Answers Instrument - Commercial Stages

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Stage Exam Critiques

Instrument RatingCritiques

Stage I1. CHOICE 3 — 75% of aviation accidents can be

attributed to human factors-related causes.Some sources of pilot error in the instrumentand commercial environments include; misin-terpretation of a chart, failure to understand aclearance, inability to use equipment properly,and lack of coordination among crewmembers.

2. CHOICE 2 — Readback of ATC clearances iscrucial in the IFR environment. You should notassume controller silence after a readback isverification of your transmission. If you areunsure if ATC understood your communica-tion, ask for a verbal confirmation.

3. CHOICE 3 — Your vestibular system is sendingan incorrect message to your brain during arapid acceleration, making you believe you arein a nose up attitude. The best way to overcomethis is to rely on your instruments, since theyare your only accurate source of information.

4. CHOICE 3 — Acceleration or deceleration caninduce precession errors within the attitudeindicator. Deceleration causes the attitude indicator to give a temporary, false indicationof a descent.

5. CHOICE 1 — Due to internal friction within thegyroscope, precession is common to heading

indicators. Precession causes the selectedheading to drift from the set value. You shouldalign the heading indicator with the magneticcompass before flight and check it at 15-minuteintervals during flight.

6. CHOICE 3 — During a turn, the rudder controlsthe quality of the turn as indicated by the position of the ball in the inclinometer. If the ball is right of center, add right rudder pressure; if the ball is left of center, add leftrudder pressure.

7. CHOICE 2 — The airspeed indicator, altimeter,and vertical speed indicator are the three pressure-sensitive pitot-static instruments.Each of these instruments is connected to a static source, however, only the airspeed indicator is connected to the pitot source,which is the source of impact or ram air pressure.

8. CHOICE 2 — Initially, you should establish theattitude for a climb or descent by reference tothe attitude indicator.

9. CHOICE 1 — Normally, you correct minor deviations from altitude with only pitchchanges. However, if your altitude changesmore than 100 feet, you should make adjustments in both pitch and power.

10. CHOICE 3 — A useful guide for leveling offfrom a climb or descent is to lead the desiredaltitude by approximately 10% of the verticalspeed.

CHAPTER 5CHAPTER 5

STSTAAGE EXGE EXAM AM CRITIQUESCRITIQUESINTRODUCTIONThis chapter provides you with critiques for the Instrument and Commercial Guided Flight Discovery StageExams as well as the Multi-Engine End-of-Course Exam. Each critique contains the correct answer choice anda brief explanation of the answer. The answer choices correspond to those in the answer keys in Section D.Each time you review a Stage Exam with a student, be sure to go over each incorrectly answered question andsatisfy yourself that the student fully understands the material before moving on to the next stage. These critiques will be helpful in your dialogue with students, but they are not meant to replace thorough discussion.

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Instrument/Commercial Instructor’s Guide

11. CHOICE 2 — The attitude indicator has failedand is giving false indications of a left turnwith nose-low pitch attitude.

12. CHOICE 3 — To avoid a stall, add power,decrease pitch to reduce the angle of attack,and roll the wings level.

13. CHOICE 3 — When you are cleared for anapproach while being radar vectored, you mustmaintain your last assigned altitude untilestablished on a segment of the publishedroute or instrument approach procedure.

14. CHOICE 3 — To solve this problem, divide thetime (in seconds) by the degrees of bearingchange between the radials used for timing(165 ÷ 10 = 16.5 minutes). Next, use your flightcomputer to determine the distance of approx-imately 29 n.m. to the station.

15. CHOICE 2 — When you are using a fixed-compass-card instrument, the ADF pointerindicates relative bearing. In this case, therelative bearing is 190°.

16. CHOICE 3 — The correct formula is:

RB + MH = MB.

The magnetic bearing to the station is 190° +80°, or 270°.

17. CHOICE 2 — The correct formula is:

MB – MH = RB.

The magnetic bearing to the station is 180°minus the magnetic heading of 045° whichequals 135°.

18. CHOICE 3 — Relative bearing is the number ofdegrees between the nose of the aircraft and thestation, measured clockwise. Regardless of the number of degrees you are correcting left or right, you are on course when the wind correction angle equals the number of degrees a station is to the left or right of the aircraft’s nose.

19. CHOICE 2 — With an RMI, the magnetic headingappears under the top index and the ADF andVOR bearing pointers give a direct reading ofmagnetic bearing to the station. The VORpointer shows the station behind and slightlyto the right (225° magnetic bearing). The ADF pointer shows the station to the right (140° magnetic bearing). Position B fits theseconditions.

20. CHOICE 1 — For groundspeeds below 150knots, a one-half nautical mile leadpoint is adequate.

21. CHOICE 2 — FAR 91.171 lists the proceduresavailable to test the accuracy of VOR receivers,regardless of the type of equipment. After youselect the appropriate frequency, all you needto do is make sure the bearing pointer of theRMI displays the proper indications.

22. CHOICE 2 — A second-class medical certificateis required for all commercial operations. For commercial operations, the second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the lastday of the twelfth month after the month of thedate of examination.

23. CHOICE 1 — FAR 61.51 states that you may logas instrument flight time only the time youoperate the aircraft solely by reference toinstruments under actual or simulated flightconditions.

24. CHOICE 3 — FAR 61.57 states that at least sixinstrument approaches, holding procedures,and intercepting and tracking courses throughthe use of navigation systems, must be performed and logged in actual flight or in asimulator or flight training device representativeof the aircraft category.

25. CHOICE 2 — To regain instrument currencyafter 12 months have elapsed, FAR 61.57requires that you pass an instrument proficien-cy check with an FAA-approved check pilot ora certified instrument flight instructor.

26. CHOICE 3 — FAR 91.107 and 91.109 states thatan appropriately rated pilot must occupy the other control seat as a safety pilot duringsimulated instrument flight.

27. CHOICE 1 — No action is required by regulation.FAR 91.205, which lists instrument and equip-ment necessary for IFR flight, does not includea vertical speed indicator. However, as a practicalmatter, you should make sure the instrumenterror is corrected before you conduct IFR operations.

28. CHOICE 3 — FAR 91.205 states that, for IFRflight, the aircraft must have two-way com-munications and navigational equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

29. CHOICE 3 — As noted in FAR 91.211, between12,500 feet MSL and 14,000 feet MSL cabin

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pressure altitude, the flight crew must use oxygen for that portion of the flight thatexceeds 30 minutes. The use of supplementaloxygen by flight crewmembers is required at alltimes above a cabin pressure altitude of 14,000feet MSL.

30. CHOICE 2 — The required inspections includethe annual aircraft inspection, pitot-static andaltimeter inspections, and the VOR equipmentcheck. In addition, the transponder must have been inspected within the preceding 24calendar months.

31. CHOICE 3 — NTSB 830.15 specifies that theoperator of an aircraft must file a written reportwith the NTSB within 10 days of an accident.

32. CHOICE 3 — Since runway 4 has only a runway number and a centerline, it is a basicVFR runway. The distance markers added tothe threshold markings on runway 36 indicateit is a precision instrument runway.

33. CHOICE 3 — Yellow chevrons leading to thethreshold of runway 4 mean the area is a blast-pad, stopway, or overrun and it cannot be usedfor taxi, takeoff, or landing. White arrows leadingto the threshold of runway 36 mean it can beused for taxi, takeoff, and landing rollout.

34. CHOICE 2 — While flying a light aircraft on athree-bar VASI approach, you should use thelower glide path provided by the near and middle bars. The indications are the same asthose on a normal two-bar VASI. The far barwill indicate red since the lower glide path isapproximately one-half degree below the upperglide path.

35. CHOICE 2 — Land and hold short lights are arow of flush-mounted flashing white lightsinstalled at the hold short point, perpendicularto the centerline of the runway on which theyare installed.

36. CHOICE 2 — Class D airspace, which existsonly when the control tower is in operation,normally includes the airspace within approx-imately four nautical miles of the geographicalcenter of the airport and extends from theground up to and including 2,500 feet abovethe airport. You must maintain two-way communications with ATC while within ClassD airspace.

37. CHOICE 2 — As indicated in FAR 91.155, theminimum visibility required for flight under


day VFR in Class G airspace below 10,000 feetMSL is one statute mile. IFR flight in Class Gairspace, although legal, is risky. Since ATChad neither the responsibility nor the authorityto exercise control over aircraft in Class G airspace, the main traffic separation procedureis adherence to IFR cruising altitudes.

38. CHOICE 2 — The airspace surroundingPhoenix Sky Harbor International Airport is designated as Class B airspace. This is indicated in the listing under communications.

39. CHOICE 3 — You should comply with therequested speed, if able, and reduce your indicated airspeed to 160 kts. When within 20miles of your destination airport, ATC mustobtain pilot concurrence to reduce propelleraircraft speed below 150 knots. You shouldmaintain the assigned airspeed within 10knots.

40. CHOICE 3 — The ATIS broadcast is updatedupon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather. A new recording will also bemade when there is a change in other pertinentdata, such as a change of runway or the instrument approach in use.

41. CHOICE 3 — Traffic advisories are based on theobservation of your ground track on the radar.Radar cannot tell which way the nose of youraircraft is pointed. Position of traffic is calledin terms of the 12-hour clock. In this example,the aircraft’s nose is pointed 20° right of itsground track to compensate for a strong cross-wind. In a no-wind situation, the 2 o’clockposition would be 60° to the right of the nose.Since the nose is already pointed toward the 2 o’clock position by 20°, you would only have to look further right by 40° to see the controller’s advisory. Remember, the controlleronly sees the ground track on the radar display,not the aircraft’s nose position.

42. CHOICE 1 — Local airport advisory (LAA) service is provided by as FSS physically locat-ed on an airport which does not have a controltower or where the tower is operating part-time.

43. CHOICE 2 — You are expected to climb (ordescend) at an optimum rate consistent withyour airplane’s performance characteristics towithin 1,000 feet of your assigned altitude,then at 500 to 1,500 f.p.m. An exception iswhen ATC uses the term “at pilot’s discretion.”

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In this event, you may climb (or descend) atany rate you wish to use.

44. CHOICE 3 — If you do not have at least the tex-tual description of the instrument departureprocedure (DP) or standard terminal arrivalroute (STAR), or if you do not wish to useeither of these procedures, you should make anotation of this effect in the remarks section ofyour flight plan.

45. CHOICE 1 — A cruise clearance includes anauthorization for you to fly to and use any pub-lished approach procedure at your destinationairport.

46. CHOICE 2 — ATC may issue an abbreviatedclearance by using the phrase “cleared asfiled.” This clearance will contain the name ofyour destination airport or clearance limit, theassigned enroute altitude, and DP informationif appropriate.

47. CHOICE 2 — VFR-on-top allows you to fly inVFR conditions and at appropriate VFR cruis-ing altitudes while on an IFR flight plan. Inaddition to compliance with VFR visibility,cloud clearance, and cruising altitude require-ments, you also must observe minimum IFRaltitudes.

48. CHOICE 3 — While operating with a “VFR-on-top” clearance below FL180, use the appropri-ate VFR cruising altitude. In this case, youshould use an odd-thousand foot altitude plus500 feet.

49. CHOICE 3 — When a composite flight plan isfiled, the IFR portion must include all fixesindicating transitions from one airway toanother, those defining direct route segments,and the clearance limit.

50. CHOICE 2 — If you do not depart prior to thevoid time in this situation, you must adviseATC of your intentions as soon as possible, butno later than 30 minutes after the void time.Failure to take this action can result in costlydelays and rerouting of other IFR trafficbecause ATC will assume that you have depart-ed on time as cleared. In addition, expensivesearch-and-rescue operations may be initiated.


Stage II1. CHOICE 1 — To determine the climb gradient

in feet per minute, divide the groundspeed by60 (180 ÷ 60 = 3) and multiply the result by therequired climb gradient (3 × 200 = 600 f.p.m.).

2. CHOICE 2 — First, find the climb gradient(4,994 feet ÷ 11 miles) for a climb gradient of454 feet per mile. Then, divide the ground-speed by 60 (95 ÷ 60 = 1.58 nautical miles perminute) and multiple this by the climb gradientto get a minimum climb rate of 717 feet perminute. You also can find the approximate rateof climb required by referring to climb rate tables which are published by both NACO and Jeppesen.

3. CHOICE 2 — The two basic types of instrumentdeparture procedures (DPs) are instrumentdepartures procedures (DPs) developed ingraphic form to enhance the air traffic controlsystem, and obstacle departure procedures(ODPs) developed as text or graphics to assistpilots in obstruction avoidance.

4. CHOICE 3 — If the changeover point from oneVOR to another is at a point other than halfwaybetween the two facilities, it is indicated bythis symbol. The mileage breakdowns indicatethe proper distance for changing to the nextVOR.

5. CHOICE 2 — Availability and coverage of an area chart for a terminal area operation isoutlined by a thick, dashed line on the enroutechart. This dashed line is blue on Jeppesencharts, and light gray on NACO charts. It also isindicated by the front panel index.

6. CHOICE 3 — On your initial call to departurecontrol, you normally are required to give onlyyour aircraft or flight number, the altitude youare climbing through, and the altitude to whichyou are climbing. By doing this, the controllercan verify that your reported altitude agreeswith the altitude being displayed by yourMode C transponder equipment.

7. CHOICE 2 — If you cannot establish communi-cations on the newly assigned frequency,return to the previous frequency for furtherinstructions.

8. CHOICE 3 — ATC must be notified if you areunable to climb or descend at a rate of at least500 feet per minute, unless the instruction is

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qualified by the term “climb (or descend) atpilot’s discretion.”

9. CHOICE 2 — When ATC requests a speedadjustment for spacing, they expect you tomaintain a specified speed within ±10 knots.When a speed adjustment is no longer needed,ATC will advise you to “. . . resume normalspeed.”

10. CHOICE 2 — If the indicated airspeed of your aircraft exceeds the applicable maximumholding speed, ATC expects you to reducespeed from the clearance limit. Basically, thismeans you should start the speed reductionsoon enough to make sure you pass over the fixat or below the maximum holding speed.

11. CHOICE 2 — Your aircraft’s magnetic headingwhen you arrive at the fix determines the typeof entry to use. Since aircraft B is approachingthe station with a heading between 020° and090°, a teardrop entry is appropriate. Theteardrop entry, in this case, provides the mostconvenient way to maneuver the aircraft tointercept the holding course on the properinbound course of 270°.

12. CHOICE 3 — A parallel entry is appropriate foraircraft C because the aircraft’s heading isbetween 090° and 200°.

13. CHOICE 1 — DPs and STARs are published inchart form by both NACO and Jeppesen. Thecharts normally include narrative descriptionsof the applicable procedures.

14. CHOICE 2 — As you depart CLEFT intersec-tion, you should be on a heading of 297°. It isindicated on the chart and in the textualdescription of the procedure.

15. CHOICE 3 — STARs are primarily used to simplify clearance delivery procedures forpilots and controllers.

16. CHOICE 1 — The thick arrow between the twonavaids indicates a feeder route between theSanta Fe VORTAC and the DOMAN IAF.Feeder routes provide a transition from theenroute structure to an initial approach fix.They include heading, distance, and altitudeinformation appropriate to the route.

17. CHOICE 2 — On a VOR/DME approach, themissed approach point is usually based onDME distance rather than time.

18. CHOICE 2 — Since both VOR and DME arespecified in the title to this instrumentapproach procedure, a VOR receiver and DMEare required for the approach.

19. CHOICE 1 — As indicated by the MSA circle,the minimum safe altitude between the 200°radial clockwise to the 110° radial within 25nautical miles of the Humble VORTAC is 1,800feet MSL.

20. CHOICE 3 — The symbol indicates that non-standard takeoff minimums and/or departureprocedures apply. This symbol indicates youshould consult the IFR Takeoff Minimums andDeparture Procedures listing in the front of theNACO approach chart binder.

21. CHOICE 2 — If you fly the approach as a circling maneuver, the circling minimumsapply until the aircraft is continuously in aposition from which you can descend to alanding on the intended runway at a normalrate of descent using normal maneuvers even ifyou started it as a precision approach proce-dure. In this case, the Category A circling MDAof 960 feet MSL applies.

22. CHOICE 2 — Visual illusions are a product ofvarious runway features, terrain features, andatmospheric conditions which can create thesensation of incorrect height above the runwayor incorrect distance from the runway threshold.An upsloping runway or terrain can give youthe sensation that you are at a greater heightabove the runway than you actually are.

23. CHOICE 1 — During a circling approach, youare provided obstacle clearance as long as youmaneuver within the protected circlingapproach area. Generally, the higher the categoryof aircraft making the circling approach, thelarger the protected area has to be and the high-er the MDA. For a Category A aircraft at the cir-cling MDA, you must remain within a 1.3 nautical mile radius from the ends of therunways during the circling maneuver.

24. CHOICE 1 — In VFR conditions, ATC may initiate visual approaches to expedite the flowof traffic to an airport. You may initiate or begiven a visual approach clearance if you havethe airport or the aircraft in front of you in sight.

25. CHOICE 3 — Contact approaches are issuedonly for airports with published approach pro-cedures. ATC may issue a contact approach

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clearance upon pilot request when the reportedground visibility at the destination is onestatute mile or greater. ATC cannot initiate acontact approach.

26. CHOICE 2 — Since this approach is based on afacility located on the airport, the missedapproach point is located over that facility. Inthis case, it is the Twin Falls VOR. The positionof the MAP is indicated on this chart in thelower left corner.

27. CHOICE 3 — The profile view details the procedure for the missed approach segment.This procedure requires a climbing left turn to6,000 feet outbound on the TWF VOR 293°radial within 10 nautical miles, return to theVOR, and hold.

28. CHOICE 3 — Holding instructions are includedin the missed approach procedure. Since a leftturn is not specified, a standard holding pat-tern on the 293° radial of the TWF VOR isrequired. The heavy dashed line in the planview provides a pictorial representation of themissed approach procedure to the 293° radialoutbound.

29. CHOICE 2 — Your magnetic bearing (or course)from the ARROE IAF to the Shawn NDB is330°, and the minimum altitude between thesetwo fixes is 2,300 feet MSL. The magnetic bear-ing and minimum altitude for this segment ofthe approach are shown in both the plan viewand the profile view.

30. CHOICE 2 — Usually, on an NDB approachwhere the NDB is not located on the airport,you may begin your descent to the MDA afterpassing the NDB. This is clearly indicated inthe profile view.

31. CHOICE 1 — When inbound to the NDB fromthe Wichita Falls VORTAC, you should fly amagnetic bearing of 114° at a minimum altitudeof 3,000 feet MSL. The distance for this feederroute, 8.4 nautical miles, also is indicated.

32. CHOICE 1 — ILS marker beacons provide rangeinformation with respect to the runway duringthe approach.

33. CHOICE 1 — Passage of the ILS outer marker isindicated aurally by a series of dashes andvisually by illumination of a blue light. Anamber light indicates the middle marker, and awhite light identifies the inner marker.

34. CHOICE 2 — Without a glide slope receiver, theapproach becomes a nonprecision, localizer-only approach with an MDA of 860 feet MSL. Todetermine the increased minimum for loss of theapproach light system, you would normallyrefer to the Inoperative Components or VisualAids Table for a localizer approach. However,the note on the approach chart indicating thatyou must increase the visibility by one-quartermile if the approach light system becomes unus-able, supercedes the note in the table.

35. CHOICE 2 — The missed approach points are dif-ferent for the complete ILS and for the localizer-only approach. The MAP for the ILS is at thedecision height, while the “localizer-only” MAPis usually over the (straight-in) runway threshold.In some nonprecision procedures, the MAP maybe prior to the runway threshold in order to clearobstructions in the missed approach climboutarea. For nonprecision procedures, you normallydetermine when you are at the MAP by timingfrom the FAF. The FAF is clearly identified by thecross symbol in the profile view. The distancefrom the FAF to the MAP (4.6 nautical miles) andtime and speed tables are included below the air-drome sketch on the NOS charts. This does notapply to VOR/DME instrument approach proce-dures or when the facility is on the airport andthe facility is the MAP.

36. CHOICE 3 — When a course reversal is necessary, you should maneuver within protected airspace during a procedure turn.Make the procedure turn in the directiondepicted on the approach chart. In addition,you should complete the course reversal with-in the specified distance. In this example, youshould remain within 10 nautical miles of the fix, which is the DOMAN LOM for thisapproach.

37. CHOICE 2 — The profile view indicates thealtitude you should be at upon reaching theDOMAN LOM if you are on the glide slope cen-terline, 7,561 feet in this case. On Jeppesencharts, the letters “GS” accompany the altitude.

38. CHOICE 1 — You must descend below thedecision height (DH) of 6,553 feet MSL untilyou see the necessary visual references associ-ated with the runway. In addition, your aircraftmust continually be in a position from which you can make a descent to a landing on the intended runway at a normal rate ofdescent using normal maneuvers. Specificrequirements for operation below the MDA orDH are listed in FAR 91.175.

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39. CHOICE 3 — Without a glide slope, you mustdetermine the missed approach point by time.Therefore, if you have noted the time over thenonprecision FAF, which is the DOMAN LOM,and then experience glide slope failure, youcan continue the approach to the MDA.

40. CHOICE 1 — TAA’s do not describe specificroutes of flight, but rather describe a volume ofairspace within which an aircraft proceedsinbound from the 30-nm arc boundary towardan appropriate IAF. The altitudes shown with-in the TAA icons provide minimum IFR obsta-cle clearance.


Stage III1. CHOICE 3 — The primary cause of atmospher-

ic circulation is uneven heating of the earth’ssurface by the sun.

2. CHOICE 2 — The atmosphere accumulatesmoisture through evaporation and sublimation.Evaporation is the process where water vapor(a gas) is added to the atmosphere. Sublimationis the changing of ice (solid water) directly intowater vapor, or water vapor into ice. In subli-mation, the liquid state is bypassed.

3. CHOICE 1 — You can anticipate the formationof fog or very low clouds by monitoring thetemperature/dewpoint spread. When thespread reaches 4°F (2°C) and continues todecrease, the air is nearing the saturation pointand conditions are favorable for the formationof fog or low clouds.

4. CHOICE 3 — The greatest instability occurswhen air is both warm and moist. Tropical air-masses, which produce frequent thunder-storms, are a good example. Air that is bothcool and dry resists vertical movement and isvery stable.

5. CHOICE 1 — The rate at which temperaturedecreases with an increase in altitude isreferred to as its lapse rate. As you ascendthrough the atmosphere, the temperaturedecreases at an average rate of 2°C (3.5°F) per1,000 feet. The lapse rate of dry air is greaterthan the lapse rate of moist air.

6. CHOICE 1 — Stable air tends to inhibit verticalcloud development. Because of this, stable air

is generally smooth and, when moisture is present, layered or stratiform clouds form.Visibility often is restricted, with widespreadareas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle.

7. CHOICE 3 — As a front approaches, atmos-pheric pressure usually decreases, with thearea of lowest pressure lying directly over thefront. The most reliable indications that youare crossing a front are a change in wind direc-tion and, less frequently, wind speed. Althoughthe exact new direction of the wind is difficultto predict, the wind always shifts to the right inthe northern hemisphere.

8. CHOICE 1 — There are three conditions neces-sary to create a thunderstorm — air that has atendency toward instability, some type of liftingaction, and a relatively high moisture content.

9. CHOICE 1 — Thunderstorms reach their greatestintensity during the mature stage, which is signaled by the beginning of precipitation atthe surface.

10. CHOICE 2 — To avoid wake turbulence whenyou land behind a large aircraft, you shouldplan to stay above the large airplane’s glidepath and touch down beyond its touchdownpoint. If a large airplane has just taken off asyou approach to land, you should plan to touchdown well before the large aircraft’s liftoffpoint.

11. CHOICE 2 — When a tailwind shears to calmconditions or to a headwind, your indicatedairspeed and pitch attitude both increase, andyou may have a tendency to go above the correct glide path. Initially, you should reducepower to slow your airspeed and descend tothe glide path, but be ready to increase yourpower again. Without a tailwind, you needmore power and a slower rate of descent.

12. CHOICE 1 — Clear ice is the type of icing withthe fastest accumulation rates. It is found incumulus clouds or in freezing rain beneath awarm front inversion. Clear ice is the most serious of the various forms of ice because ithas the fastest rate of accumulation, adherestenaciously to the aircraft, and is more difficultto remove than rime ice.

13. CHOICE 2 — The METAR code indicates visibility of 1/2 statute mile, vertical visibility500 feet, light snow and fog, and sky 500 feetovercast.

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14. CHOICE 2 — The KLAR METAR shows visibili-ty 1/2 statute mile, vertical visibility 400 feet,heavy snow, and 400 feet overcast.

15. CHOICE 2 — The last group of alphanumericdata for KDEN is A3012. This is the altimetersetting, 30.12 inches of mercury.

16. CHOICE 2 — Radar weather reports (SDs)describe areas of precipitation, along withinformation on the type and intensity. Thesereports are routinely transmitted on weatherservice circuits, and some are included in FSSweather broadcasts.

17. CHOICE 2 — Terminal aerodrome forecastsgenerally are issued four times each day andare valid for a 24-hour period.

18. CHOICE 1 — A terminal aerodrome forecast(TAF), often includes expected changes duringthe 24-hour valid time period. FM1700 indicates that from 1700Z, until the end of theforecast period, the wind will be from 290°at 25 knots, visibility greater than six statutemiles, and scattered sky conditions at 12,000 feet.

19. CHOICE 3 — Between 0300Z and 1200Z, a broken ceiling is forecast at 14,000 feet. This isindicated by BKN 140. Cloud heights are AGL.

20. CHOICE 3 — The Synopsis and VFRClouds/Weather sections indicate 2,000 feetscattered to broken, 5,000 feet broken with topsbetween 8,000 and 10,000 feet MSL between1700 and 2100. Also widely scattered lightrainshowers with tops at 18,000 feet MSL are forecast.

21. CHOICE 1 — The forecast outlook indicatesVFR conditions for Oregon both east and westof the Cascade mountain range.

22. CHOICE 2 — The two conditions necessary forstructural icing — moisture near freezing temperatures — exist between 6,000 and 9,000feet over Shreveport.

23. CHOICE 2 — You can estimate the values forwind direction, speed, and temperature at10,000 feet by interpolation. Since 10,000 feetfalls one-third of the way between 9,000 and12,000 feet, the values are one-third of the difference between the 9,000-foot and 12,000-foot values added to the 9,000-foot values. Thewind direction, speed, and air temperature at

10,000 feet MSL over DAL are 287°, 33 knots,and -7°C.

24. CHOICE 1 — The symbol at station A indicatesbroken sky cover for this station. The base ofthe broken ceiling is at 1,100 feet AGL.

25. CHOICE 1 — At station D, the ceiling is above1,000 feet but the visibility is less than threemiles. A ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than three miles is indicated by a shaded area.

26. CHOICE 2 — The 700-millibar chart showsweather data in the vicinity of the 10,000-footlevel. It shows wind conditions associated with heavy clouds and rain, but only well-developed fronts appear on this type of chart.

27. CHOICE 3 — Freezing level height contours arerepresented by irregular lines and are labeledin hundreds of feet above mean sea level.Therefore, the freezing level here is at 4,000feet.

28. CHOICE 3 — The area is enclosed with lines on the upper left panel. This indicatesmarginal VFR conditions on Wednesday. Theupper right panel for the next 12-hour periodindicates that conditions are expected toremain. This is shown by the scalloped lines,as well as some areas enclosed by smooth lines.

29. CHOICE 2 — On the observed winds and temperatures aloft chart, a filled in stationmodel indicates the temperature/dewpointspread is 5°C or less.

30. CHOICE 3 — A feature of the high-level prog isthat scalloped lines are used to enclose areas that have sandstorms, duststorms, andcumulonimbus clouds. Enclosed areas ofcumulonimbus clouds also imply the presenceof moderate or greater turbulence and icingconditions.

31. CHOICE 3 — A vertical wind shear of six knotsor more per 1,000 feet generally indicates moderate or greater turbulence.

32. CHOICE 1 — Federal Aviation AdministrationFSS telephone numbers are listed in theAirport/Facility Directory.

33. CHOICE 3 — If you squawk code 7700 on yourtransponder, an alarm or special indicator istriggered in radar facilities. You should not

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change your transponder code from its currentsetting when in radio and radar contact withATC unless you are instructed to do so.

34. CHOICE 3 — If your communications radiofails while you are in VFR conditions, or if youencounter VFR conditions at any time after thefailure, you should continue the flight underVFR, if possible, and land as soon as practical.

35. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 91.185, the alti-tude you fly after a communications failuremust be the highest of the following altitudesfor each route segment flown:

1. The altitude assigned in your last ATCclearance.

2. The minimum altitude or flight level forIFR operations.

3. The altitude ATC has advised you toexpect in a further clearance.

36. CHOICE 2 — During a no-gyro approach, makeall turns at standard rate before turning final.You will be advised when you have beenturned onto final and told to make all turns atone-half standard rate throughout the rest ofthe approach.

37. CHOICE 1 — Macho is the hazardous attitudeindicated by this statement. People with thistype of attitude attempt to prove that they arebetter than anyone else by taking risks and bytrying to impress others. The antidote is toremember that “taking chances is foolish.”

38. CHOICE 2 — Preferred IFR routes are listed inthe Enroute section of the Jeppesen AirwayManual and in the Airport/Facility Directory. Ifone is not listed, consult the enroute chart tofind the most practical route for the flight.

39. CHOICE 3 — An alternate airport is required tobe listed on your IFR flight plan unless yourdestination is forecast to have at least a 2,000-foot ceiling and three miles visibility at yourETA plus or minus one hour.

40. CHOICE 1 — The altitude listed in block 7 ofthe flight plan should be your initial cruisingaltitude. If you want to change the cruising alti-tude, direct your request to the controller dur-ing flight.

Commercial PilotCritiques

Stage IV1. CHOICE 3 — On sectional charts, maximum

elevation figures are centered in quadranglesbounded by ticked lines of latitude and longitude. The highest known feature, includingterrain and obstructions, is displayed in thousands and hundreds of feet above meansea level. In this question, it is 10,800 feet MSL.

2. CHOICE 3 — “IR” indicates IFR military train-ing routes (MTRs) for operations that are conducted under instrument flight rules,regardless of the weather conditions. Generally,MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSLfor operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots.You should contact an FSS within 100 nauticalmiles of a particular MTR to obtain currentinformation on route usage.

3. CHOICE 2 — Use the given wind, true course,TAS, and a flight computer to determine the true heading (005°) and groundspeed (116 knots).

4. CHOICE 1 — First, use the given values forpressure altitude, temperature, and calibratedairspeed to compute your TAS (140 knots).Then, figure your groundspeed using the givenvalues for true course, wind, and your comput-ed TAS. Your groundspeed is 146 knots. Next,figure how much fuel is required for the dayVFR reserve. At a consumption rate of 11.5g.p.h., it is 5.75 gallons. Subtracting this fromthe fuel on board leaves 56.25 gallons for theflight. Compute the time in hours that thisamount of fuel will allow (56.25 ÷ 11.5 = 4hours, 53 minutes, 29 seconds). At a groundspeed of 146 knots, with 4 hours and 53 minutes of fuel available, you can fly a distanceof 714 miles.

5. CHOICE 2 — To convert true heading to magnetic heading, determine the magnetic vari-ation from the isogonic lines on the aeronautical chart, and subtract easterly or addwesterly variation (east is least and west is best)to the true heading.

6. CHOICE 3 — When you scan for traffic, moveyour eyes slowly and in small sectors. For maximum scanning efficiency at night, use off-center viewing and avoid staring in one placefor too long.

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7. CHOICE 2 — Above featureless terrain, or atnight, there is a natural tendency to fly lower-than-normal approaches. To reduce the effectof landing illusions, attempt to fly yourapproaches at night the same as during the day.You also should take advantage of electronic or visual glide slope systems when they areavailable.

8. CHOICE 2 — Medical oxygen contains toomuch moisture, which can collect in the valvesand lines of the system and freeze. This maystop the flow of oxygen.

9. CHOICE 2 — To avoid the effects of hypoxia,do not fly for prolonged periods above 10,000feet MSL during the day or 5,000 feet MSL atnight without using supplemental oxygen.

10. CHOICE 1 — Hyperventilation is an abnormalincrease in the volume of air you breathe intoand out of your lungs. It can occur subcon-sciously during flight when you experience astressful situation.

11. CHOICE 1 — According to the general abbrevi-ations and symbols in FAR 1.2, VF is the designflap speed. It is defined more specifically inFAR 23.345 and 23.457. VFE is the maximumflap extended speed.

12. CHOICE 2 — According to FAR 61.23, for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate, a second-class medical certificateexpires at the end of the twelfth month afterthe month of the date of the examination. The earliest date this medical could have beenissued was December 1 of the previous year.

13. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 61.51, youmust maintain a reliable record of the aeronau-tical training and experience used to meet therequirements for a certificate or rating. Youmust also maintain a record of the flight timenecessary to meet the recency of experiencerequirements. You are not required to log otherflight time.

14. CHOICE 2 — According to FAR 61.56, any pilotwho has not completed a flight review (or fulfilled the requirement by an alternativemethod) within the preceding 24 calendarmonths may not act as pilot in command of anaircraft.

15. CHOICE 2 — FAR 91.103 specifies the actionsrequired before each flight. For any flight not inthe vicinity of an airport, the pilot in command

must consider the alternatives available if aflight cannot be completed as planned.

16. CHOICE 3 — As specified in FAR 91.111, formation flight while carrying passengers forhire is prohibited. In other situations, the pilotin command of each aircraft must make priorarrangements before conducting formationflights.

17. CHOICE 3 — As noted in FAR 91.123, if youare given priority handling by ATC, you must submit a report to the chief of the ATC facilityinvolved within 48 hours, if requested.

18. CHOICE 3 — FAR 91.157 stipulates that no per-son may operate under a special VFR clearanceat night unless the pilot in command is instru-ment rated and current. In addition, the aircraftmust be equipped for IFR flight.

19. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 91.205, anytime an aircraft is flown for hire over waterbeyond the power-off gliding distance fromshore, approved flotation gear must be readilyavailable to each occupant.

20. CHOICE 1 — According to FAR 91.215, whenever you are in controlled airspace, youmust have your transponder turned on if it isoperational. Aircraft operating in all airspacein the contiguous 48 states and the District ofColumbia at or above 10,000 feet MSL must beequipped with an operable Mode C transpon-der. This rule also applies to all airspace with-in 30 nautical miles of a Class B airspace pri-mary airport, from the surface up to 10,000 feetMSL. In addition to FAR 91.215, references totransponder requirements for Class C and ClassB are included in FAR 91.130 and 91.131.

21. CHOICE 2 — FAR 91.315 states that no personmay operate a limited category civil aircraftcarrying persons or property for compensationor hire.

22. CHOICE 3 — According to FAR 91.413, ATCtransponders must be tested and inspectedevery 24 calendar months. In this case, the nexttransponder inspection will be due May 31,two years later.

23. CHOICE 1 — In addition to the instrument andequipment required for day VFR, night VFRalso requires position lights, anti-collisionlights, landing light (only when the flight isoperated for hire), an adequate source of elec-

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trical energy, and a spare set of fuses whenapplicable.

24. CHOICE 1 — An aircraft accident is defined byNTSB Part 830 as an occurrence associatedwith the operation of an aircraft for the purposeof flight which results in death or seriousinjury to any person or substantial damage tothe aircraft. “Serious injury” and “substantialdamage” are further defined in NTSB 830.2.

25. CHOICE 3 — Rules for reporting accidents andincidents are included in NTSB Part 830. Allaccidents must be reported immediately to thenearest NTSB field office. NTSB 830.5 also listscertain incidents that must be reported imme-diately. Incidents not listed in NTSB 830.5require you to submit a report only if requestedto do so.

Commercial PilotCritiques

Stage V1. CHOICE 2 — When you shut down a fuel-

injected engine, the air temperature inside thecowling increases rapidly. Within approxi-mately 10 to 15 minutes, the temperatureinside the fuel flow divider, distribution lines,and injector nozzles reaches a point where thefuel vaporizes and creates a vapor lock. Anyattempt to start the engine under these condi-tions would be unsuccessful, since there is notenough fuel for combustion.

2. CHOICE 1 — Detonation is the result of fuelexploding within the cylinder. It is most likelyto occur with an overheated engine and whenoperating at high power settings. Some com-mon causes of overheating include using agrade of fuel lower than that recommended,operating with extremely high manifold pres-sure and extremely low r.p.m., and operating atover 75% power with a lean mixture settingthat produces high exhaust gas temperature.

3. CHOICE 3 — When you set the manifold pres-sure to the desired climb power, a mechanismsenses the manifold pressure requirements forvarious altitudes and regulates oil pressure tothe actuator, which adjusts the waste gate. Asyou climb, the waste gate gradually closes andthe turbine speed increases to maintain MAP.The altitude where the waste gate is fullyclosed and the turbine is operating at its maximum speed is called the critical altitude.

After this point, any increase in altitude will require an increase in throttle setting tomaintain the desired manifold pressure.

4. CHOICE 2 — Above the critical altitude, anychange in r.p.m. results in a change in manifoldpressure. When the waste gate is closed, adecrease in r.p.m. produces a decrease in manifold pressure. This is the opposite of whatnormally occurs when the waste gate is open.

5. CHOICE 2 — To decrease power, you shouldreduce manifold pressure then decrease ther.p.m. You should avoid situations with highmanifold pressure and low r.p.m. because thissituation produces excessive cylinder pressureand can lead to overheating or detonationwhich can severely damage the engine.

6. CHOICE 1 — The pilot’s mask plug-in usuallyhas a red band to denote its greater flow rate.This distinguishes it from other oxygen maskswhich are marked with gold or orange bands.

7. CHOICE 1 — At FL260, the standard pressureis 5.2 p.s.i. Adding this to the differential pressure of 5.7 p.s.i. gives a total pressure of10.9 p.s.i. which correlates to a cabin pressurealtitude of approximately 8,000 feet.

8. CHOICE 2 — VLE is the maximum speed atwhich you can fly an aircraft safely with thelanding gear extended. Landing gear limitationsare due to the additional operating loads whichmay be placed on the landing gear or associatedgear doors by maneuvers and airstream forces.

9. CHOICE 3 — When practical, you should avoidtaxiing through slush in an airplane with aretractable landing gear. After takeoff, the slushmay freeze to the gear. If the slush is unavoidable,it is advisable to cycle the gear several timesafter takeoff to reduce the chance of ice adheringto movable parts.

10. CHOICE 2 — When you change the angle ofattack, the pressure distribution of the wingalso changes. With an increase in the angle ofattack, the center of pressure moves forward,and lift, airspeed, and drag forces change.

11. CHOICE 1 — The lift formula verifies that, at aconstant angle of attack, lift varies in propor-tion to the square of velocity.

12. CHOICE 3 — If you double the airspeed, theresult is the production of four times as muchlift, assuming you use the same angle of attack.Parasite drag also increases in proportion to thevelocity squared. Eventually, you will reach a

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point where the total drag equals the maximumthrust available and the airplane cannot beaccelerated further in straight-and-level flight.

13. CHOICE 2 — The coefficient of lift is a mathematical expression of the lifting efficien-cy of an airfoil. It is the ratio of airstreamdynamic pressure to static pressure generatedby the wing. It is determined by both the angleof attack and the airfoil design.

14. CHOICE 2 — Parasite drag increases withspeed and varies as the square of the velocity;induced drag decreases with speed and variesinversely as the square of the velocity. Becauseof the manner in which both types of drag varywith speed, the minimum total drag occurswhen they are equal. The speed at which thisoccurs provides the maximum lift-to-drag ratio(L/Dmax). This is an important performancespeed.

15. CHOICE 3 — Drag retards the motion of an aircraft and decreases its efficiency. Since parasite drag varies with the square of the airspeed, it is a major limiting factor at high airspeeds. Power available to overcome thisdrag is the other limiting factor. The maximumlevel flight speed is obtained when the powerrequired to overcome total drag equals themaximum power available.

16. CHOICE 3 — The total drag of an airplane is thesum of induced and parasite drag. Induceddrag is predominant at low airspeeds and para-site drag is predominant at high airspeeds. Ona graph, the intersection of the induced andparasite drag lines corresponds to a point onthe total drag line where drag is at a minimum.This also is the point where the aircraft is operating at L/DMAX. Flying your aircraft atL/DMAX provides both maximum range and thebest power-off glide speed.

17. CHOICE 2 — If an airplane has negative staticstability, it will have a tendency to move farther away from the original point of equilib-rium when it is displaced.

18. CHOICE 1 — Two variables determine the rateand radius of a turn. A steeper bank reducesturn radius and increases the rate of turn, butproduces higher load factors. Reducing airspeed does the same thing, but withoutincreasing the load factor.

19. CHOICE 3 — At any angle of attack beyondCLMAX the airflow can no longer follow theupper surface of the wing, and the flow separates, resulting in a stall.

20. CHOICE 2 — Enter the chart at 80° F and moveup to intersect the 4,000-foot pressure altitudeline; go horizontally to the right to the refer-ence line. From here, draw a line parallel to the diagonal weight lines. Now, enter the chartfrom the right at the 1,390-foot takeoff distanceline. Since there is no wind, proceed horizontal-ly to the left until you intersect the line youdrew parallel to the weight lines. Then, pro-ceed vertically downward and read the takeoffweight limit of approximately 2,875 pounds.

21. CHOICE 3 — Use the same initial referencelines you drew for the previous problem. Afterentering the chart from the right, intersect the20-knot headwind line and proceed up and tothe left, paralleling the diagonal headwindlines, to the reference line. Then move hori-zontally to your original weight line and down-ward to read a takeoff weight of about 3,150pounds. The difference between this weightand the previous problem is 275 pounds.

22. CHOICE 1 — First, enter the graph with thetemperature which is 14° C above theInternational Standard Atmosphere (ISA)value. Based on the standard lapse rate, the standard temperature at 7,000 feet wouldbe +1°C; at 11,000 feet, it would be –7°C.However, with the temperature 14° above ISA,the respective values would be +15°C at 7,000 feet and +7°C at 11,000 feet. From theintersection of these temperatures and therespective altitudes, proceed right until youintersect a weight of 3,400 pounds (interpola-tion between 3,000 and 3,600 poundsrequired). Then, move vertically down to findthe rate of climb for 7,000 and 11,000 feet. At7,000 feet, the rate of climb is 1,000 f.p.m.; at11,000 feet, it is 960 f.p.m. The average (1,000+ 960 ÷ 2) is 980 f.p.m.; but according to thenote, you must subtract 60 f.p.m. becausewheel fairings are not installed.

23. CHOICE 2 — You can use a flight computer tosolve this problem. For a climb of 4,000 feet atan average rate of 920 f.p.m. (4,000 ÷ 920 =4.35), it will take 4 minutes, 21 seconds.

24. CHOICE 1 — Enter the chart with the givenconditions and obtain a fuel flow rate of 103pounds per hour. According to FAR 91.151, a45-minute fuel reserve is required for night

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operations under VFR. Therefore, you mustmultiply 103 pounds per hour by 45 minutes(or 0.75 hours) and subtract the result (77.3pounds) from the usable fuel. The fuel remainingis 212.3 pounds. Use a flight computer to determine the flight time available, 2 hours, 4 minutes.

25. CHOICE 2 — Enter the chart at 90°F and intersect the 4,000-foot pressure altitude line.Move horizontally to the right to the referenceline and parallel the diagonal lines up and tothe right. Then enter the chart at the right at the1,400-foot line, make no adjustment for wind,and proceed left until you reach your diagonalweight line. Now go vertically downward toobtain a landing weight of 2,600 pounds.Convert the fuel burn to pounds (204 pounds),and add this to the landing weight to determineyour maximum takeoff weight (2,600 + 204 =2,804 pounds).

26. CHOICE 1 — First, determine the fuel burnedin the time given using a flight computer.Convert the answer (32.9 gallons) to pounds(197.6 pounds). Then, subtract the weight ofthe fuel burned from the total aircraft weightand insert the known values into the CG shiftformula.

Weight of DistanceCargo Moved = CG Moves

Weight of Distance BetweenAirplane Arm Locations

Insert the known values and solve for the unknown.

197.6 = X3770 – 197.6 73 – 72 X = .0553

The new CG is 72 – .0553, or 71.94 inches aft of thedatum.

27. CHOICE 2 — Use the weight shift formula:




X = 3.03,850 179-42 X = 84 lbs.

28. CHOICE 2 — Because of reduced distanceswithin which to stop at an airport with a shortrunway, it is important to check the engine performance before you begin the takeoff roll.In addition, short-field takeoff data are usuallybased on use of full power prior to brakerelease.

29. CHOICE 3 — To provide the best climb per-formance, use VX or the speed recommended bythe manufacturer for obstacle clearance duringa short-field takeoff. Precise airspeed control isessential for an optimum performance climb.

30. CHOICE 1 — During a short-field landing, youshould lower the nose as soon as it is practicaland apply maximum effective braking. Avoidlocking the brakes or skidding. If you loweredthe flaps during the approach, follow the manufacturer’s recommendations for flapretraction. In most cases, braking is more effective when you apply back pressure to thecontrol wheel.

31. CHOICE 1 — If you are losing altitude becauseof a nose-low attitude, trying to stop a descentby pulling back on the control wheel simplytightens the turn and may cause an acceleratedstall. The proper correction from a nose-lowattitude is to decrease the angle of bank first.

32. CHOICE 2 — According to the CommercialPractical Test Standards, the bank anglerequired for a steep turn is 50°, ±5°.

33. CHOICE 2 — After you establish the bank anglein a chandelle, you must constantly increaseback elevator pressure to maintain the climbingpitch attitude as airspeed gradually decreases.

34. CHOICE 2 — After you have established thecorrect bank angle, pitch attitude is your mainconcern during the first 90° of turn. Therefore,the requirement for changes in aileron and rudder control pressures are comparativelysmall. During the second 90° of turn you beginto roll out of the bank, and more back elevatorpressure, as well as rudder pressure, is requiredas the airspeed decreases.

35. CHOICE 2 — Throughout the first 90° of turn,you increase the bank angle at a constant rate so you reach the maximum bank angle ofapproximately 30° at the 90° point of the first180° turn.

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36. CHOICE 3 — On the upwind side of the turn ina steep spiral, you are at the shallowest bankangle, and you are exerting the least amount ofback pressure on the flight controls. Your bankangle and back pressure increase as you con-tinue a turn toward the downwind side of thespiral.

37. CHOICE 2 — Pivotal altitude is determined bythe aircraft’s groundspeed. As groundspeedincreases during downwind portions of themaneuver, pivotal altitude increases, and asgroundspeed decreases, pivotal altitudedecreases. Pivotal altitude does not change asyou vary the bank angle, unless the bank angleis steep enough to affect your groundspeed.

38. CHOICE 3 — Pilots typically try to completea flight as planned, please passengers, andmeet schedules. This can have an adverseeffect on safety and can impose an unrealisticassessment of piloting skills under stressfulconditions.

39. CHOICE 1 — Following is an explanation ofthe six steps:

1. Detect: The decision maker detects thefact that change has occurred.

2. Estimate: The decision maker estimatesthe need to counter or react to the change.

3. Choose: The decision maker chooses adesirable outcome (in terms of success) forthe flight.

4. Identify: The decision maker identifiesactions which could successfully controlthe change.

5. Do: The decision maker takes the necessaryaction.

6. Evaluate: The decision maker evaluatesthe effect(s) of his/her action counteringthe change.

40. CHOICE 3 — FAR 121.542 and 135.100 specif-ically prohibit crewmember performance ofnonessential duties or activities while the air-craft is involved in taxi, takeoff, landing, andall other flight operations conducted below10,000 feet MSL, except cruise flight.

Multi-Engine RatingCritiques

Stage VI1. CHOICE 3 — Traditional multi-engine aircraft

displace the engines symmetrically away fromthe longitudinal axis of the aircraft. The displacement of the engines from the longitudi-nal axis can cause a more pronounced left-turn-ing tendency due to the offset thrust moments.

2. CHOICE 3 — The engine torque tends to roll aconventional twin-engine airplane opposite tothe direction of engine and propeller rotation.This rolling tendency, which is common to single-engine aircraft, is compounded by thesize of the propellers and more powerful engines.

3. CHOICE 1 — The absolute altitude is the maximum density altitude the airplane is capableof attaining or maintaining. At this altitude theVX speed reaches its peak and VY speed reach-es its lowest at the same speed. This altitudealso assumes gross weight in a clean configura-tion, and maximum continuous power. When determining single-engine absolute altitude thepropeller of the critical engine is feathered.

4. CHOICE 3 — Banking toward the operatingengine during engine-out operations reducesthe amount of rudder deflection needed tomaintain directional control. This techniquewill reduce VMC and ensure stall characteris-tics will not be degraded.

5. CHOICE 3 — During engine-out operations,greater caution is required when turning awayfrom the operating engine. Flight tests haveshown that banking toward the inoperativeengine can actually increase VMC by 20 knots insome aircraft.

6. CHOICE 3 — When an engine fails at the multi-engine service ceiling, the aircraft willinitially descend to the single-engine absoluteceiling. The single-engine service ceiling is themaximum density altitude at which the single-engine best rate-of-climb airspeed VYSE willproduce a 50 f.p.m. rate of climb.

7. CHOICE 3 — VYSE will achieve the minimumrate of descent when an engine failure occursabove the single-engine service ceiling. Sinceconserving altitude is generally important, theairspeed should never be reduced below VYSEduring the descent.

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8. CHOICE 2 — Depending on the aircraft type,the greatest amount of drag may be full flapextension, or a windmilling propeller. In any case, the manufacturers recommended procedure to streamline the aircraft or feather and secure the inoperative engine whenrestarting is not possible should be followed assoon as the engine is identified.

9. CHOICE 3 — The singe engine best rate-of-climb speed produces the maximum climb rateor the minimum rate of descent with oneengine inoperative. This airspeed is normallyused when altitude is the prime considerationafter engine failure.

10. CHOICE 3 — FAR Part 23 has established minimum control speed (VMC) with the criticalengine inoperative and the other engine devel-oping takeoff power. The wing and the cowlflaps are in the takeoff position with the landinggear retracted. The airplane is loaded to maximum takeoff weight with the most unfavorable, usually most aft, center of gravity.Finally, a bank of not more than five degrees isestablished toward the good engine.

11. CHOICE 3 — After takeoff, the first powerreduction should be made upon reaching a safe maneuvering altitude and airspeed. Thereduction of power prior to this will lengthenthe time to climb to a safe altitude leaving lesstime and altitude should an emergency situation arise.

12. CHOICE 3 — A go-around from the finalapproach with both engines operating shouldbe initiated by increasing to full power thenreducing drag by raising the flaps to the takeoffsetting and retracting the landing gear. Asalways, you should follow the manufacturer’srecommended procedure. A go-around withone engine inoperative is advisable under onlythe most favorable conditions of weight, altitude, and temperature. A single engineapproach should be planned carefully so a go-around is not required.

13. CHOICE 3 — If an engine failure occurs ontakeoff prior to VMC, the pilot should retardboth throttles immediately and stop the aircraftwith braking action. The primary objectivesduring engine failure on the takeoff roll are tomaintain control and stop the aircraft on therunway.

14. CHOICE 2 — If an engine is producing partialpower, the pilot should delay feathering thepropeller until a thorough review of the appro-priate checklist is complete and the prospect of regaining power is lost. As always, the manufacturer’s recommendations should befollowed.

15. CHOICE 3 — To recover from an engine-outVMC demonstration, retard the throttle on theoperating engine, decrease the angle of attackto regain control and, if necessary, adjustpower on the operative engine to maintain con-trol and conserve altitude. Emphasis should beplaced on the minimum loss of altitude.

16. CHOICE 1 — Counterweights on propellers aidin feathering by overcoming the propeller’scentrifugal twisting force by redistributing theweight of the propeller. The counterweightschange the propeller’s center of mass, allowingthe centrifugal force to actually aid in feathering.Other systems, such as a mechanical spring or compressed air, can also help move the propeller to a higher pitch angle.

17. CHOICE 2 — A maximum zero fuel weight isapplicable on some airplanes to limit the ratioof loads between the fuselage and wings. Themaximum load that an airplane can carry alsodepends on the way the load is distributed.The weight of an airplane in flight is supportedlargely by the wings; therefore as the load carriedin the fuselage is increased, the bendingmoment of the wings is increased.

18. CHOICE 1 — To find the highest pressure altitude at which 75 percent BHP is available,find the 75% BHP line and follow it diagonallyto the 2,500 RPM Full Throttle line. The intersection of the 75% BHP line and the FullThrottle line corresponds to the pressure altitude on the left at 7,800 feet.

19. CHOICE 1 — Start by finding the point on thegraph where the 9,000 foot pressure altitudeline and the diagonal 65% BHP line meet.Follow this point straight down to the linecharts below the graph. Notice that there arereally three lines to choose from (978 lbs., 600lbs., and 1,218 lbs.). Use the 600 lbs. usablefuel line and interpolate to find the approxi-mate range to be 535 nautical miles.

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20. CHOICE 1 — Use the weight shift formula:




X = 1.55,700 153-15 X = 62 lbs.

Multi-Engine RatingCritiques

End-of-Course Exam

1. CHOICE 1 — A factor that contributes to left-turning tendency is the asymmetrical loadingof the propeller. The descending blades produce more thrust than the ascending bladescausing the thrust to be displaced to the right ofthe engine’s center. Because the thrust is notcentered, the resulting total thrust momenttends to turn the airplane to the left.

2. CHOICE 3 — The multi-engine service ceilingis the maximum density altitude where thebest rate of climb speed will provide 100 f.p.m.climb. The single-engine service ceiling is thataltitude at which the rate of climb is 50 f.p.m.with one engine inoperative.

3. CHOICE 1 — The safest procedure to followwhen the accelerate-stop distance is longerthan the available runway and the existing airport density altitude is higher than the single-engine service ceiling is to off-load fuel,baggage, or passengers to reduce weight and/orwait for more favorable winds and density altitude conditions.

4. CHOICE 3 — VYSE is shown on the airspeedindicator by the blue radial line. This speedproduces the most altitude gain in a given timewith one engine inoperative.

5. CHOICE 1 — VX is commonly called theobstruction clearance speed because it produces the most altitude gain over a givendistance with both engines operating.

6. CHOICE 2 — Nosewheel steering can be usedwithout assistance with great effectiveness dur-ing most ground operations. Using differentialbraking or power can be used to augment nose-wheel steering when sharp turns are required.

7. CHOICE 2 — Multi-engine airplanes requirespecial pretakeoff planning in order to mental-ly and physically prepare for the numerousscenarios if an engine failed during the takeoffphase. These contingencies should be exercised mentally well before beginning thetakeoff roll.

8. CHOICE 1 — The fuel-flow gauge is a goodindication of proper engine function andproper power development. The airspeed indicator is also important in order to monitoracceleration and help attain maximum performance during normal and engine-outoperations.

9. CHOICE 1 — After the landing gear and flapshave been retracted the airplane should beaccelerated to VY in order to gain the maximumamount of altitude in the shortest time.

10. CHOICE 2 — During a normal landingapproach power is gradually reduced to idle asthe airplane approaches touchdown. Thereduction of power too early may create a dan-gerously low approach.

11. CHOICE 1 — Stall recovery is initiated at thefirst aerodynamic indication of a stall (buffet-ing or decay of control effectiveness) unless thepilot’s operating handbook specifies recoveryprompted by an artificial warning system, suchas a stall warning horn.

12. CHOICE 1 — Shutting off the electric fuelpumps after engine starting is done for thesame reason it is done in single-engine aircraft,to confirm the reliability of the engine-drivenpumps.

13. CHOICE 2 — Generator systems typicallyrequire a minimum engine r.p.m. of 1,000before they supply power to the electrical sys-tem. During low engine r.p.m.’s alternators willprovide adequate electrical power.

14. CHOICE 2 — With an aft CG, regardless of air-speed, the aircraft is very unstable in pitch. Ifthe CG is too far aft, it may not be possible tolower the nose during a stall recovery.

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15. CHOICE 2 — The following formula is used todetermine the amount of weight to be moved:



In the example: Weight of Cargo Moved = unknown

Weight of Airplane = 4000 lbs.

Distance CG Moves = 0.5 in. (Current CG location minus Aft CG limit)

Distance Between Arm Locations = 120 in. (Aft baggage compartment arm minus Forward baggage compartment arm)

Weight of Cargo Moved = 2000 ÷120 or 16.7 pounds

16. CHOICE 2 — The accelerate-stop distance isthe distance required under given conditions toaccelerate to liftoff speed, experience an enginefailure at that point, immediately discontinuethe takeoff, and bring the airplane to a full stop.

17. CHOICE 2 — Begin in the lower left corner ofthe chart with an OAT of 70°F. Follow that linevertically to the 6,000 ft. pressure altitude line.From this point continue horizontally to theReference Line, then diagonally down to aweight of 3,750 pounds. Next, move horizontallyfrom this point to the second Reference Line,then diagonally down to compensate for the 10knot headwind. Finally from this point pro-ceed horizontally to determine a landing dis-tance of approximately 2,465 feet.

18. CHOICE 3 — FAR 23.67(a) states, in the pertinentpart, for airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight or a VSO of 61 knots or less, must have a positive climb gradient determined at a pressure altitude of 5,000 feet,with the critical engine inoperative, the propellerin the minimum drag position, landing gearretracted, and wing flaps in the most favorableposition.

19. CHOICE 2 — VMC is determined with the aircraft in the following configuration: Takeoffor maximum available power on the operatingengine, critical engine windmilling (or featheredif autofeather device is installed), landing gearretracted, flaps in takeoff position, and CG inthe most unfavorable position (usually at theaft limit).

20. CHOICE 3 — The purpose of the engine-outVMC demonstration is to show the control pres-sures necessary to maintain directional controlwith one engine inoperative. Below a specifiedairspeed (VMC), these control pressures becomeinadequate, and directional control is lost. Thepilot must also learn the correct recovery pro-cedures.

21. CHOICE 1 — As in single-engine aircraft,departing when conditions are below landingminimums should be avoided in the event itbecomes necessary to return to the departureairport because of an emergency.

22. CHOICE 3 — Flying slower in a holding patternwill conserve fuel, decrease the distance traveled in the pattern, and make it easier tomaintain assigned altitude.

23. CHOICE 3 — By providing accurate glide pathinformation to touchdown and minimizing theneed to maintain altitude for an extended peri-od of time, a precision approach is the best option when faced with an engine-out IMC situation.

24. CHOICE 1 — In light multi-engine aircraft, thepilot should attempt to fly the approach like anormal multi-engine procedure, with theexception of gear and flap extension. Landinggear should only be lowered when landing isassured.

25. CHOICE 2 — As with landing gear, flaps shouldonly be lowered when landing is assured duringan engine-out instrument approach. While thisis typically the procedure for multi-engineaircraft, the POH for the specific airplaneshould always be consulted.

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Answers Instrument - Commercial Stages