Bitsat Full Practice Test 5

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    VMC/BITSAT - 2010 1 PRACTICE TEST - 5

    BITSAT FULL PRACTICE TEST - 5/2010

    PHYSICS

    1.1

    21

    2

    ndv x

    a sinav v a

    on the basis of dimensional analysis, the value ofn is :

    (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of these

    2. A force F ai bj ck is acted upon a body of mass m. If the body starts from rest and was at the

    origin initially, its new co-ordinate after time tis :

    (A)

    2 2 2

    2 2 2

    at bt ct , ,

    m m m(B)

    2 2 22

    2 2

    at bt ct , ,

    m m m(C)

    2 2 2

    2

    at bt ct , ,

    m m m(D) None of these

    3. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for some time and with

    uniform velocity v2 for the next the equal time. The average velocity v is given by :

    (A)1 2

    2

    v vv

    (B)

    1 2

    2 1 1

    v v v (C) 1 2v v v (D)

    1 2

    1 1 1

    v v v

    4. If x a cos sin and y a sin cos and increases at uniform rate . The velocityof particle is :

    (A) a (B)

    2a

    (C)

    a

    (D) a

    5. The normal reaction on a body placed in a lift moving up with constant acceleration 2 m/s2

    is 120N.

    Mass of body is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

    (A) 10 kg (B) 15 kg (C) 12 kg (D) 5 kg

    6. In the given figure, the coefficient of friction between m1 and m2 is and m2

    and horizontal surface is zero :

    (A) if 1F m g , then relative acceleration is found between m1 and m2

    (B) if 1F m g , then relative acceleration is found between m1 and m2

    (C) it 1F m g , then both bodies move together

    (D) (A) and (B) are correct

    7. Kinetic energy of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance covered as

    T= ks2

    where kis a constant. The force acting on the particle as a function ofs is :

    (A)

    2

    2 1k ss R

    (B)

    2

    2 1 Rkss

    (C)

    2

    2 1 sksR

    (D)

    2

    2 1s Rk s

    m1

    m2

    2 0

    F

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    17. A sphere A is placed at smooth table. An another sphere

    B is suspended as shown in figure. Both spheres are

    identical in all respects. Equal quantity of heat is supplied

    to both spheres. All kinds of heat loss are neglected.

    The final temperatures of A and B are TA and TB

    respectively, then :(A) TA = TB (B) TA > TB (C) TA < TB (D) None of these

    18. The temperature ofH2 at which the rms velocity of its molecules is seven times the rms velocity of

    the molecule of nitrogen at 300 K, is :

    (A) 2100 K (B) 1700 K (C) 1350 K (D) 1050 K

    19. In a model of chlorine (Cl2), two Cl atoms are rotated

    about their centre of mass as shown. Here the two Cl

    atoms are 102 10 m apart and angular speed122 10 rad/s. If the molar mass of chlorine is

    70 g/mol, then the rotational kinetic energy of one Cl2

    molecule is :

    (A)202 32 10. J (B) 212 32 10. J (C) 192 32 10. J (D) 222 32 10. J

    20. The molar specific heat of mixture at constant volume, if one mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed

    with three moles of a diatomic gas is :

    (A) 3.33R (B) 2.25R (C) 1.15R (D) 6.72R

    21. The time in which a layer of ice of thickness h will grow on the surface of the pond of surface areaA,when the surrounding temperature falls to T C .

    (Assume K= thermal conductivity of ice, = density of water,L = latent heat of fusion)

    (A) 2

    2

    Lt h

    KT

    (B) 2

    Lt h

    KT

    (C)

    2

    3

    Lht

    KT

    (D)

    2

    4

    Lht

    KT

    22. The prism shown in the figure has one side silvered.

    The angle of the prism is 30 and 2 . What should

    be angle of incidence, if the incident ray retraces its initial

    path :

    (A) 50 (B) 45

    (C) 60 (D) 75

    23. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant object.

    The separation between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cm and final image is formed at infinity.

    The focal length to the objective and focal length be for eye-piece are :

    (A) 0 45 f cm and 9e f cm (B) 0 50 f cm and 10e f cm

    (C) 0 7 2 f . cm and 5e f cm (D) 0 30 f cm and 6e f cm

    A

    B

    Cl Cl

    m m

    rr

    A

    C

    B

    Di

    30

    2

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    24. The maximum intensity in the case of n identical incoherent waves, each of intensity 2 W/m2

    is

    32 W/m2. The value ofn is :

    (A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64

    25. An electron is projected with velocity 107m/s at an angle 30 with horizontal in a region of

    uniform electric field of 5000N/Cvertically upwards. The maximum distance covered by an electronin vertical direction above its initial level is :

    (A) 14.2 mm (B) 15 mm (C) 12.6 mm (D) 14.2 mm

    26. Electric dipole moment of combination shown in the figure is :

    (A) 2qa qa qa

    (B) 2 2qa

    (C) 2qa

    (D)

    2 1 qa

    27. A solid non-conducting sphere of radius R having charge density 0x , wherex is distance from

    the centre of sphere. The self potential energy of the sphere :

    (A)

    2 40

    06

    R

    (B)

    2 60

    04

    R

    (C)

    2 60

    06

    R

    (D) None of these

    28. The equivalent capacitance between the points A and C is given by :

    (A)10

    3

    C

    (B) 15 C

    (C)3

    10C

    (D) 20 C

    29. The charge carriers in superconductors are :

    (A) electrons (B) protons (C) phonons (D) photons

    30. Two long parallel wires are placed on a smooth horizontal table. They have equal and opposite

    charges. Work required to increase the separation between wires from a to 2a if magnitude of charge

    per unit length on them is , will be :

    (A)

    2

    0

    2

    4

    ln

    (B)

    2

    0

    2ln

    (C)

    2

    04 a

    (D)

    2

    0

    22

    ln

    31. The sum and the difference of self inductances of two coils are 13H and 5H respectively.

    The maximum mutual inductances of two coil is :

    (A) 6 H (B) 5 H (C) 65H (D) 18H

    a

    a

    a

    a

    q q

    3q q

    B

    A

    BC

    6C4C

    10C4C

    6C4C

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    32. TheB-Hcurves S1 and S2 in the adjoining figure are associated with :

    (A) a diamagnetic and paramagnetic substance respectively

    (B) a paramagnetic and ferromagnetic substance respectively

    (C) soft iron and steel respectively

    (D) steel and soft iron respectively

    33. The average value for half cycle in a 200VA.C. source is :

    (A) 180V (B) 200V (C) 220V (D) None of these

    34. For a certain metal v is five times of v0 and the maximum velocity of coming out photons is

    68 10 m / s . Ifv = 2v0, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be :

    (A)64 10 m / s (B) 66 10 m / s (C) 62 10 m / s (D) 61 10 m / s

    35. Work function of metal is 10eV. Photons of 20eV are bombarded on it. The frequency of

    photoelectrons will be :

    (A)10

    h (B)

    10

    h (C)

    10

    h (D)

    10

    h

    36. How many quantum numbers are explained by Schrdingers model ?

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

    37. Half-life of an elementA is 25 days. After 25 days, three atoms of A become :

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) all may be

    38. The exclusive-OR ofA,B is represented by A B . An equivalent form is :

    (A) AB A B (B) AB A B (C) AB A B (D) None of these

    39. The figure shows the characteristic curve for a diode.

    The plate current is 3 mA when plate voltage is 20V.

    The plate current if plate voltage is doubled is :

    (A) 6 mA

    (B) 12 mA

    (C) 9 mA

    (D) 1.5 mA

    40. The spectrum of a star is usually

    (A) continuous emission spectrum (B) continuous absorption spectrum

    (C) line absorption spectrum (D) line emission spectrum

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    CHEMISTRY

    1. The triad of the nuclei that is isotonic :

    (A) 14 14 196 7 9C , N , F (B)14 15 17

    6 7 9C , N , F

    (C)

    14 14 17

    6 7 9C , N , F (D)

    12 14 19

    6 7 9C , N , F

    2. The effect of splitting of spectral lines under the influence of magnetic field is called :

    (A) Photoelectric effect (B) Zeeman effect

    (C) Raman effect (D) Stark effect

    3. The moles of O2 required for reacting with 6.8 of ammonia is :

    3 2 2NH O NO H

    (A) 5 (B) 2.5 (C) 1 (D) 0.5

    4. A vessel is filled with a mixture of equal masses of oxygen and nitrogen. The ratio of partial pressure

    of oxygen and nitrogen is :

    (A)2 2O N

    P 0.5P (B)2 2O N

    P 0.875P

    (C)2 2O N

    P P (D)2 2O N

    P 1.14P

    5. Monoclinic crystal has dimension :

    (A) ; 90 , 90a b c (B) ; 90a b c

    (C) ; 90a b c (D) ; 90a b c

    6. Heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and strong base is always :

    (A) 13.7 kcal/ mol (B) 9.6 kcal/ mol

    (C) 6 kcal/mol (D) 11.4 kcal/ mol

    7. The equilibrium constant for certain reaction is 100. If the value R is given to be1 12 cal K mol ,

    then standard Gibbs free energy change will be :

    (A) 2.764kcal (B) 2.674 kcal (C) 2.764 kcal (D) None of these

    8. In which of the following reaction Kp > Kc ?

    (A) 2 2 3N (g) 3H (g) 2 NH (g) (B) 2 2H (g) I (g) 2HI(g)

    (C) 3 2 5PCl (g) Cl (g) PCl (g) (D) 3 2 22SO (g) 2SO (g) O (g)

    9. A solution was prepared by mixing 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl and 50 mL 0.10 M NaOH. The pH of the

    solution is :

    (A) 7.0 (B) 2.0 (C) 3.0 (D) 1.3

    10. In the presence of acid, the initial concentration of cane sugar was reduced from 0.2 M to 0.1 M in 5

    hrs and to 0.05 M in 10 hrs. The reaction must be of :

    (A) zero order (B) first order (C) second order (D) fractional order

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    11. On mixing 10 ml of acetone with 50 ml of chloroform, the total volume of the solution is :

    (A) < 60 ml (B) > 60 ml (C) = 60 ml (D) unpredictable

    12. Which of the following is not a colloid ?

    (A) Milk (B) Blood (C) Latex (D) Vinegar

    13. Cu+

    ion is not stable is aqueous solution because of disproportionation reaction, E value ofdisproportionation of Cu

    +is : 2 2Cu / Cu Cu / Cu

    [E 0.15V, E 0.34V]

    (A) 0.38V (B) + 0.19 V (C) 0.49V (D) + 0.38 V

    14. The values of eq

    for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are respectively 149.74, 248.1 and 126.41 2ohm cm

    1equivalent . The value of eq of NH4OH is :

    (A) 371.44 (B) 271.44

    (C) 71.44 (D) Data insufficient

    15. The number of - and - particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 228 21290 83Th Bi are :

    (A) 4 and 1 (B) 3 and 7 (C) 8 and 1 (D) 4 and 7

    16. The bond orders of given species follows the order :

    (A) 22 2 2 2O O O O (B) 22 2 2 2O O O O

    (C) 22 2 2 2O O O O (D) 22 2 2 2O O O O

    17. Which of the following molecular orbital has the lowest energy ?

    (A)x

    2p (B) *x

    2p (C) *y

    2p (D) *z

    2p

    18. The set that contains pairs of elements that do not belong to same group but show chemical

    resemblance is :

    (A) B, Al (B) Be, Al (C) Hf, Zr (D) K, Pb

    19. Which of the following is called Nitrolim ?

    (A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) Ca(CN)2 (C) Ca(NO3)2 (D) CaCN2 + C

    20. When CuSO4 reacts with aqueous KI, the products are :

    (A) Cu2I2 + K2SO4 (B) Cu + K2SO4 + I2

    (C) CuI2 + K2SO4 (D) Cu2I2 + K2SO4 + I2

    21. Which of the following is wrong ?

    (A) 2 2 7K Cr O orange (B) 4 2CuSO .5H O blue

    (C) 4MnSO yellow (D) 2 4 3Cr (SO ) purple

    22. The IUPAC name for K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O2)NH3] is :

    (A) potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxochromate (VI)

    (B) potassium amminedicyanotetroxochromium (VI)

    (C) potassium amminedicyanochromate (IV)

    (D) potassium aminocyanodiperoxochromate (VI)

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    23. Wilkinsons Catalyst is :

    (A) TiCl4 and Al(C2H5)3 (B) [(C6H5)3P]3RhCl

    (C) TiCl4 and (C6H5)3P (D) Al(C6H5)3, TiCl4 and (C6H5)3P

    24. Zinc reacts with cold and very dilute HNO3 to give :

    (A) NO2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) NH3 (D) NO

    25. Which one of following states best describe glass ?

    (A) Liquid (B) Solid

    (C) Colloidal (D) Super cooled liquid

    26. Bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to :

    (A) CaCl2 (B) CaSO4 (C) Ca(OCl)Cl (D) CaO2Cl

    27. The ionisation energy of Xe is comparable with that of :

    (A) F2 (B) O2 (C) Cl2 (D) N2

    28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given.

    Column I Column II

    I. Argentite 1. Baeyers process

    II. Bauxite 2. Mac Arthur Forest

    III. Copper pyrites 3. Froth floatation process

    IV. Argentiferrous lead 4. Parkes process

    Codes : I II III IV(A) 1 2 3 4

    (B) 2 1 3 4

    (C) 1 2 4 3

    (D) 4 3 2 1

    29. Which of the following will not give positive chromyl chloride test ?

    (A) CuCl2 (B) HgCl2 (C) ZnCl2 (D) 6 5 3C H N H Cl

    30. How many conformations of ethane are possible ?

    (A) (B) 1 (C) 2 (C) 3

    31. Which of the following compound, does not show Lassaignes test fornitrogen ?

    (A) Urea (B) Hydrazine

    (C) Phenylhydrazine (D) Azobenzene

    32. Which of the following is non-aromatic ?

    (A) Benzene (B) Tropylium cation

    (C) Cyclopentadienyl anion (D) Cyclooctatetraene

    33. On warming with silver powder, chloroform is converted into :

    (A) hexachloroethane (B) ethylene

    (C) 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethane (D) acetylene

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    34. Which sequence does not lead to the formation of ethanol ?

    (A) 2 42 52

    dry dil. H SO

    Ag OC H I (A)

    (B) 43

    [O] LiAlHCH CHO (A)

    (C) 33

    Mg 1. Oxirane

    2. H OCH I (A) (D) 3 2

    hydrolysis Na/ EtOHCH CHCl (A)

    35. Maximum enol form will be present in :

    (A) CH3COCH3 (B) CH3COCH2CHO

    (C) CH3COCH2COCH3 (D) equal in all

    36. In the given reaction :

    3 2 2

    PyridineCH CHO CH (COOH) (A)

    (A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2COOH

    (C) CH3CH = CHCOOH (D) HOOC CH CH COOH

    37. Acetyl chloride and sodium azide react to give methylamine. The reaction is called :

    (A) Schmidt reaction (B) Kolbe Schmidt reaction

    (C) Curtius reaction (D) Schotten Baumann reaction

    38. The smell of mustard oil is given by the compound :

    (A) Carbylaminoalkane (B) RNCS (C) RCHO (D) RCNS

    39. Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between them is the example

    of :

    (A) electrophilic aromatic addition (C) nucleophilic aromatic substitution

    (C) free radical reaction (D) aldol reaction

    40. The one which is not present in DNA is :

    (A) uracil (B) thyamine (C) adenine (D) guanine

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    MATHEMATICS

    1. A natural number a is said to be related to another natural number b if |a b| < 4. The relation is :

    (A) reflexive and symmetric (B) reflexive and transitive

    (C) symmetric and transitive (D) None of these

    2. The equation not representing a circle is given by :

    (A)1

    01

    zRe

    z(B) 1 0 z z i z i z

    (C)1

    1 2

    zarg

    z

    (D)1

    11

    z

    z

    3. The area of the triangle whose vertices are the points represented by the complex numbers z1,z2,z3 on

    the argand diagram is :

    (A)

    22 3 1

    14

    | z z ||z |

    i z

    (B) 1 2

    1

    2| z | |z |

    (C)2

    1

    1

    3| z | (D)

    1 3

    14

    z z

    i z

    4. If2 3 1 32 2 2/ /x then value of 3 26 6 x x x is :

    (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) None of these

    5. The sum of the first n terms of the series1 3 7 15

    2 4 8 16. . . is equal to :

    (A) 2 1n n (B) 1 2n (C) 2 1nn (D) 2 1n

    6. If 50

    1 05 11 658. . , then 49

    1

    1 05n

    n

    .

    equals :

    (A) 208.34 (B) 212.12 (C) 212.16 (D) 213.16

    7. A library has a copies of one book, b copies each of two books, c copies each of three books and

    single copy ofdbooks. The total number of ways in which these books can be distributed is :

    (A) !! ! !

    a b c d

    a b c

    (B)

    2 3

    2 3 !

    ! ! !

    a b c d

    a b c

    (C) 2 3 !

    ! ! !

    a b c d

    a b c

    (D) None of these

    8. The coefficient ofx4

    in the expansion of 2 31n

    x x x is :

    (A) 4 2 1n n nC C C (B) 4 2 1 2

    n n n nC C C C

    (C) 4 2n nC C (D) None of these

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    9. Ifn is a positive integer and nK KC C the value of

    2

    3

    11

    nK

    Kk

    CK

    C

    is :

    (A)

    22 1 1

    12

    n n n (B)

    2

    1 2

    12

    n n n

    (C)

    22 1

    12

    n n n (D) None of these

    10. The value of the determinant

    1

    1

    1

    cos sin

    sin cos

    cos sin

    is equal to :

    (A) independent of (B) independent of

    (C) independent of and (D) None of these

    11. If the system of equations

    0 x ay az

    0bx y bz

    0cx cy z

    where a, b and c are non-zero and non-unity has a non-trivial solutions, then the value of

    1 1 1

    a b c

    a b c

    is equal to :

    (A) zero (B) 1 (C) 1 (D)2 2 2

    abc

    a b c

    12. The sum of series3 7 15

    12! 3! 4!

    . . . is :

    (A) e (e + 1) (B) 1e e (C) 1e e (D) 3e

    13.

    3 3 2

    0 13 ! 3 2 !

    n n

    n n

    x xa , b

    n n

    and

    3 1

    1 3 1 !

    n

    n

    xc

    n

    then the value of 3 3 3 3a b c abc is :

    (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2

    14. The coefficient ofxn in the expansion of

    2

    xa bx cx

    e is :

    (A)

    21

    !

    n

    cn b c n an

    (B)

    2

    1

    !

    n

    cn b c n an

    (C)

    21

    !

    n

    cn b c n an

    (D) None of these

    15. IfA andB are two matrices such thatAB =B andBA =A thenA2

    +B2

    is equal to :

    (A) 2AB (B) 2BA (C) A +B (D) AB

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    26. The value of2

    2

    0

    2

    0

    xx

    xx x

    e dx

    lim

    e dx

    is :

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) zero

    27. The area cut-off a parabola by any double ordinate is ktimes the corresponding rectangle contained

    by the double ordinate and its distance from the vertex. The value ofkis :

    (A) 2/3 (B) 3/2 (C) 1/3 (D) 3

    28. The solution of the differential equation 121 0tan y y dx x e dy is :(A)

    1 1tan x ye tan x c (B)

    1 1tan y xe tan y c

    (C)11 tan x y tan x.e c

    (D)1

    tan x y xe c

    29. The solution of the differential equation

    dy y y / x

    dx x y / x

    is :

    (A) x y / x c (B) y / x cx (C) y y / x c (D) y / x cy

    30. If 1x y

    c d be any line through the intersection of 1

    x y

    a b and 1

    x y

    b a , then :

    (A)1 1 1 1

    c d a b (B)

    1 1 1 1

    d a b c (C)

    1 1 1 1

    b d c a (D) None of these

    31. The equation of the image of the circle 2 2

    3 2 1x y by the mirrorx +y = 19 is :

    (A) 2 2

    14 13 1x y (B) 2 2

    15 14 1x y

    (C) 2 2

    16 15 1x y (D) 2 2

    17 16 1x y

    32. If the normal at (ct, c/t) on the curvexy = c2

    meets the curve again in t then :

    (A)3

    1t

    t (B)

    1t

    t (C)

    2

    1t

    t (D) 2

    2

    1t

    t

    33. The parametric representation 22 2 1t , t represents :(A) a parabola with focus at (2, 1) (B) a parabola with vertex at (2, 1)

    (C) an ellipse with centre at (2, 1) (D) None of these

    34. The locus of mid-points of a focal chord of the ellipse

    2 2

    2 2 1x y

    a b is :

    (A)

    2 2

    2 2

    x y ex

    a b a (B)

    2 2

    2 2

    x y ex

    a b a

    (C)2 2 2 2 x y a b (D) None of these

    35. The smallest angle of the triangle whose sides are 6 12 48 24, , is :

    (A)3

    (B)

    4

    (C)

    6

    (D) None of these

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    36. If A and B are acute positive angles satisfying the equations2 23 2 1sin A sin B and

    3 2 2 2 0sin A sin B thenA + 2B is equal to :

    (A) zero (B)2

    (C)

    4

    (D)

    3

    37. If2 2

    1x y and 2 2

    3 3

    3 4 3 4P x x y y , then value ofP is :(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) None of these

    38. Let p , q , r be three mutually perpendicular vectors of the same magnitude. If a vector x satisfies

    the equation.

    0p x q p q x r q r x p r then x is equal to :

    (A) 1

    22

    p q r (B) 1

    2 p q r (C)

    1

    3 p q r (D)

    12

    3 p q r

    39. A (3, 2, 0), B (5, 3, 2) and 9 6 3C , , are three points forming a triangle and AD is bisector of the

    angle ABC , where AD meets BC at the point :

    (A)19 57 17

    8 16 16, ,

    (B)19 57 17

    8 16 16, ,

    (C)19 57 17

    8 16 16, ,

    (D) None of these

    40. The equation of the tangent plane to the sphere2 2 2 2 14 0 x y z x y z at the point

    (2, 1, 2) is :

    (A) 6 5 23 0 x y z (B) 6 5 23 0 x y z

    (C) 6 5 23 0 x y z (D) None of these

    41. Maximum value ofz = 3x + 5y, under the constraints 2 2000 1500 600x y ; x y , y and

    0x, y is :

    (A) 5000 (B) 5500 (C) 6000 (D) None of these

    42. One set containing five numbers has mean 8 and variance 24 and the second set containing three

    numbers has mean 8 and variance 24. Then the variance of the combined set is :

    (A) 42 (B) 24 (C) 20 (D) 25

    43. A student obtain 75%, 80% and 85% marks in three subjects. If the marks of another subject are

    added, then his average cannot be less than :

    (A) 60% (B) 65% (C) 80% (D) 90%

    44. The chance that a doctor A will diagnose a disease X correctly is 60%. The chance that a patient will

    die by his treatment after correct diagnosis is 40% and the chance of death by wrong diagnosis is

    70%, A patient of doctor A who had disease X died. The chance that his disease was diagnosed

    correctly is :

    (A) 6/10 (B) 6/11 (C) 1/2 (D) 6/13

    45. Three squares of a chessboard are chosen at random, the probability that two are of one colour and

    one of another is :

    (A) 16/21 (B) 8/21 (C) 32/12 (D) None of these

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    VMC/BITSAT - 2010 15 PRACTICE TEST - 5

    ENGLISH

    Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    For Q.1 - 5

    Because goldfish can be kept easily in small ponds and aquariums, they make good pets, but like many otherpets, they must have proper care and the right kind of place to live.

    A two-inch fish requires a minimum of two gallons of water containing sufficient oxygen to support life.

    Some oxygen will make its way into the water of an aquarium from the air that touches the surface. Plants in

    an aquarium also help to furnish oxygen. Snails help to keep an aquarium clean. Thus, with plenty of plants

    and snail, the water in an aquarium does not have to be changed frequently. A large lake may prove to be a

    quite unsuitable abode for goldfish.

    It is important that goldfish should not be overfed. They can be fed such things as dried insects in addition to

    commercially-prepared goldfish food, but they should never be fed more than once a day. Even then, they

    should not be given more food than can be consumed in about five minutes. This ensures prolonged life.

    1. Which of the following statements is true ?

    (A) Goldfish should be given food only once a day

    (B) Snails eat up the goldfish in an aquarium

    (C) Plants provide food to the snails

    (D) Goldfish comes above the surface of water to get oxygen from air

    2. Which of the following statements is not true ?

    (A) Snails make the aquarium clean by eating up goldfish

    (B) Two gallons of water with sufficient oxygen is enough for two-inch fish

    (C) Goldfish can be made good pets

    (D) Plants in an aquarium provide oxygen to goldfish

    3. Which of the following helps supply goldfish with oxygen ?

    (A) Snails (B) Plants (C) Dried insects (D) Aquarium

    4. Water in an aquarium needs to be changed if

    (A) there are plenty of snails and plants in it

    (B) there is no sufficient oxygen in it(C) it is very clean and contains sufficient oxygen

    (D) it does not contain goldfish food and dried insects

    5. What is important to remember when feeding goldfish ?

    (A) They should be fed more than once a day

    (B) They should be fed at five-minute intervals

    (C) They should be fed with plants and snails

    (D) They should be fed only once a day

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    Q. 67 : Pick the correct synonym

    6. A million cinemas a year bring the same stale balderdash.

    (A) adventure (B) nonsense (C) thriller (D) romance

    7. The Prime Minister delivered an impromptu speech to the students.

    (A) important (B) impressive (C) inspiring (D) offhand

    Q. 89 : Pick the correct antonym

    8. The leader might have had some covertreason for the change of his political affiliations.

    (A) unjustifiable (B) obvious (C) inexplicable (D) flimsy

    9. He is a man ofmellow temper.

    (A) fickle (B) hot (C) irrational (D) excitable

    10. When the mother bird came home

    P

    the storm had subsided cried piteouslyQ R

    and on not finding her young ones.

    S

    The proper sequence should be :

    (A) Q S P R (B) P S R Q (C) P R S Q (D) Q P S R

    11. S1 : The spiritual training of the boys was a much more difficult training.

    S6 : And I held that this was an essential part of the training of the young and that all training

    without culture of the spirit was of no use, and might be even harmful.

    P : I had realised that the training of the spirit was a thing in itself.Q : Of course, I believed that every student should be acquainted with the elements of his own

    religion and have a general knowledge of his own scriptures.

    R : I relied little on religious books for spiritual training.

    S : To develop the spirit is to build character and to enable one to work towards a knowledge of

    God and self-realisation.

    (A) P Q S R (B) R Q S P (C) R Q P S (D) P R S Q

    12. The Managing Director treated the employees to a . . . . . lunch at an expensive hotel.

    (A) precious (B) thriving (C) stupendous (D) sumptuous

    13. Those who live in . . . . . . . houses should not throw . . . . . . . at others.

    (A) big ; abuse (B) own ; challenges

    (C) stone ; bricks (D) glass ; stones

    14. There is no glory in war . . . . . the blood it . . . . .

    (A) considering ; sheds (B) comparing ; spills

    (C) worth ; costs (D) thinking ; demands

    15. While you were young, you . . . . . . cultivated good habits.

    (A) ought to (B) ought to have (C) should have (D) None of these

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    VMC/BITSAT - 2010 17 PRACTICE TEST - 5

    LOGICAL

    Directions :

    In each of the following questions, find out which of the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be formed

    from the pieces given in (x).

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    5. Rule : Any figure can be traced by a angle unbroken like without retracing.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

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    6. PASSIONATE is to unbridled as GIDDY is to :

    (A) hasty (B) madcap (C) unreasonable

    (D) disorderly (E) heared

    7. Examination : degree

    (A) doctor : Ph.D (B) music : instrument(C) interview : selection (D) sports : medal

    For Q. 8

    Question on classification are designed to test candidates ability to classify given objects and final one which

    does not share the common property with the other objects of the group. Question one classification can be in

    any form.

    8. (A) BEH (B) CFI (C) DGJ (D) EHL (E) FIL

    9. Find out the missing term out of the given options :A, C, F, H, . . . . . , M.

    (A) J (B) K (C) L (D) I

    10. In this type of alphabetical series, some letters are missing. Choose the correct one of the given

    alternative.

    cccbb . . . aa . . . cc . . . bbbaa . . . c.

    (A) acbc (B) baba (C) acba (D) baca

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    VMC/BITSAT - 2010 19 PRACTICE TEST - 5

    Answers - BITSAT FULL PRACTICE TEST - 5 (2010)

    PHYSICS

    1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    A A A D A D C A A A

    11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

    A D A B B D C D B B

    21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

    A B D B A B C B A D

    31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

    A C A A A C D C B C

    CHEMISTRY

    1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    B B D B A A D D D B

    11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

    A D B B A B A B D D

    21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

    C A B B D C C B B A

    31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

    B D D C C C C B A A

    MATHEMATICS

    1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    A D A B C C B B C A

    11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

    C C A A C C B B D A

    21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

    C A C C B D A B B B

    31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

    D A B A C B A B A B

    4142 43 44 45

    B B A D A

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    ENGLISH

    1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    A A B B D B D B D D

    11 12 13 14 15

    C D D A C

    LOGICAL

    1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    A A B D B B C D B D