BIOLOGY - Jupiter Education Academyjupitereducationacademy.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/Full-test-3-NEET.pdf · (a) Plasma (b) Bone marrow (c) Liver (d) Spleen 20. Secondary host

NEET | FULL TEST 3

No. 71A, 2nd Floor Page 1 Shreya Towers, Prakasam Salai, Broadway, Chennai – 108 CONTATC:+91 73389 23999.

BIOLOGY

1. Amoeba is a/an

(a) Unicellular animal

(b) Octacellular animal

(c) Multicellular animal

(d) All of the above

2. A herbarium sheet

(a) Carries a label providing information about the date and place of collection.

(b) Also provides English, local and botanical names

(c) The family name of specimen and the collector’s name is also mentioned

(d) More than one option is correct

3. The enzyme present in saliva is

(a) Maltase (b) Ptyalin

(c) Sucrase (d) Invertase

4. Identify the virus and name the structures A and B:

(a) TMV, A= ssRNA, B = Capsid

(b) TMV, A= dsRNA, B = Capsid

(c) TMV, A = Capsid, B = ssRNA

(d) TMV, A= Capsid, B= dsRNA

5. Fungi in a forest ecosystem is

(a) Producer (b) Decomposer

(c) Top consumer (d) Autotroph

6. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify

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(a) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which has a

cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria.

(b) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosome.

(c) Archaebacteria that contain proteins homologous to eukaryotic core histones.

(d) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose

DNA is negatively superociled.

7. Cyanobacteria in an

(a) Algae having blue-green pigment

(b) Algae having red pigment

(c) Algae having brown pigment

(d) Algae having yellow-brown pigment

8. Cu is present in

(a) Plasmalemma (b) Plastoquinone

(c) Plastocyanin (d) Ferredoxin

9. Identity the structure marked as A, B and C for Marchantia :

(a) A= Antheridiophore, B = Gemma cup, C = Rhizoids

(b) A = Rhizoids, B = Gemma cup , C = Archegoniophore

(C) A = Antheridiophore, B = Rhizoids, C = Gemma cup

(d) A= Archegoniphore, B = Gemma cup, C = Rhizoids

10. The largest phylum in respect of number of species is

(a) Coelenterate (b) Arthropoda

(c) Protozoa (d) Porifera

11. Chronic disturbance in hormone secretion of thyroid gland causes

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(a) Goitre (b) Diabetes

(c) Addison’s disease (d) Colour blindness

12. The formation of egg and sperm is affected by

(a) LH (b) MH

(c) TSH (d) FSH

13. ACTH is secreted by

(a) Thyroid gland (b) Thymus gland

(c) Pituitary gland (d) Islets of Langerhans

14. Enzymes of electron transport system are present in

(a) Inner mitochondrial membrane

(b) Matrix

(c) Intermembrane space

(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

15. Ozone hole results in

(a) UV radiation reaching the earth

(b) Cataract

(c) Increase in skin cancer

(d) All of the above

16. Greenhouse effect is due to the increased concentration of

(a) CO2 (b) Ne

(c) SO2 (d) NO2

17. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack

(a) Cambium (b) Phloem fibres

(c) Thick-walled tracheids

(d) Xylem fibres

18. Which of the following metal is present in vitamin B12?

(a) Cobalt (b) Copper

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(c) Zinc (d) Magnesium

19. Primary blood cells are formed in

(a) Plasma (b) Bone marrow

(c) Liver (d) Spleen

20. Secondary host of schistosoma is

(a) Hydra (b) Euglena

(c) Snail (d) Pheretima

21. Find the incorrect match with respect to the floral formula of the concerned families:

22. Sertoli cells help in

(a) Maturation of eggs

(b) Maturation of sperms

(c) Enzyme production

(d) Ovulation

23. Opium is extracted from

(a)Atropa belladonna

(b) Papaver somniferum

(c) Vinca rosea

(d) Azadirachta indica

24. Quinine is obtained form

(a) Bark of Cinchona

(b) Root of Cinchona

(c) Wood of Cinchona

(d) Leaves of Cinchona

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25. When we peel the skin o f potato tuber, we remove

(a) Periderm (b) Epidermis

(c) Cuticle (d) Sapwood

26. Genes are present in

(a) Chormosomes (b) Lamellae

(c) Plasma (d) Mesosomes

27. In the process of photosynthesis

(a) O2 is taken and CO2 is evolved.

(b) O2 is taken but CO2 is not evolved.

(c) CO2 is taken and O2 is evolved.

(d) CO2 is taken and NO2 is evolved.

28. Bacteria do not have

(a) Ribosome

(b) Protein synthesizing apparatus

(c) Mitochondria

(d) Cell wall

29. Which of the following plant hormone is extracted from fungus?

(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin

(C) Cytokinin (d) 2,4 –D

30. The highest concentration of auxin is found in

(a) Root and Shoot tips

(b) Leaves and fruits

(c) Mid stem portion

(d) None of the above

31. Ethylene is used for

(a) Decreasing the senescence

(b) Increasing the height of stem

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(c) Ripening of fruits

(d) Prevention of leaf fall

32. Meristematic tissues are

(a) Premature having the ability of division.

(b) Mature does not have the ability of division.

(c ) Premature not having the ability of division

(d) Complex differentiating in xylem, phloem and cambium.

33. The function of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is

(a) Translation (b) Transduction

(c) DNA amplification (d) None of these

34. A codon is made up of

(a) Single nucleotide

(b) Two nucleotides

(c) Three nucleotides

(d) Four nucleotides

35. Protein in silk thread is

(a) Fibroin (b) Keratin

(c) Albumin (d) Globulin

36. Histamine is secreted by

(a) Fibroin (b) Nerve cells

(c) Kupffer cells (d) Mast cells

37. Which of the following hormones are secreted by a pancreas?

(a) Insulin and glucagon

(b) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

(c) Thyroxine and melanin

(d) Lactocin and oxytocin

38. Starfish belongs to phylum

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(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterate

(c) Echinodermata (d) Arthropoda

39. Yeast belongs to

(a) Zygomycetes (b) Basidiomycetes

(c) Ascomucetes (d) Phycomycetes

40. Mycorrhiza helps in

(a) Nutrition absorbing

(b) Food manufacturing

(c) Disease resistance

(d) Disease prevention

41. The conversion of NO3- to N2 is called

(a) Nitrification (b) Denitrification

(c) Ammonification (d) Nitrogen fixation

42. Cuscuta is a

(a) Parasitic plant (b) Symbiotic plant

(c) Predator (d) Decomposer

43. Binary fission is a mode of

(a) Microprogation

(b) Vegetative propagation

(c) Macropropagation

(d) Sexual reproduction

44. Humidity in atmosphere deceases the rate of

(a) Transpiration (b) Photosynthesis

(c) Glycolysis (d) Grwoth

45. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of

(a) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a

phosphate group is also attached.

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(b) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is

also attached to a glycerol molecule.

(c) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is

also attached.

(d) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate

group is also attached.

46. Jumping genes in maize were discovered by ‘(a) Hugo de Vries

(b) T.H Morgan

(c) Barbara McClintock

(d) Mendel

47. Sea horse belongs to

(a) Mammals (b) Amphibians

(c) Aves (d) Pisces

48. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

(a) RER, Protein synthesis

(b) RER, glycoproteins

(c) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

(d) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

49. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny as a part of

(a) Recapitulation theory

(b) Darwin’s evolution theory

(c) Lamarck’s evolution theory

(d) Weismann’s theory

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50. A stage where cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which

gives the correct identification of the state with its characteristics:

(a) Late - Chromosomes move away from anaphase equatorial plate, Golgi

complex not

Present

(b) Cytokinesis - Cell plate formed,

mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells.

(c ) Telophase – Endoplasmic reticulum and

Nucleolus not reformed yet.

(d) Telophase - Nuclear envelop reforms, Golgi

Complex reforms

51. Universal blood recipient is

(a) Blood group –O (b) Blood group – AB

(c) Blood group –A (d) Blood group - B

52. Plant like nutrition is present in

(a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium

(c) Euglena (d) Plasmodium

53. Which of the following is the connecting link between reptiles and birds?

(a) Archaeopteryx (b) Euglena

(c) Neopilina (d) Latimeria

54. Which of the following connects glycolysis to Krebs cycle?

(a) Acetyl – CoA (b) Ribozyme

(c) Cytochrome oxidase

(d) N-Acetylglucosamine

55. Pyruvic acid is the end product of

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(a) Krens cycle

(b) Electron transport system

(c) Photosynthesis

(d) Glycolysis

56. Given below is the diagram of stomatal apparatus. Which option identifies the below

labeling A,B, C, D correctly?

(a) A= Subsidiary cell, B = Epidermal cell, C = Guard cell, D = Stomatal aperature

(b) A= Guard cell, B =Stomatal aperture, C = Subsidiary cell , D = Epidermal cell

(c) A = Epidermal cell, B = Guard cell, C = Stomatal aperture, D = Subsidiary cell

(d) A = Epidermal cell, B = Subsidiary Cell, C = Stomatal aperture, D = Guard cell

57. Which of the following is a viral disease?

(a) Typhoid (b) Polio

(c) Tuberculosis (d) Leprosy

58. Which one is a sex linked disease?

(a) Colour blindness

(b) Haemophilia

(c) Syphilis

(d) Both (a) and (b)

59. In the given diagram, A and B represents.

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(a) Mineralisation, Demineralisation

(b) Ammonification, Denitrification

(c) Denitrification, Ammonification

(d) Denitrification, Mineralisation

60. Which of the following has no specific organ for respiration but do respire?

(a) Rabbit (b) Cockraoch

(c) Earthworm (d) Frog

61. Match the following and choose the correct option from those give below:

Column I Column II

A. Molecular oxygen i. 𝛼- Ketoglutaric

acid

B. Electron acceptor ii. Hydrogen

accepter

C. Pyruvate

dehydrogenase

iii. Cytochrome C

D . Decarboxylation iv. Acetyl-CoA

(a) A →ii, B→iii, C→iv, D→i

(b) A → iii, B→ iv, C→ii, D→iv

(c) A→ ii, B→i, C→iii, D→iv

(d) A→iv, B→iii, c→I, D→ii

62. Tendons and ligaments are

(a) Epithelial tissue

(b) Fibrous connective tissue

(c) Nerve tissue

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(d) Muscular tissue

63. Mushroom belongs to

(a) Ascomycetes (b) Basidiomyetes

(c) Phycomycetes (d) Zygomyctes

64. The wall of bacteria consists of

(a) N – Acetylglucosamine

(b) N- Aceylmuramic acid

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Cellulose

65. The movement of pollen tube called

(a) Chemotropism (b) Thermotaxis

(c) Thermonastic (d) Hydrotropism

66. What will be the gametic chromosome number of a cell, if the somatic cell has 40

chromosomes?

(a) 10 (b) 20

(c) 30 (d) 40

67. Who coined the term ‘cell’?

(a) Purkinje (b) Robert Brown

(c) Robert Hooke (d) Hugo von Mohl

68. Which of the following animals is widely used in genetics experiments?

(a) Butterfly (b) Fruit fly

(c) House fly (d) Dragonfly

69. In which of the following stage, the chromosomes are arranged at equatorial plate?

(a) Anaphase (b) Metaphase

(c) Prophase (d) Telophase

70. Match the following :

Column I Column II

A. IAA i. Herring sperm

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DNA

B. ABA Ii. Bolting

C. Ethylene iii. Stomatal closure

D. GA Weed-free lawns

E. Cytokinins v. Ripening of fruits

(a) A→iv, B→iii, C→v, D→ii, E→i

(b) A→v, B→iii, C→iv, D→ii, E→i

(c) A→iv, B→i, C→v, D→iii, E→ii

(d) A→v, B→iii, C→ii, D→i, E→iv

71. Who first conducted the experiment on evolution to prove biochemical origin of life?

(a) Miller and Urey (b) Darwin

(c) Lamarck (d) Weismann

72. Maturation of sperm before penetration is called

(a) Spermatogenesis

(b) Spermiogenesis

(c) Capacitation

(d ) Spermatid

73. Echolocation is found in

(a) Bat (b) Cat

(c) Dog (d) Horse

74. Life span of RBC is

(a) 50 days (b) 70 days

(c) 120 days (d) 220 days

75. The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual apparatus are used

for forming embryos without fertilization is called

(a) Parthenocarpy

(b) Apomixis

(c) Vegetative propagation

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(d) Sexual reproduction

76. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross, the number of phenotypes and

genotypes are

(a) Phenotypes -4; genotypes -16

(b) Phenotypes -9; genotypes -4

(c) Phenotypes -4; genotypes -8

(d) Phenotypes -4; genotypes -9

77. The back bone of RNA consists of which of the following sugar?

(a) Deozyribose (b) Ribose

(c) Sucrose (d) Maltose

78. Phloem conducts food by

(a) Perforated sieve plates

(b) Bast fibres

(c) Xylem parenchyma

(d) Xylem fibres

79. The purpose of crop rotation is to

(a) Increase the fertility of soil

(b) Decrease the fertility of soil

(c) Prevent soil erosion

(d) Prevent water erosion

80. Which of the following is a nitrogen fixing organism?

(a) BGA (b) Rhizobium

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Aspergillus

81. To maintain constant body temperature is called

(a) Homeothermic (b) Poikilothermic

(c) Homozygous (d) Heterozygous

82. African sleeping sickness is cause by

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(a) Trypanosoma (b) Leishmania

(c) Latimeria (d) Plasmodium

83. During blood clotting which of the following is used?

(a) Co (b) Ca2+

(c) Na (d) CI-

84. The chromosome showing L-shaped structure by the presence of centromere is termed as

(a) Acentric (b) Metacentric

(c) Sub-metacentric (d) Telocentric

85. The infected stage of malarial parasite is

(a) Sporozoite stage

(b) Schizozoite stage

(c) Merozoite stage

(d) Metacryptozoite stage

86. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio

of 15N/15N : 15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNA in the fourth generation would be

(a) 1 : 1: 0 (b) 1 : 4 : 0

(c) 0 : 1 : 3 (d) 0 : 1 : 7

87. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using

(a) ssDNA (b) dsDNA

(c) dsRNA (d) ssRNA

88. Which of the following is concerned with CO2 fixation?

(a) Krebs cycle (b) Calvin cycle

(c) Ornithine cycle (d) Clycolysis

89. In photosynthesis there is

(a) Reduction of H2O

(b) Oxidation of H2O

(c) Oxidation of CO2

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(d) oxidation of No2

90. ELISA test is used for the detection of

(a) Antibodies (b) Viral disease

(c) AIDS (d) All of these

Chemistry

91. Heat if neutralization of strong acid and strong base is constant and equal to

(a) 8.7 kcal (b) 13. 7 kcal

(c) 23. 7 kcal (d) 30. 7 kcal

92. The first law of thermodynamics is represented by

(a) ∆𝐸 = ∆𝑄 + ∆𝑊 (b) ∆𝐸 = ∆𝑄 + ∆𝑊

(c) ∆𝐸 = 𝑄 + 𝑊 (d) ∆𝐸 = 𝑄 − 𝑊

93. The hybridization shown by six carbon atoms in benzene is

(a) 3𝑠𝑝 3𝑠𝑝2 (b) 3𝑠𝑝3 3𝑠𝑝2

(c) 3𝑠 𝑝3 3𝑠𝑝 (d) 6𝑠𝑝2

94. The metal that forms a self-protecting film of oxide to prevent corrosion is

(a) Ag (b) Au

(c) Al (d) Cu

95. Which of the following explains the sequence of filling the electrons in different shell?

(a) Aufbau’s principle

(b) Octate rule

(c) Hund’s rule

(d) All the above

96. H2O2 is a reducing agent in the reaction

(a) Ag2O + H2O2 → 2Ag + H2O + O2

(b) H2O2 +SO2 → H2SO4

(c) 2KI + H2O2 →2KOH +I2

(d) PbS+ 4 H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4 H2O

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97. The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH in 250 ml solution

(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0

(C) 1.3 (d) 4.0

98. A gas expands isothermally against a constant external pressure of 1 atmosphere from a

volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 20 dm3. In this process it absorbs 800 J of thermal energy

from its surroundings. The ∆𝑈for the process in Joules is

(a) -113 J (b) +113 J

(c) -213 J (d) +313 J

99. The most stable is

(a) KH (b) NaH

(c) RbH (d) LiH

100. Nitrobenzene and hydrogen in the presence of zinc combines to form

(a) Azoxybenzene

(b) Azobenzene

(c) Benzene

(d) Aniline

101. The gas used in air ships is

(a) He (b) Xe

(c) Ar (d) Ne

102. Ethyl alcohol is soluble in water due to

(a) Basic nature

(b) Acidic nature

(c) Formation of hydrogen bond

(d) Dissociation in water

103. In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant of forward reaction is 75× 10−4

And the equilibrium constant is 1.5. The rate constant backward reaction is

(a) 4.5 × 104 (b) 5× 10−4

(c) 2.5 × 10−4 (d) × 104

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104. Natural rubber is a polymer of

(a) Ethylene (b) 1,4 –butadiene

(c) Isoprene (d) Terephthalic acid

105. The wavelength of 6C14 is 2.31 × 10−4. Its half-life is

(a) 2× 103 years (b) 1.5× 103 years

(c) 3× 103 years (d) 2.5 × 103 years

106. Conversion of starch into maltose takes place by the enzyme

(a) Zymase (b) Invertase

(c) Diastase (d) Maltose

107. The oxide which forms dimer is

(a) N2O3 (b) N2O5

(c) NO2 (d) N2O

108. The hardest naturally occurring substance is

(a) Graphite (b) Iron

(c) Diamond (d) Astatine

109. Wax belong to the class

(a) Acid (b) Esters

(c) Alcohol (d) Ether

110. The heat of formation of CO2 is -95 kcal. The amount of carbon which on burning will

evolve 1000 kcal is

(a) 15.63 g (b) 12.95 g

(c) 126.3 g (d) 160.5 g

111. The normality of orthophosphoric acid having purity of 70 per cent by weight and

specific gravity 1.54 is

(a) 11 N (b) 15 N

(c) 33 N (d) 30 N

112. Which particle contains 2 neutrons and 1 proton?

(a) 1H (b) 1T3

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(C) 2He4 (d) 1D2

113. Philosopher’s wool on heating with BaO at 11000C produces

(a) BaZnO2 (b) BaCdO2

(c) BaO2 + Zn (d) Ba + ZnO2

114. Chloroform and concentrated HNO3 reacts to produce

(a) CHCl2 NO3 (b) CHCl2NHO3

(c) CCl3NO2 (d) CHClNO3

115. Gold number is associated with

(a) Protective colloids

(b) Amount of pure gold

(c) Purple of Casius

(d) Electrophoresis

116. Amino acids are the building blocks of

(a) Vitamins (b) Fats

(c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins

117. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is

(a) 2.054× 1023 (b) 5.043× 1025

(c) 8.044× 1023 (d) 6.023 × 1023

118. The conjugate acid of NH3 is

(a) NH4+ (b) N2H4

(c) NH2OH (d) NH3

119. Adiabatic process involves

(a) ∆𝐸 = 0 (b) ∆𝑊 = 0

(c) ∆𝑞 = 0 (d) ∆𝑉 = 0

120. The rate of reaction depends upon

(a) Molar concentration

(b) Equivalent mass

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(c) Atomic mass


121. The purest form of iron is

(a) Steel (b) Wrought Iron

(c) Pig Iron (d) None of the above

122. The largest size of the ion is

(a) Cl- (b) K+

(c) Ca++ (d) S—

123. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. Its molecular weight is 180. The

molecular formula of the compound is

(a) C4H8O4 (b) C6H12O6

(c) C3H6O3 (d) C5H1o O5

124. The Bohr’s orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is approximately 0.530 Å. The

radius for the first excited state (n=2) orbit is

(a) 1.08 Å (b) 2.12 Å

(c) 5.24 Å (d) 6.36 Å

125. The first ionization potential is maximum for

(a) Iron (b) Hydrogen

(c) Lithium (d) Uranium

126. Roasting of an ore is done in

(a) Presence of air

(b) Vacuum

(c) Absence of air


127. The dissociation constant of two acids HA1and HA2 are 3.0 × 10−4 and 1.8 × 10−5

respectively. The relative strength is

(a) 10 : 1 (b) 1 : 12

(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 5

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128. The alkyl halide is converted into alcohol by

(a) Addition (b) Elimination

(c) Halogenation (d) Substitution

129. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

(a) Acidic (b) Basic

(c) Neutral (d) None of the above

130. By passing a beam of light through a colloidal solution, it is

(a) Adsorbed (b) Refracted

(c) Scattered (d) Reflected

131. The highest melting halide is

(a) NaF (b) Nal

(c) NaCl (d) NaBr

132. The pH of a 10−10 molar solution of HCl in water

(a) 6.0 (b) 7.0

(c) 8 (d) 13

133. The product formed by the reduction of glycol acid with HI is

(a) Glycol (b) Acetic acid

(c) Formic acid (d) Iodoacetic acid

134. Hydrogen can be differentiated by other alkali metals due to its

(a) Non-metallic character

(b) Electropositive character

(c) Reducing character

(d) Affinity for non-metals

135. Copper turning on heating with concentrated H2SO4 products

(a) SO3 (b) H2S

(c) O2 (d) SO2

PHYSICS

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136. To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown in the figure, the input must be

A B C A B C

(a) 0 1 0 (b) 0 0 1

(c) 1 0 1 (d) 1 0 0

137. The ratio of the frequencies of the long wavelength limits of Lyman and Balmer series

of hydrogen is:

(a) 27 : 5 (b) 5 : 27

(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4

138. The maximum energy Kmax of photoelectrons emitted in a photoelectric ell is measured

using lights of various frequencies v. The graph in figure shows how Kmax varies with v. The

slope of the graph is equal to

(a) the charge of an electron

(b) the charge to mass ratio of an electron

(c) the work function of the emitter in the cell

(d) Planck’s constant

139. Which energy state of the triply ionized beryllium (Be+++) has the same electron orbital

radius as that of the ground state of hydrogen? Given Z for beryllium = 4

(a) 𝑛 = 1 (b) 𝑛 = 2

(c) 𝑛 = 3 (d) 𝑛 = 4

140. In a hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited state, It comes down to first excited

state by emitting ten different wavelengths. The value of 𝑛 is

(a) 6 (b) 7

(c) 8 (d) 9

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141. A small sphere of radius R held against the inner surface of a smooth

spherical shell of radius 6R as shown in the figure. The masses of the shell and small spheres

are 4M and M, respectively. This arrangements is placed on a smooth horizontal table. The

small sphere is now released. The x- coordinate of the center of the shell when the smaller

sphere reaches the other extreme position is

(a) R (b) 2R

(c) 3R (d) 4R

142. An impulse J is applied on a ring of mass m along a line passing through its center O.

The ring is placed on a rough horizontal surface. The linear velocity of center of ring once it

starts rolling without slipping is

(a) 𝐽 𝑚⁄ (b) 𝐽 2𝑚⁄

(c) 𝐽 4𝑚⁄ (d) 𝐽 3𝑚⁄

143. The binding energies per nucleon of deuteron (1H2) and helium atom (2He4) are 1.1

MeV and 7 MeV. If two deuteron atoms react to form a single helium atom, then the energy

released is:

(a) 13.9 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV

(c) 23.6 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV

144. The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean-life time of another

radioactive element Y . Initially both of them have the same number of atoms. Then

(a) X and Y have the same decay rate initially

(b) X and Y decay at the same rate always

(c) Y will decay at a faster rate than X

(d) X will decay at a faster rate than Y

145. The value of alternating emf 𝜀 in the given circuit will be

NEET | FULL TEST 3


(a) 220 V (b) 140 V

(c) 100 V (d) 20 V

146. An electron in hydrogen atom after absorbing a photon jumps from energy state 𝑛1 and

𝑛2. Then it returns to ground state after emitting six different wavelength in emission

spectrum. The energy of emitted photons is either equal to less than or greater than the

absorbed photons . Then 𝑛1and 𝑛2 are

(a) 𝑛2 = 4, 𝑛1 = 3 (b) 𝑛2 = 5, 𝑛1 = 3

(C) 𝑛2 = 4, 𝑛1 = 2 (d) 𝑛2 = 4, 𝑛1 = 1

147. 𝐾𝛼 wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number 𝑍 = 11 is𝛌. Find the atomic

number for an atom that emits 𝐾𝛼 radiation with wavelength 4𝛌

(a) 𝑍 = 6 (b) 𝑍 = 4

(c) 𝑍 = 11 (d) 𝑍 = 44

148. Let 𝐾1 be the maximum Kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by light of

wavelength 𝜆1 and 𝐾2 corresponding to wavelength 𝜆2. If 𝜆1 = 2𝜆2, then

(a) 2𝐾1= 𝐾2 (b) 𝐾1= 2𝐾2

(C) 𝐾1 < 𝐾2 /2 (d) 𝐾1>2 𝐾2

149. 100 g of water is heated from Ignoring the slight expansion of water, the change in its

internal energy is (specific heat of water is 4184 J Kg/K)

(a) 4.2 kJ (b) 8.4 kJ

(c) 84 kJ (d) 2.1 kJ

150. When a plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum, the average electric energy

density is given by (here 𝐾0 is the amplitude of the electric field of the wave)

(a) 1

4 ε0 E0

2 (b) 1

2 ε0 E0

2

(c) 2ε0E02 (d) 4ε0 E0

2

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151. A block floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The beaker is placed on the

floor of an elevator. If the elevator descends with acceleration a(< g), the up thrust on the

block due to the liquid

(a) is equal to the weight of the liquid displeased

(b) is greater than the weight of the liquid displaced

(c) is less than the weight of the liquid displaced

(d) becomes equal to zero

152. The potential difference between points A and B in the circuit shown in the figure will

be:

(a) 1 V (b) 2 V

(C) 3 V (d) 4 V

153. Two condensers of capacity C and 2C are connected in parallel and are charged to a

potential difference V. If now the battery is removed and a material of dielectric constant K is

placed between the plates of condenser of capacity C, then the potential difference across the

condensers will be

(a) 3𝑉

𝐾+2 (b) 3V(K+2)

(c)𝐾+2

3𝑉 (d)

3(𝐾+2)

𝑉

154. The dimensions of specific heat are

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(a) MLT-2K-1 (b) ML2T-2K-1

(C)M0L2T-2K-1 (d) M0LT-2K-1

155. The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall of a room is to be obtained on the

opposite wall 2 m away by means of a convex lens for this purpose?

(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.75 m

(c) 1.0 m (d) 1.5 m

156. The diameter of a Plano-convex lens is 6 cm and the thickness at the center is 3 mm. If

the speed of light in the material of the lens is 2 × 108m/s, the focal length of the lens is

(a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm

(C)30 cm (d) 10 cm

157. A uniform rod of length 2L is placed with one end in contact with the horizontal and is

then inclined at an angle α to the horizontal and allowed to fall without slipping at contact

point when it becomes horizontal, its angular velocity will be

(a) 𝜔 = √3𝑔 sin 𝛼

2𝐿 (b) 𝜔 = √

2𝐿

3𝑔 sin 𝛼

(c) 𝜔 = √6𝑔 sin 𝛼

𝐿 (d) 𝜔 = √

𝐿

𝑔 sin 𝛼

158. A body of radius R and mass m is rolling horizontally without slipping with speed u,. It

then rolls up a hill to a maximum height h= 3𝑢2

4𝑔. The body might be a:

(a) solid sphere (b) hollow sphere

(c) disc (d) ring

159. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V from a cell and then

disconnected from it. A charge + Q is now given to its positive plate. The potential difference

across the capacitor is not

(a) V (b) V+𝑄

𝐶

(C) V+𝑄

2𝐶 (d) V-

𝑄

𝐶, if V<CV

160. A wheel having metal spokes 1 m long between its axle and rim is rotating in a magnetic

field of flux density 5× 10−5

T normal to the plane of the wheel, An emf of 22/7 mV is

produced between the rim and the axle of the wheel. The rate of rotation of the wheel in

radians per second is:

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(a) 10 (b) 20

(c) 30 (d) 40

161. The variation of induced emf (e) with time (t) in a coil, If a short bar magnet in moved

along its axis with a constant velocity is best represented as follows:

162. In the Young’s double slit experiment, separation between the two slits is 0.9 mm and

the fringes are observed one meter away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a distance of

1 mm from the central fringe, then wavelength of the monochromatic source of light used is:

(a) 400 mm (b) 450 mm

(c) 500 mm (d) 600 mm

163. A liquid cools from 500C to 450C in 5 minutes and from 450C to 41.50C in the next 5

minutes. The temperature of the surrounding is

(a) 270C (b) 40.30C

(C) 23.30C (d) 33.30C

164. A particle starts from rest at t=0 and moves in a straight line with an acceleration as

shown in figure. The velocity of the particle at t = 2.5 s is

(a) 2 m/s (b) 4 m/s

(C) 6 m/s (d) 8 m/s

NEET | FULL TEST 3


165. The displacement x of a particle moving along a straight line varies with time

t as, 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑒−𝑎𝑡(−𝑎𝑡) + 𝑏𝑒−𝛽𝑡, where a, b, α and β are positive constants. The velocity of the

particle will

(a) go on decreasing with time

(b) be independent of α and β

(C) drop to zero when α = β

(d) go on increasing with time

166. The vector that must be added to the vectors 𝑖 ̂− 3𝑗̂ − 2�̂� and 3𝑖̂ + 6𝑗̂ − 7�̂� so that, the

resultant vector is a unit-vector along the Y-axis is

(a) 4𝑖 ̂ + 2𝑗 ̂ + 5�̂� (b) − 4𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 5�̂�

(c) 3𝑖 ̂ + 4𝑗 ̂ + 5�̂� (d)Null vector

167. A 60 kg block is suspended by two cables as shown in the figure. The ratio of tensions

T1 and T2 is

(a) √3: 1 (b) 1: √3

(c) 2:√3 (d) √3: 2

168. The speed of projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of

projection is

(a) 600 (b) 150

(c) 300 (d) 450

169. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height 5 m. It touches the

ground at a distance of 10 m from the foot of the tower. The initial velocity of the body is

(g=10 m/s 2)

(a) 2.5 m/s (b) 5 m/s

(c) 10 m/s (d) 20 m/s

NEET | FULL TEST 3


170. A block of mass m1 is suspended from the ceiling of a room through a rope of

mass m2. The ceiling pulls the chain by a force

(a) m1 g (b) (m1+m2 )g

(c)(𝑚1+𝑚2)𝑔)

2 (d) m2 g

171. Two block of mass M and m are kept on the trolley whose all Surfaces are smooth.

Select the correct statement

(a) If F= 0 blocks cannot remain stationary

(b) For one unique value of F, blocks will be stationary

(c) Blocks cannot be stationary for any value of F because all surfaces are smooth

(d) Both (1) and (2)

172. A plane metallic sheet is placed with its face parallel to the lines of magnetic field B of

uniform field. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected with a velocity u from a

distance d from the plane normal to the magnetic field lines. Then the maximum velocity of

projection for which the particle does not hit the plate is:

(a) 2Bqd/m (b) Bqd/m

(c) Bqd/2m (d) Bqm/d

173. A particle of mass m moving with a velocity u makes an elastic one dimensional

collision with a stationary particle of mass m establishing a contact with it for an extremely

small time T. Their force of contact increases from 0 to F0 linearly in time T⁄4, remains

constant for a further time T⁄2, and decreases linearly form F0 to 0 in further time T⁄4 as

shown in the figure. The magnitude possessed by F0 is

NEET | FULL TEST 3


(a) mu/T (b) 2mu/T

(c) 4mu/T (d) 3mu/4T

174. In an elastic collision

(a) the initial kinetic energy is equal to the final kinetic energy

(b) the final kinetic energy is less than the initial kinetic energy

(c) the kinetic energy remains constant

(d) the kinetic energy first increases then decreases.

175. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in

extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is

(a) 16 J (b) 8 J

(c) 32 J (d) 24 J

176. A rectangular tank is filled to the brim with water. When a hole at its bottom is un

plugged, the tank is emptied in time T. If the tank is half-filled with water, it will be emptied

in time

(a) 𝑇

√2 (b)

𝑇

√3

(c)𝑇

2 (d)

𝑇

2√2

177. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion along the x-axis with amplitude 4 cm

and time period 1.2 s. The minimum time taken by the particle to move from 𝑥 = +2 cm to

𝑥 = +4 cm and back again is

(a) 0.6 s (b) 0.4 s

(c) 0.3 s (d) 0.2 s

178. Two rods of the same length, same cross sectional area and same material transfer a

given amount of heat in 12 seconds when they are joined end to end. But when they are

jointed lengthwise, they will transfer the same amount of heat, in the same conditions,

(a) 24 s (b) 3 s

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(c) 1.5 s (d) 48 s

179. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking 10 identical metallic plates equally spaced

from one another and having the same dielectric between plates. The alternate plates are then

connected. If the capacitor formed by two neighboring plates has a capacitance C, the total

capacitance of the combination will be

(a)𝐶

10 (b)

𝐶

9

(c) 9 C (d) 10 C

180. In a certain organ pipe three successive resonance frequencies are observed at 425,595

and 765 Hz respectively . If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the length of the pipe is:

(a) 2m (b) 1 m

(C) 1.5 m (d) 2.5 m

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