright lightC) excessive production may lead to glaucomaD) converts to vitreous humor with ageE) provides the liquid component of lacrimal secretions

5) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ and the suspensory ligaments become ________ which, in turn, cause the lens to become ________. A) contracts; loose; flat B) relaxes; loose; flat C) contracts; tight; round D) contracts; loose; round E) relaxes; tight; flat

6) Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest? A) under normal room light B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes C) immediately after going outside in bright sunlight D) focusing intently on a close objectE) focusing intently on a distant object

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7) Having to adjust to a dark room after walking in from bright light is becauseA) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly. B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light. C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin. D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light. E) only cones function in dim light.

8) A loud noise causes A) a large movement of the tympanic membrane. B) an alerting reaction leading to sympathetic activation.C) reflex contractions of middle ear muscles.D) a big pressure pulse entering the cochlear duct at that oval window.E) All of the answers are correct.

9) The energy from a pressure wave in the cochlear fluids is released by the bulging and stretching of the A) tectorial membrane.B) cochlear duct.C) round window. D) vestibular membrane. E) oval window.

10) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. What is the proper sequence for these steps?1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window.2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus.3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve.4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes.5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the organ of Corti to vibrate against the tectorial membrane6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct.A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1 C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3 D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3

11) An activated G protein can trigger A) the activation of adenyl cyclase.B) the opening of calcium ion channels in the membrane. C) the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores. D) a fall in cAMP levels. E) All of the answers are correct.

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12) The hypothalamus acts as both a neural and a(n) ________ organ. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) renal D) muscular E) hepatic

13) After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex, A) adenyl cyclase is activated. B) cyclic nucleotides are formed. C) G proteins are phosphylated. D) gene transcription is initiated. E) protein kinases are activated.

14) The hypophyseal portal systemA) is a blood connection between the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.B) has two capillary plexuses connected by short veins.C) carries neurosecretions to the anterior lobe of the pituitary.D) carries ADH and oxytocin.E) All of the answers are correct.

15) Which of the following organs contain target cells for oxytocin?A) prostateB) ductus deferensC) mammary glandsD) uterusE) All of the answers are correct.

16) After brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to pass large volumes of very dilute urine. The ICU nurse administered a medicine that mimics one of the following hormones. Which one? A) aldosterone B) epinephrineC) reninD) ADH E) cortisol

17) The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and delivery is/areA) oxytocin. B) prolactin. C) luteinizing hormone. D) none; only extra fluids are needed. E) both oxytocin and luteinizing hormone.

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18) The condition known as hirsutism can result from too A) much insulin. B) little TSH. C) much ACTH. D) much androgen production. E) little glucagon.

19) Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are these and which hormone is lacking?A) thyroid glands; calcitonin B) parathyroid glands; calcitonin C) parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone D) thyroid glands; levothyroxineE) parathyroid glands; levothyroxine

20) Cushing's disease results from an excess of A) growth hormone. B) parathyroid hormone. C) ADH. D) glucocorticoids. E) epinephrine.

21) A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in each of the following except A) the rate of glucose synthesis by the liver. B) the rate of glycogen formation by the liver. C) the level of fatty acids in the blood. D) fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells. E) ACTH levels.

22) Hormones from the adrenal cortex that regulate electrolyte balance areA) antidiuretics.B) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.C) mineralocorticoids. D) androgens. E) glucocorticoids.

23) Which recommendation might be given by a doctor when counseling a patient who is suffering from excessive melatonin production?A) Spend time outside during the day when possible, eating lunch, taking a walk, etc.B) Wear a special light made for seasonal affective disorder patients on the head.C) Take antidepressants.D) Do not take melatonin supplements from the pharmacy as a sleep aid.E) All of these recommendations might be made.

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24) In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus,A) blood glucose levels are very high.B) excessive thirst is shown.C) glucose is present in the urine in large amounts.D) a large excretion of urine occurs.E) All of the answers are correct.

25) Shelly has a hormone-secreting tumor of the suprarenal gland. The tumor is causing her to have a deep voice, grow extensive body hair, and stop menstruating. This tumor probably involves cells of the A) zona glomerulosa. B) zona fasciculata. C) zona reticularis. D) suprarenal medulla. E) pars intermedia.

26) Type II diabetes is characterized byA) a lack of response by target cells to insulin. B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells. C) excessive secretion of glucagon.D) inadequate insulin production. E) low blood-glucose concentration.

27) Type 2 diabetesA) can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.B) is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells.C) is a lack of insulin production.D) is typically diagnosed in the very young.E) is not as common as type 1 diabetes.

28) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) hemoglobinB) ferritin C) hemosiderin D) transferrinE) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

29) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) a drop in atmospheric oxygen levels. B) the release of erythropoietin. C) a rise in hematocrit. D) an increase in red blood cell production. E) All of the answers are correct.

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30) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) anemia. B) high altitude. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

31) If bile ducts are blocked,A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced.

32) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated byA) oral doses of iron.B) injections of iron.C) oral doses of vitamin B12.D) injections of vitamin B12.E) blood transfusion.

33) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results fromA) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.B) extensive breakdown of RBCs.C) destruction of hemoglobin.D) the recycling of hemoglobin.E) All of the answers are correct.

34) Blood type is identified primarily byA) the Kahn blood group. B) the HB blood system. C) the Rh blood group. D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups. E) the ABO blood group.

35) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) None of the answers is correct.

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36) An infected wound contains typically containsA) dead neutrophils.B) cellular debris.C) tissue fluids.D) pus.E) All of the answers are correct.

37) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes.C) basophils.D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes.

38) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve inA) the heart.B) the kidneys.C) the spleen.D) the thymus gland.E) bone marrow.

39) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation.

40) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result, A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick.

41) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result, A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick.

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42) Jane has been taking the antibiotic chloramphenicol for a few weeks as treatment for a serious bacterial infection. There is a possibility that a future side effect of long-term antibiotic therapy could cause her to develop problems in blood cell counts. The result isA) autoimmune disease.B) aplastic anemia.C) drug resistance.D) thrombocytopenia.E) erythroblastosis.

43) The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as A) cardiac tamponade. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) pleural effusion. D) cardiomyopathy. E) pericarditis.

44) Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell.A) ionic currents B) action potentials C) the force of contraction D) electrical signalsE) All of the answers are correct.

45) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval

46) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the A) heart rate will increase. B) heart rate will decrease. C) cells will depolarize. D) cells will hyperpolarize. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize.

47) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) QT interval. D) T wave. E) S-T segment.

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48) Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole? A) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve. B) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood. C) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood. D) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve. E) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time.

49) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex toA) increase heart rate.B) decrease heart rate.C) decrease blood pressure.D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.

50) Stroke volume depends on A) end diastolic volume. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) venous return of blood to the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.

51) Which of the following would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is decreased B) when ventricular contraction is reduced C) when diastolic blood pressure is decreasedD) decrease in heart rate E) All of the answers are correct.

52) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. A) 85 ml B) 3.1 ml C) 5000 ml D) 165 ml E) There is not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume.

53) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. A) 0.75 ml / min B) 750 ml / min C) 7500 ml / min D) 175 ml / min E) 25 ml / min

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54) The thoroughfare channel ends at theA) artery.B) arteriole.C) capillary.D) venule.E) vein.

55) Venous valves are responsible for A) preventing anterograde flow. B) channeling blood away from the heart. C) channeling blood toward the heart. D) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle. E) regulating blood pressure in veins.

56) A sample of tissue displays many large flattened spaces lined by fenestrated endothelium. Blood moves slowly through these spaces. This tissue sample most likely came from the A) heart. B) lungs. C) liver. D) kidneys. E) skin.

57) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel?A) arteryB) arterioleC) capillaryD) venuleE) vein

58) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest?A) arteryB) arterioleC) capillaryD) venuleE) vein

59) Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries?A) decreased plasma albumenB) increased blood hydrostatic pressureC) increased tissue hydrostatic pressureD) both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressureE) increased plasma albumen and decreased blood hydrostatic pressure

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60) Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output. A) much higher than B) somewhat higher than C) equal to D) somewhat lower than E) much lower than

61) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, A) the carotid baroreceptors become less active. B) venous return is decreased. C) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs. D) heart rate is reflexively elevated. E) All of the answers are correct.

62) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter hasA) less resistance to blood flow.B) the same amount of pressure as resistance.C) a greater resistance to blood flow.D) a higher blood pressure.E) a greater blood flow.

63) The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure. A) systolic; diastolic B) hydrostatic; colloid osmotic C) blood; interstitial D) colloid osmotic; hydrostatic E) plasma; extracellular

64) Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased A) salt and water loss through the kidneys. B) blood volume. C) sodium ion levels in blood. D) venous return and preload. E) blood pressure.

65) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased A) heart rate. B) cardiac output. C) blood flow to the lungs. D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) sympathetic stimulation of the heart.

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66) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release? A) renal artery thrombus B) vasospasm of the renal arteries C) circulatory shockD) increased sympathetic activity E) hypertension

67) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body A) reduces reabsorption of water at the kidneys. B) experiences an increase of interstitial fluids. C) experiences a decrease in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure. D) releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). E) All of the answers are correct.

68) During exercise, A) venous return increases. B) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. C) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. D) venous return increases and vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. E) All of the answers are correct.

69) The blood vessel that supplies venous blood to the liver is the A) celiac artery.B) inferior mesenteric vein.C) hepatic portal vein.D) gastric vein.E) superior mesenteric artery.

70) The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) helper T D) thymus E) liver

71) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with A) hyaline cartilage. B) blood vessels. C) adipose tissue. D) sensory nerve endings. E) both blood vessels and adipose tissue.

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72) T is to ________ as B is to ________. A) top-located; bottom-located B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived C) thyroid-drawn; bowel-developedD) non-thymus-dependent; bottom-located E) trabeculae-descended; bursa-origin

73) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation except A) redness of the inflamed tissue. B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. C) heat of the inflamed tissue. D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. E) swelling of the inflamed tissue.

74) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons?A) secrete strong acidB) secrete organic solvent C) secrete free radicalsD) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosisE) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA

75) The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. What is the correct sequence for these steps?1. Several cycles of mitosis occur.2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage.3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection.4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen.5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells.6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin.A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6 C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6 D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6 E) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2

76) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of A) innate immunity. B) active immunization. C) passive immunization. D) natural immunity. E) alloimmunity.

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77) T cells and B cells can be activated only by A) pathogens. B) interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors. C) cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells. D) exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane. E) disease-causing agents.

78) Which of the following is not a property of an IgG heavy chain?A) has one constant segmentB) has one variable segmentC) binds one light chainD) binds antigen at both endsE) binds complement in the constant region

79) During a primary immune response, the A) IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer. B) IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer. C) IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel. D) only the IgM titer is affected.

80) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A) blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) tears. E) interstitial.

81) Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A. What does this medication do? A) prevents inflammation from destroying the transplanted kidney B) depresses hemopoiesis in the red bone marrow C) decreases chemotaxis of macrophages to the transplanted kidney D) weakens antibodies in the blood E) suppresses helper T cells, thus preventing rejection

82) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent. A) MRSA B) Congestive heart failure C) Cystic fibrosis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Parkinson's disease

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83) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because A) there is less resistance to air flow. B) it combines olfaction with respiration. C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air. D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity. E) it dries out the mouth.

84) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in A) epistaxis. B) nasal congestion. C) nosebleeds. D) a deviated septum. E) epistaxis or nosebleeds.

85) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as A) laryngitis. B) laryngospasm. C) acute epiglottitis. D) strep throat. E) acute pharyngitis.

86) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A) right primary B) left primary C) right secondary D) left secondary E) medial

87) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________. A) extrapulmonary bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi B) lobar bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi C) intrapulmonary bronchi; lobar bronchi D) trachea; pharynx E) secondary bronchi; alveolar ducts

88) External respiration involves the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.

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89) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs? A) It decreases. B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs. C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume. D) It remains constant. E) It increases.

90) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration except the A) PO2 of the alveoli. B) PCO2 of the blood. C) thickness of the respiratory membrane. D) PN2 of the alveoli. E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.

91) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A) decreased temperature B) decreased pH C) increased tissue PO2 D) decreased amounts of DPG E) All of the answers are correct.

92) If the lingual frenulum is too restrictive, an individual A) has a condition called ankyloglossia. B) has difficulty eating. C) cannot speak normally. D) cannot protract the tongue as far as most individuals.E) All of the answers are correct.

93) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from A) sympathetic stimulation. B) hormonal stimulation. C) parasympathetic stimulation. D) myenteric reflexes. E) hunger.

94) During deglutition, which of the following phases is not present?A) buccalB) pharyngealC) gastric D) esophagealE) They are all present during deglutition.

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95) Distension of the gastric wall leads to secretion of histamines from the lamina propria. This is an example of ________ response.A) neural B) local C) muscular D) hormonal E) None of the answers is correct.

96) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity. As a result, you would expect Mary to be at risk for A) protein malnutrition. B) abnormal erythropoiesis. C) diarrhea. D) dehydration. E) an ulcer.

97) A surgical procedure to promote rapid weight loss is removal of most of the A) pancreas. B) liver. C) duodenum. D) jejunum. E) ileum.

98) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A) jaundice B) elevated levels of blood glucose C) impaired digestion of protein D) blood in the feces E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin

99) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably A) sucrose. B) maltose. C) lactose. D) cellulose. E) glycogen.

100) Which of the following is true regarding lactose intolerance? A) The stomach produces inadequate amounts of lactase. B) Lactose-intolerant infants cannot digest dairy fat and are at risk of starvation. C) The person cannot digest any type of monosaccharide. D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase. E) The enzyme maltase begins to digest lactose.

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