ATPL 500 Meteorology Questions

050 – METEOROLOGY

050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE

050-01-01 Composition, extent, vertical division

8814. The troposphere is the:

A – part of the atmosphere above the stratosphereB – part of the atmosphere below the tropopauseC – boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphereD – boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere

Ref: all

Ans: B

8817. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called:

A – TropopauseB – IonosphereC – StratosphereD – Atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: A

8824. The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:

A – relative humidityB – air temperatureC – stability of airD – dew point

Ref: all

Ans: B

8876. The tropopause is a level at which:

A – vertical currents are strongestB – water vapour content is greatestC – pressure remains constantD – temperature ceases to fall with increasing height

Ref: all

Ans: D

8889. The tropopause is lower;

A – south of the equator than north of itB – in summer than winter in moderate latitudesC – over the North pole than over the equatorD – over the equator than over the South Pole

Ref: all

Ans: C

10050. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?

A – 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other gasesB – 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other gasesC – 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gasesD – 50% oxygen, 40$ nitrogen and the rest other gases

Ref: all

Ans: A

10055. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?

A – TroposphereB – TropopauseC – StratosphereD – Stratopause

Ref: all

Ans: A

10061. The thickness of the troposphere varies with:

A – latitudeB – longitudeC – rotation of the earthD – the wind

Ref: all

Ans: A

10102. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause:

A – increases and its temperature increasesB – decreases and its temperature increasesC – increases and its temperature decreasesD – decreases and its temperature decreases

Ref: all

Ans: B

10753. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from:

A – 85 to more than 200 kmB – 0 to 11 kmC – 50 to 85 kmD – 11 to 50 km

Ref: all

Ans: D

10804. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?

A – TroposphereB – Lower stratosphereC – Upper stratosphereD – Ionosphere

Ref: all

Ans: A

10825. Which one of the following statement applies to the tropopause?

A – It is, by definition, a temperature inversionB – It is, by definition, an isothermal layerC – It indicates a strong temperature lapse rateD – It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

10846. The average height of the tropopause at 50oN is about:

A – 14 kmB – 8 kmC – 11 kmD – 16 km

Ref: all

Ans: C

10851. The troposphere:

A – has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the polesB – contains all oxygen of the stratosphereC – is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphereD – reaches the same height at all latitudes

Ref: all

Ans: A

10855. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?

A – It remains constant throughout the yearB – It remains constant from north to southC – It increases from south to northD – It decreases from south to north

Ref: all

Ans: D

10896. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?

A – 40 kmB – 8 kmC – 11kmD – 16 km

Ref: all

Ans: D

15783. Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?

A – The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flownB – The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chartC – The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not importantD – Tropopause information are of no value

Ref: all

Ans: A

15790. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

A - -25oCB - -75oCC - -55oCD - -35oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

15820. Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first:

A – 5 kmB – 3 kmC – 8 kmD – 11 km

Ref: all

Ans: A

15849. What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand point?

A – HydrogenB – Water vapourC – NitrogenD – Oxygen

Ref: all

Ans: B

15850. The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of:

A – 16 km and -40oC over the polesB – 16 km and -75oC over the equatorC – 8 km and -40oC over the equatorD – 8 km and -75oC over the poles

Ref: all

Ans: B

16572. The troposphere is:

A – deepest over the equatorB – deepest over the polesC – the same depth all over the earthD – shallowest over the poles in summer

Ref: all

Ans: A

24289. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between mean sea level and a height of 5500m is:

A – 25%B – 1%C – 50%D – 99%

Ref: all

Ans: C

24425. Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?

A – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equalB – The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopauseC – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the polesD – The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause

Ref: all

Ans: D

24440. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

A – The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80oC over the Poles and approximately -40oC over the equatorB – Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occursC – in the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles than over the equatorD – The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-01-02 Temperature

8808. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

A – It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regionsB – It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regionsC – It is highest in middle latitudesD – There is no significant difference with change of latitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

8810. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most?

A – Absorption and evaporationB – Solar radiation and conduction C – Absorption and vaporisationD – Convection and condensation

Ref: all

Ans: D

8833. An outside air temperature of -35oC is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?

A – 5oC colder than ISAB – 10oC warmer than ISAC – 5oC warmer than ISAD – 10oC colder than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: D

8856. A layer can be:

A – unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstableB – stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated airC – unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated airD – stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air

Ref: all

Ans: D

8858. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48oC; according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?

A - -56.5oCB - -50oCC - -54oCD - -58oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

8864. Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:

A – exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rateB – exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rateC – is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rateD – is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate

Ref: all

Ans: B

8887. A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of:

A – the passage of cold frontB – nocturnal radiationC – advection fogD – cumulus clouds

Ref: all

Ans: B

8890. An inversion is a layer of air which is:

A – absolutely unstableB – absolutely stableC – conditionally unstableD – conditionally stable

Ref: all

Ans: B

8898. An inversion is:

A – an increase of temperature with heightB – an increase of pressure with heightC – a decrease of pressure with heightD – a decrease of temperature with height

Ref: all

Ans: A

10024. When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the

A – stability increases in the layerB – stability decreases in the layerC – wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphereD – wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: A

10028. Advection is:

A – the same as convectionB – vertical motion of airC – the same as subsidenceD – horizontal motion of air

Ref: all

Ans: D

10038. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere:

A – has a fixed value of 2oC/1000 ftB – has a fixed value of 1oC/100mC – has a fixed value of 0.65oC/100mD – varies with time

Ref: all

Ans: D

10066. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:

A – decreases with altitudeB – is almost constantC – increases with altitudeD – increases at first and decreases afterward

Ref: all

Ans: B

10068. An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:

A – increases with height at a constant rateB – increases with heightC – decreases with height at a constant rateD – remains constant with height

Ref: all

Ans: D

10074. Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?

A – Clear air turbulence at higher altitudesB – CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large seaC – Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitationD – An inversion over a large area with haze, mist

Ref: all

Ans: D

10083. An air mass is called stable when:

A – the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappearsB – the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with heightC – the pressure in a given area is constantD – the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents

Ref: all

Ans: A

10095. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?

A – SubsidenceB – InversionC – AdiabaticD – Advection

Ref: all

Ans: B

10111. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:

A – 0.5oC/100mB – 2oC/1000 ftC – 0.65oC/100mD – 1oC/100m

Ref: all

Ans: D

10122. How would you characterise an air temperature of 15oC at the 700 hPa level over western Europe?

A – Within +/-5oC of ISAB – HighC – LowD – 20oC below standard

Ref: all

Ans: C

10128. In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15oC and the temperature at 1000m/AGL is 13oC. This layer of air is:

A – unstableB – stableC – a layer of heavy turbulenceD – conditionally unstable

Ref: all

Ans: B

10130. The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100m in the International Standard Atmosphere is:

A – 0.65oCB – 1oCC – 0.5oCD – variable

Ref: all

Ans: A

10145. The radiation of the sun heats:

A – the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are presentB – the air in the troposphere directlyC – the water vapour in the air of the troposphereD – the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

10742. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?

A – Surface temperatureB – Environmental lapse rateC – Dry adiabatic lapse rateD – Pressure at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: B

10754. What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?

A – StabilityB – InstabilityC – Clear iceD – Area of active storms

Ref: all

Ans: A

10760. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:

A – winter in the afternoonB – winter during the night and early morningC – summer during the night and early morningD – summer in the afternoon

Ref: all

Ans: D

10761. The dry adiabatic lapse rate:

A – has a constant fixed valueB – is greater in summer than in winterC – is greater during the night than during the dayD – has a variable value

Ref: all

Ans: A

10802. The temperature at FL 160 is -22oC. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?

A - -4oCB - -8oCC – 0oCD - +4oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

10812. The temperature at FL 140 is -12oC. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied:

A - -9oCB - -18oCC - -6oCD - -15oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

10820. The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?

A - +2oCB - -6oCC – 0oCD - -4oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

10839. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:

A – clear and winds are strongB – clear and winds are weakC – overcast and winds are weakD – overcast and winds are strong

Ref: all

Ans: B

10861. On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately:

A – at the moment the sun risesB – half an hour before sunriseC – half an hour after sunriseD – one hour before sunrise

Ref: all

Ans: C

10862. The temperature at FL 110 is -5oC. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?

A - -3oCB - +3oCC – 0oCD - +7oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

10877. The 0o isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6oC?

A – FL 110B – FL 20C – FL 100D – FL 80

Ref: all

Ans: D

10879. A temperature of 15oC is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?

A - +4oCB - +2oCC – 0oCD - -2oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

10887. The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in:

A – cumulusB – freezing fogC – stratusD – cirrus

Ref: all

Ans: D

10894. Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature under shelter is 3oC. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be:

A – slightly above +3oCB – significantly below 0oCC – slightly below +3oCD – significantly above +3oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

15782. Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?

A – Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light windsB – Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrainC – The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold airD – Heating of the air by subsidence

Ref: all

Ans: A

15810. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?

A – increasesB – At first it increases and higher up it decreasesC – Remains constantD – Decreases

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – HighB – Within +/- 5oC of ISAC – LowD – Very low

Ref: all

Ans: A


A – HighB – LowC – Very highD – Within +/- 5oC of ISA

Ref: all

Ans: D

15851. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature:

A – increases with height more than 1oC/100m,B – decreases with height more than 1oC/100mC – increases with heightD – remains constant with height

Ref: all

Ans: C

15858. A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft’s rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to:

A – low relative humidityB – a very strong temperature inversionC – sand/dust in the enginesD – very pronounced downdrafts

Ref: all

Ans: B

15876. In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2oC per 100m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called:

A – environmental lapse rateB – saturated adiabatic lapse rateC – dry adiabatic lapse rateD – normal lapse rate

Ref: all

Ans: A

16340. In the disturbed temperate regions:

A – winters are generally mildB – the weather is mainly governed by travelling frontal depressionsC – the wet season is normally from May to SeptemberD – the surface winds are moderate westerlies

Ref: all

Ans: B

16348. Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer are caused by:

A – insulationB – advectionC – differential heating of the earth’s surfaceD – change of air mass

Ref: all

Ans: C

16351. Which of the following statements concerning the thermal wind component (TWC) is true?

A – TWC decreases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increasesB – TWC increases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increasesC – the greater the TWC, the greater the reduction in the upper windD – the greater the TWC, the greater the surface wind

Ref: all

Ans: B

16555. Which one of the following describes normal conditions?

A – Temperature decreases with height in the troposphereB – Temperature increases with height in the troposphereC – Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphereD – Temperature decreases at a similar rate in the troposphere as in the stratosphere

Ref: all

Ans: A

16556. For international aviation meteorological purposes, temperature is measured in degrees:

A – FahrenheitB – CelsiusC – AbsoluteD – Kelvin

Ref: all

Ans: B

16571. If the depth of the troposphere increases, the temperature at the tropopause must:

A – decreaseB – stay the sameC – increaseD – impossible to say

Ref: all

Ans: A

16594. Air at T = +16oC and DP = +4oC is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft mountain range and descends back to sea level on the other side. If the leeward condensation level is observed to be 8,000 ft what will be the final temperature?

A – 18oCB – 20oCC – 22oCD – 24oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24216. A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel:

A – decreases 0.65oC per 100mB – remains constantC – decreases 1oC per 100mD – becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer

Ref: all

Ans: C

24221. Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is

A – greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rateB – less than saturated adiabatic lapse rateC – less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rateD – greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate

Ref: all

Ans: A

24222. According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:

A – decreases with altitudeB – is almost constantC – increases with altitudeD – increases at first and decreases afterward

Ref: all

Ans: B

24269. For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the

A – environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rateB – environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rateC – environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rateD – dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than environmental lapse rate

Ref: all

Ans: A

24291. In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but les than dry adiabatic lapse rate – the air mass is described as being

A – conditionally unstableB – stableC – unstableD – absolutely unstable

Ref: all

Ans: A

24353. The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:

A – 2.5oC/1000 ftB – 3oC/1000 ftC – 6.5oC/1000 ftD – 2oC/1000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: D

24386. What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

A - -20oCB - -15oCC - -25oCD - -30oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-01-03 Atmospheric pressure

10035. What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?

A – Positions with the same air pressure at a given levelB – Positions with the same temperature at a given levelC – Positions with the same wind velocity at a given levelD – Positions with the same relative pressure heights

Ref: all

Ans: A

10059. In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100m increase in height:

A – is greater at higher levels than at lower levelsB – remains constant at all levelsC – is smaller at higher levels than at lower levelsD – is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL

Ref: all

Ans: C

10085. An isohypse (contour):

A – indicates the altitude of the zero degree isothermB – is the longest slope line of a frontal surfaceC – is the limit between two air masses of different temperatureD – indicates the true altitude of a pressure level

Ref: all

Ans: D

10137. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:

A – QNEB – QFEC – QNHD – QFF

Ref: all

Ans: D

10807. Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

A – It is higher in winter than in summerB – It decreases with heightC – It is higher at night than during the dayD – It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m

Ref: all

Ans: B

10822. Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal:

A – QFEB – QFFC – QNED – QNH

Ref: all

Ans: B

15780. What is approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5,500m?

A – 15m (50 ft)B – 8m (27 ft)C – 32m (105 ft)D – 64m (210 ft)

Ref: all

Ans: A

15809. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:

A – at height of observatoryB – at a determined density altitudeC – reduced to sea levelD – at flight level

Ref: all

Ans: C

15837. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems?

A – 25o – 35o

B – 10o – 15o

C – 55o – 75o

D – 35o – 55o

Ref: all

Ans: C

15877. Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct?

A – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is increasingB – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true altitude is increasingC – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 20 degrees, then true altitude is increasingD – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true altitude is increasing

Ref: all

Ans: A

16349. At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:

A – lower than at the same height in a column of cold airB – higher than at the same height in a column of cold airC – the same irrespective of the temperatureD – depends on the relative humidity

Ref: all

Ans: B

16357. Which of the following statements is true?

A – High contour values are equivalent to high pressureB – Low contour values are equivalent to high pressuresC – High contour values are equivalent to low pressureD – There is no direct relationship between contour values and pressure

Ref: all

Ans: A

16358. When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:

A – headwindB – tailwindC – port driftD – starboard drift

Ref: all

Ans: C

16363. Contour heights are:

A – true heights AGLB – true heights AMSLC – indicated heights above 1013.25 mbD – do not indicate heights at all

Ref: all

Ans: B

16364. When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is incorrect?

A – the true height of the aircraft will be fallingB – the pressure altimeter will indicate a constant valueC – the indicated height of the aircraft will be constantD – the indicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1013.25 mb is set

Ref: all

Ans: D

16436. You are making a long distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising altitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have descended. What may be the reason for this?

A – you are approaching a region of high pressureB – you are approaching a region of low pressureC – standard pressure has droppedD – temperature has increased

Ref: all

Ans: B

16438. Select the correct statement regarding the wind direction in connection with the high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere:

A – the winds blow counter clockwise around a high and clockwise in a lowB – the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lowsC – the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a lowD – the winds blow counter clockwise in both highs and lows

Ref: all

Ans: C

16439. If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the Northern Hemisphere you will:

A – drift to the rightB – drift to the leftC – experience no drift but experience a headwindD – experience no drift but experience a tailwind

Ref: all

Ans: B

16511. According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure determined from a certain pressure value. Which is this value?

A – 1013.25 hPaB – 1025.13 hPaC – Actual QFED – Actual QNH

Ref: all

Ans: A

16517. If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure difference of 100 hPa, the distance between the pressure surfaces will change if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change. In which of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure interact to shorten the distance as much as possible?

A – The temperature increases and pressure increasesB – The temperature decreases and pressure increasesC – The temperature increases and pressure decreasesD – The temperature decreases and pressure decreases

Ref: all

Ans: B

16534. Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:

A – IsothermsB – IsoplethsC – IsobarsD – Isotachs

Ref: all

Ans: C

16544. A pressure difference of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height difference of:

A – about 50mB – about 150mC – about 300ftD – about 30ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

16587. A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:

A – reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in densityB – maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressureC – maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volumeD – reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume

Ref: all

Ans: D

24345. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?

A – 1016 hPaB – More than 1016 hPaC – Less than 1016 hPaD – It is not possible to give a definitive answer

Ref: all

Ans: B

24431. Which of the following statements is correct?

A – Cumulus clouds and a good viability are normally observed in a warm sector in winterB – Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in autumnC – Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front, the air temperature risesD – At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-01-04 Atmospheric density

10146. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude?

A – When the altimeter has no position errorB – At sea level when the temperature is 0oCC – At standard temperatureD – When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: C

15779. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35oC. The air density at this level is:

A – unable to be determined without knowing the QNHB – greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180C – less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180D – equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180

Ref: all

Ans: B

16525. What happens if density altitude is 3000 ft at an airport whose elevation is 1000 ft?

A – Take off and landing performance will be unaffectedB – The altimeter will indicate 3000 ft when the aircraft is on the groundC – Take off and landing performance will be about the same as for an airport with an elevation of 3000 ftD – Indicated speed at 50 kt on take off and landing will be higher than in a standard atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: C

24454. With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases with increasing:

A – relative humidityB – air pressureC – stabilityD – temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-01-05 International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)

8840. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:

A - -44.7oCB - -273oCC - -58.5oCD - -100oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

8850. A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable?

A – FL 180B – FL 160C – FL 100D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: A


A – FL 100B – FL 180C – FL 300D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: A

8882. The temperature at 10000 ft in the International Standard Atmosphere is:

A - -20oCB – 0oCC - -5oCD - -35oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

8884. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2oC, at what altitude will the freezing level be?

A – FL 110B – FL 130C – FL 150D – FL 90

Ref: all

Ans: A


A – FL 300B – FL 100C – FL 50D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: C

10120. If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15oC warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

A - -30oCB - -45oCC - -60oCD - -15oC

Ref: all

Ans: A

10125. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is:

A – 1oC per 100mB – 0.65oC per 100mC – 0.5oC per 100mD – 0.6oC per 100m

Ref: all

Ans: B

10127. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere?

A – 2oC per 1000mB – 4.5oC per 1000mC – 3oC per 1000mD – 6.5oC per 1000m

Ref: all

Ans: D

10136. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable?

A – FL 50B – FL 300C – FL 100D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – FL 100B – FL 390C – FL 300D – FL 50

Ref: all

Ans: C

19763. If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10oC warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

A - +15oCB - +5oCC - -10oCD - -15oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

10888. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

A – At MSL temperature is 15oC and pressure is 1013.25 hPaB – At MSL temperature is 15oC and the decrease in temperature with height is 1oC per 100mC – At MSL temperature is 10oC and the decrease in temperature with height is 1oC Ref: all

Ref: AllAns: A

24253. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:

A - -44.7oCB - -273oCC - -56.5oCD - -100oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24336. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of:

A - 2oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft after which it will remain constant to 104987 ftB – 1.98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then rise at 0.3oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft when it will remain constantC – 1,98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft after which it remains constant to 65617 ftD – 2oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then increase at 0.3oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-01-06 Altimetry

8807. In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 ft. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is:

A – 942 hPaB – 967 hPaC – 961 hPaD – 948 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: A

8811. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level?

A – It will increaseB – It will decreaseC – It will remain the sameD – It will not be affected

Ref: all

Ans: B

8815. The QNH level at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?

A – Less than 1009 hPaB – 1009 hPaC – More than 1009 hPaD – It is not possible to give a definitive answer

Ref: all

Ans: C

8818. An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately:

A – 7650 ftB – 8600 ftC – 8350 ftD – 8000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: A

8829. The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?

A – It is not possible to give a definitive answerB – Less than 1030 hPaC – 1030 hPaD – More than 1030 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: D

8834. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:

A – 1200 ftB – 1375 ftC – 1105 ftD – 1280 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

8836. The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000 (-12) 18000 (-11), 16000 (-10), 14000 (-10), 12000 (-6), 10000 (-2), 8000 (+2), 6000 (+6), 4000 (+12), 2000 (+15), surface (+15).

A – The layer between 16000 and 18000 ft is absolutely unstableB – The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 ftC – The temperature at 10000 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard AtmosphereD – Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude

Ref: all

Ans: D

8842. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate?

A – 1080 ftB – 700 ftC – 380 ftD – 0 ft

Ref: all

Ans: A

8843. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ft. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013.2 hPa)?

A – ISA + 12oCB – ISA +/- 0oCC – ISA +20oCD – ISA -20oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

8845. The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if:

A – the outside air temperature is standard for that heightB – standard atmospheric conditions occurC – the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surfaceD – the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

8861. Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown?

A – Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitudeB – Atmospheric pressure lower than standardC – Air temperature higher than standardD – Air temperature lower than standard

Ref: all

Ans: C

8863. What pressure is defined as QFE?

A – The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperaturesB – The pressure of the altimeterC – The pressure at field elevationD – The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

Ref: all

Ans: C

8867. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transiktion altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?

A – It is not possible to give a definitive answerB – It will increaseC – It will remain the sameD – It will decrease

Ref: all

Ans: D

8870. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude?=

A – It remains constantB – It increasesC – It decreases

D – Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be answered

Ref: all

Ans: C

8875. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?

A – Elevation and the temperature at the airfieldB – Temperature at the airfieldC – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSLD – Elevation of the airfield

Ref: all

Ans: D

8879. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?


Ref: all

Ans: C

10030. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?

A – 20660 feetB – 19310 feetC – 21740 feetD – 18260 feet

Ref: all

Ans: B

10046. The QNH at an airfield located 6 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?

A – It is not possible to give a definitive answerB – Less than 1022 hPaC – More than 1022 hPaD – 1022 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: D

10049. Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?

A – QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)B – QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)C – QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 ft (488m)D – QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)

Ref: all

Ans: C

10052. Which statement is true?

A – QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSLB – QNH cannot be 1013.25 hPaC – QNH is lower than 1013.25 at any timeD – QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.5 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: D

10079. When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates:

A – zero while landingB – elevation while landingC – elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard AtmosphereD – zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: B

10087. A vertical spacing of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15oC), what would the true vertical separation be?

A – More than 1000 ftB – It remains 1000 ftC – Less than 1000 ftD – Without QNH information, it cannot be determined

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C

10090. The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?

A – More than 1018 hPaB – Less than 1018 hPaC – 1018 hPaD – It is not possible to give a definitive answer

Ref: all

Ans: A

10091. You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10oC warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?



Ans: B

10101. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?

A – 15900 ftB – 13830 ftC – 14370 ftD – 14100 ft


Ans: D

10113. QNH is defined as:

A – The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphereB – The pressure at MSL, obtained using the actual conditionsC – QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditionsD – QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

10124. At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?

A – In a cold low pressure regionB – At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPaC – At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 hPaD – In a warm high pressure region


Ans: B

10140. The QNH is equal to the QFE if:

A – T actual < T standardB – T actual = T standardC – T actual > T standardD – the elevation = 0

Ref: all

Ans: D

10147. The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15oC below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100?

A – 9740 ftB – 10160 ftC – 8640 ftD – 11460 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

10162. The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 ft, the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be:

A – 20 ftB – 11 ftC - -10 ftD – 560 ft


Ans: A

10165. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?

A – It is colder than ISAB – There is insufficient information to make any assumptionC – It is warmer than ISAD – Its average temperature is the same as ISA

Ref: all

Ans: B

10735. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit?

A – The same altitude as the elevation of the summitB – A lower altitude than the elevation of the summitC – A higher altitude than the elevation of the summitD – There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion


Ans: C

10740. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit’s elevation?

A – There is insufficient information to come to a conclusionB – A higher altitude than the elevation of the summitC – The same altitude as the elevation of the summitD – A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit


Ans: D

10798. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?

A – It is not possible to give a definitive answerB – More than 1016 hPaC – 1016 hPaD – Less than 1016 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: D

10799. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known?

A – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfieldB – Temperature at the airfieldC – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSLD – Elevation of the airfield

Ref: all

Ans: D

10803. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?


Ref: all

Ans: B

10808. What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?

A – Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISAB – Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISAC – Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISAD – Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA


Ans: A

10813. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?

A – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusionB – Its average temperature is about ISAC – It is colder than ISAD – It is warmer than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: D

10816. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?

A – Cold highB – Warm depressionC – Cold lowD – Warm high

Ref: all

Ans: C

10830. An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:

A – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be testedB – the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at MarseilleC – the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at MarseilleD – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect

Ref: all

Ans: C

10835. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?

A – Its average temperature is the same as ISAB – It is colder than ISAC – It is warmer than ISAD – There is insufficient information to make any assumption

Ref: all

Ans: B10836. If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA

10oC in the lower troposphere up to 18000 ft, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?

A – 6240 ftB – 6000 ftC – 5900 ftD – 5760 ft


Ans: A

10853. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is:

A – 120 metresB – 600 metresC – 540 metresD – 160 metres

Ref: all

Ans: D

10858. If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?


Ref: all

Ans: C

10859. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?


Ref: all

Ans: B

10864. An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be:

A – 2922 ftB – 3006 ftC – 4278 ftD – 4194 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

10865. You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27oC and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?


Ref: all

Ans: B

10868. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken?

A – None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around MarseilleB – Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrongC – Re-check the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrongD – Compensate by heading further to the left


Ans: A

10873. During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:

A – the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de MallorcaB – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be testedC – the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de MallorcaD – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect


Ans: C

10876. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?

A – One of the QNH values must be wrongB – The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de MallorcaC – The altimeter is faultyD – The aircraft is being blown off track to the left


Ans: B

10881. You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 ft/AMSL. The air is on an average 15oC colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?

A – 15690 ftB – 16230 ftC – 14370 ftD – 13830 ft


Ans: B

15812. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 ft below sea level?

A – QFE equals QNHB – No clear relationship existsC – QFE is greater than QNHD – QFE is smaller than QNH

Ref: all

Ans: C15824. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The

air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?

A – Less than 1022 hPaB – It is not possible to give a definitive answerC – More than 1022 hPaD – 1022 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: B

15825. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1016 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m)


Ref: all

Ans: B

15826. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local QNHY is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?

A – It is warmer than ISAB – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusionC – Its average temperature is the same as ISAD – It is colder than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: C

15827. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?

A – It will decreaseB – It will remain the sameC – It is not possible to give a definitive answerD – It will increase

Ref: all

Ans: D

15828. (Refer to figure 050-14)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?

A – Wind speed at A and at B is the sameB – The true altitude will be higher at A than at BC – The true altitude will be higher at B than at AD – Wind speed at A is higher than at B

Ref: all

Ans: B

15836. After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013.2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level?


Ref: all

Ans: B


A – QNH is always lower than QFEB – QNH is always higher than QFEC – QNH is always equal to QFED – QNH can be equal to QFE

Ref: all

Ans: D

15857. You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 ft is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale?

A – 4000 ftB – Less than 0 ftC – 0 ftD – More than 0 ft, but less than 4000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

15889. Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates:

A – the height of the aircraft’s wheels above the runwayB – in standard atmosphere the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevationC – the flight levelD – the aircraft’s altitude above the mean sea level

Ref: all

Ans: B

16504. Suppose that you are flying at FL 40 and that you reset the altimeter to reference pressure 993 hPa. The altimeter then indicates:

A – about 3,400 ftB – about 3,700 ftC – about 4,300 ftD – about 4,600 ft

Ref: all

Ans: A

16505. In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the airport elevation when landing?

A – If QFF of the airport is set as referenceB – If QFE of the airport is set as referenceC – If QNH of the airport is set as referenceD – At standard setting

Ref: all

Ans: C

16506. A pressure altimeter can indicate different altitudes depending on the setting. Regardless of setting it can generally be said that it indicates:

A – altitude above mean sea level at +15oCB – altitude in the standard atmosphere at +15oCC – altitude corresponding to difference between reference pressure and the pressure where the instrument isD – height above terrain

Ref: all

Ans: C

16509. If an aircraft, without changing altimeter reference, flies so that the altimeter all the time indicates the same altitude, this always means that :

A – the actual height above the mean ground level is unchangedB – the air pressure around the aircraft is unchangedC – the actual altitude above sea level is unchangedD – the air pressure at sea level is unchanged

Ref: all

Ans: B

16510. At an airport 1700 ft above sea level the temperature reading is +10oC from the barometer readings made at the same time QFE, QFF and QNH are computed. Which of the following statements concerning air pressure is correct?

A – QFF is higher than QNHB – QFF is equal to QNHC – QFF is equal to QFED – QNH is equal to QFE

Ref: all

Ans: A

16512. When landing at an airport you have correctly set QNH = 1023 hPa as reference pressure on your altimeter. The altimeter indicates 1200 ft after landing. Suppose that you change the pressure reference to standard setting (1013 hPA) what will your altimeter indicate?

A – 0 ftB – 900 ftC – 1200 ftD – 1500 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

16514. What will the altimeter indicate if the actual altitude is to be 10000 ft when the pressure altitude is 10000 ft at OAT = -30oC?

A – 9000 ftB – 10,000 ftC – 11,000 ftD – 12,000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

16515. A barometric altimeter always indicates:

A – correct altitude to the terrain belowB – altitude to the set altitude referenceC – standard altitudeD – the dynamic pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

16516. Suppose that you want your altimeter on landing to indicate airport elevation which of the following pressures will you use as reference?

A – Standard (1013.25)B – QFEC – QFFD – QNH

Ref: all

Ans: D

16520. A pressure altimeter indicates:

A – actual altitude above MSLB – actual altitude above the terrain belowC – the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the actual atmosphereD – the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the standard atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

16521. You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your altimeter setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a minimum a true altitude?

1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that of an area of high pressure2) Flying from an area of high pressure to that of an area of low pressure3) Flying from a warm air mass to a cold air mass4) Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass

A – 1, 3B – 2, 4C – 1, 4D – 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

16522. You are flying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5600 ft. Airport elevation = 2785 ft. The altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are crossing the airport at a height above ground of:(standard pressure setting = 1013 hPa, 1 hPa = 30 ft)

A – 5000 ftB – 5600 ftC – 2815 ftD – 2215 ft


Ans: C

16523. Your pressure altimeter is set at 1000 hPa. You have been cleared to join the traffic circuit at 2600 ft and received current QNH = 1010 hPa. You join the circuit at 2600 ft but forget to reset your altimeter. Other aircraft with correct altimeter settings indicating 2600 ft in the circuit will, compared to you, be flying:

A – 300 ft aboveB – 300 ft belowC – 100 ft aboveD – 100 ft below


Ans: B

16524. At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at QNH for the airport, should read:

A – the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temperatureB – the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperatureC – zero, regardless of temperatureD – zero, only at standard ISA temperature

Ref: all

Ans: A

16526. Which factors below increase density altitude for a given aerodrome:

1) Decreasing air pressure2) Increasing air pressure3) Decreasing temperature4) Increasing temperature

A – 1, 2B – 1, 4C – 2, 3D – 2, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

16527. Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take off run, if the airports have the same QNH?

A – High temperature and low airport elevationB – Low temperature and low airport elevationC – High temperature and high airport elevationD – Low temperature and high airport elevation

Ref: all

Ans: B

16535. On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH is set

A – airfield elevation; airfield altitudeB – zero ft; airfield altitudeC – zero ft; airfield heightD – zero ft; airfield elevation

Ref: all

Ans: D16536. If flying North with easterly drift, an aircraft’s altimeter will progressively:

A – under-readB – over-readC – remain correctD – impossible to say – it depends on the atmospheric pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

16541. An aircraft is flying at FL 75 over point A where the QNH is 1013 hPa, enroute to B where the QNH is 979 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa equals 30 ft

and that point B is 823 metres AMSL the terrain clearance over B is:

A – 6480 ftB – 4280 ftC – 3780 ftD – 5680 ft


Ans: C

16543. An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5000 ft from X (elevation 850 ft, QNH 984 hPA) to Y (elevation 2300 ft QNH 1024 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 30 ft, the height of the aircraft over X and Y will be:

A – 5000 ft; 3900 ftB – 4150 ft; 3900 ftC – 4150 ft; 1500 ftD – 5000 ft; 1500 ft


Ans: B

16568. The barometric reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors:

A – temperature, index, instrumentB – index, temperature, pressureC – instrument, gravity, temperatureD – instrument, temperature, pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – The true altitude will be higher at B than at AB – The true altitude will be higher at A than at BC – Wind speed at A is higher than at BD – Wind speed at A and at B is the same

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – Wind speed at B is higher than at AB – The true altitude will be higher at A than at BC – Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at AD – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – Wind speed at B is higher than at AB – The true altitude will be higher at A than at BC – Wind speed at A and at B is the sameD – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

Ref: all

Ans: D

24229. An aeroplane flies at flight level 40.Elevation of the aerodrome: 990 ftQNH 976 hPaThe tower clears the pilot to fly at 3000 ft QNHWhich of the following statements is correct?

A – Only a small change of altitude is necessaryB – The aeroplane has to climb about 1000 ftC – The aeroplane has to descend about 1000 ftD – The aeroplane has to descend about 2000 ft


Ans: A

24236. An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?

A – 1042B – 996C – 1013D – 1030

Ref: all

Ans: D

24237. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360 ft/AMSL – QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 ft/AMSL –QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface is:

A – 4815 ftB – 3135 ftC – 4485 ftD – 5175 ft


Ans: C

24238. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5500 ft from A (1050 ft/AMSL – QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 ft/AMSL – QNH 1016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 968 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface is:

A – 4854 ftB – 6796 ftC – 6146 ftD – 7446 ft


Ans: C

24239. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 ft from A (600 ft/AMSL – QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 ft/ALMSL – QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface is:

A – 4625 ftB – 6515 ftC – 5555 ftD – 5225 ft


Ans: A

24240. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 7500 ft from A (270 ft/AMSL – QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1650 ft/AMSL – QNH 983 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 1021 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface:

A – 6204 ftB – 4824 ftC – 6876 ftD – 6474 ft


Ans: B

24273. Given:Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPaAltimeter reading: 5000 ftOutside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5oCQFE: 958 hPaQNH: 983 hPa

What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?

A – 4325 ftB – 4190 ftC – 3515 ftD – 4865 ft


Ans: C

24280. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,

A – the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSLB – the conditions must be as in the ISAC – the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISAD – the airport must be at MSL

Ref: all

Ans: D

24313. Pressure altitude is obtained by:

A – setting the altimeter to QFF pressureB – correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISAC – setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea levelD – setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

24408. Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level?

A – FL 300B – FL 390C – FL 100D – FL 50

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – FL 390B – FL 300C – FL 100D – FL 50

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – FL 100B – FL 160C – FL 180D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – FL 300B – FL 180C – FL 100D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – FL 100B – FL 50C – FL 300D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: B

24456. You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true altitude will:

A – increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your routeB – decreaseC – decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your routeD – increase

Ref: all

Ans: D

24458. You are flying over the sea at FL 250 and measure an outside temperature of –50oC. The pressure at sea level is 10213 hPa. What is your approximate true altitude calculated using normal vertical change in temperature with increase in height?

A – 23770 ft/AMSLB – 26230 ft/AMSLC – 26770 ft/AMSLD – 23230 ft/AMSL


Ans: A

050-02 WIND

050-02-01 Definition and measurement

8940. What is the approximate speed of a 40 knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

A – 25 m/secB – 15 m/secC – 20 m/secD – 30 m/sec

Ref: all

Ans: C

8944. (Refer to figure 050-98)

What does zone A depict?

A – A troughB – A ridgeC – The warm sectorD – The cold front

Ref: all

Ans: A

8947. What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?

A – Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmhB – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knotsC – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmhD – Direction relative to true north and speed in knots

Ref: all

Ans: D

8952. The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because:

A – the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient forceB – contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper airC – the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure systemD – the friction of the air with the earth’s surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the gradient force

Ref: all

Ans: A

8953. During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anti-cyclonic conditions, the:

A – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoonB – surface wind speed tends to be highest at nightC – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoonD – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon

Ref: all

Ans: A

8963. (Refer to figure 050-10) Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B?

A – 2B – 3C – 4D – 1

Ref: all

Ans: B

8988. (Refer to figure 050-101)On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?

A – Zurich-RomeB – London-ZurichC – Zurich-CopenhagenD – Paris-Bordeaux

Ref: all

Ans: A

8994. Wind is caused by?

A – Mixing of frontsB – Horizontal pressure differenceC – Earth rotationD – Surface friction

Ref: all

Ans: B

9000. (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone C depict?


Ref: all

Ans: C

10561. (Refer to figure 050-108)What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL 340?

A – 145 ktB – 340 ktC – 95 ktD – 140 km/h

Ref: all

Ans: A

10562. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?

A – Coriolis forceB – Surface frictionC – The greater density of the air at the surfaceD – The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: B

10600. (Refer to figure 050-71)What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?

A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areasB – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditionsC – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittentlyD – Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds

Ref: all

Ans: B

10600. (Refer to figure 050-71)What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?

A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areasB – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditionsC – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittentlyD – Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds

Ref: all

Ans: A

10632. What is the approximate speed of a 25 knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?

A – 60 km/hB – 35 km/hC – 55 km/hD – 45 km/h

Ref: all

Ans: D

10648. What prevents air from flowing directly from high pressure areas to low pressure areas?

A – The pressure gradient forceB – Surface frictionC – Katabatic forceD – Coriolis force

Ref: all

Ans: D

10687. What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots:

A – 55 ktB – 50 ktC – 60 ktD – 70 kt

Ref: all

Ans: B

10702. The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:

A – curvature of isobarsB – frictionC – horizontal temperature gradientsD – slope of pressure surfaces

Ref: all

Ans: A

10783. (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone B depict?


Ref: all

Ans: D

15860. In an area of Converging air in low level:

A – convective clouds can be dissolvedB – stratified clouds can be dissolvedC – clouds cannot be formedD – clouds can be formed

Ref: all

Ans: D

15862. What relationship exists between the wind at 3,000 feet and the surface wind?

A – The wind at 3,000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weakerB – They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by frictionC – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern hemisphereD – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: A

16597. Which of the following statements is NOT-TRUE?

The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere onlyB – The geostrophic force is the same as the Coriolis forceC – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern hemisphereD – The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in both hemispheres

Ref: all

Ans: D

16600. Buys Ballots Law implies that:

A – the wind blows anti-clockwise round depressions in both hemispheresB – the wind blows clockwise round an anti-cyclone in the southern hemispheresC – the wind blows clockwise round a depression in the southern hemisphere onlyD – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern Hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or moreB – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutesC – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutesD – The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: D

24219. A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of

A – 10 m/secB – 40 m/secC – 10 km/hD – 50 km/h

Ref: all

Ans: A

24294. In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:

A – direct from high to low pressure areasB – clockwise around anti-cyclones and cyclonesC – clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anti-cyclonesD – clockwise around anti-cyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones

Ref: all

Ans: D

24297. In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (vst), the wind speed around a high pressure system (vhigh) and the wind speed around a low pressure system (vlow) in the southern hemisphere are being compared while pressure gradient and latitude are:

A – vst < vhigh and vst < vlowB – vst > vhigh and vst < vlowC – vst < vhigh and vst > vlowD – vst > vhigh and vst > vlow

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-02-02 Primary cause of wind2849. For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?

A – greater at 60oN than at 30oNB – greater at 30oN than at 60oNC – equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal componentD – the same at all latitudes north or south of 15o

Ref: all

Ans: B

8918. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same):

A – always higherB – higher if curvature is anti-cyclonicC – always lowerD – higher if curvature is cyclonic

Ref: all

Ans: B

8965. What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together?

A – Strong and parallel to the isobarsB – Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobarsC – Strong the flowing across the isobarsD – Moderate and parallel to the isobars

Ref: all

Ans: C8993. In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?

A – Wind from the leftB – Wind from the rightC – Tailwind with no driftD – Headwind with no drift

Ref: all

Ans: B

10606. Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:

A – straight lines and no friction is involvedB – curved lines and no friction is involvedC – straight lines and friction is involvedD – curved lines and friction is involved

Ref: all

Ans: A

10631. The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the:

A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradientB – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradientC – coriolis force is added to the pressure gradientD – coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force

Ref: all

Ans: A

10644. For the same pressure gradient at 60oN, 50oN and 40oN the speed of the geostrophic wind will be:

A greatest at 40oNB – the same at all latitudesC – greatest at 60oND – least at 50oN

Ref: all

Ans: A

10645. Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in:

A – falling pressure and likely dissipation of cloudsB – rising pressure and likely formation of cloudsC – rising pressure and likely dissipation of cloudsD – falling pressure and likely formation of clouds

Ref: all

Ans: D

10649. Under anti-cyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is:

A – less than the geostrophic windB – greater than the geostrophic windC – the same as the thermal componentD – proportional only to the coriolis force

Ref: all

Ans: B

10656. The greater the pressure gradient the:

A – further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the windB – closer the isobars and the stronger the windC – closer the isobars and the lower the temperaturesD – further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

10692. Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft’s true altitude?

A – Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answeredB – It increasesC – It remains constantD – It decreases

Ref: all

Ans: D

10697. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be:

A – strongB – blowing perpendicular to the isobarsC – changing direction rapidlyD – light

Ref: all

Ans: A

10698. Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart?

A – When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are strongerB – Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobarsC – Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperatureD – When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds

Ref: all

Ans: A

10701. Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

A – Pressure gradient force, coriolis forceB – Friction force, pressure gradient force, coriolis forceC – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, centrifugal forceD – Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force

Ref: all

Ans: A

10719. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure?

A – To the leftB – BehindC – In frontD – To the right

Ref: all

Ans: C

10777. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?

A – At the centre of a high pressure systemB – At the centre of a low pressure systemC – In the transition zone between two air massesD – Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months

Ref: all

Ans: C

15863. The geostrophic wind depends on:

A – density, earth’s rotation, geographic latitudeB – earth’s rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal forceC – geographic latitude, centripetal force, heightD – centripetal force, height, pressure gradient

Ref: all

Ans: A

15865. The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the:

A – density of the airB – horizontal pressure gradientC – curvature of isobarsD – sine of latitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

15866. Geostrophic wind:

A – always increases with increasing heightB – veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphereC – is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient forceD – is directly proportional to the density of the air

Ref: all

Ans: C

16595. A pressure gradient is said to exist when:

A – two columns of air have different temperaturesB – surface pressure is compared at two different points on the earth’s surfaceC – two points at the same level have a different atmospheric pressureD – two points on the earth’s surface have the same isobar passing through them

Ref: all

Ans: C

16596. The pressure gradient force acts:

A – parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern hemisphere)B – perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind itC – perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressureD – parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure

Ref: all

Ans: C

16598. The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in balance, is:

A – the gradient windB – the coriolis windC – the geostrophic windD – the surface

Ref: all

Ans: C

16599. A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions:

A – straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no frictionB – uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2000 ft windC – circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no frictionD – parallel isobars, constant pressure field, no friction

Ref: all

Ans: A

16601. For a given latitude, which of the following statements is true:

A – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects its speed and directionB – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects speed but not directionC – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects direction but not speedD – none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent force

Ref: all

Ans: C

16602. With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?

A – The geostrophic force decreases near the polesB – The geostrophic force is non-existent at the equatorC – The geostrophic force varies in direct proportion to the wind speedD – The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles

Ref: all

Ans: A

16603. The gradient wind:

A – blows across the isobars when there is a surface pressure gradientB – is the 2000 ft geostrophic windC – is the surface wind affected by frictionD – blows parallel to curved isobars due to a combination of the pressure gradient force, geostrophic force and cyclostrophic force

Ref: all

Ans: D

16604. The effect of curved isobars on geostrophic wind speed correction is:

A – greater at high latitudesB – greater at low altitudesC – less at high latitudesD – no effect

Ref: all

Ans: C

16605. The gradient wind is:

A – less that the geostrophic wind around a lowB – more than the geostrophic wind around a lowC – less that the geostrophic wind around a highD – none of the above

Ref: all

Ans: A

16606. In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:

A – back and decreaseB – veer and decreaseC – back and increaseD – veer and increase

Ref: all

Ans: A

16607. Which of the following statements is untrue?

A – At night the surface wind is lighter in speed and more inclined towards low pressureB – Over land, the surface wind is backed by 15o to the isobars and is 2/3 geostrophic speedC – The steeper the pressure gradient, the less marked the nocturnal effectD – At night, the wind can be geostrophic down to 1000 ft or less

Ref: all

Ans: B

24270. For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50oN and 30oN the gradient wind speed will be least at latitude:

A – 30oN in an anti-cycloneB – 50oN in an anti-cycloneC – 30oN with a cyclonic circulationD – 50oN with a cyclonic circulation

Ref: all

Ans: D

24398. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface wind to:

A – back and increaseB – back and decreaseC – veer and decreaseD – veer and increase

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-02-03 General circulation

8941. Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of:

A – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical convergence zone over central AustraliaB – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and AntarcticaC – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rainD – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

8968. (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone U is in area of:

A – SW trade windsB – travelling depressionsC – NE trade windsD – sub-tropical high pressure

Ref: all

Ans: C

8976. (Refer to figure 050-100)Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome at FL 170:

A – 200/50 ktB – 230/40 ktC – 060/50 ktD – 030/35 kt

Ref: all

Ans: B

8998. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the sub-tropical high pressure belt?

A – 55o – 75o

B – 10o – 15o

C – 35o – 55o

D – 25o – 35o

Ref: all

Ans: D

10566. In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10oN and 20oN the prevailing winds are:

A – NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summerB – NE trade windsC – SE trade windsD – SW winds throughout the whole year

Ref: all

Ans: B

10576. The average slope of a cold front is in the order of:

A – 1:150B – 1:250C – 1:500D – 1:80

Ref: all

Ans: D

10650. (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone Y is an area of:

A – SE trade windsB – NE trade windsC – travelling low pressure systemsD – sub-tropical high pressure systems

Ref: all

Ans: C

10670. (Refer to figure 050-107)What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:

A – 360/80 ktB – 030/70 ktC – 190/75 ktD – 340/90 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A

10781. (Refer to figure 050-107)What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?

A - -55oCB - -51oCC - -63oCD - -47oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

10790. (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone T is an area of:

A – NE trade windsB – SE trade windsC – travelling low pressure systemsD – sub-tropical high pressure systems

Ref: all

Ans: C

15861. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?

A – If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitudeB – If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitudeC – If you have a head wind you are gaining altitudeD – If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

16437. Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface wind in relation to the air pressure in the Northern hemisphere?

A – The wind over land blows parallel to the isobarsB – The wind around a high pressure blows clockwise and slants across the isobars towards higher pressureC – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the isobars towards lower pressureD – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a low

Ref: all

Ans: C

24262. During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the:

A – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoonB – surface wind speed tends to be highest at nightC – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the mid-afternoonD – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid-afternoon

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-02-04 Turbulence

8933. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?

A – Altocumulus lenticularisB – StratocumulusC – CirrocumulusD – Nimbostratus

Ref: all

Ans: A

8981. Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?

“There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0g at the aircraft’s centre of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult.”

A – SevereB – LightC – ModerateD – Violent

Ref: all

Ans: C

8983. What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?

A – Moderate turbulence in NS cloudB – Severe turbulence in CB cloudC – Light turbulence in CB cloudD – Light turbulence in ST cloud

Ref: all

Ans: B

10676. On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced:

A – immediately after sunsetB – during the early afternoonC – during early morning hours before sunshineD – about mid-morning

Ref: all

Ans: B

10728. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:

A – a high risk of thunderstormsB – poor visibility at surfaceC – smooth flying conditions below the cloud levelD – turbulence at and below the cloud level

Ref: all

Ans: D

16329. If a strong wind perpendicular to a ridge decreases or reverses in direction at medium and high levels the likely result is:

A – travelling rotors with very severe turbulenceB – stationary rotors with very severe turbulenceC – stationary rotors with light turbulenceD – travelling rotors with light turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-02-05 Variation of wind with height

8913. If Paris reports a wind of 08010 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?

A – 11020 ktB – 08015 ktC – 05020 ktD – 08005 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A

8955. You are flying at 2500 ft/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?

A – SouthB – South-southwestC – SouthwestD – South-southeast

Ref: all

Ans: D

8962. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure area because:

A – turbulence is formed and pressure decreasesB – the pressure gradient increasesC – turbulence is formed and pressure increasesD – wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases

Ref: all

Ans: D

8996. In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows:

A – from a low pressure area to a high pressure areaB – counter-clockwise around, and towards the centre of, a low pressure areaC – clockwise around, and away from the centre of a low pressure areaD – counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area

Ref: all

Ans: B

10647. In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by:

A – the imbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the coriolis forceB – centripetal forcesC – frictional forcesD – the curvature of the isobars

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – 16020 ktB – 22030 ktC – 25025 ktD – 22010 kt

Ref: all

Ans: B

10671. At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind:

A – veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layerB – backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layerC – veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layerD – backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer

Ref: all

Ans: C

10693. In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24 over the sea the surface wind would approximate:

A – 340/20B – 030/20C – 240/28D – 030/28

Ref: all

Ans: A

10725. The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anti-cyclone because the:

A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradientB – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradientC – effect of coriolis is added to frictionD – coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – 30025 ktB – 23030 ktC – 33025 ktD – 27020 kt

Ref: all

Ans: C

10797. If Paris reports a wind of 16020 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground:

A – 14020 ktB – 16030 ktC – 19040 ktD – 17015 kt

Ref: all

Ans: C

15789. Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 ft AGL are south westerly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?

A – A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudesB – Stronger coriolis force at the surfaceC – The influence of warm air at the lower altitudeD – Friction between the wind and the surface

Ref: all

Ans: D

15838. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?

A – Tail windB – Head windC – Crosswind from the leftD – Crosswind from the right

Ref: all

Ans: C

15859. During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage) the wind normally:

A – veers and decreasesB – backs and decreasesC – veers and increasesD – backs and increases

Ref: all

Ans: B

15864. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:

A – wind speed, roughness of surface, temperatureB – roughness of surface, temperature, local timeC – temperature, local time environmental lapse rateD – stability, wind speed, roughness of surface

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-02-06 Local winds

8905. Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant?

A – There is a cross wind from the rightB – There is a cross wind from the leftC – There is no cross windD – Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question cannot be answered

Ref: all

Ans: C

8927. An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?

A – From the left and slightly on the tailB – From the right and slightly on the noseC – From the right and slightly on the tailD – From the left and slightly on the nose

Ref: all

Ans: D

8942. In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:

A – during the day up from the valleyB – at night up from the valleyC – during the day down from the mountainsD – at night down from the mountains

Ref: all

Ans: D

10577. In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:

A – during the day and is stronger than the sea breezeB – during the night and is weaker than the sea breezeC – during the day and is weaker than the sea breezeD – during the night and is stronger than the sea breeze

Ref: all

Ans: B

10590. Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

A – It blows from land to waterB – It blows from water to landC – It blows by dayD – It blows only at noon

Ref: all

Ans: A

10599. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:

A – backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surfaceB – veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surfaceC – backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surfaceD – veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: C

10621. A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?

A – Parallel to the coastlineB – Land to seaC – VariableD – Sea to land

Ref: all

Ans: D

10641. In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from:

A – about 45 degrees to the right of directly aheadB – right and behindC – left and behindD – directly ahead

Ref: all

Ans: C

10658. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:

A – valley during daylight hoursB – mountain at nightC – mountain during daylight hoursD – valley during daylight as much as at night

Ref: all

Ans: C

10662. The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:

A – blowing at night in mid latitudesB – that reaches up to the tropopause in daytimeC – occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytimeD – occurring only in mid latitudes and in day time

Ref: all

Ans: C

10681. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind:

A – continually from land to waterB – from the water in daytime and from the land at nightC – continually from water to the landD – from the land in day time and from the water at night

Ref: all

Ans: B

10684. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?

A – Cross wind from the leftB – Cross wind from the rightC – TailwindD – Headwind

Ref: all

Ans: B

10726. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:

A – down the slope during the nightB – up the slope during the dayC – down the slope during the dayD – up the slope during the night

Ref: all

Ans: A

15883. In the northern hemisphere with an anti-cyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 ft over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be:

A – 075/12B – 060/18C – 060/12D – 045/12

Ref: all

Ans: D

16611. The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid altitudes is approximately:

A – 5000 ftB – 200 ftC – 500 – 1000 ftD – 50 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

24211. A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?

A – Land to seaB – Sea to landC – VariableD – Parallel to the coastline

Ref: all

Ans: B

24317. Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:

A – slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperaturesB – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist C – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night existD – a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-02-07 Jet streams

8906. What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23oS) at FL 350 in July?

A – A polar front jet stream followed by a sub-tropical jet stream and later, a second polar front jet streamB – A sub-tropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet streamC – A polar front jet stream followed by one or two sub-tropical jet streamsD – One sub-tropical jet stream

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl

Ans: C

8930. What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?

A – 70 ktB – 50 ktC – 60 ktD – 100 kt


Ans: C

8931. In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

A – About 12000 ft above the coreB – The warm air side of the coreC – Exactly in the centre of the coreD – The cold air side of the core


Ans: D

8956. In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19oN – 73oE) to Bangkok (13oN – 100oE). What wind conditions can you expect?

A – Light winds diagonal to the routeB – Head windsC – Tail windsD – Strong northerly winds


Ans: B

8987. While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 ft below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?

A – A head windB – Cross wind from the rightC – Cross wind from the leftD – A tail wind


Ans: B

10565. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?

A – Just below the cold air tropopauseB – In the cold air massC – Just above the warm air tropopauseD – In the warm air mass


Ans: D

10568. Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?

A – Equatorial jet stream/arctic jet streamB – Equatorial jet stream/polar front jet streamC – Arctic jet stream/sub-tropical jet streamD – Sub-tropical jet stream/polar front jet stream


Ans: D

10569. Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced:

A – A jet stream, with great spacing between the isothermsB – A curved jet stream near a deep troughC – A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summerD – A straight jet stream near a low pressure area


Ans: B

10592. A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following wind profile (Northern hemisphere)

900 hPa 220/20 kt 800 hPa 220/25 kt700 hPa 230/35 kt 500 hPa 260/60 kt400 hPa 280/85 kt 300 hPa 300/100 kt250 hPa 310/120 kt 200 hPa 310/80 kt

Which system is the jet stream associated with:

A – With an easterly waveB – With a cold frontC – With a ITCZD – With a warm front


Ans: D

10605. At approximately what altitude is the sub-tropical jet stream found over Europe?

A – FL 500B – FL 200C – FL 300D – FL 400


Ans: D

10609. What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?

A – The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front regionB – The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over IcelandC – The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar frontD – Strong winds in the upper atmosphere


Ans: C

10619. What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?

A – 50000 ftB – 20000 ftC – 40000 ftD – 30000 ft


Ans: D

10626. Which area of a polar front jet steam in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence?

A – Looking downstream, the area to the left of the coreB – Looking downstream, the area to the right of the coreC – In the core of the jet streamD – Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air


Ans: A

10633. Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct?

A – It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the coreB – It and its surface projection lie in the warm airC – It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximumD – It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core


Ans: C

10640. What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams?

A – Horizontal dimensionB – Vertical dimensionsC – Wind directionD – Wind speed


Ans: C

10643. What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?

A – 30,000 ftB – 20,000 ftC – 40,000 ftD – 50,000 ft


Ans: B

10667. You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes.

A – You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no temperature difference between the two air massesB – This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet coreC – Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments testedD – This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences are possible at these heights


Ans: B

10672. Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?

A – The arctic jet streamB – The polar night jet streamC – The equatorial jet streamD – The sub-tropical jet stream


Ans: D

10690. Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered?

A – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic oceanB – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central AfricaC – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern SpainD – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high


Ans: B

10709. On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that:

A – above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to southB – the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jetC – below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to southD – the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet


Ans: D

10717. (Refer to figure 050-39)What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B)?

A – Polar front jet streamB – Equatorial jet streamC – Sub-tropical jet streamD – Arctic jet stream


Ans: C

10720. Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?

A – At about 5500 metres altitudeB – Just below the tropopauseC – Close to the groundD – In the stratosphere


Ans: B

10727. Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?

A – The arctic jet streamB – The polar front jet streamC – The sub-tropical jet streamD – The equatorial jet stream


Ans: B

10786. An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?

A – It first increases, then decreasesB – It increasesC – It decreasesD –It remains constant


Ans: C

10792. During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves towards the:

A – south and speed decreasesB – north and speed decreasesC – south and speed increasesD – north and speed increases


Ans: C

10795. An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 ft below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is:

A – head windB – from the leftC – tail windD – from the right


Ans: D

15813. What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?

A – 1/1B – 1/10C – 1/1000D – 1/100


Ans: D

15815. A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be worldwide regarded as:

A – possible but a very rare phenomenonB – not possibleC – a common occurrenceD – not unusual in polar regions


Ans: A

15878. Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

A – In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occurB – In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occurC – In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occurD – In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur


Ans: B

16335. In January, a mean sub-tropical jet appears at:

A – 30oSB – 30oNC – 60oSD – 50oS


Ans: B

16355. A jet stream is:

A – a band of strong winds only found near thunderstormsB – a broad band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross sectionC – a narrow band of strong winds only found near frontsD – a narrow band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section


Ans: D

16365. The normal maximum speeds of the Polar Front Jet are in the region of:

A – 150 kt in January/135 kt in JulyB – 150 kt in July/135 kt in JanuaryC – 150 kt in July/50 kt in JanuaryD – 135 kt in July/135 kt in January


Ans: A

24251. At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually strongest?

A – OctoberB – JanuaryC – There is no annual variationD – July


Ans: D

24302. Isotechs are lines joining equal:

A – wind speed lapse ratesB – sea level pressuresC – horizontal wind speed gradientsD – wind speeds


Ans: D

24304. Maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located in the:

A – polar air above the tropopauseB – tropical air above the tropopauseC – tropical air below the tropopauseD – polar air below the tropopause


Ans: C

24328. The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the:

A – tropical air above the tropical tropopauseB – polar air above the tropopauseC – polar air below the tropopauseD – tropical air below the tropopause


Ans: D

24371. What is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream?

A – An unstable atmosphere up to great heightsB – Strong vertical temperature gradientsC – A uniform pressure patternD – Strong horizontal temperature gradients


Ans: D

25626. (Refer to figure 050-39)What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)?

A – Tropical jet streamB – Polar front jet streamC – Arctic jet streamD – Sub-tropical jet stream


Ans: A

25630. An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced?

A – It decreasesB – It increasesC – It stays the sameD – It decreases and then increases


Ans: A

25636. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found:

A – Just above the warm air tropopauseB – In the polar air massC – In the tropical air massD – Just below the cold air tropopause


Ans: C

8909. (Refer to figure 050-11)In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?

A – 1B – 2C – 3D – 3

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-02-08 Standing waves

10675. At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is:

A – altocumulus lenticularisB – cirrostratusC – cirrusD – cumulus mediocris

Ref: all

Ans: A

16613. Standing waves are likely when:

A – wind speeds are uniform with heightB – the atmosphere is uniformly stableC – the wind direction is at 45o to the ridge of the hillsD – none of the above

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-03 THERMODYNAMICS

050-03-01 Humidity

9004. Relative humidity:

A – is not affected by temperature changes of the airB – is not affected when air is ascending or descendingC – changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constantD – does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant

Ref: all

Ans: C

9012. The dew point temperature:

A – cannot be equal to the air temperatureB – is always lower than the air temperatureC – is always higher than the air temperatureD – can be equal to the air temperature

Ref: all

Ans: D

9018. Relative humidity:

A – is higher in cool air than in warm airB – is higher in warm air than in cool airC – increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constantD – decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

Ref: all

Ans: C

9019. Relative humidity depends on:

A – temperature of the air onlyB – moisture content and pressure of the airC – moisture content of the air onlyD – moisture content and temperature of the air

Ref: all

Ans: D

9022. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?

A – It can be used to estimate the air mass’ relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknownB – It can be higher than the temperature of the air massC – It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass’ relative humidityD – It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass

Ref: all

Ans: D

9027. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12oC and a dew point of +5oC were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?

A – It must decrease to +6oCB – It must decrease by 5oCC – It must decrease to +5oCD – It must decrease to +7oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

9040. (Refer to figure 050-42)Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?

A – In Central EuropeB – Over the North SeaC – In the Mediterranean SeaD – Over the Baltics

Ref: all

Ans: A

9047. Dew point is defined as:

A – the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heatB – the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressureC – the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidityD – the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

9049. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:

A – dew point and air temperatureB – water vapour weight and dry air weightC – water vapour weight and humid air volumeD – actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content

Ref: all

Ans: D

9051. When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?

A – It increases up to 100%, then remains stableB – It increasesC – It remains constantD – It decreases

Ref: all

Ans: D

9064. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?

A – It is not influenced by changing water vapourB – It increases with increasing water vapourC – It decreases with increasing water vapourD – It is only influenced by temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

9066. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?

A – Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100B – Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature X 100C – Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100D – Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100

Ref: all

Ans: A

9074. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?

A – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point remains constantB – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew point decreasesC – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point increasesD – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point remains constant

Ref: all

Ans: D

9077. The dew point temperature:

A – can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constantB – can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constantC – cannot be equal to the air temperatureD – cannot be lower than the air temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

9083. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:

A – dew pointB – relative humidityC – stability of the airD – air temperature

Ref: all

Ans: D

9093. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in:

A – air with low temperatureB – moist airC – air with high temperatureD – dry air

Ref: all

Ans: D

9094. (Refer to figue 050-42)What does this picture depict?

A – A westerly wave over Central EuropeB – A high pressure area over Central EuropeC – South foehnD – North foehn

Ref: all

Ans: A

9100. What does dew point mean?

A – The temperature at which ice meltsB – The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturationC – The freezing level (danger of icing)D – The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same

Ref: all

Ans: B

10174. (Refer to figure 050-44)Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport?

A – TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT +SHSN W002=B – TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OV3015=C – TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=D – TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=

Ref: all

Ans: C

10192. (Refer to figure 050-43)Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?

A – In Central EuropeB – Over ScandinaviaC – In the Mediterranean SeaD – Over the Baltics

Ref: all

Ans: B

10193. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes?

A – It increases with increasing temperatureB – It is not influenced by temperature changesC – It decreases with increasing temperatureD – It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour

Ref: all

Ans: C

16563. In a high relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions is true?

A – High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb differenceB – Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/dry bulb differenceC – Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; increased latent heat absorptionD – Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate

Ref: all

Ans: D

24385. What is true for the water vapour distribution in the layer between the surface and the 500 hPa pressure surface in the trade wind belt?

A – The lower part is relatively dry and the upper part is relatively moistB – The whole layer is relatively dryC – The whole layer is relatively moistD – The lower part is relatively moist and the upper part is relatively dry

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-03-02 Change of state of aggregation

9009. Super-cooled droplets can occur in:

A – clouds but not in precipitationB – clouds, fog and precipitationC – precipitation but not in cloudsD – clouds but not in fog

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: B

9038. The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:

A – super coolingB – sublimationC – super saturationD – radiation cooling


Ans: B

9042. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

A – Liquid to gasB – Solid to liquidC – Solid to gasD – Gas to liquid


Ans: D

9043. When water evaporates into unsaturated air:

A – relative humidity is decreasedB – heat is releasedC – relative humidity is not changedD – heat is absorbed


Ans: D

9048. A super cooled droplet is:

A – a water droplet that is mainly frozenB – a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezingC – a small particle of water at a temperature below 50oCD – a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent


Ans: B

9057. Super cooled droplets can be encountered:

A – only in winter at high altitudeB – in winter only in high cloudsC – only in winter above 10,000 ftD – at any time of the year


Ans: D

9072. Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

A – relative humidity reaches 98%B – water vapour is presentC – water vapour condensesD – temperature and dew point are nearly equal


Ans: C

9073. A super cooled droplet is one that:

A – is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing airB – has frozen to become an ice pelletC – has a shell of ice with water inside itD – remains liquid at a below freezing temperature


Ans: D

9081. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft?

A – Only through un-burnt fuel in the exhaust gasesB – Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid airC – Through water vapour released during fuel combustionD – In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases


Ans: C

10186. Super cooled droplets are always:

A – large and at a temperature below freezingB – small and at a temperature below freezingC – at a temperature below freezingD – at a temperature below -60oC


Ans: C

10189. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

A – Solid direct to liquidB – Solid direct to vapourC – Liquid direct to solidD – Liquid direct to vapour


Ans: B

050-03-03 Adiabatic processes

9003. What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?

A – 1.5oCB – 2.0oCC – 3.0oCD – 3.5oC


Ans: C

9005. If the surface temperature is 15oC, then the temperature at 10000 ft in a current of ascending unsaturated air is:

A – 5oCB – 0oCC - -15oCD - -5oC


Ans: C

9016. A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?

A – Lower than the starting temperatureB – Higher than the starting temperatureC – The same as the starting temperatureD – It depends upon the QFE


Ans: C

9030. A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes?

A – Specific humidityB – Absolute humidityC – Mixing ratioD – Relatie humidity


Ans: D

9035. A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:

A – expanding it adiabaticallyB – raising the temperatureC – lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constantD – compressing it adiabatically


Ans: A

9046. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:

A – 0.65oCB – 2oCC – 1oCD – 0.5oC


Ans: C

9058. The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because:

A – water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sunB – moist air is heavier than dry airC – water vapour does not cool as rapidly as dry airD – heat is released during the condensation process


Ans: D

9062. If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at:

A – the same rate as if the air mass were dryB – a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heatC – a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heatD – a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat


Ans: B

9076. Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?

A – Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcelsB – Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcelsC – Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100mD – Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m


Ans: B

9079. The stability in a layer is increasing if:

A – warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper partB – warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower partC – warm and moist air is advected in the lower partD – cold and dry air is advected in the upper part


Ans: B

9084. (Refer to figure 050-41)What can be said about this weather situation?

A – Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertimeB – Strong gradient winds may occur over Central EuropeC – Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the AlpsD – No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter


Ans: A

9085. A layer in which the temperature increases with height is:

A – conditionally unstableB – absolutely unstableC – absolutely stableD – neutral


Ans: C

9089. Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?

A – The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65oC/100mB – The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65oC/100mC – The layer is unstable for unsaturated airD – The environmental lapse rate is less than 1oC/100m


Ans: D

9095. In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1oC. This layer can be described as being:

A – conditionally stableB – absolutely stableC – conditionally unstableD – absolutely unstable


Ans: D

9099. (Refer to figure 050-41)What does this picture depict?

A – A westerly wave over Central EuropeB – A high pressure area over Central EuropeC – Uniform pressure patternD – North foehn


Ans: C

9101. An inversion is:

A – an absolutely stable layerB – a conditionally unstable layerC – an unstable layerD – a layer that can be either stable or unstable


Ans: A

9141. Rising air cools because:

A – it becomes more moistB – surrounding air is cooler at higher levelsC – it expandsD – it contracts


Ans: C

10175. If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10oC and at the top of the layer is 8oC then this layer is:

A – absolutely unstableB – absolutely stableC – conditionally unstableD – neutral


Ans: A

10177. A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by:

A – lowering the parcel to a lower levelB – lifting the parcel to a higher levelC – moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperatureD – moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature


Ans: B

10180. A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:

A – neutralB – unstableC – absolutely stableD – conditionally unstable


Ans: C

10181. During an adiabatic process heat is:

A – neither added nor lostB – addedC – lostD – added but the result is an overall loss


Ans: C

10183. A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:

A – between 1oC per 100m and 0.65oC per 100mB – more than 1oC per 100mC – 0.65oC per 100mD – less than 0.65oC per 100m


Ans: B

10184. The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by:

A – temperature and dew point at the surfaceB – temperature at surface and air pressureC – wind and dew point at the surfaceD – wet adiabatic lapse rate and dew point at the surface


Ans: A

10187. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately:

A – 1.5oCB – 1oCC – 0.6oCD – 0.35oC


Ans: C

10202. A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1oC per 100m is:

A – absolutely unstableB – absolutely stableC – neutral for dry airD – conditionally unstable


Ans: C

16588. What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12oC, which rises to 6000 ft?

A - +30oCB - +18oCC - +30oCD - -06oC


Ans: D

16592. The average value of the ELR is:

A – 1.5oC / 1000 ftB – 2.0oC / 1000 ftC – 3.0oC / 1000 ftD – It varies daily


Ans: B

16593. An ELR of 2.9oC per 1000 ft, is by definition:

A – stableB – conditionally stableC – unstableD – conditionally unstable


Ans: D

050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG

050-04-01 Cloud formation and description

9104. Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?

A – Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate windB – Unstable airC – Convection during the dayD – The release of latent heat


Ans: A

9105. What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage?

A – Convection processB – SinkingC – LiftingD – Radiation


Ans: C

9108. What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.

A – StratusB – AltostratusC – NimbostratusD – Cirrostratus

Ref: all

Ans: A

9109. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?

A – C1, CCB – SC, NSC – AS, ACD – CS, ST

Ref: all

Ans: C

9110. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?

A – ST, CSB – CU, CBC – SC, NSD – C1, SC

Ref: all

Ans: B

9111. (Refer to figure 050-02)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?

A – BB – DC – AD – C

Ref: all

Ans: D

9139. Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?

A – Frontal lifting within stable layersB – RadiationC – SubsidenceD – Convection


Ans: D

9142. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

A – STB – CSC – ASD – SC

Ref: all

Ans: C

9143. A cumulonimbus cloud at mid latitudes in summer contains:

A – only water dropletsB – ice crystals, water droplets and super cooled water dropletsC – only ice crystalsD – ice crystals and water droplets but never super cooled water droplets


Ans: B

9146. Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

A – SCB – C1C – ASD – CU

Ref: all

Ans: B

9151. Which of the following are medium level clouds?

A – Altostratus and altocumulusB – Cirrocumulus and cirrostratusC – CumulonimbusD – All convective clouds

Ref: all

Ans: A

9154. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

A – 7000 – 15000 ft above groundB – 100 – 1500 ft above groundC – 1500 – 7000 ft above groundD – 15000 – 25000 ft above ground

Ref: all

Ans: C

9159. What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?

A – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; light to moderate rime iceB – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; nil icingC – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; light to moderate icingD – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; nil icing


Ans: D

9166. Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:

A – 500 to 1000 ftB – 1000 to 2000 ftC – the surface to 6500 ftD – 100 to 200 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

9169. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels?

A – CBB – ACC – STD – C1


Ans: A

9171. Altostratus clouds are classified as:

A – convective cloudsB – low level cloudsC – high level cloudsD – medium level clouds

Ref: all

Ans: D

9185. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?

A – StratusB – NimbostratusC – AltocumulusD – Cirrus


Ans: B

9186. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?

A – STB – CSC – ASD – CC

Ref: all

Ans: A

9189. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

A – ST, ASB – CU, CBC – NS, CUD – CB, CC


Ans: A

9191. Fall-streaks or virga are:

A – water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the groundB – strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaksC – gusts associated with a well developed BoraD – strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation


Ans: A

9193. Convective clouds are formed:

A – in stable atmosphereB – in unstable atmosphereC – in summer during the day onlyD – in mid latitudes only


Ans: B

9194. (Refer to figure 050-02)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?

A – DB – AC – BD – C

Ref: all

Ans: A

9196. Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of:

A – the presence of a low level inversionB – instability in the atmosphereC – the presence of warm air aloftD – poor surface visibility


Ans: B

10213. (Refer to figure 050-03)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?

A – 2B – 1C – 4D – 3

Ref: all

Ans: A

10223. In an unstable layer thee are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the:

A – air pressure at the surfaceB – wind directionC – thickness of the unstable layerD – pressure at different levels


Ans: C

10231. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

A – 15000 – 35000 ft above the terrainB – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrainC – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrainD – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain

Ref: all

Ans: A

10235. What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?

A – Super cooled water dropletsB – Ice crystalsC – Water dropletsD – Water vapour


Ans: B

10237. What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

A – Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime iceB – Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rainC – Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear iceD – Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice


Ans: C

10243. A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

A – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrainB – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrainC – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrainD – 15000 – 25000 ft above the terrain

Ref: all

Ans: C

10244. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:

A – presence of valley windsB – risk or orographic thunderstormsC – development of thermal lowsD – presence of mountain waves


Ans: D

10246. In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?

A – Within cloud of any typeB – Below the freezing level in clear airC- In clear air above the freezing levelD – In Nimbostratus cloud


Ans: D

10247. Cumulus clouds are an indication for:

A – stabilityB – up and downdraftsC – the approach of a cold frontD – the approach of a warm front


Ans: B

10248. The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:

A – stability in the higher troposphereB – strong convection at low heightC – instability in the middle troposphereD – subsidence in a large part of the troposphere


Ans: C

15793. Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?

A – CumulonimbusB – CirrostratusC – AltocumulusD – Altostratus

Ref: all

Ans: A

16552. Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and Nimbostratus?

A – Neither cloud type may give precipitationB – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may give rain showersC – Stratus may give rain showers and Nimbostratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grainsD – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may give continuously falling rain or snow

Ref: all

Ans: D

16553. Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you distinguish between them?

A – The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is lightB – Precipitation falls from AS but not from NSC – Steady precipitation from ASD – The sun can be seen through NS

Ref: all

Ans: A

16554. Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?

A – AltostratusB – NimbostratusC – CirrostratusD – Cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: B

16612. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of:

A – severe instabilityB – anabatic windsC – katabatic windsD – lee waves


Ans: D

24114. (Refer to figure 050-66)The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is:

A – CSB – C1C – ASD – CB

Ref: all

Ans: B

24115. (Refer to figure 050-34)The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is:

A – ASB – CUC – CBD – CS

Ref: all

Ans: A

24116. (Refer to figure 050-34)The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is:

A – NSB – ACC – ASD – CB

Ref: all

Ans: A

24118. (Refer to figure 050-34)During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is:

A – STB – ACC – CBD – CS

Ref: all

Ans: C

24121. (Refer to figure 050-34)The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is:

A – SCB – CSC – ASD – NS

Ref: all

Ans: A

24129. (Refer to figure 050-58)The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:

A – CSB – CBC – NSD – SC

Ref: all

Ans: A

24130. (Refer to figure 050-58)The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is:

A – CSB – ASC – CBD – CU

Ref: all

Ans: B

24131. (Refer to figure 050-58)The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is:

A – STB – CSC – CBD – SC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24209. A cumulus congestus is:

A – a remnant of a CBB – a cumulus that is of great vertical extentC – a cumulus with little vertical developmentD – a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ

Ref: all

Ans: B

24213. A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispensed by:

A – adiabatic cooling due to subsidenceB – absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layerC – the release of latent heat due to precipitationD – insulation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level

Ref: all

Ans: D

24220. About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These clouds are:

A – Altocumulus castellanusB – broken Cumulus humilisC – towering CumulusD – Stratocumulus

Ref: all

Ans: C

24225. After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can the base of these clouds become higher during the day?

A – Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smallerB – The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a warm air massC – Because the stability increasesD – Because the surface temperature increases

Ref: all

Ans: D

24254. Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the ground are:

A – AltostratusB – StratusC – StratocumulusD – Nimbostratus

Ref: all

Ans: C

24255. Clouds will mainly consist of super cooled water droplets when the temperature is:

A – between -5oC and -30oCB – between 0oC and -15oCC – between -30oC and -40oCD – below -40oC

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir: HELI: all

Ans: B

24303. Lenticular clouds in mountainous areas indicate:

A – unstable airB – turbulenceC – an inversionD – light variable winds

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir: HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B

24306. Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?

A – Jet streamsB – Mountain wavesC – Stratospheric inversionsD – Areas of high level clear air turbulence

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir: HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B

25578. (Refer to figure 050-02)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus astellanus?

A – AB – BC – CD – D

Ref: all

Ans: C

25622. (Refer to figure 050-01)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus astellanus?

A – 1B – 2C – 3D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-04-02 Fog, mist, haze

9107. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lea to the formation of advection fog?

A – Moist cold air moving over a warm surfaceB – Moist warm air moving over a cold surfaceC – Dry warm air moving over a cold surfaceD – Dry cold air moving over a warm surface

Ref: all

Ans: B

9112. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?

A – Dry, warm air passing over warm groundB – Heat loss from the ground on clear nightsC – The passage of frontsD – Cold air passing over warm ground

Ref: all

Ans: B9113. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?

A – Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountainB – Moist air over land during clear night with little windC – Maritime tropical air flowing over cold seaD – Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea

Ref: all

Ans: B

9114. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

A – 2000 ftB – 500 ftC – 5000 ftD – 10000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

9116. Frontal fog is most likely to occur:

A – in winter in the early morningB – in rear of a warm frontC – in summer in the early morningD – in advance of a warm front

Ref: all

Ans: D

9118. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?

A – Warm air moving over cold waterB – Cold air moving over warm waterC – The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sunD – The coastal region of the sea cools at night

Ref: all

Ans: B

9119. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?

A – At sunsetB – Shortly after sunriseC – Late eveningD – Shortly after midnight

Ref: all

Ans: B

9123. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:

A – above 15 ktB – between 10 and 15 ktC – between 5 and 10 ktD – below 5 kt

Ref: all

Ans: D

9124. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?

A – When very humid warm air meets with dry cold airB – When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold airC – When very humid cold air meets with dry warm airD – When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air

Ref: all

Ans: B

9130. Freezing fog consists of:

A – frozen water dropletsB – super cooled water dropletsC – frozen minute snow flakesD – ice crystals

Ref: all

Ans: B

9132. Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

A – It forms slowly and disappears rapidlyB – It forms at night or the early morningC – It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabaticallyD – It can be formed suddenly by day or night

Ref: all

Ans: D

9133. What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?

A – Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hillsB – High relative humidity and an unstable air massC – Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidityD – Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range

Ref: all

Ans: A

9155. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dew point, is likely to produce:

A – a cold frontB – radiation fogC – advection fogD – good clear weather

Ref: all

Ans: B

9179. When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be:

A – unlimited visibilityB – clear and coolC – high scattered cloudsD – fog or low cloud

Ref: all

Ans: D

9183. What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature is 15oC and the dew point is 14oC?

A – Westerly, 10 kt variableB – Northerly, 10 ktC – CalmD – Easterly, 10 kt

Ref: all

Ans: C

9188. The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:

A – increasing surface wind speedB – an increasingly stable atmosphereC – surface coolingD – a low level temperature inversion

Ref: all

Ans: A

9198. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?

A – A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air massB – A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the groundC – Ground cooling caused by radiation during the nightD – A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground

Ref: all

Ans: D

10209. Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:

A – that is stableB – with warm mass propertiesC – that is absolutely stableD – with cold mass properties

Ref: all

Ans: D

10212. Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15oC and dew point of 12oC blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperature of 5oC?

A – Radiation fogB – Advection fogC – Steam fogD – Frontal fog

Ref: all

Ans: B

10218. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?

A – Light wind, little or no cloud, moist airB – Light wind, extensive cloud, dry airC – Light wind, extensive cloud, moist airD – Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air

Ref: all

Ans: A

10241. Advection fog can be formed when:

A – cold moist air flows over warmer waterB – cold moist air flows over a warmer surfaceC – warm moist air flows over a warmer surfaceD – warm moist air flows over a colder surface

Ref: all

Ans: D

10242. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

A – Very dry airB – Little or no cloudC – Strong surface windsD – Very low temperatures

Ref: all

Ans: B

10245. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions?

A – RadiationB – AdvectionC – SteamD – Orographic

Ref: all

Ans: A

15786. (Refer to figure 050-04)Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:

A – 3B – 3C – 1D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

16545. Which one of the following statements regarding the meteorological horizontal visibility is the correct one?

A – If the visibility varies in different directions, the visibility in the worst direction is reportedB – If the visibility varies in different directions, an average value of around the horizon is reportedC – The visibility is improved when darkness falls, because you distinguish a point of light more easily than an unlighted markD – Fog (FG) is used to describe visibility less than 1000 m except when qualified by MI, BC, PR or VC

Ref: all

Ans: D

16579. For (FG) is defined as being a:

A – visibility of < 1,000m due to any precipitation in the atmosphereB – visibility of < = 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphereC – visibility of < 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphereD – visibility of < 1,000m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: C

16580. Mist (BR) is defined as being:

A – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphereB – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or liquid particles in the atmosphereC – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or liquid particles in the atmosphereD – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

16581. According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:

A - < 5,000 mB - < = 5,000mC - > 5,000mD - > = 5,000m

Ref: all

Ans: B

16582. Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:

A – high relative humidity, no cloudB – high relative humidity, little or no cloudC – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breezeD – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind (2-8 kts or calm)

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no windB – Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect)C – Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversionD – Radiation fog cannot form over the sea

Ref: all

Ans: D

16584. Radiation fog can be dispersed by:

A – insulationB – strong windsC – replacement of moist air by drier airD – all of the above

Ref: all

Ans: D

16585. Advection fog is caused by:

A – dry air over a cold surfaceB – cold air over a warm moist surfaceC – air, cooler by at least 10oC, moving over a moist surfaceD – none of the above

Ref: all

Ans: C

16586. Sea fog:

A – is formed by advectionB – can form a persist with moderate or even strong windC – is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an increase in wind strengthD – all of the above

Ref: all

Ans: D

24223. Advection fog is most likely to form when:

A – cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 ktB – cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occursC – a mild moist air stream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than 10 ktD – warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt

Ref: all

Ans: C

24224. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:

A – frontal fogB – advection fogC – no fog at allD – steaming fog

Ref: all

Ans: D

24245. As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is formed. Which statement is true?

A – Layers of alto cumulus will develop caused by increasing wind speedB – Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combination with low geostrophic wind speedC – Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speedD – Stratocumulus will develop caused by insulation

Ref: all

Ans: C

24272. Frontal fog can be formed by:

A – cooling at nightB – condensation of air saturated by adiabatic coolingC – condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitationD – evaporation of moisture at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: C

24279. If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from 5 kt to 13 kt will most likely:

A – disperse the fog immediatelyB – change the radiation fog to advection fogC – have no effectD – cause the fog to lift and become low stratus

Ref: all

Ans: D

24300. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A – A light breeze blowing colder air out to seaB – A warm moist air mass on the windward side of the mountainsC – An air mass moving inland from the coast in winterD – Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions

Ref: all

Ans: C

24314. Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:

A – low pressure systems over seaB – high pressure systems over landC – high pressure systems over seaD – low pressure systems over land

Ref: all

Ans: B

24335. The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if

A – air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one anotherB – the wind is strongC – the sky is overcastD – the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate

Ref: all

Ans: A

24375. What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?

A – Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the seaB – Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the seaC – Radiation for forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to day time coolingD – Radiation for forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface

Ref: all

Ans: D

24387. What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in spring time?

A – Radiation fogB – Frontal fogC – Advection fogD – Steaming fog

Ref: all

Ans: C

24415. Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?

A – A layer of 5 feet deepB – A layer of 10 feet deepC – A layer of 15 feet deepD – A layer of 20 feet deep

Ref: all

Ans: A

24418. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?

A – ConvectionB – Ground radiationC – ConvergenceD – Orographic lift

Ref: all

Ans: B

24422. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?

A – Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 ktB – Clear skies at night over an inland marshy areaC – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 ktD – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt

Ref: all

Ans: D

24448. Which statement is correct?

A – Fog can be super cooled and can also contain ice crystalsB – Mist and haze consist of water dropletsC – Fog and haze do not occur in the tropicsD – Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility

Ref: all

Ans: A

24451. Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?

A – Advection fogB – Radiation fogC – Arctic smokeD – Frontal fog

Ref: all

Ans: B

24498. Which is true of advection fog?

A – It can appear suddenly by day or by nightB – It develops slowly and clears fastC – It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooledD – It usually forms by night and clears by day

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-05 PRECIPITATION

050-05-01 Development of precipitation

9203. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

A – freezing rain occurs at a higher altitudeB – a cold front has passedC – there are thunderstorms in the areaD – a warm front has passed

Ref: all

Ans: A

9205. Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?

A – HailB – Moderate rain with large dropsC – Heavy rain with large dropsD – Drizzle

Ref: all

Ans: D

9227. How does freezing rain develop?

A – Rain falls on cold ground and then freezesB – Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0oCC – Through melting of sleet grainsD – Through melting of ice crystals

Ref: all

Ans: B

24357. The widest precipitation zone occurs usually:

A – ahead of a warm frontB – ahead of a cold frontC – in rear of a cold frontD – in rear of a warm front

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-05-02 Types of precipitation

9202. Freezing precipitation occurs:

A – only in the precipitation of a warm frontB – only in the precipitation of a cold frontC – mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzleD – mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow

Ref: all

Ans: C

9204. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A – CSB – NSC – CBD – AC

Ref: all

Ans: C

9206. With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated?

A – CCB – ASC – STD – CB

Ref: all

Ans: D

9207. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

A – StratusB – AltostratusC – CumulusD – Cirrostratus

Ref: all

Ans: A

9215. Freezing rain occurs when:

A – snow falls into an above freezing layer of airB – ice pellets meltC – water vapour first turns into water dropletsD – rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

9216. With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?

A – CBB – ASC – SCD – NS

Ref: all

Ans: A

9218. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?

A – Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0oCB – Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0oCC – Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warmD – An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0oC through which rain is falling

Ref: all

Ans: A

9219. With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months?

A – NS, CCB – CB, STC – SC, ASD – AS, NS

Ref: all

Ans: C

9221. What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?

A – NimbostratusB – Cumulus and altostratusC – Altostratus and stratusD – Cumulus and cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: D

9222. Large hail stones:

A – only occur in thunderstorms of mid latitudesB – are typically associated with severe thunderstormsC – are entirely composed of clear iceD – only occur in frontal thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B

9223. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:

A – clouds containing only ice crystalsB – stratified cloudsC – cirro-type cloudsD – convective clouds

Ref: all

Ans: D

9224. What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?

A – NimbostratusB – Towering cumulus and altostratusC – Altostratus and stratusD – Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: D

9228. Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation?

A – SCB – CSC – NSD – ST

Ref: all

Ans: C

9229. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?

A – StratocumulusB – CumulonimbusC – NimbostratusD – Stratus

Ref: all

Ans: B

9230. With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated?

A – CBB – STC – CCD – CU

Ref: all

Ans: B

9231. With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most commonly associated?

A – NSB – ACC – SCD – ST

Ref: all

Ans: A

9232. The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:

A – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderateB – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severeC – Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are

frequently severeD – Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate

Ref: all

Ans: A

9233. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from:

A – stratiform clouds with severe turbulenceB – convective clouds with little or no turbulenceC – stratiform clouds with little or no turbulenceD – convective clouds with moderate turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: C

9235. Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?

A – C1B – ASC – CBD – NS

Ref: all

Ans: A

16578. Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?

A – Heavy rainB – DrizzleC – HailD – Snow

Ref: all

Ans: D

24275. Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below CB clouds situated:

A – over the sea in middle latitudesB – over the sea near the equatorC – in continental interiors near the equatorD – in continental interiors in middle latitudes

Ref: all

Ans: D

24319. Super cooled droplets can occur in:

A – clouds, fog and precipitationB – clouds but not in precipitationC – precipitation but not in cloudsD – clouds but not in fog

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS

050-06-01 Types of air masses

9236. Where does polar continental air originate?

A – The region of the Baltic seaB – Areas of arctic waterC – Siberian landmassD – The region of Greenland

Ref: all

Ans: C

9270. (Refer to figure 050-47)What is the classification of the air mass affecting North-Western parts of France at 0600 UTC?

A – Tropical continentalB – Polar maritimeC – Polar continental D – Tropical maritime

Ref: all

Ans: D

9282. An air mass is unstable when:

A – temperature increases with heightB – temperature and humidity are not constantC – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal areaD – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height

Ref: all

Ans: D

9285. What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia?

A – The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North Russian airB – The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the AzoresC – The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian airD – The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores

Ref: all

Ans: A

9304. In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?

A – Arctic maritime airB – Polar maritime airC – Tropical continental airD – Polar continental air

Ref: all

Ans: D

9310. An air mass is stable when:

A – pressure is constantB – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with heightC – the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappearsD – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m

Ref: all

Ans: C

9324. Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?

A – The Azores regionB – Southern ItalyC – Southern FranceD – The southern Balkan region and the Near East

Ref: all

Ans: D

10264. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?

A – Baltic SeaB – Region of British IslesC – East of GreenlandD – Black Sea

Ref: all

Ans: C

16429. A stable humid warm air mass slowly over rides a cold one. Which one of the following weather types may originate from this condition?

A – The formation of thunder stormsB – Warm front dissipationC – The forming of a warm frontD – The forming of a cold front

Ref: all

Ans: C

16431. Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between two air masses?

A – an unstable low pressureB – radiation fogC – a frontal low pressureD – a ridge of high pressure

Ref: all

Ans: C

24217. A stationary front is a front in which:

A – there are never frontal cloudsB – there is no difference in temperature between the two air massesC – there is no wind on both sides of the frontD – there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front

Ref: all

Ans: D

24228. Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterised by:

A – fog, poor visibility and layered cloudsB – strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibilityC – uniform temperature, good visibilityD – continuous rain and freezing temperature

Ref: all

Ans: A

24230. An air mass acquires its basic properties

A – by widespread thunderstormsB – by the influence of jet streamsC – by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristicsD – in the westerlies of the mid latitudes

Ref: all

Ans: C

24231. An air mass is stable when

A – lifted air returns to its original levelB – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with heightC – pressure is constantD – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m

Ref: all

Ans: A

24232. An air mass is unstable when

A – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal areaB – temperature and humidity are not constantC – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable heightD – temperature increases with height

Ref: all

Ans: C

24233. An air mass is:

A – an extensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in horizontal planes are practically uniformB – a large body of air with temperature and humidity constant in the verticalC – a body of air with a volume of not more than thousand cubic kilometresD – a large body of air within which the temperature and humidity is uniform in horizontal and vertical planes

Ref: all

Ans: A

24243. An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of clouds can be expected?

A – Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversionB – Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulenceC – Layer like clouds with little vertical developmentD – Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: D

24244. An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by

A – stratiform cloudB – cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitationC – continuous light rain from medium level layer cloudD – poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels

Ref: all

Ans: B

24276. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?

A – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point remains constantB – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew point decreasesC – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point increasesD – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point remain constant

Ref: all

Ans: A

24419. Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?

A – Addition of water vapour in the lower layerB – Cooling by the underlying surfaceC – Warming of the air mass from belowD – Advection of colder air aloft

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-06-02 Fronts

9238. What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?

A – Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showersB – Showers and thunderstormsC – Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NSD – 9 octas CS, AS without precipitation

Ref: all

Ans: A

9240. In a warm front occlusion:

A – the warm front becomes a front aloftB – the warm front overtakes the cold frontC – the warm air is liftedD – the cold air is lifted

Ref: all

Ans: C

9241. Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?

A – C1, CSB – ST with drizzleC – Fair weather CUD – CU, CB

Ref: all

Ans: B

9247. Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer?

A – Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passedB – Mainly layered cloudsC – Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passedD – Mainly towering clouds

Ref: all

Ans: D

9251. Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind:

A – in the warm sectorB – in front of the warm frontC – behind the cold frontD – at the apex of the wave

Ref: all

Ans: A

9252. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest?


Ref: all

Ans: B

9253. How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion?

A – The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground levelB – The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground levelC – The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above ground levelD – The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level

Ref: all

Ans: A

9254. Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

A – The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the frontB – The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the frontC – The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm frontD – The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front

Ref: all

Ans: C

9255. In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:

160450Z 23015KT 3000 + RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS =161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG =

What do you conclude based on these observations?

A – A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoonB – A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoonC – A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoonD – Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station

Ref: all

Ans: B

9258. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level?

A – Severe thunderstorms at low altitudeB – Low cloud base and poor visibilityC – Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the groundD – High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B

9261. Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?

A – Ahead of the frontB – Behind the frontC – At the surface position of the frontD – At the junction of the occlusion

Ref: all

Ans: B

9262. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?

A – Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS beginB – At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the frontC – At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CBD – At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS

Ref: all

Ans: B

9265. What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0oC, and freezing rain starts to fall?

A – Cold occlusionsB – Warm fronts, warm occlusionsC – High level cold frontsD – Cold fronts

Ref: all

Ans: B

9266. (Refer to figure 050-09)Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross section to be expected?

A – Track B-CB – Track B-DC – Track A-DD – Track A-E

Ref: all

Ans: B

9268. What type of front/occlusion usually moves the fastest?

A – Cold frontB – Warm frontC – Cold occlusionD – Warm occlusion

Ref: all

Ans: A

9272. (Refer to figure 050-47)This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?

A – TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN 018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=B – TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN 020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=C – TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=D – TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =

Ref: all

Ans: B

9274. During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter?

A – Strong, gusty windsB – Decreasing temperaturesC – A strong down draughtD – Increasing temperatures

Ref: all

Ans: B

9275. In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:

A – behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitudeB – in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitudeC – behind is colder than the cold air in frontD – behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

9287. An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is:

A – continuously veeringB – continuously backingC – initially backing, then veeringD – initially veering, then backing

Ref: all

Ans: B

9291. (Refer to figure 050-103)Where might we find the warmest air?

A – BB – CC – AD – D

Ref: all

Ans: A

9298. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing?

A – It will first increase then decreaseB – It will remain unchangedC – It will first decrease then increaseD – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet

Ref: all

Ans: A

9303. What characterises a stationary front?

A – The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the frontB – The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the frontC – The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold airD – The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front

Ref: all

Ans: B

9306. (Refer to figure 050-08)Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross section shown on the left?

A – Track B-AB – Track C-AC – Track D-AD – Track B-C

Ref: all

Ans: C

9307. When do cold occlusions occur more frequently in Europe?

A – SummerB – WinterC – Autumn and winterD – Winter and spring

Ref: all

Ans: A

9309. (Refer to figure 050-104)What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?

A – Approximately constant pressureB – A drop in pressureC – Irregular fluctuationsD – A rise in pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

9312. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

A – 1/50B – 1/150C – 1/300D – 1/500

Ref: all

Ans: B

9314. What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?

A – Cold air slides over a warm air massB – Warm air pushes over a cold air massC – Cold air pushes under a warm air massD – Warm air pushes under a cold air mass

Ref: all

Ans: C

9319. What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?

A – A low on lee side of a mountainB – A cold air poolC – Polar front lowD – Heat low

Ref: all

Ans: C

9320. At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally, at their most southerly position?

A – AutumnB – SummerC – SpringD – Winter

Ref: all

Ans: D

9322. What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer?

A – Very good (greater than 50 km)B – Very poor (less than 1 km)C – Good (greater than 10 km)D – Moderate (several km)

Ref: all

Ans: D

9328. On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:

A – QFE increases and QNH decreasesB – QFE and QNH increaseC – QFE and QNH decreaseD – QFE decreases and QNH increases

Ref: all

Ans: C

9330. In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?

A – In the direction of the warm sector isobarsB – In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm frontC – In the direction of the sharpest pressure increaseD – In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front

Ref: all

Ans: A

9332. How do air masses move at a warm front?

A – Cold air over rides a warm air massB – Warm air over rides a cold air massC – Cold air undercuts a warm air massD – Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

Ref: all

Ans: B

9333. (Refer to figure 050-11)Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar

frontal wave have moved?

A – Position 4B – Position 3C – Position 1D – Position 2

Ref: all

Ans: B

9334. What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer?

A – BKN CU and CBB – Fair weather CUC – Sky clearD – ST with drizzle

Ref: all

Ans: B

10250. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front?

A – It will have increasedB – It will remain unchangedC – It will have decreasedD – It will show a small increase or decrease

Ref: all

Ans: C

10258. In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?

A – Ahead of a warm front in the winterB – Ahead of a cold front in the winterC – Behind a warm front in the summerD – Ahead of a cold front in the summer

Ref: all

Ans: A

10262. In which main direction does a polar front depression move?

A – Along the front towards the eastB – Along the front towards the westC – Across the front towards the northD – Across the front towards the south

Ref: all

Ans: A

10270. The polar front is the boundary between:

A – maritime polar aid and continental polar airB – arctic air and polar airC – arctic air and tropical airD – polar air and tropical air

Ref: all

Ans: D

10271. What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass over rides a cold air mass?

A – CumulusB – NimbostratusC – AltostratusD – Cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: B

10274. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?

A – It will be decreasingB – It will remain unchangedC – It will be increasingD – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet

Ref: all

Ans: C

10277. (Refer to figure 050-10)Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B?

A – 1B – 3C – 2D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

10278. Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if:

A – the cold air is convectively stableB – the cold air is convectively unstableC – the warm air is convectively unstableD – the warm air is convectively stable

Ref: all

Ans: C

10279. Read this description:“After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer.”

Which of these weather phenomena is being described?

A – A warm frontB – A blizzardC – Weather at the back of a cold frontD – A cold front

Ref: all

Ans: A

10281. A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect?

A – Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold frontB – Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hoursC – Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold frontD – Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours

Ref: all

Ans: D

10282. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?

A – A decrease in head windB – A backing in the wind directionC – An increase in tail windD- A veering in the wind direction

Ref: all

Ans: D

10284. The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the:

A – saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporatingB – saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporatingC – reduction of outgoing radiation due to cloudsD – warm air moving over a cold surface

Ref: all

Ans: B

10286. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?

A – Showers associated with thunderstormsB – Freezing rainC – Light to moderate continuous rainD – Drizzle

Ref: all

Ans: A

15867. A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

A – in an air mass with cold mass propertiesB – behind of a stationary frontC – ahead of a cold frontD – at an occluded front

Ref: all

Ans: C

16354. Ahead of a warm front:

A – winds back and increase with heightB – wind back slightly but veer on passage and increase with heightC – winds veer and decrease with heightD – winds back and decrease with height

Ref: all

Ans: B

16361. Jets are very rare near occluded front because:

A – the air is too cold across the frontsB – the air is too warm across the frontsC – there is not enough pressure difference across the frontsD – there is not enough temperature difference across the fronts

Ref: all

Ans: D

16366. The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:

A – Tropical frontB – Cold frontC – Warm frontD – Polar front

Ref: all

Ans: D

16427. If cold air is being “replaced” by warm air, the boundary between the air masses is called:

A – a warm frontB – a cold frontC – a polar frontD – an arctic front

Ref: all

Ans: A

16430. Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occluded front is generated?

A – warm air supersedes cold airB – cold air wedges under warm airC – a cold front overtakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is liftedD – a cold front is halted and becomes almost stationary

Ref: all

Ans: C

16432. When flying through a cold front in the summer, the following flying weather may be expected:

A – towering clouds with showery precipitationB – horizontally extended clouds with drizzleC – horizontally extended clouds with even tops and basesD – towering clouds without turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: A

16434. The passage of a cold front over a meteorological station will result in:

A – a steady fall in pressure and a backing of the surface windB – a steady rise in pressure and a veering of the surface windC – a steady fall in pressure and a veering of the surface windD – a steady rise in pressure and a backing of the surface wind

Ref: all

Ans: B

16435. The mean position of the polar front in the North Atlantic is:

A – from Florida to SW UK in JulyB – from Florida to North of the UK in JanuaryC – from north of UK to Newfoundland in JulyD – from SW UK to Newfoundland in January

Ref: all

Ans: C

24171. (Refer to figure 050-113)The diagram of the system in annex represents a

A – cold occlusionB – warm occlusionC – warm frontD – cold front

Ref: all

Ans: B

24210. A gust front is:

A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstormB – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstormC – characterised by heavy lightningD – another name for a cold front

Ref: all

Ans: B

24218. A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind:

A – backsB – veersC – initially veers, then backsD – initially backs, then veers

Ref: all

Ans: A

24241. An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

A – the cold air behind is colder than the cold air aheadB – the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air aheadC – the cold air behind is lifted by the warm airD – the cold air ahead is lifted

Ref: all

Ans: B

24242. An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:

A – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitudeB – ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitudeC – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air aheadD – at the rear of the occlusion is less cold that the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude

Ref: all

Ans: D

24247. At a cold front:

A – warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under itB – warm air is compressed as cold air rises over itC – temperature rises owing to increased pressureD – fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm air

Ref: all

Ans: A

24248. At a station at the surface the significant weather with a warm front will come:

A – after the warm sector has passedB – only at the same time as the front passesC – after the front has passedD – mostly before the front passes

Ref: all

Ans: D

24266. During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers. This statement is:

A – not trueB – only true for the passage of a cold frontC – only true for the passage of a warm frontD – true

Ref: all

Ans: D

24295. In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:

A – the approach of a warm occlusionB – backing winds with increasing heightsC – increasing probability for showersD – the formation of advection fog

Ref: all

Ans: A

24324. The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is:

A – arctic airB – polar airC – tropical airD – equatorial air

Ref: all

Ans: C

24326. The arctic front is the boundary between:

A – arctic air and tropical airB – polar air and tropical airC – cold polar air and less cold polar airD – polar air and arctic air

Ref: all

Ans: D

24330. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These phenomena:

A – warm frontB – cold frontC – trade wind frontD – sea breeze front

Ref: all

Ans: A

24332. The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport; cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus. This is typical for:

A – the passage of a squall lineB – the passage of a cold frontC – anti-cyclonic weatherD – the passage of a warm front

Ref: all

Ans: D

24338. The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus and there is moderate continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is:

A – behind the cold frontB – the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusionC – the warm sectorD – the high pressure area

Ref: all

Ans: B

24342. The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively

A – arctic smoke and frontal fogB – advection fog and radiation fogC – frontal fog and advection fogD – advection fog and steaming fog

Ref: all

Ans: C

24347. The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front depression is normally lower in winter than in summer is that

A – converging air currents are of greater intensity in winterB – the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winterC – the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lowsD – the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter

Ref: all

Ans: D

24348. The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a cold front is in general:

A – smaller and slowerB – greater and fasterC – greater and slowerD – smaller and faster

Ref: all

Ans: A

24396. When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity:

A – strengthens “upwind” of the mountainsB – decreases when it reaches the mountainsC – is not disturbed by the mountainsD – ceases immediately

Ref: all

Ans: A

24406. Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?

A – 30 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm frontB – Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm frontC – Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm frontD – 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front

Ref: all

Ans: D

24438. Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal depression in the northern hemisphere is correct?

A – The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the precipitation zone of the warm frontB – The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead of and behind the cold frontC – While occluding the warm front always becomes a front aloftD – The wind backs more at the warm front than at the cold front

Ref: all

Ans: B

24443. Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?

A – The warm front overtakes the cold frontB – The cold front becomes a front aloftC – The warm front becomes a front aloftD – Both fronts become fronts aloft

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS

050-07-01 Location of the principal pressure areas

9353. In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?

A – Greenland, SW Europe, NE CanadaB – Greenland, Azores, NE CanadaC – Iceland, SW USA, AzoresD – Azores, SE USA, SW Europe

Ref: all

Ans: D

9367. Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over:

A – USAB – Iceland/GreenlandC – SiberiaD – Azores

Ref: all

Ans: B

9391. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anti- cyclones at the surface is:

A – Azores, SiberiaB – Siberia, Iceland, CanariesC – NE Canada, IcelandD – Greenland, Iberian peninsula

Ref: all

Ans: A

9405. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the adjacent land areas during mid summer, the predominant pressure systems are:

A – weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian highB – Scandinavian high and Azores highC – Azores high and weak low over NE CanadaD – Azores low and Icelandic high

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-07-02 Anti-cyclone

9344. In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?

A – NSB – TS, SHC – CB, TSD – Calm winds, haze

Ref: all

Ans: D

9348. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a:

A – cold lowB – warm highC – cold highD – warm low

Ref: all

Ans: B

9358. The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by:

A – convectionB – subsidenceC – a decrease in temperatureD – a decrease in pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

9362. Subsidence is:

A – vertically upwards motion of airB – horizontal motion of airC – vertically downwards motion of airD – the same as convection

Ref: all

Ans: C

9390. The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called:

A – subsidence inversionB – friction inversionC – radiation inversionD – trade wind inversion

Ref: all

Ans: A

9399. A blocking anti-cyclone on the northern hemisphere is:

A – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oNB – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cycloneC – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressionsD – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

Ref: all

Ans: A

9410. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region overland in the winter?

A – ThunderstormsB – A tendency for fog and low STC – NS with continuous rainD – The possibility of snow showers

Ref: all

Ans: B

9415. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?

A – InstabilityB – Rising airC – Sinking airD – Divergence at higher levels

Ref: all

Ans: C

9416. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:

A – reaches warmer layersB – is heated by compressionC – is heated by expansionD – loses water vapour

Ref: all

Ans: B

9420. What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?

A – ConvectionB – ConvergenceC – AdvectionD – Subsidence

Ref: all

Ans: D

16433. Polar air moving south will become:

A – increasingly stableB – increasingly unstableC – conditionally unstableD – it depends on the humidity

Ref: all

Ans: B

24206. A blocking anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere is:

A – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cycloneB – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oNC – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressionsD – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

Ref: all

Ans: B

24263. During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an east/west direction. During:

A – back to NW and strengthen by mid afternoonB – become southerly to south westerly and increase in velocity by afternoonC – increase from the north by mid morning becoming calm towards eveningD – veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon

Ref: all

Ans: B

24399. When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an anti-cyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be:

A – from the rightB – from the leftC – a head windD – a tail wind

Ref: all

Ans: C

24457. You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area. An anti-cyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you, will be:

A – from your rightB – from your leftC – from aheadD – from behind

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-07-03 Non-frontal depressions

9349. Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?

A – It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic senseB – It tends to move round the primary in an anti-cyclonic senseC – It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primaryD – It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary

Ref: all

Ans: A

9352. What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?

A – Divergence with liftingB – Divergence with descending airC – Convergence with liftingD – Convergence with descending air

Ref: all

Ans: C

9366. With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is:

A – strong wind shear, convection and snow showersB – light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceilingC – strong wind with subsidence at low levelsD – strong wind associated with an almost clear sky

Ref: all

Ans: A

9392. How do you recognise a cold air pool?

A – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a low pressure area

B – As a high pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)C – As a low pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)D – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a high pressure area

Ref: all

Ans: C

9395. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?

A – Nothing (CAVOK)B – Strong westerly windsC – Fine weather CUD – Showers and thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: D

9407. A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:

A – divergence and subsidenceB – convergence and widespread ascentC – divergence and widespread ascentD – convergence and subsidence

Ref: all

Ans: B

9408. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal depression because of:

A – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depressionB – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depressionC – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depressionD – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression

Ref: all

Ans: C

9412. Which is true of a typical non-frontal thermal depression?

A – It forms over the ocean in summerB – It forms over land in summerC – It forms over the ocean in winterD – It forms over land in winter

Ref: all

Ans: B

24208. A cold air pool:

A – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north westerly air streamB – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systemsC – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summerD – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart

Ref: all

Ans: D

24256. Cold air pools:

A – only occur in winterB – can easily be recognised on synoptic surface chartsC – only occur at mid-latitudesD – are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-07-04 Tropical revolving storms

9339. What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving storm?

A – NS spread over a large areaB – Frequent SCC – Excessive accumulation of CUD – Dense C1

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

9345. What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?

A – West in the earlier stages and later turning north eastB – East then southC – West deep into the USAD – West in the earlier stages and later turning south east


Ans: A

9354. What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?

A – The equatorial jet streamB – Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and sub- tropical high pressure beltC – Cold air advancing from temperate latitudesD – Latent heat released from condensing water vapour


Ans: D

9355. During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?

A – January until AprilB – October until JanuaryC – July until NovemberD – April until July


Ans: C

9363. On which coast of North America is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?

A – NE coastB – W coastC – N coastD – SE coast


Ans: D

9364. When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?

A – December to AprilB – May to JulyC – August to OctoberD – Not experienced at Darwin


Ans: A

9369. During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?

A – All seasonsB – WinterC – Winter and springD – Summer and autumn


Ans: D

9376. Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the south-east Pacific and the south Atlantic because:

A – there is no coriolis force presentB – of the low water temperatureC – of the strong southeast windD – the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere


Ans: B

9379. Why to tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?

A – Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and seaB – Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear with increase of heightC – Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds long sea passageD – Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation


Ans: C

9380. What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Caribbean area?

A – West in the earlier stages and later south eastB – EastC – West deep into the USD – West in the earlier stages and later north east


Ans: D9388. The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is:

A – the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and BangladeshB – the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south east coastline of the USAC – the south western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of ReunionD – the north west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese coastline


Ans: D

9400. (Refer to figure 050-18)The arrows labelled “U” represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from:

A – January to March and are called willy williesB – July to October and are called typhoonsC – May to July and are called cyclonesD – December to April and are called tornadoes


Ans: B

9402. Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

A – From the earth’s surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundingsB – They intensify rapidly after landfallC – The diameter is 50-500mD – Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter


Ans: A

9403. At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?

A – January to MayB – September to JanuaryC – July to NovemberD – May to July


Ans: C

9409. (Refer to figure 050-18)The arrows labelled “S” represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms

which occur mainly from:

A – December to April and are called cyclonesB – May to November and are called cyclonesC – May to November and are called hurricanesD – December to April and are called typhoons


Ans: B

9411. (Refer to figue 050-18)The arrows labelled “R” represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from:

A – June to October and are called typhoonsB – December to April and are called tornadoesC – December to April and are called cyclonesD – June to October and are called hurricanes


Ans: C

9419. Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?

A – Anywhere in the eyeB – In the wall of clouds around the eyeC – In the centre of the eyeD – About 600 km away from the eye


Ans: B

050-08 CLIMATOLOGY

050-08-01 Climatic zones

9468. The reason for the fact that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that:

A – the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lowsB – the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winterC – the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winterD – converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter


Ans: C

9473. What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region?

A – Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in JulyB – Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the yearC – Rain showers, hail showers and thunder storms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October- NovemberD – Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January


Ans: C

10312. At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?

A – 50oNB – 10oNC – 30oND – 80oN


Ans: A

24257. Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60oN during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately:

A – 37000 ftB – 56000 ftC – 29000 ftD – 20000 ft


Ans: C

24258. Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50oN during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately

A – 23000 ftB – 31000 ftC – 43000 ftD – 54000 ft


Ans: B

24260. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of the polar front during summer extends from:

A – Florida to SW EnglandB – Newfoundland to N ScotlandC – NE Canada to IcelandD – Greenland to Spain


Ans: B

050-08-02 Tropical climatology

9435. What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent?

A – North easterly winds bringing dry and hazy airB – South westerly winds carrying warm and humid airC – North westerly winds bringing dry and hazy airD – South easterly winds carrying warm and humid air


Ans: A

9456. Which one of the following statements regarding the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?

A – The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the yearB – Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZC – The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet streamD – Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ


Ans: D

9457. The inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects:

A – western Africa, at a latitude of 25oN in JulyB – western Africa between 10o and 20oN and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in JulyC – the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes of 10oN and 30oN depending on the time of yearD – western Africa, where it is situated between the 10oN and 30oN parallels, depending on the time of the year


Ans: B

9463. Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?

A – SE trade winds and NE trade windsB – SW monsoon and NW monsoonC – SW monsoon and NW trade windsD – NW monsoon and SW trade winds


Ans: A

9470. Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?

A – They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continentsB – They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceansC – They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceansD – They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents


Ans: B

9475. Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the:

A – SW monsoonB – NE monsoonC – NW monsoonD – SE monsoon


Ans: B

9479. In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?

A – In OctoberB – In JuneC – In DecemberD – In March


Ans: B

9481. An easterly wave is a:

A – wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its troughB – wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its troughC – small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its troughD – disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough


Ans: A

9484. (Refer to figure 050-21)What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?

A – Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the HarmattanB – Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure systemC – Generally clear skies – NW trade windsD – Wet and thundery due to the proximity of inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)


Ans: D

9486. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa?

A – It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5oS in January B – It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15o – 20oN in JulyC – It oscillates during the year between 10oN and 10oSD – It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10oN


Ans: B

9490. What name is given to the low level wind system between the sub-tropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?

A – DoldrumsB – Westerly windsC – MonsoonD – Trade winds


Ans: D

9519. Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the

A – NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZB – SW monsoonC – passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian oceanD – high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian Gulf


Ans: B

9523. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

A – Thunderstorms and rainB – Continuous rainC – Clear skiesD – Frontal weather


Ans: A

10297. During July flights from Bangkok (13oN – 100oE) to Karachi (25oN – 67oE) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average head wind of 50 kt. What is the reason for this difference?

A – The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet streamB – The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable conditionsC – The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditionsD – The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system


Ans: D

10299. Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:

A – NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in JanuaryB – SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in JanuaryC – SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in JanuaryD – SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January


Ans: C

10300. Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?

A – At the latitudes of AlgeriaB – Near the Canary IslandsC – At the latitudes of GibraltarD – In the vicinity of Dakar


Ans: D

10302. From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?

A – NB – NEC – SWD – SE


Ans: D

10307. When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

A – March to May and October to NovemberB – December to February and July to OctoberC – March to May and August to OctoberD – April to July and December to February


Ans: A

10316. The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in:

A – September, October, NovemberB – July, August, SeptemberC – December, January, FebruaryD – February, March, April


Ans: A

10328. What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?

A – FogB – Stratus clouds and drizzleC – SandstormsD – Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain


Ans: D

10333. In which of the following bands of latitude is the inter-tropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?

A – 8o – 12oSB – 3o – 8oSC – 0o – 7oND – 7o – 12oN


Ans: C

10334. Which of the following best describes the inter-tropical convergence zone?

A – The zone where the Harmattan meets the north easterly trade winds over AfricaB – The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphereC – The zone where cold fronts form in the tropicsD – The zone where the west winds meet the sub-tropical high pressure belt


Ans: B

10337. What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?

A – Indian, maritime tropical air massB – South east trade windC – South west monsoonD – Winter monsoon


Ans: C

10563. (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone:

A – UB – TC – VD – W


Ans: A

16333. In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over:

A – the Aleutians, Australia, South AmericaB – the Azores, Siberia, the South PacificC – the South Pacific, the Azores, AustraliaD – Greenland, Siberia, North West Australia


Ans: B

16334. Which of the following statements concerning the ITCZ is correct?

A – In the southern summer it is normally positioned entirely south of the equatorB – Its furthest displacement from the equator is normally about 45oSC – It is normally fed with converging northern and southern trade windsD – Its associated weather is invariably strong convergence and heavy cumuliform cloud


Ans: D

16336. The Doldrums are:

A – another name for the sub-tropical anti-cyclonesB – cold between weak fronts encountered in low latitudes C – weak inter-tropical convergence zonesD – associated with light and variable monsoon winds


Ans: C

24106. (Refer to figure 050-61)Considering the sector from 10oN to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be:

A – westerlies in excess of 60 ktB – easterly jet streams in excess of 70 ktC – light easterliesD – westerlies at 40 kt


Ans: C

24133. (Refer to figure 050-18)The arrows labelled “t” represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from:

A – June to October and are called cyclonesB – December to April and are called hurricanesC – June to October and are called tornadoesD – June to October and are called hurricanes


Ans: A

24134. (Refer to figure 050-19)Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30oE to 50oE, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to be:

A – a sub-tropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 ktB – a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 ktC – variable in direction and less than 30 ktD – light easterlies


Ans: A

24135. (Refer to figue 050-61)Which is true of Nairobi (Kenya)?

A – There are two wet seasonsB – Apart from the wet season(s) it is cloud and rain freeC – There is one wet seasonD – In July it is frequently affected by clear skies and northerly winds from North Africa


Ans: A

24150. (Refer to figure 050-20)The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are:

A – NE monsoon – continuous heavy rain but little thunder storm activityB – dry season – mainly SE winds – visibility reduced by dust and hazeC – NW monsoon – very wet – proximity of the inter-tropical convergence zone causes widespread thunderstorm activityD – mainly clear skies – advection fog drifting inland with the typical NE wind


Ans: B

24265. During the approach to Bombay (19oN – 73oE) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 T. Which of the following reports is most likely?

A – 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG =B – 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000 =C – 02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG =D – 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR =


Ans: A

24310. On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows:

A – the whole year from the North EastB – for six months from the North West and for six months from the South EastC – for six months from the North East and for six months from the South WestD – the whole year from the South East


Ans: C

24312. Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur?

A – Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic Ocean at 20oSB – India, Arabic Sea, Atlantic Ocean at 2oSC – Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean East of MadagascarD – Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean at 20oS, Pacific Ocean at 2oN


Ans: C

24404. Where do the trade winds blow?

A – At the equatorB – Between the “horse latitudes” and the mid latitudesC – Between the “horse latitudes” and the equatorial highsD – Between the “horse latitudes” and the doldrums


Ans: D

050-08-03 Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes

9446. A cold pool:

A – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summerB – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systemsC – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chartD – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north westerly air stream

Ref: all

Ans: C

9458. Which of the following statements concerning the inter-tropical convergence zone is true?

A – There are frequent occurrences of CBB – It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in JanuaryC – It does not change its position over the oceans during the yearD – It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity

Ref: all

Ans: A

9461. (Refer to figure 050-07)Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa)

A – Uniform pressure patternB – Cutting windC – West wind conditionD – Warm south and condition (Foehn)

Ref: all

Ans: A

10289. (Refer to figure 050-43)Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?

A – Westerly windB – Warm southerly windC – High pressureD – Easterly wind

Ref: all

Ans: C

10304. With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes?

A – Apparently nothing, because any changes would be smallB – Increase rapidlyC – Show strong fluctuationsD – Decrease rapidly

Ref: all

Ans: A

10319. (Refer to figure 050-42)Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central Europe?

A – Westerly wavesB – Uniform pressure patternC – Cutting windD – Easterly waves

Ref: all

Ans: A


A – In winter the Savannah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rainsB – Trade wind seldom extend much above 5000 feetC – The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China and Japan is initially north westerlyD – The easterly jet stream normally appears at the 200 mb level

Ref: all

Ans: C

24102. (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone “x” is an area of:

A – NE trade windsB – travelling low pressure systemsC – sub-tropical high pressure systemsD – the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)

Ref: all

Ans: C

24287. In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by:

A – a radiation inversionB – a layer of unstable airC – a temperature inversionD – the tropopause

Ref: all

Ans: C

24337. The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively:

A – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 30000 feetB – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feetC – 1000 nautical miles, 5000 to 8000 feet, 30000 feetD – 200 nautical miles, 5 nautical miles, 18000 feet

Ref: all

Ans: B

24437. Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct?

A – Their eye can be well observed by weather satelliteB – They intensify after landfallC – They move towards the equatorD – They move with a speed of at least 60 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-08-04 Local seasonal weather and wind

9429. The Chinook is a:

A – warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky MountainsB – very cold wind with blowing snowC – down slope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopesD – warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers

Ref: all

Ans: A

9430. What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?

A – BoraB – FoehnC – MistralD – Typhoon

Ref: all

Ans: C

9441. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south (Foehn)?

A – Good visibility, turbulenceB – Continuous precipitation, severe turbulenceC – Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icingD – Icing, huge mass of clouds

Ref: all

Ans: A

9449. A dry sand and dust laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a:

A – SciroccoB – HarmattanC – PamperoD – Khamsin

Ref: all

Ans: B9451. For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?

A – Sand up to FL 150B – ThunderstormsC – Dust and poor visibilityD – Hail

Ref: all

Ans: C

9466. What are the characteristics of the Bora?

A – It is a warm and moist, south westerly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitationB – It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter fro a north westerly direction in the MediterraneanC – It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a table and downwards to the AdriaticD – It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust

Ref: all

Ans: C

9474. (Refer to figure 050-41)?Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply?

A – Severe gradient wind likely over Central EuropeB – Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central EuropeC – Moderate to strong Foehn in the AlpsD – Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter

Ref: all

Ans: B

9488. Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?

A – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the southB – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the northC – Frontal zonesD – Occlusions

Ref: all

Ans: A

9495. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?

A – Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the AlpsB – Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the AlpsC – Strong north winds on the southern side of the AlpsD – Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps

Ref: all

Ans: D

9507. The Foehn wind is a:

A – warm anabatic windB – cold fall windC – warm fall windD – cold anabatic wind

Ref: all

Ans: C

9524. What is characteristic of the pamperos?

A – Foehn conditions in the Spanish PyreneesB – Katabatic winds in the Atlas MountainsC – A marked advance of cold arctic air in Northern AmericaD – A marked advance of cold air in South America

Ref: all

Ans: D

9527. What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?

A – MistralB – GhibliC – BoraD – Scirocco

Ref: all

Ans: C

9747. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

A – Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the SunB – Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a yearC – Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the yearD – Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year

Ref: all

Ans: A

9808. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?

A – Spring Equinox and Autumn EquinoxB – Summer Solstice and Winter SolsticeC – Spring Equinox and Summer SolsticeD – Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice

Ref: all

Ans: A

10301. A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a:

A – BoraB – HarmattanC – MistralD – Foehn

Ref: all

Ans: D

10326. (Refer to figure 050-56)Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:

A – warm southerly dust bearing wind affecting the coast of North AfricaB – SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast south of 15oNC – NE wind affecting north west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dustD – localised depression giving squally winds

Ref: all

Ans: C

10329. A Foehn wind occurs on the:

A – leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side

B – windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heatingC – windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flowD – leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud

Ref: all

Ans: D

10330. What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather situation.

A – FoehnB – MistralC – BoraD – Scirocco

Ref: all

Ans: A

10331. The Bora is a:

A – cold katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air massB – squally warm katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summerC – cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gustsD – cold katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers

Ref: all

Ans: C

10336. Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?

A – HarmatanB – SciroccoC – ChinookD – Bora

Ref: all

Ans: C

15829. 8/8 stratus base 200 ft/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?

A – Winter: SCT base 3,000 ft/AGL; summer OVC base 500 ft/AGLB – Winter: OVC base 500 ft/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 ft/AGLC – Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 ft/AGLD – Winter: BKN base 2500 ft/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 ft/AGL

Ref: all

Ans: B

24101. (Refer to figure 050-60)Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the tropopause during January is approximately:

A – 56000 ftB – 43000 ftC – 36000 ftD – 29000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: A

24103. (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone:

A – tB – wC – uD – v

Ref: all

Ans: B

24104 (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zone:

A – s and yB – t onlyC – t and xD – u and w

Ref: all

Ans: A

24250. At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by the equatorial jet stream?

A – FL 500 from June to AugustB – FL 500 from November to FebruaryC – FL 400 during the winter in the northern hemisphereD – FL 400 during the winter in the southern hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: A

24259. Considering the North Atlantic between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of the polar front during winter extends from:

A – Florida to SW EnglandB – Newfoundland to IcelandC – Iceland to NorwayD – NE Canada to Portugal

Ref: all

Ans: A

24268. For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will usually be indicated by:

A – a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and decreasingB – rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreasesC – rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and increasingD – rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty

Ref: all

Ans: B

24271. From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves:

A – towards the south and the speed increasesB – towards the north and the speed increasesC – towards the south and the speed decreasesD – towards the north and the speed decreases

Ref: all

Ans: A

24290. In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located

A – below the tropopause at about 300 hPaB – above the tropopause at about 100 hPaC – below the tropopause at about 200 hPaD – above the tropopause at about 250 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: C

24311. Over the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are:

A – frequently observed, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but never over the Bay of BengalB – rare, in the average one every two yearsC – never observedD – occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year

Ref: all

Ans: D

24325. The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are:

A – polar air and equatorial airB – arctic air and polar airC – polar air and tropical airD – arctic air and tropical air

Ref: all

Ans: C

24327. The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:

A – more southerly during the summer than during the winterB – more southerly during the winter than during the summerC – located near 55oN during the whole yearD – located near 65oN during the whole year

Ref: all

Ans: B

24329. The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:

A – only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx 30000 ftB – only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45000 ftC – during the whole year in the southern hemisphereD – during the whole year in the northern hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: B

24331. The Foehn wind is a:

A – cold katabatic windB – warm katabatic windC – warm anabatic windD – cold anabatic wind

Ref: all

Ans: B

24344. The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (Gulf of Guinea) is a:

A – SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summerB – SW monsoon in summer and NE trade wind in winterC – NE trade wind in summer and SE trade wind in winterD – NE monsoon in winter and SE trade wind in summer

Ref: all

Ans: B

24350. The SW monsoon starts in the month of:

A – December in southern India to reach Pakistan in MayB – September in Pakistan to reach southern India in NovemberC – June in southern India to reach Pakistan in JulyD – March in southern India to reach Pakistan end of April

Ref: all

Ans: C

24359. Tropical revolving storms are NOT formed in:

A – South Indian OceanB – Gulf of BengalC – Waters around the PhilippinesD – South Atlantic Ocean

Ref: all

Ans: D

24368. What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?

A – Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the AlpsB – High pressure area over ItalyC – Low pressure area in the western part of the MediterraneanD – High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean Sea

Ref: all

Ans: C

24393. What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass over Central Europe in the daytime during summer?

A – Sky clearB – Continuous rain and poor visibilityC – Drizzle and low stratusD – Showers and good visibility

Ref: all

Ans: D

24397. When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?

A – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian highB – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic oceanC – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern SpainD – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa

Ref: all

Ans: D

24426. Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL 400 is most correct?

A – The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summerB – The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest speeds moves south in winterC – The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of greatest wind speed reduces in winterD – The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the winter. The latitude of the axis of greatest wind speed is also further north in summer than in winter

Ref: all

Ans: A

24439. Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct?

A – It is a north easterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much dust and sandB – It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may reach EuropeC – The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by the presence of a trade wind inversionD – It is formed by a strong increase of air pressure over North Africa

Ref: all

Ans: B

24446. Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?

A – The jet streams are easterlyB – In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing heightC – The wind veers at the passage of a cold frontD – If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected

Ref: all

Ans: B

24449. Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe?

A – Continental tropical warm and continental polar coldB – Maritime tropical warm and maritime polar coldC – Maritime tropical warm and continental polar coldD – Maritime polar warm and continental tropical warm

Ref: all

Ans: B

24450. Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe?

A – Tropical airB – Arctic airC – Polar airD – Equatorial air

Ref: all

Ans: D

25621. (Refer to figure 050-20)Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of:

A – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of westerly wavesB – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and AntarcticaC – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rainD – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical convergence zone over central Australia


Ans A

25631. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems during summer?

A – 45o – 75o

B – 35o – 45o

C – 15o – 25o

D – 10o – 15o

Ref: all

Ans: A

25635. What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime tropical air during a summer afternoon in western Europe?

A – Very poor (less than 1 km)B – Moderate (several km)C – Very good (greater than 50 km)D – Good (greater than 10 km)

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS

050-09-01 Icing

9536. Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:

A – rime iceB – clear iceC – hoar frostD – cloudy ice


Ans: B

9537. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

A – CUB – SCC – NSD – C1

Ref: all

Ans: D

9541. You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25oC. Which of the following statements is true?

A – If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloudB – Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditionsC – Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditionsD – In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

9548. In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft’s surface?

A - -20oC to -35oCB - +10oC to 0oCC – 0oC to -10oCD - -35oC to -50oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

9568. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

A – NSB – ASC – SCD – CS

Ref: all

Ans: D

9570. On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5oC. The freezing level Is at 3000 ft/AGL. At 4000 ft/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?

A – Yes, between ground level and 3000 ft/AGLB – Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 ft/AGLC – No. flights clear of cloud experience no icingD – No. absolutely no icing will occur

Ref: all

Ans: A

9581. Which of the following conditions is mot likely to cause airframe icing?

A – PEB – GRC – SHSND - +FZRA

Ref: all

Ans: D

9595. A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely:

A – freeze immediately and create rime iceB – freeze immediately and create clear iceC – travel back over the wing, creating rime iceD – travel back over the wing, creating clear ice

Ref: all

Ans: A

9604. While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powder like contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called:

A – Clear iceB – Rime iceC – Mixed iceD – Frost


Ans: B

9608. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

A – Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees CB – Flying in dense cirrus cloudsC – Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layerD – Flying in heavy drizzle

Ref: all

Ans: A

9612. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct?

A – Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees CB – Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus cloudsC – A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icingD – Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud

Ref: all

Ans: C

9615. Hoar frost is most likely to form when:

A – flying inside convective cloudsB – taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversionC – flying inside stratiform cloudsD – flying in super cooled drizzle

Ref: all

Ans: B

9616. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft?

A – Relative humidity inside the cloudB – Aircraft speed and size of cloud dropletsC – Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoilD – Cloud temperature and droplet size

Ref: all

Ans: D

9618. Freezing fog exists if fog droplets:

A – are frozenB – are super cooledC – are freezing very rapidlyD – freeze when temperature falls below zero


Ans: B

9621. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small super cooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?

A – Aircraft T experiences more icing than SB – Aircraft S experiences more icing than TC – Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icingD – Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets

Ref: all

Ans: B

9624. A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:

A – Reduced visibility and light icing in cloudsB – Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in cloudsC – A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large dropletsD – Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals

Ref: all

Ans: C

9626. Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled cloud droplets?

A – Stratocumulus and cirrostratusB – Altocumulus and altostratusC – Stratus and cumulonimbusD – Altostratus and cirrocumulus

Ref: all

Ans: B

10341. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/or altitude immediately instruction be followed?

A – LightB – SevereC – ModerateD – Extreme


Ans: B

10345. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:

A – water vapourB – large super cooled water dropsC – small super cooled water dropsD – snow


Ans: B

10353. Clear ice is dangerous because it:

A – spreads out and contains many air particlesB – is translucent and only forms at the leading edgesC – is not translucent and forms at the leading edgesD – is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces


Ans: D

10358. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:

A – rime iceB – hoar frostC – dry iceD – clear ice


Ans: D

10368. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

A – Cirrus cloudsB – Freezing rainC – Stratus cloudsD – Snow


Ans: B

10373. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude desirable recommendation be followed:

A – LightB – ModerateC – SevereD – Extreme


Ans: B

10376. Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:3000 ft 15oC 6000 ft 8oC 10000 ft 1oC 14000 ft -6oC 18000 ft -14oC 24000 ft -26oC. At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?

A – FL 80B – FL 150C – FL 180D – FL 220

Ref: all

Ans: B

10377. Clear ice forms as a result of:

A – super cooled water droplets spreading during the freezing processB – water vapour freezing to the aircraftC – ice pellets splattering on the aircraftD – super cooled droplets freezing on impact


Ans: A

10378. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:

A – water vapourB – large super cooled water dropsC – small super cooled water dropsD – snow


Ans: C

10379. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is unable to de-ice nor land?

A – He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrabilityB – He descends to the warm air layer belowC – He ascends to the cold air layer aboveD – He continues to fly at the same altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

10386. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?

A – Close to the freezing levelB – Between -20oC and -30oCC – Between -2oC and -15oCD – Between -30oC and -40oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

10391. Glaze or clear ice is formed when super cooled droplets are:

A – small and at a temperature just below freezingB – large and at a temperature just below freezingC – small and freeze rapidlyD – of any size at temperatures below -35oC


Ans: B

10392. The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large super cooled drops that have a temperature of -5oC is most likely to be:

A – clear iceB – hoar frostC – rime iceD – cloudy ice


Ans: A

10430. At what degree of icing can ICAO (no change of course and altitude necessary) recommendation be followed?

A – ModerateB – LightC – SevereD – Extreme


Ans: B

10435. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:

A – water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surfaceB – freezing rain striking the aircraftC – droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezingD – small super cooled droplets striking the aircraft


Ans: A

10442. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?

A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formationB – It always occurs in altostratus cloudC – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloudD – It will not occur in clear sky conditions

Ref: all

Ans: D

15839. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?

A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formationB – It always occurs in altostratus cloudC – It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloudD – It will occur in clear sky conditions

Ref: all

Ans: C

15873. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:

A – rapidly and do not spread outB – slowly and do not spread outC – slowly and spread outD – rapidly and spread out

Ref: all

Ans: A

15875. A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile:

A – coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rateB – indicates temperatures below -40oCC – indicates temperatures above 3oCD – intersects the 0oC isotherm twice

Ref: all

Ans: D

16327. The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in the same type of cloud over level terrain because:

A – orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free water content of the cloudB – increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent heat so causing the air to hold more water vapourC – enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retailed in the cloud by the increased upward componentsD – adiabatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the cloud

Ref: all

Ans: C

16441. Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is correct?

A – A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimatesB – Rime ice forms when large water drops freezeC – Clear ice forms when large water drops freezeD – Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze


Ans: C

16442. One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?

A – The wing construction being unable to bear the increased loadB – Lift becoming too great as the aircraft becomes heavierC – The lift co-efficient increasing as the aircraft becomes heavierD – The stalling speed increasing substantially


Ans: D

16443. Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes:

A – the stalling speed to increaseB – the stalling speed to decreaseC – the interference drag to increaseD – the interference drag to decrease


Ans: A

16444. A thin coating of hoar frost on the airfoil surface:

A – does not affect take-off performanceB – has deleterious effects on the lift of the wingC – affects the aspect ratio of the wingD – only affects stability


Ans: B

16445. Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?

A – SnowfallB – Mixed rain and snowC – Freezing rainD – Ice pellets

Ref: all

Ans: C

24226. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you encounter?

A – Hoar frostB – Rime iceC – Clear iceD – Smooth icing


Ans: A

24234. An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60. At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?

A – Between FL 120 and FL 60B – Between FL 120 and FL 180C – Between FL 60 and Fl 20D – At FL 140

Ref: all

Ans: A

24235. An aircraft flies into super cooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0oC. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is

A – granular frostB – hoar frostC – rime iceD – clear ice


Ans: D

24267. For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are:

A – flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0oC, resulting in rime ice formationB – flight into super cooled rain, resulting in rime ice formationC – flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formationD – flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear ice formation

Ref: all

Ans: C

24278. Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:

A – between 0oC and -17oC in STB – between 0oC and -17oC in ASC – between 0oC and -23oC in large CUD – below -40oC in CB

Ref: all

Ans: C

24286. In mature CB’s the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:

A - -23oC to -40oCB - +5oC to 0oCC – 0oC to -23oCD - -40oC to -60oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24298. In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how would it normally appear?

A – Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20oC and 25oC. Appears transparent and tends to take the shape of the surface on which it freezesB – Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -10oC and –20oC. Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into the air streamC – Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0oC and – 15oC. Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wingD – Stratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing. Appears opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge

Ref: all

Ans: C

24334. The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the:

A – relatively slow freezing of small super cooled water droplets and ice crystalsB – instantaneous freezing of small super cooled water dropletsC – instantaneous freezing of large super cooled water droplets and snow crystalsD – relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets

Ref: all

Ans: D

24340. The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in:

A – icy clouds at high levelsB – super cooled precipitationC – unstable clouds at medium levelsD – zones where the air temperature is below -15oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

24360. What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most favourable for its formation?

A – Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and accumulating forward into the air stream. Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -10oC to -20oC are most conducive to its formationB – Opague rough appearance, tending to spread back over an aircraft surface. Most frequently encountered in cumuliform clouds at temperatures slightly below freezingC – Smooth appearance and builds forward from leading surfaces into a sharp edge. Most common in cumuliform clouds at temperatures of -20oC to – 25oCD – Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface on which it freezes. Stratiform clouds and temperatures only slightly below freezing promote its formation

Ref: all

Ans: A

24364. What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a thunderstorm, with the freezing level at 7000 ft?

A – Moderate to severe icing due to clear iceB – Light icing due to rime iceC – Moderate to severe icing due to rime iceD – Light icing due to clear ice


Ans: A

24365. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descends rapidly from FL 320 (temp -45oC) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear air?

A – Light or moderate hoar frostB – Moderate opaque rimeC – Nil iceD – Light opaque rime and light clear ice


Ans: A

24366. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL 170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -20oC?

A – Moderate – hoar frostB – Severe – clearC – Light – rimeD – Moderate – clear


Ans: C


A – Airframe icing can occur in clear airB – Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapourC – Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor cloudsD – Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs


Ans: A

24433. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?

A – It will not occur in clear sky conditionsB – It always occurs in altostratus cloudC – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloudD – It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud

Ref: all

Ans: A

25633. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that:

A – temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudesB – a cold front has passedC – there are thunderstorms in the areaD – after take-off you can climb to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing conditions

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-09-02 Turbulence

9603. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?

A – Decrease of speedB – Change of courseC – Increase of speedD – Change of flight level


Ans: D

9625. A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?

A – Increase the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currentsB – Increase the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if

aircraft performance parameters allowC – Decrease the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currentsD – Decrease the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow

Ref: all

Ans: D

10360. The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?

A – The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasantB – The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfortC – The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulenceD – The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially

Ref: all

Ans: A

10369. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

A – Large, abrupt changes in altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarilyB – Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitudeC – Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all timesD – Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage

Ref: all

Ans: C

10384. The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the:

A – intensity of the solar radiationB – height of the aircraftC – stability of the airD – intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: D

10420. An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:

A – ClimbingB – DescendingC – Turning rightD – Maintain FL 270

Ref: all

Ans: B

15795. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by:

A – a high pressure centre at high levelB – long streaks of cirrus cloudsC – dust or haze at high levelD – a constant outside air temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

15848. All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat below or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as:

A – severeB – extremeC – moderateD – light


Ans: C

16324. Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be:

A – two wavelengths down wind and just above the surfaceB – approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approximately level with, the top of the ridgeC – just below the tropopause above the ridgeD – down the lee side of the ride and along the surface

Ref: all

Ans: D

16346. Possible severe turbulence will be encountered in mountain waves in:

A – roll cloudB – lenticular cloudC – at the crest of the mountainD – on the windward side

Ref: all

Ans: A

16608. Conditions favourable for low-level frictional turbulence are:

A – strong wind, rough terrain, steep lapse rateB – strong wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rateC – light wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rateD – strong wind, smooth terrain, stable lapse rate

Ref: all

Ans: A

24177. (Refer to figure 050-70)Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?

A – FL 140B – FL 160C – FL 320D – FL 220

Ref: all

Ans: D

24204. (Refer to figure 050-73)On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about oderate and/or severe turbulence on the cruising level?

A – Keflavik to Oxlo at FL 220B – Rome to Frankfurt at FL 320C – Beirut to Athens at FL 310D – Madrid to Zurich at FL 280

Ref: all

Ans: A

24212. A layer is conditionally unstable if the air:

A – becomes stable by lifting itB – is stable for satuated air and unstable for dry airC – is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry airD – is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air

Ref: all

Ans: C

24301. In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

A – Exactly in the centre of the coreB – On the tropical air side of the coreC – On the polar air side of the coreD – About 12000 ft above the core


Ans: C

24318. Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when:

A – the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated just above the turbulent layerB – the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth’s surfaceC – in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated below the top of the turbulent layerD – absolute instability exists at low level

Ref: all

Ans: C

24341. The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is:

A – well below the coreB – close to the core on the side facing the polar airC – on the tropical side of the coreD – 5000 feet or more above the core

Ref: all

Ans: B

24441. Which statement does correspond to the definition of severe turbulence?

A – Aircraft will be damaged and an emergency landing will be absolutely necessaryB – Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose objects move aboutC – Aircraft gets out of control and crashesD – Aircraft may be out of control for short periods occupants are forced violently against seat belts, loose objects are tossed about

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-09-03 Windshear

9594. Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:

A – experience little or no change in speed and directionB – change in speed but not in directionC – change in direction but not in speedD – change significantly in speed and direction

Ref: all

Ans: D

9605. Vertical wind shear is:

A – horizontal variation in the horizontal windB – vertical variation in the vertical windC – vertical variation in the horizontal windD – horizontal variation in the vertical wind

Ref: all

Ans: C

10342. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:

A – when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstormsB – in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 ktsC – during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleysD – near valleys and at the windward side of mountains

Ref: all

Ans: A

10356. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest….

A – at the condensation level when there is a stong surface frictionB – at the condensation level when there is no night radiationC – at the top of the friction layerD – at he top of a marked surface-based inversion

Ref: all

Ans: D

10417. Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night:

A – and early morning only in summerB – in unstable atmospheresC – and early morning only in winterD – in association with radiation inversions

Ref: all

Ans: D

10431. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

A – It results in good visual conditionsB – It promotes extensive vertical movement of airC – It prevents vertical wind shearD – It promotes vertical wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: D

16326. An important characteristic of wind shear is that:

A – it is encountered most frequently near mountain waves during winter monthsB – it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergenceC – it only occurs with jet streamsD – it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream or a frontal zone

Ref: all

Ans: D

16386. An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in or near a thunderstorm is:

A – extra turbulenceB – wind shearC – compass errorD – pilot disorientation

Ref: all

Ans: B

24139. (Refer to figure 050-27)In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low level wind shear?

A – 3B and 3CB – 3A and 3BC – 3A and 3CD – 3B and 3D

Ref: all

Ans: C

24288. In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to occur

A – on the tropical side of the coreB – well below the coreC – close to the core on the polar sideD – 5000 ft or more above the core

Ref: all

Ans: C

24405. Where does wind shear occur?

A – At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind direction and/or wind speedB – Wind shear of any significance occurs only in connection with jet streamsC – Wind shear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain wavesD – Wind shear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or when the jet stream is associated with a strong depression

Ref: all

Ans: A

24489. Vertical wind shear is:

A – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with heightB – a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distanceC – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distanceD – a horizontal shear of vertical wind

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-09-04 Thunderstorms

9531. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

A – Thunderstorms formed by lifting processesB – Frontal thunderstormsC – Thermal thunderstormsD – Orographic thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B

9538. Where is a squall line to be expected?

A – At the surface position of a warm frontB – Behind a cold frontC – In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levelsD – In front of an active cold front

Ref: all

Ans: D

9539. A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:

A – down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stageB – up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stageC – down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stageD – up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage

Ref: all

Ans: A

9547. Which of the following statements describes a microburst?

A – A high speed down burst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundingsB – A high speed down draft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundingsC – An extremely strong wind gust associated with a troical revolving stormD – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed

Ref: all

Ans: A

9554. What is a microburst?

A – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speedsB – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a high temperature than the surrounding airC – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving stormD – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air

Ref: all

Ans: D

9555. A gust front is:

A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstormB – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstormC – characterised by heavy lightningD – another name for a cold front

Ref: all

Ans: B

9574. Continuous up-draughts occur in a thunderstorm during the:

A – dissipating stageB – mature stageC – initial stageD – period in which precipitation is falling

Ref: all

Ans: C

9575. At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?

A – From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450B – From the ground up to about FL 200C – From the ground up to about FL 100D – From the base of the clouds up to FL 200

Ref: all

Ans: A

9577. What are squall lines?

A – Unusual intensive cold frontsB – Bands of intensive thunderstormsC – The surface weather associated with upper air troughsD – The paths of tropical revolving storms

Ref: all

Ans: B

9583. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of:

A – 8 km and 5-15 minutesB – 4 km and 30-40 minutesC – 4 km and 1-5 minutesD – 12 km and 5-10 minutes

Ref: all

Ans: C

9596. During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterised by roll clouds most likely to occur?

A – Dissipating stageB – Cumulus stageC – Mature stageD – Cumulus stage and mature stage

Ref: all

Ans: C

9607. What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes over land?

A – Low temperatures, low humidityB – High air pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperaturesC – High temperatures, high humidityD – Subsidence, inversion

Ref: all

Ans: C

9622. What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?

A – Strong steady rainB – ThunderstormsC – FogD – Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels

Ref: all

Ans: B

10343. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?

A – Stable conditions and high moisture contentB – Unstable conditions and high moisture contentC – Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressureD – Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

10359. How long does a typical microburst last?

A – About 30 minutesB – Less than 1 minuteC – 1 to 2 hoursD – 1 to 5 minutes

Ref: all

Ans: D

10366. Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes?

A – Occlusion thunderstormsB – Warm front thunderstormsC – Cold mass thunderstormsD – Air mass thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: D

10381. In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?

A – Mid-afternoonB – Around midnightC – Early morningD – Late morning

Ref: all

Ans: A

10383. Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A – An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a “Faradays Cage”, which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shockB – An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be causedC – Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearingD – Aircraft made by composite material cant conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck

Ref: all

Ans: C

10385. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised predominantly by down drafts?

A – Dissipating stageB – Cumulus stageC – Mature stageD – Anvil stage

Ref: all

Ans: A

10394. What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?

A – Frequent lightningB – Roll cloudC – Continuous updraftD – Rain or hail at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: C

10400. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

A – dissipating stageB – cumulus stageC – mature stageD – period in which precipitation is not falling

Ref: all

Ans: C

10402. In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and down drafts simultaneously?

A – Dissipating stageB – Cumulus stageC – Mature stageD – In all stages

Ref: all

Ans: C

10409. A microburst:

A – is always associated with thunderstormsB – has a life time of more than 30 minutesC – has a diameter up to 4 kmD- occurs only in tropical areas

Ref: all

Ans: C

10410. The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterised by:

A – rain starting at surfaceB – continuous down draughtsC – frequent lightningD – continuous up draughts

Ref: all

Ans: D

10421. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is:

A – cirrusB – stratocumulusC – cumulusD – cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: D

10425. Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indictes upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development?

A – Red cirrusB – AC lenticularisC – HaloD – AC castellanus

Ref: all

Ans: D

10438. Which thunderstorms generally product the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

A – Warm front thunderstormsB – Squall line thunderstormsC – Nocturnal air mass thunderstormsD – Daytime air mass thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B

15817. Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:

A – frontal occlusionB – thermal triggeringC – frontal lifting (warm flood)D – frontal lifting (cold front)

Ref: all

Ans: B

15869. What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A – A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversionB – An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting actionC – Water vapour and high pressureD – A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture

Ref: all

Ans: B

15870. In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered?

A – Sub-tropicalB – TemperateC – TropicalD – Polar

Ref: all

Ans: C

15871. Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the:

A – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rateB – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rateC – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rateD – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate

Ref: all

Ans: D

16359. In general terms, an intense contour low will indicate:

A – quiet settled weatherB – changeable weather but getting betterC – heavy rain, hail and thunderstormD – no change to the weather

Ref: all

Ans: C

16367. Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for thunderstorm development?

A – A marked temperature inversion extending well above the 0 degree isothermB – ELR less than the DALR extending well above the 0 degree isothermC – Instability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree isothermD – Stability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree isotherm

Ref: all

Ans: C

16368. Which of the following conditions are necessary for thunderstorms?

A – Low surface temperatures and high moisture contentB – High moisture content and a trigger actionC – Instability at nightD – Low upper temperatures, and a high 0 degree isotherm

Ref: all

Ans: B

16369. There are two principal types of origin of thunderstorm

A – Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstormsB – Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstormsC – Convection thunderstorms and frontal thunderstormsD – Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: A

16372. Air mass thunderstorms are triggered off by:

A – fronts and/or orographic upliftB – convection at air mass boundariesC – standing wves in the lee of hillsD – convection and/or orographic uplift

Ref: all

Ans: D

16373. Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by:

A – rising air dur to falling pressure at air mass boundariesB – convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving over a warm surfaceC – rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic upliftD – mass ascent over large areas of cold air moving over a warm surface

Ref: all

Ans: A

16374. A thunderstorm has the following stages in its life cycle:

A – cumulus, mature or building and decliningB – building, mature, declining and dissipatingC – cumulus, declining and dissipatingD – cumulus of building, mature and dissipating

Ref: all

Ans: D

16375. The building stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately:

A – 20 minB – 30 minC – 20/.30 minD – 40 min

Ref: all

Ans: A

16376. In the building stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true?

A – Only up-currents are presentB – Only down-currents are presentC – Both up-currents and down-currents are presentD – Up-currents and side-currents are present

Ref: all

Ans: A

16377. The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately:

A – 15 minB – 30 minC – 20/30 minD – 40 min

Ref: all

Ans: C

16378. Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature thunderstorm:

A – both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrentlyB – the cloud top assumes an anvil shapeC – water droplets, hail and snow are all presentD – the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively charged

Ref: all

Ans: A

16379. The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when:

A – no further electrical charge is developedB – the lower portion of the cloud dissipatesC – a well developed anvil can be seenD – all of the above

Ref: all

Ans: C

16381. The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground are:

A – lightning and hailB – heavy precipitation and surfaces squallsC – turbulence and staticD – all of the above

Ref: all

Ans: D

16383. Which types of thunderstorm can be the most difficult to avoid?

A – Mature thunderstorms because they spread over such a wide areaB – Frontal thunderstormsC – Air mass thunderstormsD – Low level thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B

16384. Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect?

A – cumulus thunderstormsB – air mass thunderstormsC – frontal thunderstormsD – cumulus thunderstorms because they are smaller

Ref: all

Ans: B

16385. If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to penetrate?

A – The topB – The middleC – The bottomD – The sides

Ref: all

Ans: D

24180. (Refr to figure 050-72)At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC?

A – Position C, FL 200B – Position A, FL 200C – Position B, FL 270D – Position D, FL 290

Ref: all

Ans: C

24207. A Cb with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is correct?

A – The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloudB – In temperatures lower than -23oC icing is still possibleC – If hail occurs, it only occurs in down draftsD – Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud

Ref: all

Ans: B

24215. A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface:

A – has a diameter up to 4 kmB – has a life time of more than 30 minutesC – is always associated with thunderstormsD – occurs only in tropical areas

Ref: all

Ans: A

24246. Assuming that an initial “trigger” force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are:

A – high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rateB – high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layerC – rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystalsD – intense surface heating, anti-cyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing level

Ref: all

Ans: B

24249. At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds are in the order of:

A – 1-5 minutes and 4 kmB – 30-40 minutes and 4 kmC – 5-15 minutes and 8 kmD – 5-10 minutes and 12 km

Ref: all

Ans: A

24261. Convective weather phenomena include:

A – heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large areaB – thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fogC – thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikesD – hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind maximum

Ref: all

Ans: C

24299. In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms the highest?

A – Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surfaceB – Advection of warm air over a cold land surfaceC – Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surfaceD – Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface

Ref: all

Ans: C

24358. Thunderstorms are often preceded by:

A – AltostratusB – NimbostratusC – Altocumulus CastellanusD – Altocumulus Lenticularis

Ref: all

Ans: C

24367. What is a down burst?

A – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding airB – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding airC – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving stormD – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds

Ref: all

Ans: A

24373. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a microburst?

A – 20 kmB – 400mC – 4 kmD – 50 km

Ref: all

Ans: C

24421. Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms?

A – Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below the freezing level and orographic liftingB – Environmenal lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting processC – Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below 0oC and considerable surface heatingD – Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds

Ref: all

Ans: B

24423. Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy thunderstorms?

A – A cold front approaching a mountain range in the eveningB – The passage of a warm front in the morningC – A cold front on the leeward side of a mountain rangeD – A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground

Ref: all

Ans: A

24424. Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is correct?

A – The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectoryB – Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraftC – Lightning strikes always cause heavy damageD – Compasses and electronics are always affected

Ref: all

Ans: A

24436. Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms?

A – Advection of cold air over a warm seaB – Mountain wavesC – Advection of warm air over a cold seaD – Low level wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: A

24445. Which statement is correct for microbursts?

A – They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rainB – The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 kmC – They occur in the tropics onlyD – Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings

Ref: all

Ans: B

24455. With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air?

A – Anvil stageB – Mature stageC – Initial stageD – Dissipating stage

Ref: all

Ans: C

050-09-05 Tornadoes

9544. The diameter of a typical tornado is:

A – only a few metresB – 100 to 150 metresC – about 2 to 6 kmD – in the order of 10 km

Ref: all

Ans: B

9606. At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?

A – Spring, summerB – Summer, autumnC – Autumn, winterD – Winter

Ref: all

Ans: A

10413. With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated?

A – CumulonimbusB – CumulusC – StratusD – Nimbostratus

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-09-06 Low and high level inversions

24320. Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:

A – terrestrial radiation on a calm clear nightB – an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levelsC – gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at the lower levelsD – compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud

Ref: all

Ans: A24321. Surface-based temperature inversions are common during:

A – cloud free nights in winter when the ground is dryB – cloud free days in summer when the ground is dryC – cloudy days in summer when the ground is wetD – cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-09-07 Stratospheric conditions

No questions in this sub-chapter

050-09-08 Hazards in mountainous areas

10352. You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alpa, on a hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?

A – MorningB – Mid dayC – AfternoonD – Early evening

Ref: all

Ans: A

10380. Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stablelayer of air is forced to rise against a mountain range?

A – InversionsB – Stratified cloudsC – Showers and thunderstormsD – Areas of severe turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: B

10398. You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12oC and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 octas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?

A – In clouds pushed up against he mountains, moderate to severe rime iceB – In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed iceC – Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed iceD – Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost

Ref: all

Ans: B

15811. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?

A – Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridgeB – Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at lest 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridgeC – Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridgeD – Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge

Ref: all

Ans: D

16325. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should:

A – decrease or even reverse directionB – increase initially, then decreaseC – increase with little change in directionD – increase and then reverse in direction

Ref: all

Ans: D

16337. With reference to rotor streaming:

A – It can occur at levels up to 80,000 ftB – It is a low level phenomenonC – It is found at approximately the tropopause levelD – It is another name for the rotor zones associated with mountain waves

Ref: all

Ans: B

24305. Mountain waves should be expected:

A – when instability is highB – on the downwind side of the mountain chainC – directly over the mountain chainD – on the upwind side of the mountain chain

Ref: all

Ans: B

24401. When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?

A – Just below the tropopauseB – Just above the cap cloudC – On the windward side of the mountain rangeD – in the rotor zone

Ref: all

Ans: D

24434. Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?

A – The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain wavesB – Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the groundC – Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with tailwind toward high groundD – Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with headwind toward high ground

Ref: all

Ans: C

24442. Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain wave has been reported?

A – The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain topsB – There are always rotor cloudsC – Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence at the level of these cloudsD – The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains

Ref: all

Ans: C

25632. The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are:

A – wind direction parallel to the mountain range – wind speed increasing with height – extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the tropopauseB – wind diretion parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range – wind speed increasing with height – intense surface heatingC – wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains – intense radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levelsD – wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range – wind speed 30 kt and steadily increasing with height – an inversion just above the crest level with less stable air above and below

Ref: all

Ans: D

050-09-09 Visibility reducing phenomena

9558. In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is:

A – lessB – the sameC – greaterD – in rain – below 1 km, in drizzle – more than 2 km

Ref: all

Ans: C

9572. Visibility is reduced by haze when:

A – a cold front just passedB – a light drizzle fallsC – dust particles are trapped below an inversionD – small water droplets are present

Ref: all

Ans: C

9600. In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when:

A – the surface wind is strong and gustyB – there is a low level inversionC – cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoonD – a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area

Ref: all

Ans: B

10390. Below a low level inversion visibility is often:

A – moderate or poor due to heavy snow showersB – very good at nightC – very good in the early morningD – moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange

Ref: all

Ans: D

10405. Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal:

A – about 500 metresB – about 200 metresC – tens of metresD – about 1000 metres

Ref: all

Ans: C

10422. In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:

A – low stratusB – hazeC – drizzleD – showers of rain or snow

Ref: all

Ans: D

16575. The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:

A – atmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moistureB – atmospheric pollution, volcanic fumes, dust and sandC – atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and sprayD – atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash

Ref: all

Ans: D

16576. The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:

A – fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods)B – cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitationC – cloud, fog, mist, spray or smogD – cloud, fog, mist spray or precipitation

Ref: all

Ans: D

16577. Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:

A – precipitation type and durationB – precipitation duration and droplet sizeC – precipitation intensity and durationD – precipitation intensity and type

Ref: all

Ans: D

24296. In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is:

A – low and the precipitation is showersB – good and the precipitation is steady rainC – good and the precipitation is showersD – low and the precipitation is steady rain

Ref: all

Ans: C

24361. What conditions are necessary for vertical visibility to be reported?

A – It is always reportedB – Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the height of the cloud base cannot be measuredC – Whenever the lowest ceiling is below 1500 ft above groundD – Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1500 ft above ground

Ref: all

Ans: B

24400. When fog is reported, the visibility is below:

A – 0.8 kmB – 1 kmC – 1.5 kmD – 3 km

Ref: all

Ans: B

24402. When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as:

A – fogB – dust fogC – hazeD – mist

Ref: all

Ans: A

050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION

050-10-01 Observation

9660. What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?

A – To locate fronts in areas with few observation stationsB – To measure wind currents on the groundC – To help provide 14-day forecastsD – To locate precipitation zones

Ref: all

Ans: A

9663. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?

A – On the roof of the weather stationB – 1m above the runwayC – Close to the station about 2m above the groundD – On a mast 6-10m above the runway

Ref: all

Ans: D

9685. While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the:

A – portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in serviceB – meteorological visibility on runway 23C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service

Ref: all

Ans: C

9710. What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis) and RVR in homogeneous fog?

A – The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVRB – The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVRC – The met. vis. is generally less than the RVRD – There is no specific relationship between the two

Ref: all

Ans: C

9715. Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

A – HailB – Water vapourC – FogD – Any cloud

Ref: all

Ans: A

10464. When is the RVR reported at most airports?

A – When the RVR decreases below 2000mB – When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800mC – When the RVR decreases below 800mD – When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500m

Ref: all

Ans: D

10493. An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of:

A – cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hailB – all cloudsC – zones of precipitation, particularly liquid state precipitation, and also their intensityD – stratocumulus and its vertical development

Ref: all

Ans: C

10558. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:

A – measured with ceilometers alongside the runwayB – reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000mC – reported in TAF and METARD – usually better than meteorological visibility

Ref: all

Ans: D

15796. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway?

A – MIFGB – FGC – HZD - +FZRA

Ref: all

Ans: D

15818. What is a SPECI?

A – An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hoursB – A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observedC – A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hoursD – A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required

Ref: all

Ans: B

15831. (Refer to figure 050-85)Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located?

A – FL 410B – FL 360C – FL 330D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: B

15847. (Refer to figure 050-82)Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezinglevel above Shannon be found?

A – FL 20B – FL 140C – FL 120D – FL 60

Ref: all

Ans: D

16548. The meaning of RVR is:

A – cross-wind componentB – runway visual rangeC – meteorological visibilityD – braking action

Ref: all

Ans: B

16561. Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height of ___ in a Stevenson Screen:

A – 4 ft (1.25 m)B – 4mC – 10mD – 40cm

Ref: all

Ans: A

16562. A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind direction and speed to be made on a moving chart.

A – anemograph; anemometerB – anemometer; barographC – anemometer; anemographD – barograph; anemometer

Ref: all

Ans: C

16564. The three elements in a cloud report are:

A – amount, cover, height of baseB – type, cover, amountC – amount, type, height of baseD – type, amount, cloud species

Ref: all

Ans: C

16565. Barometric tendency is measured on ___ and recorded on ___

A – an anemometer; an aneroid barometerB – an anemograph; an anemometerC – barograph; aneroid barometerD – aneroid barometer; barograph

Ref: all

Ans: D

16569. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN 010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 + RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB

What is the most likely visibility for landing at 1345Z?

A – 4,500mB – 1,500mC – 6,000mD – 12,000m

Ref: all

Ans: A

16570. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB

What is the lowest cloud base you may encounter at 1345Z?

A – 1,000 ftB – 500 ftC – 700 ftD – 12,000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

24159. (Refer to figure 050-33)For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to position “T”:

A – 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004=B – 24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002=C – 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000=D – 27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004=

Ref: all

Ans: A

24183. (Refer to figure 050-106)Which of the following METAR’s reflect the weather conditions expected at Brussels airport (EBBR) at 1200 UTC?

A – 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG=B – 28010KT 9999 BKN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG=C – VRB03KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR=D – 19022G46KT 1200+TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG NSW=

Ref: all

Ans: A

24192. (Refer to figure 050-05)Of the four radio surroundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:

A – 3B – 1C – 2D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: A

24214. A METAR message is valid

A – at the time of observationB – for 2 hoursC – for the hour following the observationD – for 9 hours

Ref: all

Ans: A

24277. How is a ceiling defined?

A – Height above ground or water of the highest layer of cloud or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers 4 oktas or more of the skyB – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on the amount of cloudsC – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud that contributes to the overall overcastD – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft covering more than half of the sky

Ref: all

Ans: D

24281. In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively:

A – BR = mist HZ = widespread dustB – BR = fog HZ = hazeC – BR = mist HZ = smokeD – BR = mist HZ = haze

Ref: all

Ans: D

24282. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS. This means:

A – Wind from 230o magnetic at 10 miles per hourB – Wind from 230o true at 10 miles per hourC – Wind from 230o magnetic at 20 knotsD – Wind from 230o true at 20 knots

Ref: all

Ans: D

24292. In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates:

A – volcanic ashB – present weather within the approach areaC – present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airportD – present weather at the airport

Ref: all

Ans: C

24293. In the METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means:

A – an active dust stormB – blowing dust in the vicinityC – an active sandstormD – an active dust and sand storm

Ref: all

Ans: B

24352. The temperature at the surface is given as +15oC and at 4000 ft it is +9oC the state of this layer is said to be:

A – absolutely unstableB – conditionally unstableC – stableD – unstable

Ref: all

Ans: C

24356. The visibility transmitted in a METAR is:

A – given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metresB – the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360o scan at the horizonC – the lowest observed in a 360o scan from the meteorological stationD – measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the runway

Ref: all

Ans: C

24362. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

A – Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length 1500 metresB – RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metresC – RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metresD – RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres

Ref: all

Ans: C

24374. What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?

A – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa chartsB – By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300

hPa charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather ChartC – By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chartD – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart

Ref: all

Ans: B

24378. What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC?

KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG


Ref: all

Ans: B

24379. What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK


Ref: all

Ans: A

24381. What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?

LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=

A – 10 kmB – 6 NMC – 4 kmD – 6 km

Ref: all

Ans: D

24394. What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC?EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK

A – 1600 metresB – 4000 metresC – 1000 metresD – 9000 metres

Ref: all

Ans: D

24413. Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?

(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 ft, LSZH 8000 ft, LSGG 12000 ft, LFSB 6000 ft)

A – LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA=B – LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 KBN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 BR=C – LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG=D – LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: B

24427. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH- SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF

A – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380B – Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260C – Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380D – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps

Ref: all

Ans: A

24435. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?

A – 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=B – 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=C – 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=D – 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: A

24452. While appreciating your destination aerodrome you receive the following message:

RVR runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the

A – portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in serviceB – visibility on runway 23C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service

Ref: all

Ans: C

24453. Why can the following METAR not be abbreviated to CAVOK?DLLO 121550Z 31018G30KT 9999 FEW060TCU BKN070 14/08 Q1016 TEMPO 4000 TS=

A – Because the cloud base in below the highest minimum sector altitudeB – Because there are gusts reportedC – Because towering cumulus are observedD – Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours

Ref: all

Ans: A

25596. (Refer to figure 050-04)Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:

A – 1B – 2C – 3D – 4


Ans: B

25634. The radiosonde can directly measure:

A – below 5 ktB – between 10 and 15 ktC – between 5 and 10 ktD – above 15 kt


Ans: A

050-10-02 Weather charts

24119. (Refer to figure 050-57)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:

A – cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to strong windsB – clear skies, good visibility in light windsC – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to strong windsD – radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind

Ref: all

Ans: C

2847. In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?

A – 500 – 400 hPaB – 600 – 500 hPaC – 300 – 200 hPaD – 400 – 300 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: C

8989. (Refer to figure 050-102)On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?

A – Zurich-HamburgB – Zurich-MadridC – Hamburg-StockholmD – Zurich-Vienna

Ref: all

Ans: C

9640. (Refer to figure 050-98)The cold front is indicated at position:

A – AB – BC – CD – D

Ref: all

Ans: B

9644. (Refer to figure 050-98)The warm sector is indicated by letter:

A – AB – BC – DD – C

Ref: all

Ans: D

9649. When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest you rflight level?


Ref: all

Ans: C

9658. (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone B?

A – ColB – Ridge of high pressureC – DepressionD – Trough of low pressure

Ref: all

Ans: A

9680. If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?


Ref: all

Ans: D

9703. What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?

A – Positions with the same air densityB – Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levelsC – Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressureD – Positions with the same wind velocity

Ref: all

Ans: C

9713. (Refer to figure 050-105_A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing?

A – 1B – 4C – 5D – 6

Ref: all

Ans: A

9723. (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone C?

A – Ridge of high pressureB – ColC – Trough of low pressureD – Depression

Ref: all

Ans: A

10449. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 300?


Ref: all

Ans: D

10456. If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?


Ref: all

Ans: B

10472. On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jet stream?

A – Upper air chartB – Wind/temperature chartC – Surface chartD – Significant weather chart

Ref: all

Ans: D

10476. (Refer to figure 050-06)What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?

A – The centre of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL 400B – The centre of a high pressure area at 400 hPaC – The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400D – The lower limit of the tropopause

Ref: all

Ans: A

10498. (Refer to figure 050-105_A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revoving storm?

A – 2B – 7C – 10D – 6

Ref: all

Ans: A

10503. (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone D?

A – Anti-cycloneB – Ridge of high pressureC – DepressionD – Trough of low pressure

Ref: all

Ans: C



Ref: all

Ans: C



Ref: all

Ans: D

10524. Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level?

A – Surface chartB – 500 hPa chartC – 700 hPa chartD – Significant weather chart

Ref: all

Ans: D



Ref: all

Ans: B

10535. How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?

A – ISOL CBB – EMBD CBC – FREQ CBD – OCNL CB

Ref: all

Ans: D

10538. In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?

A – 300 hPa chartB – 24 hour surface forecastC – 500 hPa chartD – Significant Weather Chart

Ref: all

Ans: D

10543. What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

A – The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chartB – The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chartC – The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chartD – The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart

Ref: all

Ans: C

10544. How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?

A – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hourB – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knotsC – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knotsD – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour

Ref: all

Ans: C



Ref: all

Ans: A

15799. (Refer to figure 2050-71)You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?

A – FL 140B – FL 260C – FL 320D – FL 300

Ref: all

Ans: B

15802. (Refer to figure 050-100)What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome?

A – 020/50B – 050/40C – 200/40D – 350/40

Ref: all

Ans: C

15834. (Refer to figure 050-44)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich airport?

A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN01S TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN W002=B – TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=

Ref: all

Ans: D

15835. The upper wind and temperatue chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about:

A – 39,000 ftB – 30,000 ftC – 32,000 ftD – 34,000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: D

15842. When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level?


Ref: all

Ans: C

15846. (Refer to figure 050-82)Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome at FL 110:

A – 230/10B – 200/30C – 040/10D – 250/20

Ref: all

Ans: A

16356. The 500 mb contour chart is equivalent to Flight Level:

A – FL 300B – FL 90C – FL 50D – FL 180

Ref: all

Ans: D

16362. The lines on a contour chart join points at:

A – equal pressureB – equal temperatureC – equal heightD – equal humidity

Ref: all

Ans: C

24100. (Refer to figure 050-59)Considering the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean height of the tropical tropopause during summer is approximately:

A – 33,000 ftB – 39,000 ftC – 51,000 ftD – 60,000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

24105. (Refer to figure 050-61)Considering the sector Rom to 25oN on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?

A – Easterlies at 40 ktB – Variable easterliesC – Light westerliesD – Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kt

Ref: all

Ans: D

24107. (Refer to figure 050-51)The air mass affecting positon “A” is most likely to be:

A – Continental tropicalB – Maritime polarC – Continental polarD – Maritime tropical

Ref: all

Ans: B

24108. (Refer to figure 050-49)The air mass affecting position “C” is most likely to be:

A – Continental tropicalB – Maritime tropicalC – Maritime polarD – Continental polar

Ref: all

Ans: B

24109. (Refer to figure 050-50)The air mass affecting position “S” is most likely to be:

A – Maritime polar and unstableB – Maritime tropical and stableC – Maritime polar and stableD – Continental tropical and unstable

Ref: all

Ans: B

24110. (Refer to figure 050-62)The air mass affecting position “P” is most likely to be:

A – Maritime tropicalB – Maritime polarC – Continental tropicalD – Continental polar

Ref: all

Ans: D

24111. (Refer to figure 050-63)The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:

A – Maritime tropicalB – Maritime polarC – Continental polarD – Continental tropical

Ref: all

Ans: D

24112. (Refer to figure 050-64)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:

A – little or no cloud – hazyB – morning fog liftig to low stratusC – OVC SCD – frequent heavy showers of rain or snow

Ref: all

Ans: D

24113. (Refer to figure 050-65)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:

A – advection fogB – clear skies – radiation fog forming overnightC – snow showers – gale force windD – continuous drizzle and hill fog

Ref: all

Ans: C

24117. (Refer to figure 050-34)The occurrence of freezing rain at FL 60 is most likely in square:

A – 2DB – 2AC – 3BD – 3C

Ref: all

Ans: D

24120. (Refer to figue 050-50)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:

A – increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rainB – scattered thunderstorms and good visibilityC – overcast with drizzle and orographic fogD – small amounts of CU with generally good visibility

Ref: all

Ans: C

24122. (Refer to figure 050-27)What flight conditions are most likely to be experienced in square 2B by an aircraft at FL 120?

A – IMC in NS with risk of light icingB – VMC below an overcast of AS and CS, generally smooth airC – IMC in layers of AS and isolated CB risk of severe turbulence and icingD – VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions

Ref: all

Ans: D

24123. (Refer to figure 050-34)For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the most likely weather conditions are:

A – showers of rain and hailB – moderate continuous rainC – low cloud, mistD – scattered AC base 2000 ft, good visibility

Ref: all

Ans: C

24124. (Refer to figure 050-34)For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter are:

A – generally overcast, moderate continuous rain and risk of low level wind shearB – scattered SC and CU, good visibilityC – poor visibility in mist and drizzleD – prolonged periods of heavy rain and hail

Ref: all

Ans: C

24125. (Refer to figure 050-51)The weather most likely to be experienced near to position “A” is:

A – overcast layer cloud – rain laterB – advection fog and drizzleC – frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitationD – clear skies – radiation fog at night

Ref: all

Ans: C

24126. (Refer to figure 050-52)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:

A – early morning fog lifting to low stratus laterB – advection fog and drizzleC – poor visibility in anty-cyclonic circulationD – frequent showers of rain or snow

Ref: all

Ans: D

24127. (Refer to figure 050-53)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:

A – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzleB – scattered stratocumulus with good visibilityC – frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showersD – clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility

Ref: all

Ans: C

24128. (Refer to figure 050-54)The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position “Q” is:

A – mainly clear skies with fog developing overnightB – mainly overcast with poor visibilityC – thundery showers particularly at nightD – showery with generally good visibility

Ref: all

Ans: D

24132. (Refer to figure 050-55)The pressure system at position “D” is a:

A – secondary lowB – colC – trough of low pressureD – ridge of high pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

24136. (Refer to figure 050-18)The dotted line designated “Z” represents the:

A – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during JulyB – mean position of the inter-tropical convegency zone (ITCZ) during JanuaryC – northerly limit of the sub-tropical jet stream during JulyD – northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January

Ref: all

Ans: A

24137. (Refer to figure 050-18)The dotted line labelled “Y” represents the:

A – axis of the sub-tropical jet stream during JanuaryB – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during JanuaryC – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during JulyD – axis of the equatorial jet stream during July

Ref: all

Ans: B

24138. (Refer to figure 050-22)The weather most likely to be experienced at position “R” is:

A – overcast with drizzle and hill fogB – early morning fog lifting to low stratusC – increasing amounts of AS and NS – heavy rainD – fine and warm at first – AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: D

24140. (Refer to figure 050-58)For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situation near high ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3B, a potential hazard exists in the form of:

A – radiation fogB – low level wind shearC – rotor streamingD – clear air turbulence (CAT)

Ref: all

Ans: B

24141. (Refer to figure 050-23)The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is:

A – an occlusion on the surfaceB – a warm frontC – an occlusion above the surfaceD – a cold front

Ref: all

Ans: A

24142. (Refer to figure 050-24)The air mass at position “X” is most likely to be:

A – Maritime polarB – Maritime tropicalC – Continental polarD – Continental tropical

Ref: all

Ans: B

24143. (Refer to figure 050-17)The air mass type indicated by arrow number 4 is designated:

A – Continental polarB – Maritime tropicalC – Maritime polarD – Continental tropical

Ref: all

Ans: B

24144. (Refer to figure 050-25)The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:

A – Maritime tropicalB – Continental polarC – Continental tropicalD – Maritime polar

Ref: all

Ans: D

24145. (Refer to figure 050-27)For an aircraft at FL 80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight conditions are:

A – IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulence with a risk of rime icingB – overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence with the possibility of thunderstormsC – below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitationD – high C1 and CS type cloud, light turbulence and poor visibility

Ref: all

Ans: C

24146. (Refer to figure 050-27)For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of:

A – clear ice accretion to the airframeB – severe turbulence associated with CBC – severe turbulence and wind shearD – severe down drafts from subsiding air

Ref: all

Ans: A

24147. (Refer to figure 050-27)What conditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square 3B?

A – Mainly overcast at 8000 ft, visibility less than 5 km in continuous moderate rainB – Broken CU base 2000 ft, visibility more than 5 km, occasional showers of rain or snowC – 6-8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzleD – Intermittent thunderstorms otherwise generally clear skies with good visibility

Ref: all

Ans: C

24148. (Refer to figure 050-26)When front “G” passes position “T” the surface wind should:

A – veer and decreaseB – veer and increaseC – back and increaseD – back and decrease

Ref: all

Ans: B

24149. (Refer to figure 050-66)The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is a:

A – trough of low pressureB – colC – ridge of high pressureD – depression

Ref: all

Ans: C

24151. (Refer to figure 050-29)From indications shown on the chart, when front “S” passes position “V” the urface wind should:

A – back and decreaseB – veer and increaseC – back and remain more or less at the same speedD – veer and remain more or less at the same speed

Ref: all

Ans: D

24152. (Refer to figure 050-29)By the time the front “Z” has passed point “Q” the surface wind will have:

A – veered and increasedB – veered and decreasedC – backed and increasedD – backed and decreased

Ref: all

Ans: A

24153. (Refer to figure 050-93)The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest oC) overhead Charleston t FL 340 is:

A - +3B - +5C - -5D - -7

Ref: all

Ans: B

24154. (Refer to figure 050-83)At 40oN 70oW, the forecast wind is:

A – 270o/95 ktB – 320o/40 ktC – 240o/90 ktD – 280o/70 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A

24155. (Refer to figure 050-85)At 40oN 20oW, the forecast wind at FL 390 is:

A – 090o/45 ktB – 060o/45 ktC – 070o/30 ktD – 270o/45 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A

24156. (Refer to figure 050-63)The front located from 10oW to 10oE is most likely to be:

A – a quasi-stationary frontB – an active warm front moving northC – an active occlusion moving southD – a cold front moving south

Ref: all

Ans: A

24157. (Refer to figure 050-32)The front labelled “E” is a:

A – cold frontB – warm frontC – warm occlusionD – cold occlusion

Ref: all

Ans: A

24158. (Refer to figure 050-93)Considering the route between Valencia and Charleston at FL 340, the forecast mean temperature is:

A - -45oCB - -50oCC - -55oCD - -40oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

24160. (Refer to figure 050-92)What is the average wind forecast for FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid?

A – 180/20B – 300/45C – 240/25D – 280/30

Ref: all

Ans: D

24161. (Refer to figure 050-92)What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid?

A - +2oCB - +12oCC - -2oCD - -12oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24162. (Refer to figure 050-94)The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL 390 is:

A – 270/50B – 270/30C – 320/70D – 310/50

Ref: all

Ans: A

24163. (Refer to figure 050-94)What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 390 between Madrid and Dhahran?

A - -1oCB - +5oCC - -5oCD - +2oC

Ref: all

Ans: A

24164. (Refer to figure 050-95)Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). At 40oN 20oW, the temperature deviation from ISA at FL 390 is:

A – 0oCB - +6oCC - +2oCD - -2oC

Ref: all

Ans: A

24165. (Refer to figure 050-95)Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). Considering the route segment between 60oW and 70oW, at FL 390 the forecast mean temperature is:

A – -52oCB - -55oCC - -58oCD - -61oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

24166. (Refer to figure 050-96)The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:

A – 245/55B – 240/90C – 270/70D – 220/70

Ref: all

Ans: D

24167. (Refer to figure 050-96)The mean temperature that may be expected to affect that segment of the route from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:

A - -34oCB - -38oCC - -30oCD - -42oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

24168. (Refer to figure 050-96)At FL 300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind would be most likely?

A – 245/50B – 225/25C – 265/40D – 265/25

Ref: all

Ans: A

24169. (Refer to figure 050-114)In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is:

A – 210o/30 kt (diagram B)B – 030o/30 kt (diagram A)C – 030o/30 kt (diagram C)D – 210o/30 kt (diagram D)

Ref: all

Ans: B

24170. (Refer to figure 050-30)According to the extract of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction over the sea is approximately:

A – 140o

B – 110o

C – 310o

D – 220o

Ref: all

Ans: A

24172. (Refer to figure 050-31)On a Significant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol:

A – 1B – 4C – 2D – 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

24174. (Refer to figure 050-35)What is the classification of the air mass affecting position “Q”?

A – Continental tropicalB – Maritime polarC – Continental polarD – Maritime tropical

Ref: all

Ans: D

24175. (Refer to figure 050-105_B)Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?

A – Symbol 5B – Symbol 3C – Symbol 4D – Symbol 2

Ref: all

Ans: A

24178. (Refer to figure 050-71)What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik and Helsinki?

A – FL 360B – FL 350C – FL 300D – FL 320

Ref: all

Ans: D

24179. (Refer to figure 050-72)At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern Scandinavia?

A – FL 330B – FL 280C – FL 360D – FL 300

Ref: all

Ans: B

24181. (Reer to figure 050-73)At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?

A – FL 350B – FL 300C – FL 330D – FL 240

Ref: all

Ans: C

24182. (Refer to figure 050-69)The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be:

A - -57oCB - -39oCC - -33oCD - -45oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

24185. (Refer to figure 050-76)What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris?

A - -25oCB - -23oCC - -15oCD - -19oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

24186. (Refer to figure 050-78)What is the speed of the front located over France?

A – 15 ktB – 25 ktC – 10 ktD – 30 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A

24191. (Refer to figure 050-111)Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?

A – Diagram 3B – Diagram 4C – Diagram 2D – Diagram 1

Ref: all

Ans: B

24193. (Refer to figure 050-98)A convergence line is indicated by:

A – CB – BC – AD – D

Ref: all

Ans: C

24194. (Refer to figure 050-112)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)?


Ref: all

Ans: C

24195. (Refer to figure 050-105_A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)?


Ref: all

Ans: C

24197. (Refer to figure 050-100)Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt – Rome at FL 170:

A – 230/40B – 200/50C – 050/40D – 030/35

Ref: all

Ans: A

24198. (Refer to figure 050-86)If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?

A – Flight largely in cloud; no turbulenceB – Moderate or severe turbulence and icingC – Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flightD – CAT for the first half of the flight

Ref: all

Ans: B

24199. (Refer to figure 050-87)Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL 310 above London?

A – 90 ktB – 300 ktC – 140 ktD – 100 km/h

Ref: all

Ans: A

24200. (Refer to figure 050-90)Which of these statements is true?

A – Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 400 over Malaga (LEMG)B – Freezing level above London (EGLL) is higher than FL 065C – The front to the east of Paris (LEPO) is moving southD – Local snow and severe aircraft icing can be expected over Germany

Ref: all

Ans: D

24201. (Refer to figure 050-91)On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 170?

A – Paris – LisbonB – Madrid – ViennaC – London – StockholmD – Zurich – Athens

Ref: all

Ans: C

24202. (Refer to figure 050-47)This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the ollowing reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?

A – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=B – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=C – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=D – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=

Ref: all

Ans: A

24203. (Refer to figure 050-87)Which of the following statements is true?

A – The moderate icing conditions overhead Zurich are forecast in a layer between FL 140 and above the limit of the chartB – The wind speed in the core of the jet stream near Bordeaux (B) is about 90 ktC – The west part of the front system over Spain moves to the south with 10 kt and the eastern part of that front over Spain moves to the northD – On a flight from Copenhagen to Amsterdam you have not to worry about moderate and/or severe turbulence at FL 100

Ref: all

Ans: B

24205. (Refer to figue 050-85)If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 130 between 0600 and 0900 UTC, what can you expect at cruising level?

A – You will be out of clouds more of three quarters of your flightB – A strong wind from the right with 90 kt at the crossing of the core of the jet streamC – You will arrive at your destination before you have to cross the warm frontD – Moderate icing about half way along the route

Ref: all

Ans: D

24308. On an upper wind and temperature chart:

A – the wind increases from south to northB – the temperature is constant all over the chartC – the height is constant all over the chartD – the pressure is constant all over the chart

Ref: all

Ans: D

25579. (Refer to figure 050-98)A convergence line is indicated by:

A – Sector AB – Sector BC – Sector CD – Sector D

Ref: all

Ans: A

25580. (Refer to figure 050-98)The warm sector is indicated by:

A – Sector AB – Sector BC – Sector CD – Sector D

Ref: all

Ans: C

25581. (Refer to figue 050-98)Which of the following best describes Zone A?

A – Trough of low pressureB – Cold FrontC – Ridge of high pressureD – Depression

Ref: all

Ans: A

25582. (Refer to figure 050-98)Which of the following best describes Zone B?

A – Ridge of high pressureB – Cold FrontC – DepressionD – Trough of low pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

25583. (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone C?

A – Ridge of high pressureB – Cold FrontC – Trough of low pressureD – Depression

Ref: all

Ans: A

25584. (Refer to figure 050-98)Which of the following best describes Zone D?

A – Ridge of high pressureB – Trough of low pressureC – Anti-cycloneD – Depression

Ref: all

Ans: D

25585. (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone A depict?

A – A troughB – A ridgeC – The warm sectorD – The Cold Front

Ref: all

Ans: A

25586. (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone C depict?

A – A troughB – A ridgeC – The warm sectorD – The Cold Front

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – 1B – 2C – 3D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – DB – CC – BD – A

Ref: all

Ans: B

25589. (Refer to figure 050-36)Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 1200 UTC?

A – LIRFB – LEMDC – LFPOD – LOWW

Ref: all

Ans: C

25595. (Refer to figure 050-46)Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the following night?

A – ENFBB – EKCHC – LFPOD – EINN

Ref: all

Ans: C

25597. (Refer to figure 050-42)What does this picture depict?

A – A high pressure area over FranceB – A westerly wave over Central EuropeC – South foehnD – North foehn

Ref: all

Ans: B

25598. (Refer to figure 050-43)Where do the westerly wves occur in this picture?

A – In Central EuropeB – Over ScandinaviaC – In the MediterraneanD – Over the Baltics

Ref: all

Ans: B

25600. (Refer to figure 050-100)Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found?

A – FL 100B – FL 20C – FL 180D – FL 260

Ref: all

Ans: A

25601. (Refer to figure 050-100)What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt-Rome at FL 180?

A – 4oC colder than ISAB – 4oC warmer than ISAC – 10oC colder than ISAD – 10oC warmer than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: A

25602. (Refer to figure 050-107)What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?

A - -55oCB - -51oCC - -63oCD - -47oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

25603. (Refer to figure 050-69)Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map?

A – FL 300B – FL 330C – FL 150D – FL 280

Ref: all

Ans: A

25604. (Refer to figure 050-84)On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?

A – Hamburg – OsloB – Rome – FrankfurtC – Tunis – RomeD – Copenhagen – Helsinki

Ref: all

Ans: A

25605. (Refer to figure 050-85)Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located?

A – FL 360B – FL 410C – FL 330D – FL 390

Ref: all

Ans: A

25606. (Refer to figure 050-108)On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL 240?

A – Rome – BerlinB – Zurich – RomeC – Zurich – AthensD – Shannon – Hamburg

Ref: all

Ans: D

25607. (Refer to figure 050-71)You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?

A – FL 260B – FL 320C – FL 180D – FL 140

Ref: all

Ans: A

25608. (Refer to figure 050-77)What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the ICAO Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?

A – ISA -13oCB – ISA -2oCC – ISA +13oCD – ISA +2oC

Ref: all

Ans: A

25609. (Refer to figure 050-109)State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL 140:

A – 8oC colder than ISAB – 4oC warmer than ISAC – 8oC warmer than ISAD – 12oC colder than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: A




Ans: D

25611. Which of the following symbols represents a thunderstorm?



Ans: A




Ans: D


A – FL 300B – FL 330C – FL 150D – FL 280

Ref: all

Ans: A

25614. (Refer to figue 050-75)What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris?

A – 210/40B – 240/20C – 030/40D – 190/40

Ref: all

Ans: A


A – FL 330B – FL 310C – FL 300D – FL 280

Ref: all

Ans: C

25616. (Refer to figue 050-71)To what extend is Zurich covered by clouds?

A – 3 to 5 oktasB – 5 to 8 oktasC – 1 to 4 oktasD – 5 to 7 oktas

Ref: all

Ans: B

25617. (Refer to figure 050-110)Which of the following best describes Zone A?

A – Ridge of high pressureB – Trough of low pressureC – DepressionD – Col

Ref: all

Ans: B

25618. (Refer to figure 050-104)What pressure does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?

A – Rising pressureB – Falling pressureC – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure dropD – No substantial pressure change

Ref: all

Ans: A

25619. (Refer to figure 050-104)What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?

A – Rising pressureB – Falling pressureC – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure dropD – No substantial pressure change

Ref: all

Ans: B

25620. (Reer to figure 050-104)What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?

A – The temperature decreasesB – The temperature increasesC – The temperature first increases and then decreasesD – No substantial temperature change

Ref: all

Ans: B

25623. (Refer to figue 050-105_B)Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?


Ref: all

Ans: C

25624. (Refer to figure 050-71)Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220?

A – Individual cumulonimbusB – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbusC – Scattered towering cumulusD – Scattered castellanus

Ref: all

Ans: A

25625. (Refer to figue 050-80)To what extent is Munich covered by clouds?

A – 5 to 8 oktasB – 1 to 4 oktasC – 5 to 7 oktasD – 3 to 5 oktas

Ref: all

Ans: A

25627. (Refer to figure 050-13)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper leel contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?

A – Wind speed at A is higher than at BB – The true altitude will be higher at B than at AC – The true altitude will be higher at A than at BD – Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B

Ref: all

Ans: C

25628. (Refer to figure 050-46)Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?

A – ESSAB – ENGMC – EKCHD – LSZH

Ref: all

Ans: d

25629. (Refer to figure 050-89)If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?

A – Constantly in the troposphereB – Constantly in the stratosphereC – First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphereD – In the stratosphere for part of time

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-10-03 Information for flight planning

9628. Runway visual range can be reported in:

A – a TAFB – a METARC – a SIGMETD – both a TA and a METAR

Ref: all

Ans: B9632. You receive the following METAR:

LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG= What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?

A – 300 mB – The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVRC – 700 mD – 900 m

Ref: all

Ans: B

9633. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?

A – When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speedB – When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speedC – With gusts of at least 25 knotsD – With gusts of at least 35 knots

Ref: all

Ans: A

9637. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?

A – 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=B – 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000=C – 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG=D – 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: C

9639. The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is a:

A – METARB – 24 hour TAFC – SPECID – 9 hour TAF

Ref: all

Ans: D

9642. (Refr to figure 050-67)Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?

A – Moderate turbulence, moderate icingB – Moderate turbulence, light icingC – Severe turbulence, moderate icingD – Severe turbulence, severe icing

Ref: all

Ans: A

9643. Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?

A – TSB – SAC – DZD – SQ

Ref: all

Ans: C

9646. What is the meaning of the expression “FEW”?

A – 2-4 oktas cloud coverB – 1-2 oktas cloud coverC – 5-7 oktas cloud coverD – 1-3 oktas cloud cover

Ref: all

Ans: B

9647. In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formatin in the coming night the highest?

A – 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR=B – 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG=C – 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG=D – 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500=

Ref: all

Ans: A

9651. (Refer to figure 050-83)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich-Lisboa at FL 200:

A - -33oCB - -30oCC - -41oCD - -49oC

Ref: all

Ans: A

9652. Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360o/2 kt, visibility 2000m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa,Calvi: wind 040o/2 kt, visibility 3000m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa. The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:

A – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 2000 ft at CalviB – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 500 ft at CalviC – 8000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at CalviD – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi

Ref: all

Ans: D

9657. What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?

A – 6 – 8 oktasB – 3 – 4 oktasC – 5 – 7 oktasD – 8 oktas

Ref: all

Ans: C

9661. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS=What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports:

A – That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAFB – That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAFC – That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morningD – That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF

Ref: all

Ans: C

9662. What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

A – ktB – kt/100 ftC – m/100 ftD – m/sec

Ref: all

Ans: B

9665. (Refer to figure 050-70)In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area no2?

A – From FL 220 to FL 400, moderateB – From FL 240 to FL 370, lightC – From below FL 130 to FL 270, lightD – From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate

Ref: all

Ans: A

9666. What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?

A – No significant changesB – No report receivedC – No weather related problemsD – Not signed by the meteorologist

Ref: all

Ans: A

9667. (Refer to figure 050-84)On which of these routes would you have to worry about turbulence at FL 340?

A – Rome – BerlinB – Zurich – RomeC – Zurich – AthensD – Shannon – Hamburg

Ref: all

Ans: D

9668. A SPECI is:

A – an aviation routine weather reportB – an aviation selected special weather reportC – a warning for special weather phenomenaD – a forecast for special weather phenomena

Ref: all

Ans: B

9673. What does the term METAR signify?

A – A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times dailyB – A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIRC – A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervalsD – A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report

Ref: all

Ans: C

9674. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:

FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?

A – 5 kmB – 3 kmC – 5 NMD – 6 km

Ref: all

Ans: B

9675. How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper air chart levels? (eg. Wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available)

A – By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather ChartB – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two chartsC – By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chartD – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart

Ref: all

Ans: A

9676. (Refer to figure 050-86)If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?

A – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbusB – Individual cumulonimbusC – Scattered towering cumulusD – Scattered castellanus

Ref: all

Ans: B

9678. (Refer to figure 050-74)Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich-London at FL 280:

A – 040/80B – 250/80C – 220/60D – 160/90

Ref: all

Ans: C

9681. (Refer to figure 050-46)Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?

A – 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG W001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800=B – 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA=C – 21002KT 5000 HZ SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG=D – 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: C

9683. What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT?

A – 1-2 oktasB – 3-4 oktasC – 5-7 oktasD – 1-4 oktas

Ref: all

Ans: B

9687. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd t sobs and fcst in w part of athinai fir/mov e/inst nc =

A – Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTCB – Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving westC – Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constantD – The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR

Ref: all

Ans: C

9688. Given the following METAR:

EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG

A – Visibility is reduced by water dropletsB – There is a distinct change in RVR observedC – Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVRD – RVR on runway 26R is increasing

Ref: all

Ans: A

9691. (Refer to figure 050-97)What is the deviation of the temperatue at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?

A – 4oC warmer than ISAB – 8oC colder than ISAC – 8oC warmer than ISAD – 29oC colder than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: B

9692. ATIS information contains:

A – operational information and if necessary meteorological informationB – only meteorological informationC – meteorological and operations informationD – only operational information

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – FZFGB – BCFGC – SND – HZ

Ref: all

Ans: C

9694. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?

(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)

A – LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG=B – LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 –RA=C – LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG=D – LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: B

9696. What does the expression Broken (BKN) mean?

A – 5-7 eights of the sky is cloud coveredB – 3-4 eights of the sky is cloud coveredC – 3-5 eights of the sky is cloud coveredD – Nil significant cloud cover

Ref: all

Ans: A

9699. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?

A – Clear ice on the runways of an aerodromeB – Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodromeC – Severe mountain wavesD – A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR

Ref: all

Ans: C

9704. Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR?

LSZH 050820Z 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000=

A – Meteorological visibility 1000m, RVR 400m, freezing level at 300m, variable winds, temperature 2oCB – RVR for runway 16 1000m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next two hours to 2000m, vertical visibility 300m, temperature -2oCC – RVR for runway 14 1500m meteorological visibility 400m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160o at 3 ktD – Meteorological visibility 400m, RVR for runway 16 1000m, dew point – 2oC freezing fog

Ref: all

Ans: D

9706. (Refer to figure 050-36)What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC?

A – 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG=B – 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA=C – 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW=D – 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: B

9709. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?

A – 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS=B – 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG=C – 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG=D – 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000=

Ref: all

Ans: A

9712. (Refer to figure 050-79)Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160?

A – Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layersB – 4 oktas broken cumulusC – Isolated cumulonimbus onlyD – 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence

Ref: all

Ans: A

9714. (Refer to figure 050-37)Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?

A – ESSAB – LSZHC – ENFBD – EFHK

Ref: all

Ans: B

9716. (Refer to figure 050-71)Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London?

A – 220o / 120 ktB – 220o / 120 km/hC – 050o / 120 ktD – 230o / 120 m/sec

Ref: all

Ans: A

9717. What is a trend forecast?

A – An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hoursB – A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hoursC – A route forecast valid for 24 hoursD – A routine report

Ref: all

Ans: B

9719. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=

The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:

A – 1000 ftB – 1500 ftC – 1500 mD – 5000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

9721. If CAVOK is reported then:

A – no low drifting snow is presentB – no clouds are presentC – low level windshear has not been reportedD – any CBs have a base above 5000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: A

9722. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

A – 9 hoursB – 2 hoursC – 1 hourD – 30 minutes

Ref: all

Ans: B

10445. In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:

EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for London fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst move wkn=

Which decision is correct?

A – You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the route to be flownB – Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250C – Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)D – You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers

Ref: all

Ans: B

10446. (Refer to figure 050-100)Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found?

A – FL 100B – FL 20C – FL 180D – FL 260

Ref: all

Ans: A

10447. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:

FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=

Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast?

A – 120o / 15 kt gusts 25 ktB – 140o / 10 ktC – 300o / 15 kt maximum wind 25 ktD – 250o / 20 kt

Ref: all

Ans: A


A - +SHSNB – VAC – BRD – MIFG

Ref: all

Ans: A

10454. (Refer to figure 050-83)Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich – Hamburg at FL 240:

A – 230/20B – 020/20C – 200/15D – 260/25

Ref: all

Ans: A

10459. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?

A – 500mB – 250 ftC – 500 ftD – 800 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

10460. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note:

TEMPO TSWhat is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance?

A – 120 minutesB – 60 minutesC – 10 minutesD – 20 minutes

Ref: all

Ans: B

10461. (Refer to figure 050-84)On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?

A – Rome – FrankfurtB – Hamburg – OsloC – Tunis – RomeD – Copenhagen – Helsinki

Ref: all

Ans: B

10463. A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in:

A – TAF and SIGMETB – TAF and METARC – METAR and SIGMETD – SWC and SIGMET

Ref: all

Ans: D

10470. Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport:TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?

A – Meteorological visibility 6 kilometers, cloudbase 500 feet, wind speed 5 knotsB – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feetC – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet calmD – Meteorological visibility 2.5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots

Ref: all

Ans: D

10471. Which of the following phenomena can product a risk of aqua planning?

A – SAB – FGC – BCFGD - +RA

Ref: all

Ans: D

10473. Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation VV001 mean?

A – RVR greater than 100mB – RVR less than 100mC – Vertical visibility 100 ftD – Vertical visibility 100m

Ref: all

Ans: C

10479. (Refer to figure 050-77)What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?

A – ISA -2oCB – ISA -13oCC – ISA +13oCD – ISA +2oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

10480. (Refer to figure 050-108)Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?

A – 340 ktB – 145 ktC – 95 ktD – 140 km/h

Ref: all

Ans: B

10481. (Refer to figure 050-81)What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva?

A - -24oCB - -20oCC - -16oCD - -28oC

Ref: all

Ans: A

10483. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport:FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast?

A – 10 or more kmB – 8 NMC – 10 NMD – 8 km

Ref: all

Ans: D

10485. SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:

A – heavy aircraft onlyB – light aircraft onlyC – VFR operations onlyD – all aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: D

10488. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?

A – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECIB – The airspace in question, will be temporarily closedC – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMETD – The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning

Ref: all

Ans: C

10490. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?

A – TAFB – SIGMETC – GAFORD – METAR

Ref: all

Ans: D

10491. What does the term TREND signify?

A – It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times dailyB – It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervalsC – It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditionsD – It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report

Ref: all

Ans: D

10492. (Refer to figure 050-109)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens – Geneva at FL 150:

A - -21oCB - -14oCC - -11oCD - -27oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

10494. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:

A – the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation stationB – mean sea levelC – the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observationD – airfield level

Ref: all

Ans: D

10495. (Refer to figure 050-90)Which of these statements is true?

A – Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over MadridB – Freezing level above Madris is higher than FL 120C – The front to the north of London is moving southD – Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France

Ref: all

Ans: D

10499. Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean?

A – Probability of 30%B – Conditions will last for at least 30 minutesC – The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ftD – Change expected in less than 30 minutes

Ref: all

Ans: A

10500. Refer to TAF below:EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT

From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be:

A – not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 kmB – a maximum of 5 kmC – a minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 kmD – more than 10 km

Ref: all

Ans: A

10501. On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of:

A – 2 hoursB – 1 hourC – 0.5 hoursD – 3 hours

Ref: all

Ans: C

10507. (Refer to figure 050-88)Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate CAT at FL 300?

A – Zurich – AthensB – London – ZurichC – Zurich – StockholmD – Madrid – Bordeaux

Ref: all

Ans: A

10510. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?

A – SPECIB – ATISC – SIGMETD – TAF

Ref: all

Ans: C

10511. (Refer to figure 050-71)If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 280, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?

A – Out of cloud throughout the flightB – Cloud most of the way; little chance of CATC – Scattered thunderstormsD – Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way along the route

Ref: all

Ans: D

10512. (Refer to figure 050-82)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich – Rome at FL 110:

A - -6oCB - -12oCC - -9oCD - +5oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

10513. (Refer to figure 050-46)Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?

A – ENFBB – LSZHC – EKCHD – ESSA

Ref: all

Ans: B

10515. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?

A – VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG=B – 22004KT 6000 –RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG=C – VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR=D – 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: C

10517. What does the term SIGMET signify?

A – A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditionsB – A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times dailyC – A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather reportD – A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals

Ref: all

Ans: A

10521. Which of the statements is true concerning equal lines?

A – Severe squall lines always move from north west to south eastB – Severe squall lines only occur in the tropicsC – For severe squall lines a TAF is issuedD – For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued

Ref: all

Ans: D

10525. (Reer to figure 050-109)Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens – Geneva at FL 160:

A – 240/40B – 210/25C – 260/45D – 050/35

Ref: all

Ans: A

10529. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich:

LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=

The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:

A – 6 NMB – 6 kmC – 4 kmD – 10 km

Ref: all

Ans: B

10534. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?

A – 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000=B – 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG=C – 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000D – 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: A

10536. Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?

TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z=

A – Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knotsB – Visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18oCC – Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3000 feet, wind 250o, temperature 18oCD – Severe rainshowers, visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15oC, gusts up to 35 knots

Ref: all

Ans: A

10537. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW=

A – Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18oCB – Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23oCC – Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18oCD – Wind 250o, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: A

10539. (Refer to figure 050-68)What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart?

A – FL 340B – FL 220C – FL 160D – FL 180

Ref: all

Ans: B

10545. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800=

A – Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar front, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres

B – Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3oC, vertical visibility 100 metresC – Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frostD – RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

Ref: all

Ans: D

10546. Does the following report make sense?

LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG

A – The report is nonsence, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reportedB – The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological visibility is more than 2 kmC – The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye levelD – The report is not possible, because with a temperature of 2oC and a dew point of 2oC there must be uniform fog

Ref: all

Ans: C

10547. The wind directin in a METAR is measured relative to:

A – the 0-meridianB – magnetic northC – true northD – grid north

Ref: all

Ans: C

10551. In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the:

A – QNH rounded up to the nearest hPaB – QFE rounded to the nearest hPaC – QNH rounded down to the nearest hPaD – QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa

Ref: all

Ans: C

10552. (Refer to figue 050-100)What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt – Rome route?

A – 10oC colder than ISAB – 4oC warmer than ISAC – 4oC colder than ISAD – 10oC warmer than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: C

10553. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428. What must you consider when making performance calculations?

A – Aquaplaning conditionsB – The braking action will be medium to goodC – The runway will be wetD – The friction co-efficient is 0.28

Ref: all

Ans: D

10557. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?

A – The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTCB – A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTCC – Many short term changes in the original weatherD – Many long term changes in the original weather

Ref: all

Ans: A

10578. (Refer to figure 050-46)On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather situation?

TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=

A – ESSAB – EINNC – LSZHD – EKCH

Ref: all

Ans: B

15804. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?

A – Light drizzle and fogB – Moderate snow showersC – Heavy rain showersD – Continuous moderate rain

Ref: all

Ans: C

15819. Refr to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG 2001

What does the abbreviation BKN004 mean?

A – 4-8 oktas, ceiling 400mB – 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400mC – 5-7 oktas, ceiling 400 ftD – 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft

Ref: all

Ans: C

15855. The validity of a TAF is:

A – between 6 and 9 hoursB – 9 hours from the time of issueC – stated in the TAFD – 2 hours

Ref: all

Ans: C

15856. The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the:

A – value representative of the touchdown zoneB – average value of the A-, B- and C- positionC – highest value of the A-, B- and C- positionD – lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position

Ref: all

Ans: C

15880. A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?

A – Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possibleB – Take off is not possible under these conditionsC – Depart on runway 09 with a tail windD – Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle, during the passage through the inversion

Ref: all

Ans: C

16529. The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being:

A – AGLB – AMSLC – AALD – Pressure altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

16551. How is the cloud base reported in a METAR:

A – In steps of 100 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ftB – In steps of 100m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ftC – In steps of 10 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ftD – It steps of 10m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: A

24173. (Refr to figure 050-115)At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with Stratocumulus and Altostratus and it is raining. Using the SWC in appendix, valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather improvement for Lyon:

A – 1330 UTCB – 2100 UTCC – 0300 UTC the following dayD – 1215 UTC

Ref: all

Ans: B

24176. (Refer to figure 050-36)At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?

TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050=

A – LFPOB – EDDLC – LOWWD – LEMD

Ref: all

Ans: B

24187. (Refer to figure 050-04)To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?

TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 5020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1617 5000 SHRA BKN020

A – EKCHB – LFPGC – LEMDD – LOWW

Ref: all

Ans: D

24252. Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT 3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820 RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=

What can be said about the destination airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS inimum:

A – Open the whole night because 300 m of visibility corresponds to at least 900m RVRB – Still open until 2200 UTC because the weather change is not completed before 2200 UTCC – Has to be considered as closedD – Still open because the decrease of the visibility below the CAT II minima will be a little bit later than 2030 UTC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24315. Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2123 0500 FG VV001

What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?

A – 500 mB – 2000 mC – Between 5000m and 2000mD – Between 0m and 1000m

Ref: all

Ans: A

24316. Refer to the following TAF message

LFxx 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214 24025KT 2000 RA BKN009 OVC070=

At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be:

A – between 900 and 1500 feet AMSLB – at 900 feet AGLC – between 900 and 1500 feet AGLD – at 1500 feet AGL

Ref: all

Ans: B

24322. TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG 0002 27015KT 4500 –SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002 BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT 1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB=

What is the expected visibility at 0300 UTC?

A – 4500mB – Between 400m and 10 km or moreC – Between 4500m and 10 km or moeD – Between 400m and 4500 m

Ref: all

Ans: D

24323. TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=

Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?

A – Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calmB – Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feetC – Visibility 2.5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knotsD – Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots

Ref: all

Ans: C

24333. The following weather message:EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001

Is a:

A – METARB – 24 hour TAFC – SPECID – 9 hour TAF

Ref: all

Ans: D

24351. The TAF weather messages are:

A – airport forecastsB – hourly or semi-hourly weather observationsC – special weather observationsD – landing forecasts of the “trend” type

Ref: all

Ans: A

24354. The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:

A – 9999, NSC, NOSIGB – 9000, SKC, NOSIGC – 8000, HAZARDOUS WX NIL, NOSIGD – 9999, NSC, NSW

Ref: all

Ans: D

24355. The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are:

A – 25 or 25B – 20 or 30C – 30 or 40D – 35 or 50

Ref: all

Ans: C

24363. What does the code TAF AMD mean?

A – Revised TAFB – No change compared with the previous TAFC – Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operationsD – Delayed issue of a TAF

Ref: all

Ans: A

24376. What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?

TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=


Ref: all

Ans: D

24377. What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?

TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=

A – 500 ftB – 500 mC – 1000 ftD – 1000 m

Ref: all

Ans: A

24380. What is the lowest probably cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?

TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=

A – 1500 mB – 1000 mC – 1500 ftD – 1000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: D

24382. What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?

TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=

A – 8 NMB – 8 kmC – 6 NMD – 10 km

Ref: all

Ans: B

24383. What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?

TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=

A – 1200 metresB – 5 kmC – 6 kmD – 10 km or more

Ref: all

Ans: B

24384. What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC?

TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CABOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA=

A – 4000 yardsB – 10 km or moreC – 7 kmD – 4 km

Ref: all

Ans: D

24388. What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC?

TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008


Ref: all

Ans: B

24389. What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?

EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC 015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK

A – 260o / 10 ktB – Variable / 05 ktC – Variable / 15 to 25 ktD – Calm

Ref: all

Ans: A

24390. What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?

MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=

A – 360o / 10 ktB – 140o / 20 kt gusts 34 ktC – 340o / 10 ktD – 140o / 27 kt

Ref: all

Ans: B

24391. What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?

TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA

A – Anabatic windsB – Roll cloud associated with standing wavesC – Radiation fogD – Low level wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: D

24392. What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC?

MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2224 34010KT FEW025=

A – Heavy rain showersB – Light drizzleC – Continuous moderate rainD – Intermittent light rain

Ref: all

Ans: A

24395. What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC?

TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008

A – 6000 metresB – 8000 metresC – 10 kilometres or moreD – Greater than 10 kilometres

Ref: all

Ans: C

24416. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

A – Heavy duststormB – Strong inversionC – Thick fogD – Snow and ice on the runway

Ref: all

Ans: A

24417. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

A – Strong inversionB – Heavy duststormC – Thick fogD – Snow and ice on the runway

Ref: all

Ans: B


The following TAF applies best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010

A – EBBRB – LOWWC – MADRIDD – PARIS

Ref: all

Ans: A

25590. (Refer to figure 050-36)Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?

A – 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=B – 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000=C – 28006KT 4000 =TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG NSW=D – 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG 8000=

Ref: all

Ans: D

25591. (Refer to figure 050-36)At which airport is the following weather development most likely to be taking place?

TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050=

A – LFPOB – EDDLC – LEMDD – EPWA

Ref: all

Ans: B

25592. (Refer to figure 050-36)On which airport do you expect the development of the following most likely weather situation?

TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OCT 180 BECMG 1013 OVC090 TEMPO –RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020

A – LFPOB – EGLLC – EDDLD – LOWW

Ref: all

Ans: C


At which airport is the following weather development taking place?

TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=

A – EINNB – LFPOC – LFMLD – EKCH

Ref: all

Ans: A

25594. (Refer to figure 050-46)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport?

A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=B – TAF LSZH 10161 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001=

Ref: all

Ans: D

25599. (Refer to figure 050-44)The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport (LSZH)?

A – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001=B – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=C – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=D – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=

Ref: all

Ans: A

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ATPL 500 Meteorology Questions