Biology Yr 12 Questions 2010 3

STUDENT NUMBER/NAME: ……………………..

2010

Higher School Certificate

Trial Examination

Biology

General Instructions

Reading time – 5 minutes

Working time – 3 hours

Write using black or blue pen

Draw diagrams using pencil

Board-approved calculators may

be used

Write your student number and/or

name at the top of every page

Total marks – 100

Section I – Pages 2–20

Total marks (75)

This section has two parts, Part A and Part B

Part A – 20 marks

Attempt Questions 1–20

Allow about 35 minutes for this part

Part B – 55 marks


Allow about 1 hour and 40 minutes for this part

Section II – Pages 21–40

Total marks (25)

Attempt ONE question from Questions 30–34

Allow about 45 minutes for this section

This paper MUST NOT be removed from the examination room


Page 2

Section I Total marks (75)

Part A – 20 marks


Allow about 35 minutes for this part

Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question and indicate your choice

with a cross (X) in the appropriate space on the grid below.

A B C D

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1. What is the role of enzymes in metabolism?

(A) They slow down chemical reactions so that more product is formed.

(B) They produce chemical reactions that would not normally occur.

(C) They improve the absorption of nutrients in the body.

(D) They reduce the activation energy needed for chemical reactions.

2. Observe the flow diagram below.

Which body mechanism is described by this flow diagram?

(A) Enantiostasis

(B) Excretion

(C) Positive reinforcement

(D) Homeostasis

conditions in the body change from set point change

detected

corrective mechanisms activated

conditions returned

to set point

corrective mechanisms switched off


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3. Observe the following image of human blood, as seen under a light microscope.

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What are the three large objects, in the middle of picture, most likely to be?

(A) Red cells, as they are large and carry more oxygen that white cells

(B) Dust contamination, from a dirty slide

(C) Platelets, as they have dark clotting material inside them

(D) White cells, as they are larger than the other cells and have a nucleus

4. Under which of the following conditions is pulse oximetry used?

(A) When pulse rate or blood flow is low, during cardiac failure

(B) When monitoring oxygenation and pulse rates throughout anaesthesia

(C) When blood pressure needs to be determined, during surgery

(D) When levels of energy being used by the patient needs to be determined


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5. The diagram below compares the length of ‘loop of Henle’ for a beaver, human and

kangaroo rat.

The loop of Henle is located in the nephrons of the kidney tubules.

Based on this information, which organism is suited to survive in hot dry desert

conditions?

(A) The beaver, because it has a short loop of Henle and so loses less water in its

urine

(B) The kangaroo rat, because it has a longer loop of Henle and can reabsorb more

water back into its bloodstream

(C) The human, because it has a medium length loop of Henle and can cope with a

larger range of water availability

(D) Neither organism, as water reabsorption occurs mainly in Bowmans capsule, not

the Loop of Henle

6. What is the role of anti-diuretic hormone?

(A) It controls the amount of water reabsorbed in the nephron of the kidney.

(B) It controls water balance by regulating the transfer of potassium and sodium ions

in the kidney.

(C) It is released during stress to increase heart rate and provide glucose to muscles.

(D) It is released before meals to stimulate hunger and the secretion of saliva.


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7. Observe the following article.

Ancient Greenlander unlocks DNA secrets 11 February 2010

Near-complete nuclear genome obtained from an ancient human.

Scientists have sequenced the DNA from four frozen hairs of a man who died 4 000

years ago in Greenland.

“This takes genetic technology into several new realms. The sequencing project

described here, is a direct test of the extent to which ancient genomics can contribute

knowledge about now-extinct cultures.”

“Not only can the findings help transform the study of archaeology, but they can help

answer questions about the origins of modern populations and disease,” they said.

To which area of science does this example belong, in supporting the theory of

evolution?

(A) Biogeography

(B) Comparative anatomy

(C) Biochemistry

(D) Comparative embryology

8. This Punnet square represents a cross between a yellow pea plant and a green pea

plant. (code: Y = yellow; y = green. Yellow is dominant.)

y y

Y Yy Yy

y yy yy

What will be the expected ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?

(A) One yellow : one green

(B) Three yellow : one green

(C) All green

(D) One yellow : three green


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9. Human blood group is controlled by three alleles, IA, IB, and i.

The IA and IB alleles are co-dominant, and the i allele is recessive.

The table illustrates the genotype and resulting phenotype of the different human blood

groups.

Genotype Phenotype

(Blood group)

IAIA

or

IAi

Type A

IBIB

or

IBi

Type B

IAIB Type AB

ii Type O

What would be the possible blood types in offspring from a mother with type AB blood

and a father with type O?

(A) All AB

(B) All type O

(C) Type A or type B

(D) Type AB or type O

10. Why do scientists often use models to describe the process by which DNA controls the

production of polypeptides?

(A) Models show chemical interactions more accurately.

(B) Models give a better visual representation of relationships and processes.

(C) Models are cheaper to produce than the real thing.

(D) Models are easier to make than complex biochemical reactions.

11. How does artificial pollination, by an orchardist, alter the genetic variability of a

population?

(A) It reduces the variability, if selecting for a few common favourable

characteristics.

(B) It increases the variability, as both humans and the environment are selecting for

favourable characteristics.

(C) It has no effect on variability, as only the environment can select for favourable

characteristics.

(D) In the long term, it increases the variability, by introducing new genes into the

population.


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12. Why are organ transplant patients, given drugs to suppress their immune system?

(A) To prevent infection by drug resistant bacteria

(B) To prevent the body from rejecting the donated organ

(C) To stimulate the immune system and make it stronger

(D) To allow the body to use all of its energy to recover from the surgery

13. What methods are commonly used in town water treatment, to ensure it is fit for

drinking?

(A) Filtration, chlorination and regular testing for pathogens

(B) Filtration and boiling to kill all microbes

(C) Filtration and the addition of antibiotics, to kill all microbes

(D) Filtration, distillation and regular testing for microbes

14. How are viruses different to prions?

(A) Viruses must invade a host cell to reproduce; prions don’t.

(B) Viruses are infectious; prions are not.

(C) Viruses cause disease; prions don’t.

(D) Viruses contain nucleic acid; prions don’t.


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15. Observe the following diagram.

Which term defines the group of factors represented in the shaded triangles?

(A) Antibodies

(B) Antibiotics

(C) Antigens

(D) Anti-inflammatories

16. How does vaccination help to prevent infection from disease?

(A) Vaccination kills any disease-causing microbes, before they infect the body.

(B) Vaccination stimulates the immune system to produce an acquired immunity to

the disease.

(C) Vaccination stimulates the production of natural antibiotics in the body.

(D) Vaccination deactivates any poisons produced by microbes, when they invade the

body and replicate.

TOXINS

Immune System

IMMUNE RESPONSE

FUNGI

VIRUSES

BACTERIA

PARASITES

TOXINS

POLLUTION


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17. Which of the following is an example of a non-infectious disease?

(A) Scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C

(B) Peptic ulcer, which is caused by the Heliobacter pylori bacterium

(C) HIV, which is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency virus

(D) Toxic shock syndrome, which is caused by the Staphylococcus aureus bacterium

18. The diagram below is a section from a DNA molecule.

X

Which type of chemical is labelled ‘X’ in the diagram?

(A) Phosphate

(B) Purine

(C) Sugar

(D) Hydrogen bond


Page 11

19. This following pedigree shows the inheritance of a gene for a genetic disease.

What is the only possible genotype for individual 1 in generation III?

(A) Heterozygous

(B) Homozygous recessive

(C) Homozygous dominant

(D) Sex-linked

20. What is epidemiology?

(A) The study of diseases of the skin

(B) The study of the cause and effects of a disease

(C) The study of infectious diseases

(D) The study of methods of preventing entry of diseases into a country

I

II

III

1 2 3 4

1 2

1 2

Affected male

Affected female

Unaffected male

Unaffected female


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Section I (continued)

Part B – 55 marks


Allow about 1 hour and 40 minutes for this part

Answer the questions in the spaces provided.

Question 21 (7 marks) Marks

Select ONE named Australian endothermic organism and ONE named Australian ectothermic

organism;

Use the grid lines below to construct a table to compare the response of EACH animal to a

decrease in ambient temperature.

In your table, outline how each response assists with temperature regulation. 7


Page 13


During the study of Maintaining a Balance, you were required to determine the

effect of increasing carbon dioxide levels, on the pH of water. 4

(a) Discuss the method and equipment used.

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(b) Describe ONE possible risk in this investigation and ONE precaution needed to reduce risk. 2

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(c) Identify the control used. 1

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(d) Outline any trends obtained in the data you collected. 1

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(e) Explain ONE way of improving the reliability of the results. 1

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(a) Compare the difference in urine concentration of marine fish and freshwater fish. 2

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(b) Explain how this difference in concentration is related to each organisms’ environment. 2

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Question 24 (6 marks)

Draw a sequence of sketches, to show how a change in DNA sequence can affect cell activity. 6


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(a) Define the term transgenic species. 1

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(b) Outline ONE method used to produce a transgenic species. 2

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(c) Discuss TWO ethical issues arising from the development and use of transgenic

technology. 2

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(d) Name ONE genetically altered plant AND describe the effect that reproductive technology

has on its genetic diversity. 2

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The diagram below shows forelimbs from a human, dog, whale and bird.

(a) Analyse the structure of forelimbs, from different vertebrates, as shown in the diagram. 2

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(b) Explain how the Darwin/Wallace theory of evolution, by natural selection, is supported by

this example. 2

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Humerus

Radius

Ulna

Carpals

Metacarpals

Phalanges

Human Dog Whale Bird


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The darker shading, on the world map below, illustrates areas with higher incidence of the

disease, malaria.

(a) Name the type of pathogen that causes malaria. 1

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(b) Account for the distribution of global incidence of malaria, shown on the map. 2

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Question 27 continues on the next page


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Question 27 (continued) Marks

(c) Outline how Koch’s postulates may be used, to determine if a particular pathogen is the

cause of malaria in humans. 4

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(d) Explain why it would be difficult, ethically, to justify the use of Koch’s postulates on a

pathogen that may affect humans. 1

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(a) Identify the main components of the human immune response. 2

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(b) Explain how vaccination may prevent infection. 1

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(c) Sir Macfarlane Burnett is one of the founders of modern immunology.

Justify this statement. 2

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The data in the table shows the number of new cases of lung cancer in New South Wales

from 1998 to 2006.

Sex 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006

Number

New cases

Males 1902 1810 1868 1848 1811 1785 2020 1878 1949

Females 871 863 966 956 1016 1026 1104 1216 1188

(a) Use the data to draw an appropriate graph. (label axes) 4

(b) Identify any trends from your graph. 1

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Section II

Total marks (25)

Attempt ONE question from Questions 30–34

Allow about 45 minutes for this section

Answer the questions in the spaces provided.

Pages

Question 30 Communication ................................................................................... 22-25

Question 31 Biotechnology ..................................................................................... 26-28

Question 32 Genetics: The Code Broken? ............................................................... 29-32

Question 33 The Human Story ................................................................................ 33-35

Question 34 Biochemistry ....................................................................................... 36-40


Page 22

Question 30 – Communication (25 marks) Marks

(a) Explain the role of EACH of the following in generating a response: 6

Stimulus

Receptor

Messenger

Effector

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(b) (i) On the diagram identify any SIX parts of the human ear, by completing the

labels. 3

(ii) Describe the function of ONE part of the ear, labelled in (b)(i). 3

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(iii) Identify the role of the eustachian tube. 2

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(c) (i) Some stimuli do not generate an action potential.

Explain this statement AND justify the importance of this. 4

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(ii) On the diagram below, using arrows, locate and label the cerebrum, cerebellum

AND medulla oblongata. 3

(d) During the study of Communication, you analysed secondary sources to determine

changes in the lens of the eye, when focusing on objects at different distances.

Describe the findings of your analysis. 4

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End of Question 30


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Question 31 – Biotechnology (25 marks) Marks

(a) (i) Define the term biotechnology. 2

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(ii) Identify an early (10,000 years ago), recent (18th-19th century) and contemporary

example of biotechnology. 3

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(b) Describe ONE of the following: 6

The production of monoclonal antibodies

The production of recombinant vaccines

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(c) Observe the following image.

Outline the role of messenger RNA and transfer RNA in protein production. 6

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(d) (i) Describe the role of restriction enzymes in biotechnology. 4

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(ii) During the study of Biotechnology, you analysed secondary information

regarding complementary DNA.

Explain the production of complementary DNA and identify one application of

this technology. 4

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End of Question 31


Page 29

Question 32 – Genetics: The Code Broken? (25 marks) Marks

(a) Observe the following image.

Define selective breeding. 1

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(b) Identify what is meant by genetic linkage. 1

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(c) Using an example, describe polygenic inheritance. 3

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(d) (i) If a person with blood type O and a person that is heterozygous for blood type A 5

were to have a child; what are the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios?

Genotype of parent with blood type O……………………

Genotype of parent with heterozygous blood type A ………………..

F1 Genotype:…………………………….

F1 Phenotype:……………………………

(ii) Explain why a person with blood type A cannot donate blood to a person with

blood type B. 2

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(e) (i) Compare base substitution AND frameshift mutations. 4

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(ii) During the study of Genetics: the Code Broken?, you were required to analyse

information from secondary sources AND describe the effect of one named

genetic mutation on human health.

Explain the effects, on human health, of the mutation.

In your answer name the type of mutation. 4

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(f) Evaluate the impacts of the human genome project on our society. 5

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End of Question 32


Page 33

Question 33 – The Human Story (25 marks) Marks

(a) Complete the table, which represents the hierarchical classification of humans. 5

Hierarchy Human classification at

hierarchical level

Feature that supports

human classification at

each level

Kingdom Animalia Eukaryotic, motile,

multicellular, heterotrophic

Chordata Possess a vertebral column

Class Body hair, females possess

mammary glands

Order Primates

Family Hominidae

8-9 month gestation period,

tailless primates, larger and

stronger males than females

Genus Homo

Species Sapiens

(b) Describe polymorphism AND clinal gradation.

Use examples in your answer. 6

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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multicellular

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chordata


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(c) Observe the following image.

Development of culture has been a significant feature of human evolution.


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(d) Compare prosimians, apes and humans. 6

In your answer, refer to structure/funtion, intelligence and social interaction.

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(e) During the study of The Human Story, you were required to use secondary

information to assess the contributions of ONE significant person/group of people to

our understanding of human evolution.

Identify the person/group of people AND describe their contribution. 4

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End of Question 33 Question 34 – Biochemistry (25 marks) Marks

(a) Below is an image of a chloroplast.

(i) Identify the method by which this image may have been produced. 1

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(ii) What is the average size of a chloroplast? 1

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(b) Photosynthesis is one of the most important biochemical reactions. The study of

photosynthesis increases our understanding of life itself and may have many future

implications.


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(c) Referring to significant individuals, outline the progress that occurred in the 17th and

18th centuries in the scientific understanding of plant growth. 5

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(d) Define the process of homogenisation. 2

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(e) (i) Identify what a coenzyme is. 1

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(ii) Identify a coenzyme involved in the light reaction. 1

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Question 34 continues in the next page


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(f) (i) On the diagram below, label the stroma and thylakoids. 2

(ii) Describe the stoma. 2

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(iii) Identify the location of chlorophyll within plant cells. 1

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(g) During the study of Biochemistry, you processed information on the nature and

organisation of the bonds of ATP.

Describe the structure of the biologically important part of ATP.

You may use diagrams to illustrate your answer. 4

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Documents

Biology Yr 12 Questions 2010 3