Best MCQ Collection - WordPress.comBest MCQ Group Answers @ propofoldreams.wordpress.com 1 Best MCQ Collection 15A-30 The FRC in a child is: A. 20ml/kg B. 30ml/kg (i.e. same as adult,

Best MCQ Group Answers @ propofoldreams.wordpress.com

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Best MCQ Collection 15A-30 The FRC in a child is: A. 20ml/kg B. 30ml/kg (i.e. same as adult, neonate reaches this value within 24 hrs) C. 40ml/kg D. 50ml/kg 15A-50. Which of these is most completely re-absorbed in the kidneys A. Albumin B. Glucose C. Calcium D. Potassium E. Sodium 15A-55 The minimum pH that the urine can create is A: 3.0 B: 3.5 C: 4.0 D: 4.5 E: 5.0 15A-64. Peripheral chemoreceptors: A. Respond to decreased O2 saturation B. Respond to increased arterial pH C. Respond to decreased arterial CO2 tension D. Nonlinear increase with arterial oxygen tension E. Slow response to changes in arterial carbon dioxide tension 15A-66. Regarding muscles of respiration A: Diaphragm moves 1 cm in normal breathing B: Diaphragm can be an accessory muscle of expiration C: Internal intercostal muscles are inspiratory D: 50% of normal breathing is due to intercostals E: SCM is an accessory muscle of inspiration that acts by raising the first rib 15A-72. Brown fat metabolism: A. Metabolism is autonomically mediated B. Mediates its effects by insulation of neck vessels (active heat production) C. Produces heat by uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation outside of the mitochondria (via mitochondria) D. Results in the production of large amounts of ATP and heat 15A-78 Ondansetron most common side effects A. headache (~ 11% according to MIMS, interestingly placebo = 10%) B. constipation (~ 4% according to MIMS) C. sedation D. hypotension E. extra pyramidal side effects


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15A-103. The interaction of these two drugs is mediated by serotonin: a. Tramadol and imipramine b. Moclobemide and morphine c. Pethidine and tranylcipromine d. Fluvoxamine and ondansetron e. Fentanyl and chlorpromazine 15A-110 Propofol: A. Has fast redistribution from peripheral to central compartment B. Decreases liver blood flow so decreases its own metabolism 15A-111. Barbiturates A. Protein binding parallels lipid solubility hence ? oxybarbiturates are more protein bound/lipid soluble B. Aspirin will decrease protein binding of thiopentone C. Uremia does not effect thiopentone 15A-119. A dose of bupivacaine is inadvertantly injected into the caudal vein during a caudal anaesthetic in a two week old neonate. The increased risk of toxicity compared to the adult is primarily due to: a. Increased permeability of the blood/brain barrier b. decreased hepatic clearance c. decreased volume of distribution d. decreased alpha1 acid-glycoprotein e. respiratory acidosis 15A-131: Critical factors that affect drug transfer across the placenta and cause teratogenic effects include all EXCEPT: a. physiochemical properties b. rate of transfer across placenta c. distribution characteristics of fetal tissue d. maternal age at conception e. stage of fetal and placental development at time of drug administration 15A-132: Administration of oxytocics for uterine atony post C-section a. oxytocin causes hypotension due to negative intotropy b. ergometrine causes ischaemia (myocardial) via coronary steel c. something about adrenaline d. PGE2 causes severe hypertension e. PGF2 causes bronchoconstriction 15A-137 The context sensitive half-time of alfentanil in a 37yo woman undergoing a 4 hour operation would be closest to: A. 4 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 60 minutes E. 120 minutes


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15A-139B. With regards to opioid metabolism which of the following is true? A. Primarily reductive hepatic metabolism of phenylpiperidine derivatives B. Morphine, tramadol, and hydromorphone are metabolised to active metabolites C. Codeine, oxycodone and tramadol are metabolised by CYP2D6 to active metabolites D. Pethidine, tramadol and oxycodone have metabolites with seizure-like activity 15A-139: Which is not a catecholamine? A. Adrenaline B. Dopamine C. Isoprenaline D. Dobutamine E. Phenylephrine (no catechol group) 15A-145 Bronchial artery supplies: A. Provide a low pressure flow to lung parenchyma B. Provide blood to all bronchioles down to the respiratory bronchioles C. Are branches from the intercostal arteries D. Provides blood supply to both visceral and parietal pleura E. Provides supply to some lung parenchyma 15A-146 Disinfection: A removal of micro-organisms and unwanted matter from contaminated materials B prevention of microbial contamination C complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores D inactivation of non-sporing organisms using thermal or chemical means E Occurs before decontamination and sterilisation 15A-148 Lowest level of microshock for VF A. 1 microamp B. 10 microamp C. 100 microamp D. 1 mA E. 10 mA NP07 Spinal arteries A. There is NO anastomosis between the anterior and posterior spinal arteries B. Arteries enter the cord at T10-L1 C. Arteries enter via the lamina foramina D. Anterior spinal artery travels on the right side AD30 If the pH of a solution changes from 7.4 to 7.1 what is happening to the H+ ion concentration? A. Decrease by approximately 75% B. Increase by approximately 150% C. Increase by approximately 100% D. Increase by approximately 20% E. No increase due to the effect of a buffer


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8. In a 70kg trained athlete at rest. A. 02 Consumption is 350mls/min B. AV difference of 5ml/min C. Cardiac output 7L/min D. Stroke volume is 70mls E. End-systolic volume is 70mls 10. Regarding cutaneous circulation, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. AV anastomoses do not exhibit basal tone B. It is supplied by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system C. Neural input is more important than metabolic control D. There is a countercurrent exchange in the extremities 12. During normal inspiration A. Increased CVP B. Increased RAP C. Increased Intrathoracic Pressure D. SVC blood flow doubles E. Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance 14. In response to exercises. A. AV oxygen difference increases to 20mls/dl B. MAP increases from 90-140mmhg C. O2 consumption increases up to a maximum of 500% D. Stroke volume increases linearly up to 120mls E. Peripheral vascular resistance falls by greater than half. 16. Regarding the splanchnic circulation A. There is a countercurrent exchange mechanism in the intestinal villi B. Includes blood flow to the gut, liver, kidney, spleen and adrenal gland C. Cholecystokinin decreases blood flow D. Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction E. Portal vein PO2 increases during a meal FE06 MCQ-22 The Gibbs Donnan Effect: A. Explains distribution of charge between intra and extravascular space B. Explains distribution in charge between intra and extracellular space C. Explains differences in ionic concentration gradients D. Explains the distributions of plasma proteins across cell membranes E. Explains the distribution of all proteins across cell membranes FE06 [Mar98] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Feb04] Gibbs-Donnan effect leads to: A. Non-diffusible ions between 2 sides will be equal B. Diffusible ions between 2 sides will be equal C. Equal concentrations of ions on both sides D. Equal passive diffusion E. Osmotic gradient F. Important in the measurement of plasma oncotic pressure


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13. With IPPV the predominant decrease in CO is due to? A. ↑PVR B. ↓VR C. Impaired RV function D. ↓LV distensibility E. ↑LV afterload 33. What is true regarding nerve action potentials? A. Sodium channels open at -80 mV B. Potassium efflux begins prior to maximum depolarisation C. Sodium channels return to resting state at -30 mV D. Potassium channels have resting, activated, and inactivated states E. Potassium channels undergo a 500-1000-fold change in conductance with repolarisation 34. Skeletal muscle intrafusal fibres: A. Are shorter than extrafusal fibres B. Contain contractile elements C. Have no motor innervation D. Are in series with extrafusal fibres E. Detect changes in muscle tension (intrafusal detects changes in length, Golgi detects chages in tension) 41. Trace elements integral in the action of lactate dehydrogenase, carbonic anhydrase and many other enzymes? A. cobalt B. copper C. magnesium D. manganese E. zinc 54. Renal water reabsorption occurs predominantly by A. osmosis B. active transport C. facilitated diffusion D. secondary active transport E. paracelllular diffusion 61. What lowest percentage of venous admixture is an increase in FiO2 unable to fully compensate for? A. 15% B. 25% C. 35% D. 45% E. 55% 65. With constant O2 consumption PvO2 increases with A. alkalosis B. ↓2,3 DPG C. ↓temp


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D. hypercapnoea (right shift OHDC ! ↑partial pressure) E. none of the above 72. The effects of digoxin include A. centrally mediated vagotonic activity B. ↓pacemaker ectopic activity C. ↑myocardial K D. ↓myocardial Ca E. inhibit Ca/Na exchanger 89. Which drug is not presented as a racemic mixture? A. Isoflurane B. Enflurane C. Lignocaine (it is NOT chiral!) D. Bupivicaine E. Methadone 110. Ketamine is not commonly used as an IV infusion because: A. at (high dose, can't remember specific number) does not cause adequate anaesthesia B. half-life greater than 80 minutes not suitable for infusion C. H20 soluble D. 30% emergence phenomena E. provides analgesia, but not adequate anaesthesia 143. Which automatically stops current when saline drips on to a powerboard: A. Line isolation monitor B. residual current device C. isolated transformer D. equipotential earthing 144. With respect to ventricular phase 1 repolarisation: A. it is not as pronounced in purkinje fibers B. it is due to intracellular potassium current C. it is due to opening inward ion current? D. it is not as pronounced in endocardial fibers E. Is due to transient outward rectifying current 148. A mobile phone is: A. class 1 equipment (earthed) B. class 2 equipment (double insulation) C. class 3 equipment (low voltage, less than 25V, device with battery) D. cardiac protected equipment E. body protected equipment Noradrenaline’s action is first offset / terminated by A COMT B MAO C Reputake into the nerve terminus


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14B-17 Long term response to hypertension is via alteration of A. Aldosterone system B. Smooth muscle relaxation C. Renin angiotensin system D. Capillary fluid shifts E. Renal-Body response mechanism (?) 14B-37. The waveform in an awake adult at rest with eyes closed and mind wandering: A. alpha B. beta C. theta D. delta E. mixture of alpha and beta 14B-38. C fibres that transmit peripheral nociceptive signals synapse in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord at: A. laminae I and II B. laminae I and IV C. laminae III and IV D. laminae IV and V E. laminae V and VI 14B-49 With maximal secretion of ADH, the highest proportion of water reabsorption occurs in the: A. proximal convoluted tubule B. loop of Henle C. distal convoluted tubule D. cortical collecting duct E. medullary collecting duct 14B-50 The highest reduction in renal resistance occurs at: A. renal artery B. afferent and efferent arterioles C. peritubular capillaries 14B-82 Which of the following is the most harmful effect of Atropine in children ? (repeat) A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Hyperthermia D. Hypertension [[14B-84] Prothrombinex: A. Contains coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX, X (CSL preparation has mainly II, IX, X with trace V and VII) B. Immediately reverses heparin C. Is always administered with Vitamin K D. ?


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14B-93 IV Magnesium 20mmol administered IV pre induction of anaesthesia. Which of the following will NOT be seen (new I think ) A. prolongation/latency of vecuronium block B. effect on inhalational alkylating agents (what does this mean?) C. effect on inhalational other agents (what does this mean?) D. decrease in seizure threshold with propofol (?) E. uterine relaxation 14B-104 Which inhalational agent is most likely to cause renal damage? A. Sevoflurane (… ? something about compound A) B. Desflurane C. Methoxyflurane (renal damage ! calcium oxalate accumulate ! deposit in retina ! damage) D. Damage is not linked to duration of exposure (??) 14B-108 Macula densa cells are: A. Baroreceptors B. Osmoreceptors C. ? (Some other wrong answer) D. Chemoreceptors E. In the proximal thick ascending limb 14B-118 Co-adminstration of which of these drugs are likely to decrease action / and duration of the non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers? A. Aminoglycosides B. Volatile ethers C. Volatile alkanes D. Aminopyridines (potassium channel blockers) E. ? 13B - Heparin dose given in international units because it is derived from: A. salmon sperm B. porcine intestine C. sweet clover D. bovine collagen E. Wilow bark 13B – Order of brain waves in the progression to sleep: a) Beta alpha theta delta b) Alpha beta delta theta c) Alpha beta theta delta d) Beta alpha delta theta e) Beta theta alpha delta NP04 Which is NOT true regarding dermatomes? A. T10 around level of umbilicus B. T4/5 at nipple level C. T1 next to C3 and 4 D. T12 at supra-pubic region and the top of the buttocks E. T8 identifies the rib borders.


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CV19 [Jul97] [Mar03] [Jul03] [Jul04] Which ONE of the following causes vasodilatation (?vasoconstriction): A. TXA2 - constrict B. Serotonin (5HT) - both C. Endothelin - constrict D. Neuropeptide Y - constrict E. Angiotensin II - constrict F. VIP - dilate CV22 [d] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Jul99] [Jul00] [Apr01] [Feb04] Which one of the following (does/does not) cause (an increased/ a decreased) heart rate? A. Bainbridge reflex = ↑atrial stretch ! ↑heart rate B. Carotid chemoreflex = ↓PaO2 ! ↑heart rate C. Bezold-Jarisch reflex = ↓intracardiac volume ! ↓heart rate D. Hering-Breuer reflex = inspiration ! pulmonary stretch ! ↑heart rate E. Cushing reflex = ↑ICP ! ↑MAP ! ↓heart rate F. Pulmonary chemoreflex = J receptor stimulation ! sensation of dyspnoea ! rapid shallow breathing + ↓MAP + ↓heart rate G. Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors = Bainbridge ! ↑heart rate H. Stretching the atrium = Bainbridge ! ↑heart rate I. Stretching the ventricle = ↓heart rate? CV33b [] [Mar98] [Jul98] [Jul00] [Jul01] [Mar03] [Jul03] [Feb04] Blood flow at rest is most for: A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Heart E. Skin F. Skeletal muscle July 2001 version (Q24 on this paper): Arterial baroreceptor afferents A. Reach spinal cord via sympathetic nerves B. Utilise glycine as a neurotransmitter C. Primary synapse in C1 area of the medulla D. Activate GABA inhibitory interneurons E. Excite autonomic efferents in the anterolateral horn CV56 [Jul01] Configuration of an ECG recording: A. 25 mm / sec, 0.5 mV /cm B. 25 mm/sec, 1mV /cm C. 50mm/sec 0.5 mV /cm D. 50mm/sec 1mv / cm E. none CV82 Feb12 All of the following are ion channels in the heart EXCEPT: A. Inward rectifier K channels B. Transient inward K channels


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C. Delayed rectifier K channels D. Ca channels E. Na channels RESP12 [Jul98] [Jul01] Central chemoreceptors: A. Bathed in CSF B. Respond to increase in CSF pH C. Bathed in ECF D. In medullary respiratory centre RE17 [d] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Jul00] [Apr01] [Jul01] [Mar02] [Jul02] [Jul04] [Jul09] The lung: A. Removes/inactivates serotonin (5HT) B. Activates bradykinin C. Converts angiotensin II to I D. Inactivates aldosterone E. Takes up noradrenaline RE02 [Jul96]] [Mar97] The ABGs in a healthy young 70kg male with one collapsed lung are: A. paO2 50 mmHg, pCO2 25 mmHg B. paO2 95 mmHg, pCO2 40 mmHg C. paO2 60 mmHg, pCO2 45 mmHg D. paO2 60 mmHg, pCO2 25 mmHg AD11 [Apr01] ABG's in healthy young man with pneumothorax: A. pO2=50, pCO2=25 B. pO2=50, pCO2=46 C. pO2=90, pCO2=25 D. pO2=90, pCO2=46 RE13 [d] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Apr01] [Jul01] [Jul02] [Mar03] [Jul03] [Feb04] The peripheral chemoreceptors: A. Have a nonlinear response to paO2 changes B. Have an intact response at 1MAC (reduced at 0.1 MAC) C. Respond to a fall in paCO2 D. Respond slowly to rise in paCO2 E. Respond to alkalaemia F. Respond only to ?incr-/decr-eased H+ G. Respond only to arterial hypoxaemia H. Innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve (carotid body) I. Low metabolic rate J. Stimulated by carbon monoxide K. Stimulated by cyanide L. Blood flow of 2 ml/gram/min (should be 20mls/g/min) M. Aortic body innervated by vagus N. Changes in arterial oxygen content (responds to tension) O. Low O2 extraction P. Have glomus cells


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RE14 [d] [Jul98] [Jul99] [Jul00] Surfactant: A. Causes hysteresis B. Is produced by type 1 pneumocytes C. Is commonly deficient in term neonates D. Acts like detergent in water E. Reduces the amount of negative intrapleural pressure F. Production is slow (rapid turnover) G. Increases pulmonary compliance RE26 [Mar99] [Jul04] Cause of increased minute ventilation with exercise: A. Oscillation in paO2 & paCO2 B. Hypercarbia C. Hypoxaemia D. Acidosis E. None of the above RE50 [Mar03] [Jul03] [Feb04] The absolute humidity of air saturated at 37C: A. 760 mmHg B. 47 mmHg C. 100% D. 44mg/m3 E. 17mg/m3 RE59 [Mar05] [Jul05] Regarding O2 carriage in blood (or regarding red blood cells): C. HbS less soluble than HbA E. MetHb has 85% the O2 carrying capacity of normal Hb (pulse ox reads 85%) RE67 [Jul10] What percentage of total blood volume is found in the pulmonary capillaries? A. 1% B. 3% C. 9% D. 11% E. 15% RE72 [Mar03] [Jul03] [Mar10] Respiratory exchange ratio: A. Always equals respiratory quotient B. Increases in strenuous exercise C. Decreases after payment of oxygen debt D. Is measured at steady state RER = CO2 produced / O2 consumed measured at mouth RQ = CO2 produced / O2 consumed at cellular level In exercise, H+ binds HCO3

– ! another source of CO2 production ! RER > RQ GP12 [Feb00] [Jul02] Activated charcoal: A. Should be given with sorbitol B. Is not effective against theophylline C. Should be given with ipecac D. Should be given in a drug:charcoal ratio of 1:10


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GP26 [Jul04] Which is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor? A. Dexamethasone B. Dextropropoxyphene C. Dexmedetomidine D. Dextromethorphan E. Dexmethamphetamine GP27 [Jul04] Comparing dexamethasone and hydrocortisone: A. Both are endogenous hormones B. Dexamethasone has 8x potency of hydrocortisone C. Both have mineralocorticoid activity D. Dexamethasone is the only water-soluble compound GP33 [Aug11] When is the safest time to give a drug to a lactating mother? A. 3 - 4 hours before breastfeeding B. Immediately before breastfeeding C. Immediately after breastfeeding D. 30 - 60 minutes after breastfeeding E. Either A or D GP35 [Aug11] All are secreted by the proximal tubule in the kidney except: A. Diazepam B. Morphine C. Probenicid D. Penicillin E. Frusemide IN34 The therapeutic index of modern volatiles is in the order of: A. <2 B. 2-4 C. 4-6 D. 6-8 E. >10 IN40 Mechanism of action of nitrous oxide: A - Stimulation of GABA receptors B - Inhibition of GABA receptors C - Stimulation of NMDA receptors D - Inhibition of NMDA receptors (non-competitively) E - Stimulation of Glycine receptors NU02 [g] Shivering that is mediated by the hypothalamus: A. Acts on muscle spindles to increase tone B. Via red nucleus C. Rhythmic stimulation of anterior horn cells D. Activation of shivering centre in brainstem NU04 [j] The mechanism for shivering is via: A. Anterior horn motor neurones set up oscillating signals to muscle.


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NU03 [hopq] Transection of a motor nerve leads to: A. Muscle fibre hypertrophy B. Decreased RMP C. Decreased receptors D. Increased spontaneous muscle activity NU10 The sharp initial pain associated with injury is transmitted by: A. Unmyelinated C fibres. B. Unmyelinated Aδ fibres. C. Nerve fibres with a conduction velocity of approximately 15 m/s. D. Nerve fibres which project to the anterior horn and the spinothalamic tract. E. Nerve fibres with a diameter of less than 2 µm NU13 [Feb12] Duration of a typical Action potential of a large nerve fibre A. 0.04msec B. 0.4msecs C. 4msecs D. 40mses E. 400msec MF05 [diqr] Brown fat: A. Produces ATP and Heat B. Insulates the great vessels of the neck C. Is autonomically mediated D. Extramitochondrial uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation MF11 [i] Tidal volume of a neonate: A. 1 ml/kg B. 3 mls/kg C. 7 mls/kg D. 15 mls/kg E. 30 mls/kg MF11c [j] The FVC of a neonate weighing 2.3 kg is: A. 100 ml B. 150 ml C. 200 ml D. 250 ml E. 300 ml (some random Paediatric Anaesthesia textbook says that neonatal FVC is approximately half of adults) MF12 The neonate has A. Less plasma cholinesterase (about half) B. Higher volume of distribution for neuromuscular blockers C. Higher levels of alpha-1 acid glycoprotein D. High levels of cytochrome P450 enzymes MF13 [j] Maternal-fetal ABO incompatibility is less common than Rhesus incompatibility because:


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A. Fetal antibodies to ABO are less developed B. Maternal ABO antibodies do not cross the placenta C. Maternal ABO antigens do not cross the placenta D. Fetal ABO antigens are less immunogenic (ABO antibodies are IgM, do not cross placenta. Rh antibodies are IgG and very immunogenic, crosses placenta) MF14 [kq] With regard to the neonate A. Static compliance is greater than adult values B. Dynamic compliance is greater than adult values C. Specific compliance is the same as adult values D. Dynamic compliance is the same as adult values E. Static compliance is the same as adult values. MF18 [op] The Thermoneutral Zone is best correlated with: A. Core temp with no energy consumption B. Ambient temp in which core temp can be maintained without sweating. C. Peripheral temperature at which energy consumption is minimum D. Core temperature at which energy consumption is minimum CD01 [Mar96] [Mar98] [Mar99] [Jul01] Milrinone: A. Decreases pulmonary vascular resistance B. Increases systemic vascular resistance C. Is poorly absorbed when given orally D. Chronic use causes thrombocytopaenia CD01c [Feb00] Milrinone: A. Is structurally related to thyroid hormone B. Is arrhythmogenic C. Has its effects via cAMP mediated increase in intracellular Ca2+ D. Increases myocardial oxygen consumption (minimal increase as per Stoelting) CD02 [Mar96] [Mar03] Sodium nitrite used in cyanide toxicity: A. Increases methaemoglobinaemia B. To produce increased hepatic sulphydryl groups C Increases conversion to cyanocobalamin D. Displaces cyanide from haemoglobin E. Enhances oxidative phosphorylation CD03 [Mar96] [Jul96] [Jul98] [Jul99] [Feb00] [Apr01] [Mar03] [Jul04] Ephedrine: A. Is resistant to metabolism by MAO (quoted vertabim from Stoelting) B. Is metabolised by COMT C. Action is totally indirect D. Acts via direct & indirect beta effect E. Action is purely alpha agonist CD04 [Mar96] [Jul98] The principal urinary metabolite of adrenaline is: A. Normetanephrine B. Metanephrine C. 3,4-dihydroxy-mandelic acid


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D. 3-methoxy, 4-hydroxymandelic acid E. 3-Methoxy 4-hydroxy phenylalanine CD05 [Mar96] [Jul97] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Feb00] [Apr01] [Jul01] [Feb04] Thiazide diuretics: A. Work mainly on PCT B. Not effective if severely sodium depleted C. Action is independent of acid-base balance (Stoelting) D. Increase GFR immediately E. Decrease BP by decreasing contractility F. Cause hypoglycaemia G. Interferes with kidney concentrating mechanisms H. Causes hypocalcaemia I. Used to treat hypercalcaemia J. Potentiate hyperglycaemia (G+G) K. Are effective as antihypertensives by decreasing cardiac output L. Cause hypernatraemia M. Washes out the medullary concentration gradient CD10 [Jul97] [Jul00] [Apr01] [Jul02] Which of the following ECG changes would be most likely in digoxin toxicity: A. Increased PR interval B. Increased QT interval C. Peaked T waves D. ST elevation E. Ventricular extrasystoles CD12 [Jul97] [Mar02] [Jul02] [Jul04] Clonidine: A. Elimination half-life of 3 hours (t1/2 ≈ 7 ~ 12 hrs) B. Excreted 50% unchanged in the urine C. Oral bioavailability 50% (OBA 75%) D. Cannot be absorbed topically E. Is highly protein bound (PPB 20%) CD15 [Jul97] [Jul99] Catecholamine substitution: A. Alpha carbon CH3 substituition gives beta selectivity (inhibit MAO) B. Beta-hydroxy substitution gives increased activity (e.g. dopamine ! NA) C. D-dobutamine antagonist, L-dobutamine agonist


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CD16 [Mar96] [Jul96] [Jul97] [Jul98] Esmolol: A. Active at beta-1 & beta-2 receptors B. Half-life < 2 minutes C. Has methanol as a metabolite D. Is metabolised by plasma cholinesterase E. Is excreted unchanged in the urine F. Is a non-selective beta-1 receptor antagonist CD17 [Mar99] [Jul99] [Jul01] [Jul04] Osmotic diuretics (e.g. mannitol): A. Less sodium delivered to distal tubule B. Hypotonic medulla C. Increased sodium loss D. Urine osmolality > plasma osmolality E. Causes hypernatraemia F. MW greater than 600 G. Washes out the medullary interstitial gradient CD24 [Mar96] [Feb00] [Mar03] A non-selective beta-blocker with low extraction ratio, long half-life and ISA: A. Atenolol B. Propranolol C. Metoprolol D. Labetalol CD24b [Mar02] [Jul02] Which ONE of the following is water soluble, half life 6-8hrs, (“and something else”)? A. Esmolol B. Metoprolol C. Propranalol E. Atenolol Atenolol – water soluble, minimal hepatic extraction and metabolism, renally excreted, half life 6 ~ 7 (Stoelting), the most beta1 selective (Stoelting) CD29 [ghj] [Jul00] Phenylephrine: A. Metabolised by COMT (not a catecholamine) B. Causes mydriasis C. Metabolised by MAO D. Effect lasts longer than noradrenaline E. Acts by indirect method only CD30 [Jul98] Regarding hydralazine: A. Fast acetylators have shorter half lives than slow acetylators B. Acts via SNS mechanism C. Slow acetylators decrease half-life D. Has diuretic action E. Clearance > 50ml/kg/min CD34 [Feb00] [Apr01] [Jul01] Adenosine A. Causes AV block via action at A1 receptors B. Causes bronchoconstriction via A2 receptors (A1)


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C. Causes renal vasodilation D. Causes profound depression of the SA node E. Decreases AV transmission CD38 [Apr01] Dexmedetomidine: A. Alpha-1 antagonist C. Decrease in intraocular pressure D. Partial alpha2 agonist E. Less selective than clonidine CD41 [Jul01] Methylxanthines: (examples include caffeine and theophylline) A. (Something about Ca++ currents) B. (Something about K+ currents) C. Inhibit adenosine receptors D. Decrease plasma glucose level E. Cause diuresis by acting on renal tubules F. Physically addictive CD50 The beta blocker with the greatest oral bioavailability is: A. Atenolol B. Metoprolol C. Sotalol D. Labetalol E. Carvedilol CD52 [Jul08] Acetazolamide: A. maximum increase in urine pH 8 hours after oral dose (2 ~ 3 hrs after oral dose) B. maximum safe dose causes complete absence of HCO3 reabsorption (unable to block distal, non-CA dependent mechanisms ∴ unable to achieve complete block) C. maximum safe dose decreases HCO3 reabsorption by 45% D. causes hypochloraemic acidosis (hyperchloraemic normal AG acidosis) E. is a potassium sparing diuretic (↑Na to DCT, washes out K) CD55 Sympathomimetics: A. Phenylephrine acts only on alpha receptors B. Metaraminol acts only on alpha receptors C. Methoxamine in high doses acts on beta receptors D. Pseudoephedrine is an isomer of ephedrine (diastereomer) CD61 Which of the following could cause significant adverse reactions with the MAOI selegiline? A. Dopamine (case report of severe hypertensive crises) B. Phenylephrine C. Ephedrine (recommendation in Stoelting to avoid) D. Metaraminol E. None of the above CD62 Mannitol: A. Causes loss of medullary tonicity B. Urine hyperosmolar compared to plasma


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C. Site of action is PCT and DCT D. Tubular fluid is isotonic in descending loop of Henle CD66 Vasopressin is used in all except: A. Variceal bleed B. To improve coronary and cerebral perfusion in cardiac arrest C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Septic Shock AH01 [Jul97] [Mar98] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Jul99] Glycopyrrolate: A. Has mandelic acid rather than tropic acid B. Tertiary amine AH03 [Jul99] [Feb00] Scopolamine d & l isomers: A. d is active B. Provided as racemic product C. Doesn't cause central effects ED04 [Mar96] Which of the following are associated with adrenocortical hypofunction? A. Aseptic necrosis of bone B. Osteoporosis C. Redistribution of body fat D. Decreased muscle bulk E. Delayed closure of epiphyses ED19 [Jl98] Regarding the interthreshold range in temperature control: A. Is constantly altered by feedback from temperature sensors in the periphery B. Is lowered by general anaesthetic agents ED19b [Jul98] The set-point of temperature of an adult is normally 37.1C. This: A. Is fixed in individuals B. ? C. Parallels rectal temperature D. Decreases with exercise E. Decreases with anaesthesia Jul 2000 version: Respiratory exchange ratio increased in septic patient because A. Increased C02 output B. Increased 02 uptake C. Increased fat utilisation ED25 [Jul00] [Mar02] [Jul02] [Mar03] [Jul03] Phosphorylase: A. Is found in all human cells B. Present in liver & muscle C. Increased activity by adrenaline D. In liver increases glycogen production and reduce breakdown of glycogen E. “Something about cAMP/adrenergic transmission” During starvation:


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A. Glucagon causes increased phosphorylase activity in liver/muscle B. Adrenaline causes increased phosphorylase activity in liver/muscle Glucagon stimulates phosphorylase in liver only (Stoelting) FE03 [Mar97] [Jul97] [Jul99] Rapid (?ingestion/?infusion) of 2 litres of normal saline causes: A. Increased ECF, increased ICF, decreased [Na+] B. Increased ECF, unchanged ICF, increased [Na+] C. Unchanged ECF, increased ICF, increased [Na+] D. Increased ECF, unchanged ICF, unchanged [Na+] FE05 [Mar98] [Apr01] [Jul04] Thoracic lymph contains: A. Clotting factors B. Higher protein content than plasma (thoracic lymph 50g/L contains more protein than other lymph usu 20g/L, but not plasma, 80g/L) C. Similar composition to ISF D. Rarely contains fat FE06 [Mar98] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Feb04] Gibbs-Donnan effect leads to: A. Non-diffusible ions between 2 sides will be equal B. Diffusible ions between 2 sides will be equal C. Equal concentrations of ions on both sides D. Equal passive diffusion E. Osmotic gradient F. Important in the measurement of plasma oncotic pressure FE09 [Mar99] [Feb00] [Jul00] The total osmotic pressure of plasma is: A. 25 mmHg B. 285 mOsm/l C. 5900 mmHg D. 300 kPa E. None of the above (5510 mmHg or 7.2 atm) FE11 [Mar99] [Mar03] [Jul03] Obligatory water loss from body: A. 400 mls in faeces (should be 100 mL) B. 300 mls from lung (should be 500 mL) C. Loss from skin & respiratory tract 700ml (should 900 mL) D. ??Insensible water loss E. 500 mls in urine Alt version: Normal amount of daily water loss in a 70kg man: A. 300mls faeces B. 500mls from urine (this is not the normal amount) C. 700mls from lungs and skin (insensible) E. None of the above FE15 [Apr01] Total plasma osmolality (not pressure!!!) can be calculated via: A. Van Halen’s equation B. Starling equation C. P = nRT


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D. (multiplying 19.2mmHg/mOsm/L by body Osm) (it worked out in the exam!) E. None of the above LA02 [Mar96] [Jul04] Cocaine: A. Blocks reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline B. Central effects are due to noradrenaline C. Crosses lipid soluble membranes because its pKa is 2.8 D. Is not metabolised by plasma pseudocholinesterase E. Rapidly absorbed by nasal mucosa LA11 [Mar98] Saxitoxin site on sodium channel is: A. Inside channel B. Outside channel C. On membrane outside LA12 [Jul98] The site of action of benzocaine is: A. Same site as saxitoxin B. Inside Na+ channel /OR: At the channel mouth C. At axoplasmic end of Na+ channel D. At Ca++ channel E. In the cell membrane LA26 Which local anaesthetic has the FASTEST onset time? A. Lignocaine B. Bupivacaine C. Cocaine D. Levobupivacaine E. Ropivacaine IV12 [Jul98] Thiopentone: A. Is the sulphur analogue of phenobarbitone B. Has higher protein binding than its oxy analogue C. ? 6% sodium bicarbonate D. Isotonic at 2.5% concentration IV26 The amount of thiopentone remaining in brain 30 mins after administration: A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50% E. 40% IV31 [Feb13] Five minutes after giving thiopentone, the amount remaining in brain is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 30% D. 50% E. 100% Flumazenil


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A. Is a benzo B. Acts at GABA receptor C. Has no anticonvulsant activity D. Initial dose 2 mg bolus E. Causes severe withdrawal with chronic benzo use MB07 [Mar97] [Jul98] [Jul99] [Feb00] [Apr01] Regarding vecuronium: A. It accumulates in renal failure B. Is a benzylisoquinolinium C. Is a bisquaternary amine D. Is more lipid soluble than pancuronium E. Is predominantly renally excreted MB12b [Jul00] Mivacurium administered at a dose of 2 times the ED95 dose produces relaxation for: A. 10 mins B. 15 mins C. 20 mins D. 25 mins E. None of the above MB23 [Feb00] [Jul04] What muscle relaxant has an active metabolite with a half-life twice that of the parent compound? A. Rocuronium B. Vecuronium C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium or Cisatracurium E. None of the above F. Mivacurium MB23b [Jul04] Which of these NDNMB has a metabolite that’s 50-70% as active as its parent drug A. Atracurium B. Vecuronium C. Rocuronium D. dTC E. None of the above MB37 [Feb04] Regarding anticholinesterases: A. Pyridostigmine is a tertiary amine B. Quaternary ammonium anticholinesterases have a larger volume of distribution than non-depolarising muscle relaxants C. Edrophonium has a slower onset of action than neostigmine D. Neostigmine has a longer duration of action than pyridostigmine E. Edrophonium binds covalently to the esteratic site of acetylcholine OP07 [Jul97] [Mar99] [Jul99] [Jul00] [Feb04] [Jul04] Fentanyl: A. With pKa 8.4 is 90% ionised at physiological pH


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B. Has an octanol coefficient of 10 C. Is 1,000 times more potent than morphine D. Has first-pass lung uptake reduced to 20% by propranolol E. Has up to 50% uptake in the lung (up to 75% pulmonary uptake) F. Elimination half-life < 2 hour G. Carried on albumin mostly (Xenobiotica, March 2015, Vol. 45, No. 3 : Pages 207-212) H. Carried on alpha-1 acid glycoprotein mostly I. Can cause hypertension with MAOI J. Alfentanil acts faster as it has a higher unionised, unbound fraction OP16 [Mar99] [Jul00] Pethidine is the traditionally favoured opioid in obstetrics because: A. Norpethidine does not cross the placenta B. Does not undergo ion trapping C. Causes less neonatal depression D. It does not cross the placenta E. It is thought to cause less respiratory depression in the neonate. OP29 When clonidine is added to local anaesthetic in a peripheral nerve block, its actions are as the results of: A. Supraspinal Effect B. Spinal effect C. Effect on primary afferent nerves at the site D. Clonidine has no effect in peripheral nerve blocks E. Can cause neurotoxicity OP30 Which of the following opioids have INACTIVE metabolites? A. Oxycodone B. Morphine C. Pethidine D. Methadone E. Codeine OP37 - 15A Alfentanil elimination half-life is prolonged in: A. hypoalbuminaemia B. administration of erythromycin C. caucasian children D. renal failure E. slow acetylators MD03 [Mar96] [Jul97] [Jul98] Regarding the plasma half-life of heparin: A. Clearance affected by warfarin B. Depends on site of injection C. Less for low MW heparins D. Depends on dose given MD08 [Mar97] [Jul97] [Mar99] [Mar03] [Jul04] Gastric drugs: Which is true? A. Sucralfate is a mixture of sulphated sucrose and bismuth that sits in the ulcer B. Gastrin & acetylcholine directly & indirectly inhibit H+ secretion C. Misoprostil decreases gastric acid and causes marked constipation (diarrhoea)


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D. Pirenzipine is less effective than H2 blockers E. Omeprazole reversibly inhibits proton pump MD17 [Mar98] [Apr01] [Jul04] Regarding phenytoin A. Acts via blockade of Na channels and via effect on K channels B. Weak base with pKa 8.3 (weak acid) C. Has active metabolites (inactive) MD18 [Mar98] [Mar99] [Feb00] [Apr01] [Jul02] [Mar03] Which ONE of the following decrease gastric pH? A. Omeprazole B. Famotidine C. Calcium salts D. Misoprostil E. PGE2 F. Pirenzipine MD19 [Jul98] [Mar99] [Feb00] [Jul01] [Jul04] NSAIDs: A. Exhibit no selectivity for COX 1 & 2 B. Exert renal effects other than effect on afferent arterioles (choice C better) C. Cause renal toxicity separate to inhibition of prostaglandins (interstitial nephritis) D. Aspirin & ketorolac irreversibly bind COX1 & 2 E. Directly cause gastrointestinal ulceration MD22 [Mar99] [Apr01] [Mar03] Gastric lavage: A. Not useful if more than one hour has elapsed B. In children, use normal saline instead of water C. Contraindicated if poison corrosive D. Is performed in the right lateral position E. Should not be performed in the unconscious MD32 [Jul99] [Jul04] Syrup of Ipecac: A. Is not effective in phenothiazine overdose B. Has peripheral irritant and direct CTZ action C. The syrup is more potent than the fluid MD33 [Feb00] Regarding antiemetics which drug has anti-5HT3, anti-H1 and anti-D2 actions: A. Ondansetron B. Scopolamine C. Domperidone D. Droperidol E. Prochlorperazine F. Chlorpromazine MD40 [Jul00] Which of the following is bacteriostatic only? A. Penicillin B. Gentamicin C. Vancomycin


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D. Trimethoprim (wall cidal dna static) E. Cefuroxime MD52 [Jul01] [Jul04] Cyclo-oxygenase-1 (COX-1) isoenzyme: A. Is increased by inflamation B. Is predominant mode of action of indomethacin C. Is increased by lipopolysaccaride D. Is NOT involved in gastric mucosal protection E. Is increased by cytokines CM05 Normal two-wavelength pulse oximetry will underestimate oxygen saturation in the presence of: A. Methaemoglobinaemia B. Carboxyhaemoglobinaemia C. Hyperbilirubinaemia D. Haemoglobin F E. Haemoglobin S CM07 [dh] Remains constant with adiabatic expansion of a gas: A. Density B. Pressure C. Volume D. Temperature E. None of the above CM12 [fhimn] Cardiac output measurement is most accurate with which method? A. Direct Fick B. Radionuclide angiocardiography C. Gated pooling D. LV angiogram E. Transthoracic echocardiography F. Thermodilution CM13 [f] Impedance: A. Increases as the frequency of an AC current increases across a capacitor B. Decreases as the frequency of an AC current increases across an inductor C. Is constant across a resistor D. All of the above E. None of the above impedance is the opposition of circuit to current flow; it has 2 components – a real phase independent component: i.e. resistance; and an imaginary phase dependent component: i.e. reactance. capacitors block DC, transmit high freq AC – i.e. ↓impedance with ↑frequency inductors block high freq AC transmit DC – i.e. ↑impedance with ↑frequency resistors have constant impedance, independent of frequency CM17 [gk] When indocyanine green is used to measure hepatic blood flow, levels are taken from: A. Hepatic vein & portal vein B. Hepatic artery & portal vein


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C. Radial artery & hepatic vein D. Hepatic artery & hepatic vein E. Radial artery & right atrium CM18 [fj] Specific heat capacity of which of the following is the highest? A. Stored whole blood B. Red blood cells C. Muscle tissue D. Water E. Air BP03 [gko] All of the following histamine effects are mediated by H2- receptors EXCEPT: A. Vasodilatation B. Bronchoconstriction C. Gastric acid secretion D. Tachycardia E. Increased contractility H1 effects include increased vascular permeability, peripheral vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, itch

H2 effects include increased myocardial contractility and heart rate, increased vascular permeability, peripheral vasodilation, bronchodilation, and increased H+

secretion by gastric parietal cells -‐-‐ SYL

BP07 [Feb06] Tight junctions between cells: A. impermeable to water and solutes B. involved in active transport C. permeable to water and solutes D. permeability is NOT under hormonal control E. permeable to large compounds BP09 Which is incorrect regarding the Kreb’s cycle: A. Acetyl-coA is metabolized to CO2 & H+ C. Oxaloacetate is recycled D. 12 ATP is generated (1 ATP generated within cycle, 11 ATPs generated via ETC) E. Cycle is continuous during anaerobic metabolism but at slower rate FE17 [Apr01] Osmotic pressure in plasma is usually 1.6 mosmol/L more than ISF. This is because of A Plasma Proteins B Plasma Oxygen Tension C Plasma creatinine FE23 [Mar03] [Jul03] [Feb04] [Jul05] Acute onset (4 hours) diabetes insipidus in an otherwise healthy person produces these biochemical changes: (these numbers may not be exact) A. Na+ 130, K+ 3.0, Osm 260 B. Na+ 130, K+ 4.0, Osm 300 (after RAAS compensate) C. Na+ 150, K+ 3.0, Osm 260 D. Na+ 150, K+ 3.5, Osm 320 E. Na+ 160, K+ 3.0, Osm 320


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FE37 Feb12 A person with undiagnosed adrenocortical insufficiency will have the following electrolyte profile: B. Low Na, High K, Low Cl, Low HCO3 C. Low Na, High K, Low Cl, Normal HCO3 D. Low Na, High K, Low Cl, Raised HCO3 E. High Na, Low K AD03 [Jul97] [Mar99] Buffering of a bicarbonate infusion: A. 60 to 70% occurs intracellularly B. Exchanged for Cl- across the red cell membrane C. Compensated for by increased respiratory rate. D. Intracellular proteins KD22 [Apr01] [Jul01] Angiotensin II causes: A. Increases proximal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & increases secretion of K+ (direct ATII effect is ↑K+ secretion, indirect aldosterone effect is ↓secretion) B. Increases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & decreases secretion of K+ C. Decreases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O D. Increases excretion of Na & H2O CM20 [hk] Solubility of gases in blood at 37C: A. O2 > CO2 > N2 B. N2O > CO2 C. CO2 > N2 > O2 E. N2O < O2 Apr 2001 version: Regarding the solubility of gases in PLASMA A Nitrous oxide is less soluble than carbon dioxide B Carbon dioxide is less soluble than oxygen C Carbon dioxide is less soluble than Nitrogen D Nitrous oxide is less soluble than oxygen E Nitrous oxide is less soluble than Nitrogen F Oxygen is less soluble than Nitrogen BBW lists solubility in blood as N2O > CO2 > O2 > N2 Solubility in plasma as CO2 > N2O > O2 > N2 (why is this? RBC vs N2O?) CM28 [l] Carbon dioxide dissolved in blood follows which law? A. Charles law B. Avogadro’s law C. Henry’s law D. Dalton’s law E. Boyles law CM32 [q] Which combination of pulmonary artery catheter values is consistent with cardiogenic shock ? A. High PCWP, low CI, high SVR B. Low EF, high PCWP, low MAP (true but are not measured by PAC) C. High EF, low PCWP, low MAP


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CM33 [q] When estimating LVEDV from PCWP, all of the following are assumptions except: A. Normal Mitral valve B. Normal LV compliance C. Normal airway pressures D. Normal LV systolic function (basically, think about what factors influence the LV diastolic P-V relationship; note: LV systolic function only influences the LV systolic P-V relationship) CM37 Which is true regarding the Clarke electrode? A. Has a Ag/AgCl cathode and a platinum anode. (platinum cathode, which reduces O2 to H2O) B. Can measure pO2 in both gas and blood sample. C. Uses a 0.6 amp polarising current. D. Is accurate despite changing temperature. E. Is calibrated using a special electrical device. GI01 [cd] [Jul98] Oesophagus at rest is: A. Open at the top B. Open at the bottom C. Open at the top and the bottom D. Closed at the top and the bottom E. Contracted throughout its length GI03b [Mar99] Fat digestion: A. Bile salts are the most efficient emulsifiers (Guyton says lecithin > bile salts) B. Gastric lipase is the most important C. Pancreatic lipase in the duodenum is the most important D. Digestion takes place in micelles E. Micelles attach to enterocyte receptor GI05 [Jul98] [Jul99] [Mar03] [Jul03] [Feb04] [Jul04] Iron absorption: A. Passive (diffusion facilitated by H+ via divalent metal transporter DMT-1) B. Binds to apoferritin in small intestine lumen C. Decreased with increased pH D. Requires acidic gastric pH E. Binds to 4 porphyrin rings in the gut F. Vitamin C is a cofactor for haem oxygenase G. Haem iron is readily absorbed in the small intestine GI09 [Jul99] [Feb00] [Apr01] Release of which ONE of the following increases the pH of duodenal contents? A. Secretin B. Gastrin C. Intrinsic factor D. Cholecystokinin (facilitate secretin) E. Gastrin releasing peptide F. Pepsin GI13 [Jul01] In the small intestine, glucose is absorbed


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A. Passively B. In combination with sodium C. By facillitated diffusion (secondary active transport via SGLT) D. By cotransport with chloride E. Actively by insulin dependent uptake GI16 [Mar03] [Jul03] [Feb12] Bacteria in the intestines: A. Reduced by the continuous movement of contents through GIT B. Small intestine is sterile C. Bacteria in small intestine and large intestine – same in number but different species D. Required for the absorption/breakdown of urea E. Reduced in small intestine due to gastric acid & fast motility GI19 [Feb04] [Jul04] Gastric acid secretion A. Misoprostolol decreases gastric acid secretion and causes constipation (misoprostol causes diarrhoea) B. Acetylcholine and gastrin cause acid secretion by direct and indirect mechanisms C. Omeprazole causes reversible inhibition of the proton pump on the parietal cell membrane D. Pirenzepine is more effective than omeprazole at reducing gastric acid MU01 [a] Characteristics of muscle action potential: A. RMP -90 mV B. Action potential duration 2 to 4 msec C. Absolute refractory period 1 to 3 msec D. Conduction velocity 0.25 to 0.5 m/sec (should be 5 m/s) E. All of the above MU03 [a] Muscle spindle functions: A. Increased gamma efferent tone smooths contraction B. Increased alpha efferent tone smooths contraction MU04 [d] Mechanism of clonus (oscillation of the muscle spindle) involves: A. Increase in alpha-efferent discharge B. Increase in gamma-efferent discharge C. There is a delay in the circuit (more distal joints ! more delay ! clonus more pronounced) D. Increased tone E. All of the above MU07 [efklop] Contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle: A. Source of Ca++ is different B. Unable to produce same force of contraction (smooth muscle more force per fibre) C. Absence of tropomyosin D. Unable to maintain same duration of contraction E. Has prolonged latency F. Sarcomere of skeletal muscle is > smooth muscle


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G. Increased actin:myosin ratio for skeletal – (smooth up to 15:1, skeletal ~6:1) H. Increased numbers of mitochondria for skeletal I. More developed endoplasmic reticulum MU12 [fghlopq] The soleus muscle: A. High glycogen stores B. Few mitochondria C. Large nerve fibre D. Long duration of contraction E. Large muscle fibre F. High capacity for glycolysis MU14 [i] An increase in force of a skeletal muscle contraction is initially achieved by: A. Recruitment of nerve fibres B. Recruitment of muscle fibres C. Recruitment of motor units D. Increased intracellular calcium E. None of the above MU15 [io] In a large nerve fibre, the typical action potential duration is: A. 0.03 millisecs B. 0.3 millisecs C. 3 millisecs D. 30 millisecs E. 300 millisecs MU16 [j] The muscular contractions in skeletal muscle working at what level of efficiency? A. 10% B. 15% (Guyton and Hall 11th ed p79, max efficiency < 25%) C. 35% D. 50% E. 75% BL02 [Mar96] [Jul99] [Apr01] [Jul02] [Feb08] Which ONE of the following causes bronchodilatation? A. PGE2 (vasodilates and bronchodilates) B. PGF2 alpha (vasoconstricts and bronchospasm) C. TXA2 D. LTB4 E. LTD4 BL05 [Jul97] [Jul01] [Feb04] Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein which: A. Stimulates red and white cell production B. Is broken down in the kidney C. Has a half life of days D. Levels inversely proportional to haematocrit E. Polypeptide B glycoprotein


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BL05b [Mar99] Erythropoietin: A. Red cell maturation 24 to 72 hours (takes 5 ~ 7 days from stem cell to reticulocyte, takes 2 days from reticulocyte to mature RBC) B. Inactivated by Kupffer cells C. Metabolised in liver D. Half-life is 5 mins (t1/2 ≈ 5 hours) BL07 [Jul97] [Jul99] [Feb00] [Apr01] Antithrombin III inactivates which coagulation factor? A. XIIa (?XIa) B. Xa C. IIa D. IXa E. All of the above BL10 [Mar98] [Mar02] Post-translational modification occurs with: A. Factor V B. Von Willebrand factor C. Factor XII D. Protein C (vitamin K dependent gamma carboxylation of glutamate residue) BL13 [Jul98] Platelet activation will NOT occur without: A. Ca2+ B. Vessel wall damage C. Von Willebrand factor D. Fibrinogen E. Serotonin BL18 [Jul99] [Mar02] [Mar03] [Jul03] Which of the following statements about FFP is NOT true? A. Must be group specific B. Does not need to be cross matched C. Contains all clotting factors, does not contain platelets D. Contains clotting factors except deficient in factors V and VIII E. Is not useful in treating protein C deficiency/coagulopathy F. Does not contain albumin G. Does not contain anticoagulant H. Contains an anti-thrombotic protein BL20 [Jul00] Tissue Bound Macrophages: A. Derived from megakaryocytes B. Not found in the lung & liver C. Stimulated by lymphokines D. Digest bacteria using lymphokines BL22 [Apr01] For a T cell to react to recognise a foreign antigen: A. Opsonisation B. The antigen presenting cell presents antigen C. Needs T helper cells D. Prior exposure to antigen required E. None of the above


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BL26b [[Jul08 MAKEUP MCQ] What % of total body Fe is stored as haemoglobin: A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70% (30% liver, 65 ~ 70% Hb, total 3 ~ 4g in body) E. 90% BL27 [Jul03] Blood viscosity: A. Is independent of the white cell count B. Falls as haematocrit rises C. Is independent of vessel diameter (Fahraeus-Lindqvist effect – small vessel < 300 um ! ↓Hct ! ↓viscosity) D. Falls as flow rate rises (↑flow rate ! ↑shear thinning ! ↓viscosity) BL30 Cross-matching involves comparing donor's A. red cells with recipient's red cells B. red cells with recipient's serum C. serum with recipient's red cells D. serum with recipient's serum E. whole blood with recipient's whole blood BL35 [Feb08] Plasmin cleaves all the following except A. II B. V C. VII D. VIII E. XII ED05 [Mar96] [Jul97] [Mar98] [Jul01] [Jul04] The hypothalamus inhibits the release of: A. TSH (also inhibited by somatostatin) B. ACTH C. FSH D. GH (inhibited by somatostatin) E. Oxytocin ED06Alt Ver: Which factor decreases renin release: A. PG B. Angiotensin II C. Vasopressin D. Baroceptor stimulation E. ANP F. Increased right atrial pressure (Table 38-2 Ganong 24th ed, stimulatory = SNS, catecholamines, prostaglandins; inhibitory = ↑macula densa NaCl, ↑afferent arteriole pressure, ATII and ADH) ED07 [Mar97] [Apr01] Regarding hyperglycaemia: Which of the following is untrue? It causes: A. Increased H+


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B. Increased Na+ C. Increased urine output D. Increased ECF (or blood volume) E. Increased glucagon F. Increased K+ ED12 [Jul97] [Jul01] Heat production at rest is mostly due to: A. Skeletal muscle activity (most references say this is #1, even at rest) B. Na-K ATPase pump (accounts for 20 ~ 25% of O2 consumption but ? amount of total heat produced???) C. Dynamic action of food EM13]] [Jul97] [Mar99] [Jul00] Angiotensinogen secretion is increased by: A. ACTH B. Beta-endorphin C. Growth hormone D. Antidiuretic hormone E. Prolactin (also increased by progesterone and thyroid hormones) ED14 [Jul97] [Jul01] The energy value of 1g of carbohydrate is: A. 3 kcal B. 4 kcal C. 5 kcal – protein D. 7 kcal – EtOH E. 9 kcal – fat ED25 [Jul00] [Mar02] [Jul02] [Mar03] [Jul03] Phosphorylase: A. Is found in all human cells B. Present in liver & muscle C. Increased activity by adrenaline D. In liver increases glycogen production and reduce breakdown of glycogen E. Activated via cAMP second messenger system ED27 [Apr01] Metabolic rate is increased least with: A. Exercise B. Specific dynamic action of food C. Hot climate D. Cold climate E. Increased CNS activity ED32 [Jul06] Basal insulin secretion in an otherwise healthy person (70kg) : A. 10 U/hr B. 6 U/hr C. 4 U/hr D. 2 U/hr E. 1 U/hr


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NU05 [j] The setpoint in temperature regulation controls the body's response to changes in temperature. The location of sensory receptors which regulates the setpoint is: A. Anterior hypothalamus B. Posterior hypothalamus C. Spinal cord D. Skin E. Great veins NU15 [Aug11] Contents of CSF compared with plasma: A. K+ 60% B. Glucose 30% (approx 60%) C. HCO3- 80% (approx 105%) D. Na+ 80% (approx same) E. Cl- 80% (approx 110%) PS03 [Jul97] [Jul98] [Jul00] [Jul01] Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: A. Occurs only with chronic use B. 80% (or 60%) mortality C. May be treated with dantrolene D. Can be caused by acute withdrawal of L-Dopa therapy E. Is treated with bromocriptine PS10 [Mar99] [Jul99] Droperidol: A. Substituted phenothiazine B. Reliably produces mental tranquility C. Does not act (directly) on CTZ D. Alpha-blockade with hypotension is not a problem with 2mg dose E. Slows alpha rhythm on EEG PS13 [Jul00] With respect to action of midazolam: A. Acts on GABA-B receptors B. Increases duration of opening of Cl– channels C. Competes with barbiturates for receptor site on GABA receptor D. Metabolism is decreased by cimetidine E. Decreases chloride conductance F. Interacts with the B1 subunit of GABA PS16 [Jul00] Diazepam 0.1 mg/kg given orally, the percent absorption is: A. 100% B. 94% C. 70% D. 50% EN01 [Mar96] [Jul97] Chlorpropamide (a sulfonylurea) A. Inhibits ADH secretion B. Has a short duration of action (? Half-life < 12 hrs) C. Increases glucose entry into cells D. Is prolonged in renal failure


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Jul 01 version: With regards to sulfonylureas: A. Work effectively if insulin stores depleted B. Cause a lactic acidosis C. Tolbutamide and phenylformin are examples D. Highly protein bound EN03 [Jul01] Glipizide is: A. A biguanide B. Half life 4-6hrs C. Causes metabolic acidosis /lactic acidosis D. Not contraindicated in hepatic failure E. Highly bound to albumin F. Is ineffective in patients with low insulin stores AH07 [Apr07] The nerve agent sarin: A. should not be treated with anticholinesterase if there is tachycardia (pralidoxime is an anticholinesterase, used in the treatment) B. something about pyridostigmine C. symptoms can include fasciculations and paralysis D. something about pralidoxime blocking the receptor (pralidoxime blocks the enzyme, AChE, and shields it from sarin – NOT the receptor)

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Best MCQ Collection - WordPress.comBest MCQ Group Answers @ propofoldreams.wordpress.com 1 Best MCQ Collection 15A-30 The FRC in a child is: A. 20ml/kg B. 30ml/kg (i.e. same as adult,