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SCORE CARD TIME MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS REPORT SOLUTION

COMPARE YOUR SELF DIFFICULTY LEVEL TOPIC REPORT

Solution Report For APPG 2015-16 MOCK TEST SERIES _Test Code1449Represent whole test solution with correct and incorrect answers.

View Your Test Analysis Print

Q. No Question Status

Q.1

Not Attempt Correct Ans. a bookmarkSolution

During ovulation, which of the following is released from ovary following rupture of

mature graafian follicles?

a. Ovum

b. Primary oocyte

c. Secondary oocyte

d. Second polar body

Q.2

Not Attempt Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

The germinal cell layer surrounding the oocyte before ovulation is known as?

a. Zona pellucida

b. Zona reticularis

c. Cumulous oophorus

d. Corona radiata

Q.3

Not Attempt Correct Ans. b bookmarkSolution

Limb buds appears at?

a. 3rd week

b. 4th week

c. 5th week

d. 6th week

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Q.4

Not Attempt Correct Ans. c bookmarkSolution

Which of the following does not contribute to the development of diaphragm?

a. Septum transversum

b. Cervical myotomes

c. Dorsal mesocardium

d. Pleuroperitoneal membrane

Q.5


All are remanant of mesonephric tubule EXCEPT:

a. Superior aberrent ductules

b. Appendi x of testis

c. Epoophoron

d. Paraopohoron

Q.6


In female gonad, the maximum number of oogonia are?

a. 5 million

b. 6 million

c. 7 million

d. 8 million

Q.7


Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is?

a. The oxygen physically dissolved in blood

b. Independent of hemoglobin concentration

c. Ratio between oxygen uptake and usage usage

d. Maximum quantity of oxygen that will combine with 100 ml of whole blood

Q.8


Two cell two gonadotropin hypothesis is?

a. FSH - LH released in response to GNRH from hypothalamus

b. Inhibin A and Inhibin B are released from theca and granulosa cells respectively

c. FSH acts on granulosa cell and LH acts on theca cell

d. FSH acts on theca cell and LH acts on granulosa cell

Q.9 Which of the following hormone is responsible for secretions for nutrition of zygote?

a. Estrogen

b. Progesterone

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c. FSH

d. LH

Q.10


Which of the following hormone does not change during menstruation?

a. Inhibin

b. Activin

c. GNRH

d. FSH

Q.11


Which of the following enzyme is a regulator of UREA cycle?

a. Dehydrogenase

b. CPS-1

c. CPS-2

d. Omithine Transcarbamoylase

Q.12


Rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is?

a. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase step

b. Ketoacyl synthase step

c. Ketoacyl reductase step

d. Hydratase step

Q.13


Rate limiting step in porphyrin synthesis is?

a. ALAsynthase l

b. ALA Synthase 2

c. ALA reductase

d. ALA dehydrogenase

Q.14


Rate limiting step of catecholamine synthesis is?

a. Dopamine beta hydroxylase

b. Dopa decarboxylase

c. Tyrosine hydroxylase

d. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

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Q.15


Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is?

a. HMG CoA reductase

b. HMG CoA synthetase

c. Acetyl CoA carboxylase

d. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Q.16


Maximum microbe size is seen in?

a. End of Lag phase

b. End of log phase

c. Stationary phase

d. Decline phase

Q.17


The deficiency of which of the following enzyme causes SCID?

a. ADA

b. Xanthine oxidase

c. Hydrolase

d. Peroxidase

Q.18


True about Exotoxin is?

a. Heat stable

b. Polysaccharide

c. Outer cell wall component

d. Enzymatic action

Q.19


SARS is more severe in?

a. Pregnancyb. Young children

c. Neonates born to SARS positive mothers

d. All of the above

Q.20 Bacteria which can synthesize essential metabolites atmospheric CO2 and nitrates

are called as?

a. Autotrophs

b. Photo- autotrophs

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c. Heterotrophs

d. Chemoautotrops

Q.21


Which of the following organism has polar flagella?

a. Klebsiella pneumonae

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c. Acinetobacter d. E. Coli

Q.22


Blood is stored at blood bank at?

a. -4°C

b. 0°C

c. 4°C

d. 8°C

Q.23


Longest lifespan is of which blood product?

a. Memory T CELL

b. RBC

c. WBC

d. Factor 5

Q.24


"Relative frequencies of each gene allele tends to remain constant from generation

to generation", this law was given by?

a. Henry Sigerist

b. Hardy Weinberg

c. 'Doug Engelberg

d. Johanna Frank

Q.25


Post mortem finding in a case of death due to myocardial infarction is?

a. Fat necrosis

b. Caseous necrosis

c. Lique factive necrosis

d. Coagulative necrosis

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Q.26


Liver biopsy in chronic RHF shows?

a. Shrinking

b. Greasy fatty liver

c. Hypertrophy

d. Congestion

Q.27


Patient has massive splenomegaly , his peripheral smear is shown in Figure He is

most likely suffering from a neoplasm of?

a. Bcell

b. Tcell

c. NKcell

d. Plasma cell

Q.28 True about Essential drug is?

a. Least dependent on local needs

b. Always formulated in fixed dose composition

c. RCT is done for efficacy

d. Patented

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Q.29


Shown below is the Drug Concentration vs Time graph Which of the following is true

about this condition?

a. T1/2 is constant

b. Clearance increases progressivelyc. Passive diffusion becomes saturated

d. Elimination rate is independent of drug concentration

Q.30


Steady state plasma concentration is achieved in how many hours if half life is 40

min?

a. 140 hr

b. 180 hr

c. 220 hr

d. 260 hr

Q.31


The main mechanism of Biotransformation is by?

a. Active metabolite generation

b. Polar to less polar

c. Less polar to more polar

d. More to less ionized

Q.32 Naranjo algorithm is used for?

a. Severity grading of small cell carcinoma of lung

b. Causal ity assessment of adverse drug reaction

c. Statistical analysis of non parametric datad. Treatment of renal tubular acidosis

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Q.33


First introduction of newly developed drug to humans is in?

a. Phase 1 trial

b. Phase 2 trial

c. Phase 3 trial

d. Phase 4 trial

Q.34


All are true about starvation EXCEPT:

a. Females withstand starvation longer than males

b. Death occurs when 20% of weight is lost

c. Exposure to cold and excessive heat hastens death

d. The person will die in 10-12 days without intake of food and water

Q.35


"Bone Pearls" seen in which type of burn?

a. Electrical

b. Thermal

c. Chemical

d. Filigree

Q.36


Osteometric board is used to measure?

a. Length of bone

b. Length and breadth of bone

c. Depth of bone

d. Length of dead body

Q.37


Puppe's Rule deals with?

a. Enzyme Assay in Blisters

b. Sequence of bullets

c. Age determination

d. Sex determination

Q.38Damage caused by bullet depends on?

a. Yawing of bullet

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b. Mass of bullet

c. Velocity of bullet

d. Specific gravity of target tissue

Q.39


True about cohort study are all EXCEPT:

a. Long follow up required

b. Large number of subjects required

c. Less expensive

d. Not done for rare diseases

Q.40


True regarding case control study is?

a. Attributable risk can not be calculated

b. Rare diseases can not be studied

c. Odds ratio can not be calculated

d. Chances of bias cannot be there

Q.41


Which criteria is not included in causal relationship?

a. Temporal

b. Coherence

c. Sensitivity

d. Specificity

Q.42


A disease considered for screening should fulfil which of the following criteria?

a. Prevalence should be < 3 /1000

b. High case fatality rate

c. Should have an effective treatment

d. There could be minor gaps in natural history of disease

Q.43 Which of the following is included in the formula for calculating sensitivity of a

screening test?

a. True positive

b. True negative

c. Total negative

d. False positive

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Q.44


Which of the following is not a part of RCH II strategy?

a. 24x7PHC

b. PCPNDT act

c. Blood storage facility

d. Institutional delivery

Q.45


True about National programme for preve ntion and control of cancer, diabetes,

cardiovascular diseases and stroke of Indiais?

a. Includes self examination of oral cancer

b. Includes blood sugar testing facility at schools

c. Excludes palliative care capacity development

d. Excludes provision of screening in urban slums

Q.46

Not Attempt Correct Ans. a

bookmarkSolution

The total percentage of women of reproductive age group falls within?

a. 22.2%

b. 22.4%

c. 22.5% '

d. 22.6%

Q.47


Total score of upper middle socioeconomic class in Kuppuswamy's SES scale

ranges from?

a. 14-20

b. 15-20

c. 15-25

d. 16-25

Q.48


World disaster reduction day is on?

a. 2nd Wednesday of October

b. 3rd Wednesday of October

c. 4th Wednesday of October

d. 1st Wednesday of november

Q.49

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Which of the following bleeding disorder does not involve the blood vessels?

a. Scurvy

b. Henoch schonlein purpura

c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

d. Marfan's syndrome

Q.50


Endothelin raised in MI is?

a. Endothelin-1

b. Endothelin-2

c. Endothelin-3

d. Endothelin-4

Q.51


Drug of choice for idiopathic cranial hypertension is?

a. Nadolol

b. Nitrates

c. Verapamil

d. Acetazolamide

Q.52 A middle-aged man with a history of intravenous drug use who presented with

severe myalgias and a rash shown in Figure .His 2d Echo is shown in Figure . Most

common cause of his condition ?

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b. Streptococcus

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. C oagulase-negative staphylococci

Q.53


Pharmacotherapy is given in all EXCEPT:

a. BMI>30

b. BMI>27 with risk factor

c. BMI > 25 with Non alcoholic fatty liver disease

d. Not controlled by diet and exercise

Q.54


What is the heart rate of patient based on his ECG ?

a. 300

b. 150

c. 75

d. 43

Q.55 A Boy from Biharpresents with Hepato Splenomegaly as shown in the picture below.

What is the most probable diagnosis?

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a. Tuberculosis

b. KalaAzar

c. Malaria

d. Filariasis

Q.56 All are true about Hepatitis B virus EXCEPT:

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a. Most common cause of chronic infection

b. Most common mode of spread is blood transfusion

c. Vaccine contains live attenuated virus

d. Risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma

Q.57


Most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure is?

a. Hepatitis A

b. Hepatitis B

c. Hepatitis C

d. Hepatitis D

Q.58


Vertical transmission of Hepatitis B in pregnancy can be assessed by?

a. WBC

b. HBcAg

c. HBVDNA

d. LFT

Q.59


Most common cause of chronic type II respiratory failure is?

a. Acute asthma

b. COPD

c. Pneumonia

d. Pneumothorax

Q.60


ARDS is common in?

a. Pregnancy

b. Old age

c. Coal worker

d. Health care worker

Q.61 Chronic pulmonary complication of pulmonary tuberculosis is?

a. Caries spine

b. Laryngitis

c. Aspergilloma

d. Empyema necessitans

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Q.62

Not Attempt Correct Ans. cbookmarkSolution

Smoking have protective effect on?

a. Infection colitis

b. Crohn's disease

c. Ulcerative colitis

d. Radiation colitis

Q.63


Which of the following is recommended in the treatment of acute diarrhea?

a. Magnesium

b. Zinc

c. Calcium

d. Iron

Q.64


Diarrhoea responding to prolonged fasting is supposed to be of?

a. Osmotic diarrhoea

b. Secretory diarrhoea

c. Inflammatory diarrhoea

d. Infective Diarrhoea

Q.65


Stress ulcer can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Burns

b. Severe trauma

c. Chroni c use of NSAIDs

d. Increased intracranial pressure

Q.66


TIBC is increased in?

a. Hemolytic anemia

b. Megaloblastic anemia

c. Iron deficiency anemia

d. Anemia of chronic disease

Q.67 Which of the following is a major risk factor of Atherosclerosis?

a. Diabetes mellitus

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b. Type A personality

c. Physical inactivity

d. Unsaturated fatty diet

Q.68


Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy causes?

a. Arterial dysfunction only

b. Systolic dysfunction only

c. Diastoli c dysfunction only

d. Both systolic and diastolic dysfunction

Q.69


Most common cause of Hirsutism is?

a. Idiopathic

b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

c. Polycystic ovarian diseased. Cushing syndrome

Q.70


True regarding hyponatremia in diabetic ketoacidosis is?

a. Level of blood sugar should be taken into consideration before correctionhyponatremia

b. 3% saline is ideal fluid for correction

c. Hyponatremia is always symptomatic in beginningd. Hyponatremia is worsened by administration of insulin

Q.71


Which of the following is not true about Hypoaldosteronism?

a. Decreased sodium

b. Increased potassium

c. Decreased glucose

d. Metabolic acidosis

Q.72 Which is a laboratory feature of SIADH?

a. Deceased urine osmolarity

b. Increased urine sodium level

c. Increased serum osmolarity

d. Increased serum sodium level

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Q.73

Not Attempt Correct Ans. bbookmarkSolution

Less than 1% fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) is typically seen in?

a. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

b. Acute gastroenteritis

c. Acute interstitial nephritis

d. NSAIDs induced renal injury

Q.74


Chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis is performed?

a. Once a week

b. Twice a week

c. Thrice a week

d. Thrice a day

Q.75


Which vascular access for hemodialysis has highest long term patency rate?

a. Arteriovenous graft

b. Arteriovenous fistula

c. Double lumen jugular catheter

d. Tunneled double lumen jugular catheter

Q.76


Acute nephritis is presenting manifestation of?

a. Minimal change disease

b. Membraneous glomerulopathy

c. Wegener granul omatosis

d. Amyloidosis

Q.77 Urine microscopic examination shown in Figure is typically seen in?

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a. Nephrotic syndrome

b. Acute nephri tic syndrome

c. Acute tubular necrosis

d. Acute interstitial nephritis

Q.78


Which of the following is associated with renal scars?

a. Lithium associated n ephropathy

b. Reflux nephropathy

c. Chronic glomerulonephritis

d. Light chain cast nephropathy

Q.79


Pickwickian syndrome is a complication of?

a. Vertebral deformity

b. Obesity

c. High blood pressure

d. Raised blood sugar

Q.80


Which of the following items in history and physical examination is a risk factor for a

poor prognosis in a patient with hypertension?

a. Family history of renal failure and cerebrovascular disease

b. Persistent elevation in blood pressure after the initiation of therapy

c. Ongoing tobacco use

d. Ongoing use of alcohol

Q.81


Stoss therapy is used for?

a. Scurvy

b. Keratomalaciac. Vitamin D deficiency rickets

d. Hypophosphatemic rickets

Q.82 Cut off value of mid arm circumference below which severe malnutrition is

diagnosed in children upto 5 years of age?

a. 11cm

b. 11.5 cm

c. 12 cm

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d. 12.5 cm

Q.83


Gastric aspirate shake test is used as a bedside test for which of the following

neonatal ondition?

a. Respiratory distress syndrome

b. Tracheoesophageal fistula

c. Meconium aspiration syndromed. Transient tachypnea of newborn

Q.84


Live attenuated vaccine can be given to?

a. Children

b. Patient on steroid therapy

c. Leukemia patient

d. Patient on radiotherapy

Q.85


Bivalent meningococcal vaccine contains which strains?

a. AandC

b. AandD

c. AandB

d. BandC

Q.86


Side effect of Rotavirus vaccine is?

a. Autism

b. Meningitis

c. Intussusception

d. Persistent diarrhea

Q.87


Coagulation factor not decreased in hemorrhagic disease of newborn is?

a. Factor II

b. Factor V

c. Factor IX

d. Factor X

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Q.88


All are seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 Alpha hydroxylase

deficiency EXCEPT:

a. Hypertension

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Metabolic acidosis

d. Hyponatremia

Q.89


Most common type of intussusception in children is?

a. Ileocolic

b. Ileoileal

c. Jejunoileal

d. Colocolic

Q.90


Most common site of intestinal obstruction in newborn is?

a. Duodenum

b. Jejunum

c. Ileum

d. Colon

Q.91 Alopecia shown in Figure is seen in?

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a. Androgenic alopecia

b. Alopecia areata

c. Infective alopecia

d. Fungal alopecia

Q.92


Itching leisions shown in Figure is seen in?

a. Bullus pemphigoid

b. Pemphigus Vulgaris

c. Pemphigus Foliaceus

d. IgA Pemphigus

Q.93 Leisions shownn on hand shown in Figure is typically seen in?

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a. Pompholyx

b. Pemphigoid

c. Pemphigus

d. Scabies

Q.94


Hidradenitis of vulva occurs due to?

a. Apocrine glands

b. Sebaceous glands

c. Eccrine glands

d. Follicular epithelium

Q.95 Defect in disease shown in Figure is?

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a. Autoimmune

b. Congenital defect in migration

c. Congenital, melanocyte present but pigmentation absent

d. Congenital, melanocytes are completely absent

Q.96


Number of axis in DSM-IV are?

a. I

b. III

c. IVd. V

Q.97


Most common side effect of Electro convulsive therapy is?

a. Headache

b. Amnesia

c. Confusion

d. Depression

Q.98 Antipsychotic treatment that requires weekly assessment of WBC count is?

a. Haloperidol

b. Clozapine

c. Chlorpromazine

d. Quetiapine

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Q.99


General paresis of insane seen in?

a. Malaria

b. Syphilis

c. Neurocysticercosis

d. Prion diseases

Q.100


Technique of behaviour therapy used in specific phobia is?

a. Extinction

b. Flooding

c. Systemic desensitization

d. Exposure and response prevention

Q.101


Which one of the following is not an ionizing radiation?

a. Xrays

b. Infra Red

c. Cosmic rays

d. Gamma rays

Q.102


Sylvian point is related to?

a. Central sulcus

b. Calcarian sulcus

c. Perto occipital sulcus

d. Lateral cerebral sulcus

Q.103


Right heart border is formed by?

a. SVC and right atrium

b. SVC and left atrium

c. Right atrium and right ventricle

d. Right atrium and pulmonary trunk

Q.104 Appearance of heart on chest X ray as s een in colour Figure is seen in?

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a. Cardiomegaly

b. Pericardial effusionc. Pleural effusion

d. Tetralogy of fallot

Q.105


A definite USG feature of portal Hypertension is?

a. Portosystemic venous collateral

b. Portal vein diameter > 1.3 cm

c. Splenomegalyd. Ascites

Q.106


Term "Balanced Anesthesia" was given by?

a. James Simpson

b. WTG Morton

c. John Lundy

d. Fischer

Q.107 True about anesthetic equipment shown in Fig is?

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a. Prevents aspiration

b. Used in oral surgeries

c. Used in laryngeal surgeries

d. Maintains airway

Q.108


Which of the following is a characteristic of supreme LMA?

a. Has no bite block

b. Not used in infants

c. High pressure low volumes

d. Has built in drain tube

Q.109


Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic (EMLA) is?

a. Bupivacaine 2 % + Prilocaine 2.5 %

b. Lidocaine 2.5 % + Prilocaine 2.5 %

c. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 5%

d. Bupivacaine 0.5% + Lidocaine 2.5%

Q.110


Critical temperature of oxygen is?

a. 20° C

b. -119° C

c. 36.5° C

d. 400° C

Q.111 Most common location of peptic ulcer is?

a. Greater curvature in pyloric antrumb. Lesser curvature in pyloric antrum

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c. Posterior wall of first portion of duodenum

d. Anterior wall of first portion of duodenum

Q.112


Chronic duodenal ulcer complications are all EXCEPT:

a. Bleeding

b. Malignancy

c. Pyloric stenosisd. Perforation

Q.113


Paget's test is done for?

a. Carcinoma breast

b. Large hydrocele

c. Lipoma

d. Small cystic swell ing

Q.114


Most appropriate management of grossly contaminated contused lacerated wound

is?

a. Cleaning and primary suturing

b. Cleaning, debridement and leave open

c. Primary closure over suction drain

d. Wide excision

Q.115


Which of the following is not used for perioperative hemostasis?

a. Erythropoitin

b. Aprotinin

c. Desmopressin

d. Vitamin K

Q.116


Lethal triad of trauma is?

a. Coagulopa thy, Acidosis, Hypothermia

b. Coagulopathy, Acidosis, Hypoglycemia

c. Coagulopathy, Alkalosis, Hypoglycemia

d. Hypothermia, Acidosis, Hypoglycaemia

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Q.117


A patient suffered Head injury due to road traffic accident. His pupils became dilated

and having deep breath. What will be the next step of management ?

a. CT Scan of brain

b. MRI of brain

c. Immediate Burr hole surgery

d. Craniotomy

Q.118


Most common cause of non traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is?

a. Aneurysm

b. AV malformation

c. Hypertension

d. Intracranial tumor

Q.119


Which of the following is true about abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. Most common in females above renal artery

b. Most common in males above renal artery

c. Most common in females below renal artery

d. Most common in males below renal artery

Q.120 Most common cause of condition shown in Figure is?

a. Trauma

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b. Iatrogenic

c. Syphilis

d. Hypertension

Q.121


Most common cause of chronic arterial occlusion is?

a. Thrombo angitis obliterans

b. Vulvular heart disease

c. Trauma

d. Atherosclerosis

Q.122


A patient presents appearance of hands on exposure to cold water as shown in the

Figure. Most probable diagnosis is?

a. Frostbite

b. Raynaud'sphenomenon

c. Chilblains

d. Atherosclerosis

Q.123 Which of the following are not used in cardioplegic solution in cardiopulmonary

bypass?

a. Potassium

b. Procaine

c. Calcium

d. Blood

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Q.124

Not Attempt Correct Ans. abookmarkSolution

In a salivary gland tumour open biopsy is indicated when it is located over?

a. Palate

b. Parotid

c. Sublingual

d. Submandibular

Q.125


Denver Shunt is used for?

a. Hydrocephalus

b. Variceal bleed

c. Portal hypertension

d. Ascites

Q.126


Landmark used to identity Facial nerve during surgery?

a. Cartilaginous Pointer

b. Petrosquamous Suture

c. Processes Cochleariformis

d. Handle of malleus

Q.127


Nottinghamprognostic index is used in?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Basal cell carcinoma

c. Breast carcinoma

d. Melanoma

Q.128


Sentinel lymph node biopsy is done in?

a. Early breast cancer

b. Inflammatory breast cancer

c. Palpable lymph nodes

d. Lymph node size > 5 cm

Q.129 Fibroadenoma is seen in which age group?

a. Young

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b. Reproductive

c. Middle age

d. Elderly

Q.130


Which of the following is not a benign condition?

a. Mondor disease

b. Paget's disease

c. Duct ectasia

d. Cystosarcoma phyllodes

Q.131


Most common premalignant lesion of oral cavity is?

a. Leukoplakia

b. Sub mucosal fibrosis

c. Erythroplakiad. Oral thrush

Q.132


Most common histological subtype of carcinoma penis is?

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Transitional cell carcinoma

d. Basal call carcinoma

Q.133


Which of the following is also known as Metatypical carcinoma?

a. Melanoma


c. Basosquamou s carcinoma

d. Basoadenoid carcinoma

Q.134 Which of the following is not true about leision shown in figure ?

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a. Radi osensitive

b. Lymph node not involved

c. Facial lesion

d. Rapidly growing

Q.135


IV fluid should be given in adults above what % of burns?

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 20%d. 25%

Q.136


Teniae coli is particularly important to find appendix intraoperatively is?

a. Anterior

b. Posterior

c. Right lateral

d. Left lateral

Q.137 McBurney point on spinoumbilical line is at the junction of?

a. Medial 1/2 and lateral 1/2 '

b. Medial 1/3 and lateral 2/3

c. Medial 1/4 and lateral 3/4

d. Medial 2/3 and lateral 1/3

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Q.138


All the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children EXCEPT:

a. Gastroenteritis

b. Diverticulitis

c. Henoch schonlein purpura

d. Mesenteric lymphadenitis

Q.139


In case of appendicitis, if the pain is exacerbated on medial rotation of the thigh, the

position of appendix is?

a. Pelvic

b. Preileal

c. Paracaecal

d. Midinguinal

Q.140


Colonoscopy is not indicated in?>

a. MEN2B

b. Peutz jeghers

c. HNPCC

d. FAP

Q.141 Condition shown in Figure is?

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a. Injury to fingers while operating a gun

b. Stenosis tendovaginitis of flexor tendon or affected finger

c. A feature of carpal tunnel syndrome

d. Any of the above

Q.142


The prominent sign of Volkmann's ischemia is?

a. Painless

b. Absence of arterial pulsation

c. Development of contracture

d. Pain out of proportion

Q.143


Volkmann's ischemia most commonly involves?

a. Pronator teres

b. Flexor carpi radialis longus

c. Flexor digitorum profundus

d. Flexor digitorum superficialis

Q.144


Commonest cause of compartment syndrome is?

a. Fractures

b. Gas gangrenec. Superficial injury to muscles

d. Operative trauma

Q.145


Seven days post TKR, A 60 year old female patient died suddenly while eating food.

Post operative period was uneventful except calf pain and swelling of leg. What is the

most probable cause of death?

a. Myocardial infarction

b. Cellulitis ofleg

c. Choaking with food

d. DVT leading to pulmonary embolism

Q.146 Which of the following is not a component of CTEV?

a. Adduction

b. Inversion

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c. Eversion

d. Plantar flexion

Q.147


Orthopedic device shown in Figure is given in which case?

a. CTEV

b. CDH

c. Vertical talus

d. Genu vara

Q.148 hand deformity shown in Figure is seen in?

a. Alber schonberg disease

b. Dysphyseal adasis

c. Achondroplasia

d. Hypochondroplasia

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Q.149


Nerve involved in condition shown in Figure is?

a. Radial

b. Ulnar

c. Median

d. Posterior interrosseous nerve

Q.150


Fall from height causes which fracture of spine?

a. Ring fracture

b. Burst fracture

c. Hangman's fracture

d. Odontoid fracture

Q.151


Pott's puffy tumor refers to?

a. Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone

b. Tuberculosis of the spine

c. Actinomycosis of Maxilla

d. Odontogenic tumor of the jaw

Q.152 Gelle's test is used for?

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a. Otosclerosis

b. Nasal polyp

c. Juvenile angiofibroma

d. None

Q.153


Queckenstedt test is done for?

a. Glomus tumor b. CSF Rhinorrhoea

c. Otosclerosis

d. Acoustic neuroma

Q.154


Glomus tumor invading the vertical part of carotid canal is?

a. Type B

b. Type Cl

c. Type C2

d. Type C3

Q.155


Mastoid antrum is present in which part of temporal bone?

a. Squamous part

b. Petrous part

c. Tympanic part

d. Mastoid part

Q.156


Auditory fatigue is seen at?

a. 90 dB, 4000 Hz

b. 100 dB, 4000 Hz

c. 130 dB, 4000 Hz

d. 150 dB, 4000 Hz

Q.157 Bill bar in internal auditory meatus is a vertical ridge separating?

a. Facial nerve and cochlear nerve

b. Superior and inferior vestibular nerve

c. Facial nerve and inferior vestibular nerve

d. Facial nerve and superior vestibular nerve

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Q.158

Not Attempt Correct Ans. dbookmarkSolution

All of the following are an indication of Bone anchored hearing Aid (BAHA) except ?

a. Sensorineural hearing loss

b. Bilateral hearing loss

c. Congenital canal atresia

d. Meniere disease

Q.159


Sade grade of retraction of tympanic membrane touching the promontory is?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Q.160


Which of the following is a predisposing factor of nasal myiasis?

a. Allergic rhinitis

b. Vasomotor rhinitis

c. Atrophic rhinitis

d. Rhinitis medicomentosa

Q.161


Most common cause of cortical blindness is?

a. Unilateral occipital lobe in farction

b. Bilateral occipital lobe infarction

c. Optic tract lession

d. Ocular tumor

Q.162


Proportion of blindness caused by refractive errors in Indiais?

a. <5%

b. 6-10%

c. 11-15%

d. >15%

Q.163 Screening for trachoma done in which age group?

a. 0-5 year

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b. 5-9 year

c. 9-15

d. > 15 years

Q.164


The ophthalmic instrument shown in Figure is?

a. Maddoxwing

b. Maddox Glass

c. Field Glass

d. Maddox Rod

Q.165


Dye used to stain anterior capsule of lens is?

a. Tryptanblue

b. Methylene blue

c. Rose Bengal

d. Fluorescein sodium

Q.166 This young person suffered trauma 3 weeks before evaluation. Examination of the

traumatized eye is shown in Figure What is the treatment of condition ?

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a. Topical antibiotics

b. Topical corticosteroids

c. Acyclovir

d. Systemic antibiotics

Q.167


Which of the following is a secondary sign as per WHO classification of

Xerophthalmia?

a. Night blindness

b. Bitot spots

c. Conjunctival xerosis

d. Corneal xerosis

Q.168 Condition shown in Figure originates from?

a. Piamater

b. Duramater

c. Astrocytes

d. Arachnoid

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Q.169

Not Attempt Correct Ans. cbookmarkSolution

Vision is not affected in?

a. Papilloedema

b. Optic neuritis

c. Berlin's edema

d. Vitreous haemorrhage

Q.170


Optic nerve lesion does not causes?

a. RAPD

b. Macula sparing

c. Defective Colour vision

d. Decreased visual acuity

Q.171


Device of choice when taking a cervical smear as shown in Figure ?

a. Simon's Speculum

b. Retro Speculum

c. Cusco's Speculum

d. Sim's Speculum

Q.172


Most vulnerable period for teratogenicity during fetal development is?

a. 1st & 2nd week of gestation

b. 3rd-8th week of gestation

c. 10th - 12th week of gestation

d. 18th - 20th week of gestation

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Q.173


Which of the following can not be same in monozygotic twins?

a. Sex

b. Blood group

c. Fingerprints

d. Histocompatibility

Q.174


Treatment of choice of a 28 weeks pregnant female with pain due to fibroid of fundus

of size 10 x 10 cm is?

a. Arterial embolization

b. Hysterectomy

c. Myomectomy

d. Conservative

Q.175


Increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of neural

tube defect in the fetus?

a. Acetylcholinesterases

b. Pseudocholinesterases

c. Butyrylcholinesterase

d. Phosphatidyl esterase

Q.176


Radiologic sign shown in Fetal USG is seen in?

a. Arnold Chiari Malformation

b. Dandy walker malformation

c. Holoprosencephaly

d. Anencephaly

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Q.177


Which of the following does not belong to gestational trophoblastic tumor?

a. Chorioangioma

b. Choriocarcinoma

c. Placental site trophoblastic tumor

d. Hydatidiform mole

Q.178


Prophylactic chemotherapy in GTD done in?

a. Theca Leutin Cyst

b. High beta HCG initially

c. Excessive Bleeding

d. Partial Mole

Q.179


Latzko operation is done for?

a. Vesicovaginal fistula

b. Ureterovaginal fistula

c. Urethrovaginal fistula

d. All of the above

Q.180


Ovarian fibroma develops from?

a. Epithelium

b. Sex cord

c. Germ cells

d. Stroma

Q.181


Most common histological subtype of cancer endometrium is?

a. Mucinous carcinoma


c. Clear cell carcinoma

d. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

Q.182 Treatment of stage-I endometrial carcinoma is?

a. Surgery

b. Radiotherapy

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c. Chemotherapy

d. Hormone therapy

Q.183


Most common presentation of Vulval carcinoma is?

a. Pain

b. Non healing

c. Wart

d. ulcer Pruritus

Q.184


Uethral involvement of Vulval carcinoma without inguino femoral nodes is seen in?

a. Stage I

b. Stage II

c. Stage III

d. Stage IV

Q.185


Treatment of choice of early vulvar carcinoma is?

a. Radical vulvectomy

b. Radiotherapy

c. Chemotherapy

d. Hormone therapy

Q.186


Cut-off value for Ca-125 is?

a. 15 units/ml

b. 25 units/ml

c. 35 units/ml

d. 45 units/ml

Q.187


PIH can be prevented by?

a. Polyhydraminos

b. Twin pregnancy

c. Diabetes mellitus

d. Smoking

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Q.188


Betamethasone in pregnancy is given to prevent?

a. Prematurity

b. Cerebral palsy

c. Neonatal convulsions

d. Respiratory distress syndrome

Q.189


The widest transverse diameter of the fetal skull is?

a. Biparietal diameter

b. Bitemporal diameter

c. Sub-occipitobregmatic diameter

d. Occipito frontal diameter

Q.190


Shortest diameter of fetal head is?

a. Biparietal diameter

b. Bitemporal diameter

c. Occipitofrontal diameter

d. Suboccipitofrontal diameter

Q.191


Extremely low birth weight is defined as?

a. Upto and including 799 gms

b. Upto and including 999 gms

c. Upto and including 1499 gms

d. Upto and including 1999 gms

Q.192


Maximum diameter of pelvic inlet is?

a. Anterioposterior diameter b. Transverse diameter

c. Obstetic conjugate

d. Oblique diameter

Q.193 Which of the following is not an indication of surgery in Genital Tuberculosis?

a. Persistently dilated fallopian tubes

b. Persistent symptoms despite medical management

c. Pyometra

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d. Adhesion

Q.194


A young couple comes with history of unprotected intercourse 4 days back. Which

emergency contraceptive method should be advised?

a. Yuzpe method

b. Cu T intrauterine device

c. POP containing desogestreld. Low dose contraceptives

Q.195


Ideal contraceptive after molar pregnancy is?

a. Cu-T

b. Barrier method

c. Oral contraceptive

d. Depo - Provera

Q.196


First line treatment of infertility in PCOD is?

a. Cabergoline

b. Clomiphene

c. GNRH

d. FSH

Q.197


The volume of amniotic fluid is:

a. Is closely related to the fetal crown-rump length in the 3rd trimester of Pregnancy

b. Is increased in sever pre-eclampsia

c. Is increased in severe rhesus disease

d. Increases following amnio centesis

Q.198


Umbilical cord prolapse is associated with all the following, EXCEPT :

a. Anencephaly

b. Cephalo pelvic disproportion

c. Multiparity

d. Footing breech presentation

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Q.199


The main blood supply of the vulva is:

a. Inferior hemorrhoidal artery

b. Pudenda l artery

c. Ilioinguinal artery

d. Femoral artery

Q.200


Stages of labor

a. The first stage commences at the time of membrane rupture

b. The cervix dilates at consistent rate of 3 cm per hour in the first stage

c. The third stage end with the delivery of the placenta and membranes

d. Forceps or ventose may be useful in slow progress of the late 1st stage

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