BIOLOGY - jupitereducationacademy.comjupitereducationacademy.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/Full-test-2-NEET.pdfPlasmodium, the malaria parasite, belongs to class (a) Sarcodina (b)

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BIOLOGY

1. In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is

(a) Structure of nucleus

(b) Mode of nutrition

(c) Structure of cell wall

(d) Asexual reproduction

2. The main difference in Gram- positive and Gram-negative bacteria resides in their

(a) Cell wall (b) Cell membrane

(c) Cytoplasm (d) Flagella

3. Plasmodium, the malaria parasite, belongs to class

(a) Sarcodina (b) Ciliata

(c) Sporozoa (d) Dinophyceae

4. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

(a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

(b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter

(c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus

(d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsieolla

5. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis are called

(a) Lysozymes (b) Lipolytic

(c) Lytic (d) Lysogenic

6. White rust disease is caused by

(a) Claviceps (b) Alternaria

(c) Phytophthora (d) Albugo candida

7. In fungi , stored food material is

(a) Glycogen (b) Starch

(C) Sucrose (d) Glucose

8. Which one of the following is a slime mould?

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(a) Physarum (b) Thiobacillus

(c)Anabaena (d)Rhizopus

9. A plant is which sporophytic generation is represented by zygote

(a) Pinus (b) Selaginella

(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Dryopteris

10. A well-developed archegonium with a neck consisting of 4-6 rows of neck canal cells,

characterizes

(a) Gymnosperms only

(b) Bryophytes and pteridophytes

(c) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms

(d) Gymnosperms and flowering plants

11. Which of the following propagates through leaf-tip?

(a) Walking fern (b) Sproux-leaf plant

(c) Marchatia (d) Moss

12. The latest model for plasma membrane is

(a) Lamellar model

(b) Unit membrane model

(c) Fluid mosaic model

(d) Molecular lipid model

13. Hammerline’s experiments of Acetabularia involves exchanging

(a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleus

(c) Rhizoid and stalk (d) Gametes

14. Segregation of Mendelian factor (Aa) occurs during

(a) Diplotene (b) Anaphase I

(c) Zygotene/Pachytene

(d) Anaphase II

15. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of

(a) Breakdown of macromolecules

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(b) Protein synthesis

(c) Phosphorylation of flavoproteins

(d) Oxidation-reduction reactions

16. ABO blood group system is due to

(a) Multifactor inheritance

(b) Incomplete dominance

(c) Multiple allelism

(d) Epistasis

17. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour-blind. The probability

of their daughter becoming colour-blind is

(a) 0% (b) 25%

(c) 50% (d) 75%

18. Nucleosome core is made of

(a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3

(b) H1, H2A, H2B H4

(c) H1, H2A, H2B ,H3, H4

19. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype when present together but fail to do so

independently are called?

(a) Epistatsis (b) Polygene

(c) Non-complimentary genes

(d) Complimentary genes

20. In pea plant, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed

with a green seeded plant, what ration of yellow and green seeded plants would you expects in F1

generations?

(a) 9:1 (b) 1:3

(c) 3:1 (d) 50:50

21. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of

(a) Serine and isoleucine

(b) Cysteine and valine

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(c) Tyrosine and tryptophan

(d) Phenylalanine and methionine

22. During DNA replication, the strands separate by

(a) DNA polymerase

(b) Topoisomerase

(c) Unwindase/Helicase

(d) Gyrase

23. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because

(a) One cistron contains many genes

(b) One gene contains many cistrons

(c) One gene contains one cistron

(d) One gene contains no cistron

24. Out of 64 codons, 61 code for 20 types of amino acid, It is called

(a) Degeneracy of genetic code

(b) Overlapping gene

(c) Wobbling of codon

(d) Universality of codons

25. During transcription, the RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a

saddle –like structure, What is its DNA-binding sequence?

(a) AATT (b) CACC

(C) TATA (d) TTAA

26. Restriction endonucleases are

(a) Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defence mechanism.

(b) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis.

(c) Used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules.

(d) Present inmammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies.

27. The first successfully cloned mammal that gained worldwide publicity was

(a) Chance, a bull

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(b) Dolly, a sheep

(c) Molly, a sheep

(d) Polly, a sheep

28. Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they

(a) Are RNA transcription initiator

(b) Help chromosome pairing

(c) Prevent chromosome loss

(d) Act as replicons

29. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs through

(a) Rhizome (b) Stolon

(c) Bulbils (d) Sucker

30. What is eye of potato?

(a) Axillary bud

(b) Accessory bud

(c) Adventitious bud

(d) Apical bud

31. Which of the following is a correct pair?

(a) Cuscuta – Parasite

(b) Dischidia – Insectivorous

(c) Opunita – Predator

(d) Capsella – Hydrophyte

32. is the floral formula of

(a) Liliaceae (b) Solanaceae

(c) Asteraceae (d) Fabaceae

33. The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in

(a) Auxins (b) Proteins

(c) Starch (d) Lipids

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34. Monocot leaves possess

(a) Intercalary meristem

(b) Lateral meristem

(c) Apical meristem

(d) Mass meristem

35. Bordered pits are found in

(a) Sieve cells

(b) Vessel wall

(c) Companion cells

(d) Sieve tube wall

36. The main function of lenticels is

(a) Transpiration

(b) Guttation

(c) Gaseous exchange

(d) Bleeding

37. Guttation is mainly due to

(a) Root pressure (b) Osmosis

(c) Transpiration (d) Imbibition

38. Which one of the following is not an essential element for plants?

(a) Potassium (b) Iron

(c) Iodine (d) Zinc

39. A free living nitrogen – fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the

water fern Azolla is

(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella

(c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena

40. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in the

(a) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts

(b) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts

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(c) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts

(d) Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts

41. Ferredoxin is a constituent of

(a) PS I (b) PS II

(c) Hill reaction (d) P680

42. A photosynthesizing plant is releasing 18O more than the normal. The plant must have been

supplied with

(a) O3 (b) H2O with 18O

(c) CO2 with 18O (d) C6H12O6 with 18O

43. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is

(a) Cyt b (b) Cyt c

(c) Cyt a1 (d) Cyt a3

44. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by

(a) Hofmeister

(b) Nawaschin and Guignard

(c) Leeuwenhoek

(d) Straburger

45. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are

(a) Always tetrasporic

(b) Always monosporic

(c) Always bisporic

(d) Sometimes monosporic, sometimes bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic.

46. the arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is

(a) 3+2+3 (b) 2 + 3+ 3

(c) 3 + 3 + 2 (d) 2 + 4 + 2

47. The hormone which is primarily connected with the cell division is

(a) IAA (b) NAA

(c) Cytokinin/Zeatin

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(d) Gibberellic acid

48. Which of the following breaks bud dormancy of potato tuber?

(a) Gibberellin (b) IAA

(c) ABA (d) Zeatin

49. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by

(a) High gibberellins : Cytokinin ratio

(b) High auxin : Cytokinin ration

(c) High cytokinin : Auxin ratio

(d) High gibberellins : Auxin ration

50. Which of the following is true about ecosystem?

(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers

(b) Primary consumers out-number producers.

(c) Producers are more than primary consumers.

(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful

51. A group of individuals of the same kind of a phenotype characters and can interbreed is terms as

(a) Colony (b) Genus

(c) Community (d) Species

52. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is one tone. The tiger biomass shall be

(a) 100 kg (b) 10 kg

(c) 200 kg (d) 1 kg

53. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is governed by the 2nd law of

thermodynamics. The average efficiency transfer from herbivores to carnivores is

(a) 5 % (b) 10 %

(c) 25 % (d) 50 %

54. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned

(a) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger

(b) Periyar - Elephant

(c) Rann of kutch - Wild Ass

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(d) Dachigam National Park – Snow Leopard

55. The highest DDT deposition shall occur in

(a) Phytoplanton (b) Seagull/Birds

(c) Crab (d) Eel

56. Which gas contributes the most to greenhouse effect?

(a) CFC (b) Freon

(c) CO2 (d) CH4

57. The most common indicator organism that represents polluted water is

(a) E.Coli (b) S. tuphi

(c) V. cholera (d) Entamoeba

58. Which of the following is absent in polluted water?

(a) Hydrilla (b) Water huacinth

(c) Larva of stone fly (d) Blue-green algae

59. The first transgenic crop was

(a) Pea (b) Flax

(c) Tobacco (d) Cotton

60. Probiotics are

(a) Cancer inducing microbes

(b) New kind of food allergens

(c) Live microbial food supplement

(d) Safe antibiotics

61. Sarcoma is a type cancer of that develops in

(a) Epithelia tissue

(b) Mesodermal tissues

(c) Blood

(d) Endodermal tissues

62. Farmers have reported over 50 per cent higher yields of rice by using the biofertilizer

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(a) Azolla pinnata

(b) Cyanobacteria

(c) Kegume-Rhizobium symbiosis

(d) Mycorrhiza

63. Hybridoma cells are

(a) Nervous cells of frog

(b) Hybird cells resulting from myeloma cells

(c) Only cells having oncogenes

(d) Product of spore formation in bacteria

64. Biological organization starts with

(a) Cellular level (b) Organismic level

(c) Atomic level

(d) Submicroscopic molecular level

65. Which is not consistent with the double helical structure of DNA?

(a) A = T, C = G

(b) Density of DNA decreases on heating

(c) A + T/C + G is not constant

(d) Both (a) and (b)

66. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place

(a) Only in the cytoplasm

(b) In the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm

(c) In cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

(d) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope.

67. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears

(a) L –shaped (b) E-shaped

(c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped

68. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs as

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(a) Oncosphere (b) Cysticercus

(c) Morula (d) Egg

69. A chordate character is

(a) Gills (b) Spiracles

(c) Postanal tail

(d) Chitinous exoskeleton

70. An insect regarded as the greatest mechanical carrier of diseases is

(a) Pediculus (b) Cimex

(c) Musca (d)Xenopsylla

71. Sound box of birds is called

(a) Pygostyle (b) Larynx

(c) Syrinx (d) Synsacrum

72. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples?

(a) Plathyhelminthes – Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius

(b) Mollusca – Loligo, Teredo, Octopus

(c) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula

(d) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia

73. Water is a resource which is

(a) Non- degradable and non-maintainable

(b) Degradable and maintainable

(c) Renewable (d) Non- renewable

74. A number of natural reserves have been created to conserve specific wild life species. Identify the

correct combination from the following

(a) Gir Forest – Lion

(b) Kaziranga – Elephants

(c) Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass

(d) Manas wildlife Sanctuary – Musk deer

75. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are

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(a) Spindle –shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and involuntary.

(b) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary

(c) Cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary

(d) Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary

76. The polysaccharide present in the matrix of cartilage is known as

(a) Cartilagin (b) Ossein

(c) Chondroitin (d) Casein

77. Hydrolytic enzymes which act on low pH ae known as

(a) Proteases (b) 𝛼- Amylases

(c) Hydrolases (d) Peroxidases

78. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

(a) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

(b) Cobalamin – Beriberi

(c) Calciferol – Pellagra

(d) Ascorbic acid - Scurvy

79. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

(a) Shallower and slow

(b) There is no effect on breathing

(c) Slow and deep

(d) Faster and deeper

80. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas

those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitudes

(a) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBC’s are needed to absorb the required amount of

O2 to survive,

(b) There is more UV radiation which enhances the RBC production.

(c) People eat more nutritive food; therefore more RBC’s are formed

(d) People get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available .

81. Closed circulatory system occurs in

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(a) Cockroach (b) Tadpole/fish

(C) Mosquito (d) Housefly

82. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the command from

(a) Chordae tendineae

(b) Sinoatrial node

(c) Purkinje fibres

(d) Atrioventricular node

83. In Ornithine cycle, which one pair of the following wastes is removed from the blood?

(a) CO2 and urea (b) CO2 and ammonia

(c) Ammonia and urea

(d) Urea and sodium salts

84. Bowman’s glands are located in the

(a) Anterior pituitary region

(b) Female reproductive system

(c) Olfactory epithelium of our nose

(d) Proximal end of uriniferous tubules

85. Tendon is made up of

(a) Adipose tissue

(b) Modified white fibrous tissue

(C) Areolar tissue

(d ) Yellow fibrous connective tissue

86. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae

(b) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae

(c) Catilaginous – Skull bones joint

(d) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges

87. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans ?

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(a) Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye.

(b) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.

(c) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.

(d) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.

88. Which one of the following hormone stimulates the ‘let-down’ (release) of milk from the mother’s

breasts when the baby is sucking ?

(a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin

(c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin

89. Acromegaly is caused by

(a) Excess if GH

(b) Excess of thyroxin

(c) Deficiency of thyroxin

(d) Excess of adrenaline

90. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?

(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin

(b) Prolactin

(c) Estrogen

(d) Progesterone

CHEMISTRY

91. The value of Kp for the reaction, 2H2S (g) ↔2H2 (g) + S2 (g) is 1.2 × 10−2 at 10650 C. The value

for Kc is

(a) < 1.2 × 10−2 (b) > 1.2 × 10−2

(c) 1.2× 10−2 (d) 0.12 × 10−2

92. 1 mol of CH3COOH and 1 mol of C2H5OH reacts to produce 2

3 mol of CH3COOC2H5.The

equilibrium costant is

(a) 2 (b) +2

(c) -4 (d) + 4

93. Identify (Z) in the following reaction

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(a) Benzoic acid

(b) Carbolic acid

(c) Phenol

(d) Salicylaldehyde

94. The normality of solution obtained by mixing 10 ml of 𝑁

5 HCl and 30 ml OF

𝑁

10HCl is

(a) 𝑁

5 (b)

𝑁

8

(c) 𝑁

15 (d)

𝑁

7.5

95. The Beilstein test for organic compounds is used to detect

(a) Nitrogen (b) Sulphur

(c) Carbon (d) Halogens

96. Internal energy does not include

(a) Vibrational energy

(b) Energy due to gravitational pull distillation

(c) Rotational energy

(d) Vibrational energy

97. Which group of periodic table contains no metal

(a) VII A (b) III A

(c) VIII (d) IA

98. Transition elements form coloured ions due to

(a) Fully filled d- orbitals

(b) Availability of s- electrons

(c) d-d transition

(d) Smaller atomic radii

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99. Turpentine oil can be purified by

(a) Vacuum distillation

(b) Fractional distillation

(c) Steam distillation

(d) Subilmation

100. The chief ore of Hg is

(a) Cinnaber (b) Galena

(c) Pyrolusite (d) Barunite

101. Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 is

(a) +4 (b) +8

(c) +10 (d) +18

102. Hydrogen has high ionization energy than alkali metals because it has

(a) Small size (b) Large size

(c) Ionic bond (d) Covalent bond

103. If 𝑒1.60206 × 10−19𝐶,

𝑒𝑚 = 1.75875 × 1011 ⁄ C kg-1 then the mass of electron is

(a) 19.091 × 10−31kg

(b) 11.5830× 10−31kg

(b) 6.9091× 10−31kg

(d) 9.1091 × 10−31kg

104. The transition element which shows the highest oxidation state is

(a) Manganese (b) Iron

(c) Chromium (d) Vanadium

105. The pH of a solution having the H+ ion concentration of 1× 10−4kg ions/litre is

(a) 5 (b) 4

(c) 3 (d) 2

106. Benzaldehyde can be prepared by the hydrolysis of

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(a) Benzal chloride

(b) Benzotrichloride

(c) Benzonitrile

(d) Benzyl chloride

107.

(a) Benzaldenhyde (b) Benzoic acid

(c) Salicylic acid (d) Sodium benzoate

108. Alkynes usually show which type of reaction?

(a) Addition (b) Replacement

(c) Substitution (d) Elimination

109. The general molecular formula for disaccharide is

(a) C10 H20O10 (b) C12 H22O10

(c) C12 H20O10 (d) C12 H22O11

110. A gas expands isothermally against a constant external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 10

dm3 to a volume of 20 dm3. It absorbs 300 J of thermal energy from its surroundings. The ∆𝑈 is

(a) -312 J (b) -213 J

(c) -321 J (d) -123 J

111. Chemical (A) is used for softening of water to remove temporary hardness. (A) reacts with

sodium carbonates to produce caustic soda. When CO2 is bubble through (A) it turns cloudy.

Chemically (A) is

(a) CaCO3 (b) Ca(HCO3)2

(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaO

112. Bell metal is an alloy of

(a) Cu and Pb (b) Sn and Cu

(c) Sn and Pb (d) None of these

113. CuSO4 and KCN reacts of produce

(a) K[Cu(CN)6] (b) CuCN

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(c) CuCN2 (d) K3[Cu(CN)4]

114. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. Its molecular weight is 180. The molecular

formula of that compound is

(a) C6H12O6 (b) C6HO4

(c) C3H6O3 (d) C5H10O5

115. Nitrolium is

(a) Ca(CN)2 (b) CaCN2

(c) Ca(NO3)2 (d) CaCN2+ C

116. 12Al27 + 2He4 →14Si30 + 1H1 + Q

Mass of 13Al27 = 26.9815 amu and mass of 14Si30 = 29.9738. The Q is equal to

(a) 2.329 MeV (b) 3.298 MeV

(c) 12.98 MeV (d) 5.478 MeV

117. Al2O3 on heating with carbon in an atmosphere of N2 at high temperature produces

(a) Al + CO2 + NO (b) Al + CO2

(c) AlN + CO (d) Al4C3 + CO2

118. The product obtained by treating:

CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr →

(a) CH3 – CH = CH2Br

(b) CH2 Br CH2 = CH2

(c) CH3 –CH2 –CH2Br

(d) CH3–CH–CH3

Br

119. The transport of matter in the absence of bulk flow is known as

(a) Transfusion (b) Diffusion

(c) Rotation (d) Translation

120. Purple of Cassius is a colloidal solution of

(a) Lead (b) Mercury

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(c) Silver (d) Gold

121. Which of the following is not the characteristic of interhalogen compounds?

(a) More reactive than halogens

(b) They are covalent

(c) Quite unstable but not explosive

(d) Have low boiling point and highly volatile

122. The process of decomposition of organic compound by the application of heat is

(a) Evaporation (b) Sublimation

(c) Pyrolysis (d) Condensation

123. Gun metal is

(a) Cu + Sn + Zn (b) Zn + Sn

(c) Cu + Zn (d) Cu + Sn

124. The monomer of Teflon is

(a) Trifluoroethene (b) Tetrafluoroethene

(c) Monofluoroethene (d) Difluoroethene

125. The correct decreasing order of basic strength is

(a) PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3> NH3

(b) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3> SbH3

(c) AsH3 > SbH3 > PH3> NH3

(d) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3> NH3

126. Iodide of Millon’s base is

(a) K2HgI4 (b) HIO3

(c) Hg(NH2) I (d) NH2HgO. HgI

127. Sodium on heating with moist air produces

(a) NaO (b) Na2O

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(c) Na2CO3 (d) NaOH

128. The product obtained by treating benzene with chlorine is presence of ultraviolet light

(a) C6Cl6 (b) C6H5Cl

(c) CCl4 (d) C6H6Cl5

129. Gammexane is

(a) BHC (b) HCB

(c) Chloral (d) DDT

130. Which of the following produces ketone on treatment with Grignard Reagent?

(a) Acetic acid (b) Methyl alcohol

(c) Methyl cyanide (d) Acetaldehyde

131. Vinegar is represented by

(a) HCOOH (b) CH3CH2CH2COOH

(c) CH3COOH (d) CH3CH2COOH

132. Which shows electrical conductance?

(a) Graphite (b) Diamond

(c) Potassium (d) Sodium

133. Which of the following cannot displace hydrogen from its compound?

(a) Hg (b) Pb

(c) Al (d) Fe

134. The natural gas mainly contains

(a) Propane (b) Pentane

(c) Butane (d) Methane

135. Which compound can be sulphonated easily?

(a) Benzene (b) Nitrobenzene

(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Toluene

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PHYSICS

136. The Van der Wall equation for n moles of a real gas is

(𝑝 +𝑎

𝑉2) (𝑉 − 𝑏) = 𝑛𝑅𝑇

Where P is the pressure ,V is the volume. T is the absolute temperature . R is the molar gas constant

and a and b are Van der Waal constant . The dimensions of a are the same as those of

(a) PV (b) PV2

(c) P 2V (d) 𝑃

𝑉

137. A particle of mass m is resting on a wedge of angle 𝜃 as shown in the figure. The wedge is given

an acceleration a. What is the value of a so That the mass m just falls freely?

(a) g (b) g cot 𝜃

(c) g sin 𝜃 (d) g tan 𝜃

138. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a velocity of 3 km/h. A man walks in the rain with a

velocity of 4 km/h. The raindrops will fall on the man with a velocity of:

(a) 1 km/h (b) 3 km/h

(c) 4 km/h (d) 5 km/h

139. A projectile is given an initial velocity of 𝑖+ 2𝐽. The Cartesian equation of its path is : (g = 10

m/s2)

(a) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 5𝑥2 (b) 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 5𝑥2

(c) 4𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 5𝑥2 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 25𝑥2

140. The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched through a distance s is 10 joule. The

amount of work (in joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through a additional distance S

will be

(a) 30 (b) 40

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(c) 10 (d) 20

141. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body slides down the track

from point A, which is at a height h = 5cn. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete

the loop is

(a) 5cm (b) 15

4cm

(c) 10

3 cm (d) 2 cm

142. A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s collides with another body of mass 6 kg at

rest. If the two bodies stick together after collision, then the loss of kinetic energy of the system is

(a) o (b) 288 J

(c) 172. 8 J (d) 144 J

143. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Density of the gas at

point A is 𝜌0 . Density at point B will be:

(a) 3

4𝜌0 (b)

3

2𝜌0

(c) 4

3𝜌0 (d) 2𝜌0

144. Equal volume of monoatomic and diatomic gasses at the same temperature are given equal

quantities of heat. Then:

(a) the temperature of diatomic gas will be more.

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(b) the temperature of monoatomic gas will be more.

(c) the temperature of both will be zero.

(d) nothing can be said.

145. 70 calories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas at constant

pressure from 300C to 350C. The amount of heat required (in calories ) to raise the temperature of the

same gas through the same range (300C to 350C) at constant volume is

(a) 30 (b) 50

(c) 70 (d) 90

146. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 W power of 500 K. If the radius were

half and temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be

(a) 225 (b) 450

(c) 900 (d) 1800

147. There are two hollow concentric spheres with radii 𝑅1and 𝑅2 for inner and outer spheres

respectively. The inner sphere is given a charge 𝑄1 and the outer a charge 𝑄2. Then the potential at

the surface of the inner sphere is

(a) 1

4𝜋𝜀0(

𝑄1

𝑅1+

𝑄2

𝑅2) (b)

1

4𝜋𝜀0(

𝑄1

𝑅1−

𝑄2

𝑅2)

(c) 1

4𝜋𝜀0(

𝑄1

𝑅1) (d) 0

148. The electric field in a region is given by 𝐸 = 3

5𝐸0𝑖 +

4

5𝐸0𝑗 with 𝐸0 = 2.0 × 103𝑁/𝐶.

The flux of this filed through a rectangular surface area of 0.2 m2 parallel to the Y-Z plane is

(a) 60 Nm2/C (b) 120 Nm2/C

(c) 180 Nm2/C (d) 240 Nm2/C

149. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is

uncharged . The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after the switch is closed is

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(a) 0 (b) 𝑞

2

(C) q (d) 2q

150. A rectangular loop carrying a current I is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is

parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I is

established in the wire as shown in the figure, the loop will:

(a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

(b) move away from the wire.

(c) move towards the wire

(d) remain stationary.

151. An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V and then it enters a

magnetic field of induction B normal to the lines. Then, the radius of the circular path is:

(a) √(2 𝑒𝑉 𝑚)⁄ (b) √(2 𝑉𝑚 𝑒𝐵2⁄ )

(c) √(2 𝑉𝑚 𝑒𝐵⁄ ) (d) √(2 𝑉𝑚 𝑒2𝐵⁄ )

152. An electron moves along the line AB, which lies in the same plane as that of a circular loop of

conducting wire as shown in the figure. What will be the direction of the current induced if any in the

loop?

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(a) No current will be induced.

(b) The current will be clockwise.

(c) The current will be anticlockwise

(d) The current will change direction as the electron passes by

153. A square coil ABCD is lying in the x-y plane with its centre at origin. A long straight passing

through origin carries a current i=2 t in negative z- direction. The induced current in the coil

(a) Clockwise (b) anticlockwise

(c) alternating (d) 0

154. A spherical drop of water has radius 1 mm. If surface tension of water is 70 × 10−3N/m then

the difference of pressures between the inside an outside of the spherical drop is:

(a) 35 N/m-2 (b) 70 N/m2

(c) 140 N/m2 (d) 0

155. When at rest, a liquid stands at the same level in the tubes shown in the figure. But as indicated a

height difference h occurs when the system is given an acceleration a towards the right. Here h is

equal to:

(a) 𝑎𝐿

2𝑔 (b)

𝑔𝐿

2𝑎

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(c) 𝑔𝐿

𝑎 (d)

𝑎𝐿

𝑔

156. In a metre bridge with standard resistance of 5Ω in the left gap, the ratio of balancing lengths of

metre bridge wire is 2:3. The unknown resistance is:

(a) 1 Ω (b) 15 Ω

(c) 10 Ω (d) 3.3 Ω

(e) 7.5 Ω

157. Maximum power developed across variable resistance R in the circuit shown in the figure is

(a) 50 watt (b) 75 watt

(c) 25 watt (d) 100 watt

158. A man measures time period of a pendulum (T) in stationary lift. If the lift moves upwards with

acceleration g/4, then the new time period will be:

(a) 2𝑇

√5 (b) (

√5𝑇

2)

(c) √5

(2𝑇) (d)

2

√5𝑇

159. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. At

what distance from the lens, on the other side, must a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be

placed, in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it?

(a) 12 cm (b) 30 cm

(c) 50 cm (d) 60 cm

160. A concave lens forms the image of an object such that the distance between the object and the

image in 10 cm and the magnification produced is 1/4 . The focal length of the lens is:

(a) 8.6 cm (b) 6.2 cm

(c) 10 cm (d) 4.4 cm

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161. If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude respectively, on superposition, produce a

resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the waves differ in phase by:

(a) 𝜋 (b) 2𝜋

3

(c) 2𝜋

3 (d) 3𝜋

162. The light waves from two independent monochromatic light sources are given by :y1= 2 sin𝜔t

and y2 = 3 cos 𝜔𝑡. Then the correct statements is:

(a) Both the waves are coherent

(b) Both the waves are incoherent

(c) Both the waves have different time periods

(d) None of the above

163. When a beam of accelerated electrons hits a target, a continuous X –ray spectrum is emitted from

the target. Which one of the following wavelength is absent in the X-ray spectrum if the X-ray tube is

operating at 40,000 volt?

(a) 1.5 A (b) 0.5 A

(C) 0.25 A (d) 1.0 A

164. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr emits radiation of intensity which is 64

times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely

with this source is

(a) 6 hr (b) 12 hr

(c) 42 hr (d) 128 hr

165. Given that a photon of light of wavelength 10,000 angstrom has an energy equal to 1.23 eV.

When light of wavelength 5000 angstrom and intensity 𝐼0 falls on a photoelectric cell, the saturation

current is 0.40 × 10−6 ampere and the stopping potential is 1.36 volt; then the work function is:

(a) 0.43 eV (b) 1.10 eV

(c) 1.36 eV (d) 2.47 eV

166. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity 1.5 × 108 m s-1 is equal to that

of a photon. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the electron to that of the photon is

(a) 2 (b) 4

(c)1

2 (d)

1

4

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167. The angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is quantized because it is a necessary condition

for the compatibility with

(a) the wave nature of electron.

(b) particle nature of electron.

(c) Paulli’s exclusion behavior

(d) none of these

168. An LCR circuit contains resistance of 100 ohm and supply of 200 volt at 300 radian angular

frequency . If only capacitance is taken out from the circuit and the rest of the circuit is joined, current

lags behind the voltage by 600 . If on the other hand, only inductor is taken out the current leads by

600 with the applied voltage. The current flowing in the circuit is:

(a) 1 amp (b) 1.5 amp

(c) 2 amp (d) 2.5 amp

169. Zener diode functions in:

(a) forward biased condition

(b) reverse biased condition

(C) both forward and reverse biased conditions

(d) none of the above

170. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular escape velocity from the earth of radius R. What is

the height of the satellite above the surface of the earth?

(a) 𝑅

2 (b) R

(c) 3R (d) 6R

171. If the system is released , then the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system (as shown in

the figure) is

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(a) 𝑔

4 (b)

𝑔

2

(C) g (d) 2g

172. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination ∅ is perfectly smooth, while the lower half is

rough. A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if coefficient of

friction for the lower half is given by

(a) 2 sin ∅ (b) 2 cos ∅

(c) 2 tan ∅ (d) tan ∅

173. Three thin rods each of length L and mass M are placed along X,Y, and Z- axes in such a way that

one end of each of the rods is at the origin,. The moment of inertia of this system about Z-axis is:

(a) 2 ML2/3 (b) 4 ML2/3

(c) 5 ML2/3 (d) ML2/3

174. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular

velocity 𝜔. Two objects each of mass m, are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the

ring. The ring now rotates with an angular velocity

(a) 𝜔𝑀

𝑀+𝑚 (b)

𝜔(𝑀−2𝑚)

𝑀+2𝑚

(C) 𝜔𝑀

𝑀+2𝑚 (d)

𝜔(𝑀+2𝑚)

𝑀

175. The bob of a simple pendulum is hanging vertically down from a fixed identical bob by means of

a string of length l, If both bobs are charged with a charge q each, time period of the pendulum is(

ignore the radii of the bobs)

(a) 2𝜋√𝑙

𝑔+(𝑞2

𝑙2𝑚) (b) 2𝜋√

𝑙

𝑔−(𝑞2

𝑙2𝑚)

(c) 2𝜋√𝑙

𝑔 (d) 2𝜋√

𝑙

𝑔−(𝑞2

𝑙)

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176. A string is wrapped several times round a solid cylinder and then the end of the string is held

stationary while the cylinder is released from rest. The acceleration of the cylinder and tension in the

string will be

(a) 2𝑔

3and

𝑚𝑔

3 (b) g and

𝑚𝑔

2

(C) 𝑔

3and

𝑚𝑔

2 (d)

𝑔

3and

𝑚𝑔

3

177. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length 2a is falling freely without rotation under gravity with

AB horizontal. Suddenly the end A is fixed when the speed of the rod is v. The angular speed with

which the rod begins to rotate is

(a) 𝑣

2𝑎 (b)

4𝑣

3𝑎

(C) 𝑣

3𝑎 (d)

3𝑣

4𝑎

178. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate of refractive index √3 at the polarizing

angle, The angle of refracting is

(a) 600 (b) 300

(C) 450 (d) 500

179. The current through 10 Ω resistor in the circuit given below is (the diodes are ideal)

(a) 50 mA (b) 20 mA

(C) 40 mA (d) 80 mA

180. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to the principal quantum number 4. Then the

number of spectral lines observed will be

(a) 3 (b) 6

(c) 5 (d) 2

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