Bones Test Bank

Exam

Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1)Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?A) protection of internal organsB) body supportC) blood cell productionD) calcium homeostasisE) all of the above

2)Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?A) vertebra B) patella C) ulna D) frontal E)metatarsal

3) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.A) long B) sesamoid C) flat D) short E) irregular

4) A rib is an example of a ________ bone.A) short B) flat C) long D) sesamoid E) sutural

5) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the ________.A)medullary cavityB) epiphysisC) osseophysisD) diaphysisE)metaphysis

6)Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?A) secretes organic matrix B) stem cellC) dissolves matrix D)mature bone cell

7) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are calledA) osteoclasts.B) osteocytes.C) osteoprogenitor cells.D) chondrocytes.E) osteoblasts.

8) ________ are squamous cells that develop into osteoblasts.A) OsteoclastsB) Squamous osteonsC) Osteomedullary cellsD) OsteocytesE) Osteoprogenitor cells

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9) Through the action of osteoclasts,A) an organic framework is formed.B) bony matrix is dissolved.C) osteoid is calcified.D) fractured bones regenerate.E) new bone is formed.

10)Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone?A) calcium phosphate.B) hydroxyapatite.C) collagen fibers.D) chondroitin sulfate.E) calcium carbonate.

11) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are calledA) canaliculi.B) medullary cavities.C) foramina.D) lacunae.E) central canals.

12) The central canal of an osteon containsA) osteocytes.B) lacunae.C) blood vessels.D) bone marrow.E) concentric lamellae.

13) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are calledA) interstitial lamellae.B) concentric lamellae.C) trabeculae.D) osteons.E) lacunae.

14) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone.A) lamellar B) spongy C) trabecular D) compact E) irregular

15) The medullary cavity of bones containsA) cartilage.B) compact bone.C) osteons.D) periosteum.E)marrow.

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16) The shaft of a long bone is called theA) diaphysis.B) epiphysis.C) metaphysis.D) epiphyseal plate.E) lamella.

17) The lining of the medullary cavity is called theA) periosteum.B) perimysium.C) endosteum.D) perichondrium.E) epimysium.

18)What structure allows a bone to grow in length?A) periosteal budB) metaphysisC) epiphyseal plateD) lacunaeE) trabeculae

19) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification.

1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized.2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers.4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.

The correct order for these events isA) 4, 2, 1, 3. B) 4, 1, 2, 3. C) 2, 3, 1, 4. D) 2, 1, 3, 4.

20)Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?A) roof of the skullB) carpal bonesC) femurD) clavicleE) both A and D

21) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)A) cartilage model.B) osteoblasts model.C) calcified model.D)membranous model.E) fibrous connective-tissue model.

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22) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification.

1. Enlarged chondrocytes die. 2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.4. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium.5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone.

The correct order for these events isA) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2. B) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2. C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2. D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4. E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2.

23) Secondary ossification centers occurA) in the metaphyses.B) in the diaphysis.C) at the periosteum.D) in the epiphyses.E) in dermal bones.

24)When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal platesA) are hardly affected.B) become narrower.C) increase slowly.D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness.E) get wider.

25) The most abundant mineral in the human body isA) hydrogen.B) phosphorus.C) calcium.D) potassium.E) sodium.

26) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormoneA) parathyroid hormone.B) testosterone.C) thyroid hormone.D) calcitonin.E) growth hormone.

27) Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following, except that itA) produces a severe osteoporosis.B) is released by some cancer tumors.C) is released in large amounts early in life.D) increases the number of osteoclasts.E) increases the activity of osteoclasts.

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28) The hormone calcitonin functions toA) stimulate osteoclast activity.B) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood.C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption.D) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts.E) decrease the rate of calcium excretion.

29) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways, except that itA) increases the rate of calcium absorption.B) decreases the rate of calcium excretion.C) inhibits calcitonin secretion.D) raises the level of calcium ion in the blood.E) stimulates osteoclast activity.

30) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result inA) rickets.B) giantism.C) osteopenia.D) osteoporosis.E) dwarfism.

31) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following, except A) vitamin E.B) vitamin D.C) vitamin A.D) vitamin C.E) the hormone thyroxine.

32) Vitamin D is necessary forA) absorption calcium and phosphate ions.B) reducing osteoblast activity.C) the organic matrix of bone.D) increasing osteoclast activity.E) collagen formation.

33) A lack of exercise couldA) cause bones to become thicker.B) cause bones to become longer.C) result in porous and weak bones.D) cause bones to store more calcium.E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity.

34)When stress is applied to a bone,A) osteoclast activity increases.B) it usually breaks.C) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress.D) the bone becomes thin and brittle.E) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts.

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35) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is calledA) osteopenia.B) osteomyelitis.C) osteomalacia.D) osteoporosis.E) osteitis.

36) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called theA) condyleB) epiphyseal plateC) fracture facetD) external callusE) dense tuberosity

37) ________ fractures are completely internal; they do not break through the skin.A) RecurrentB) ClosedC) OpenD) CompoundE) both B and D

38) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.A) compressionB) CollesC) greenstickD) PottE) displaced

39) Bones that develop within tendons are called ________ bones.A) sesamoid B) tendon C)Wormian D) sutural E) irregular

40) Small, oddly shaped bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones.A) sagittal B) irregular C) tendon D) sesamoid E) sutural

41) The large proximal projection on the femur is termed theA) trochanter. B) tubercle. C) ramus. D) condyle. E) tuberosity.

42) A hole through a bone is termed aA) ramus. B) facet. C) linea. D) tubercle. E) foramen.

43) The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed aA) ridge. B) head. C) condyle. D) crest. E) trochlea.

44) A deep hollow on a bone is termed aA) line. B) facet. C) sulcus. D) fissure. E) fossa.

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45) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called aA) lacuna.B) Volkmann's canal.C) trabecula.D) Venetian canal.E) Haversian canal.

46) The structural units of mature compact bone are calledA) osteons. B) lamellae. C) osteocytes. D) lacunae. E) canaliculi.

47) The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to asA) osteogenesis.B) remodeling.C) hardening.D) calcification.E) ossification.

48) A child with rickets often hasA) frequent bruises.B) bowed legs.C) inadequate muscle development.D) long fingers.E) oversized facial bones.

49) ________ bones develop inside tendons, commonly near the knees, hands, and feet.A) Irregular B) Flat C) Long D) Sesamoid E) Short

50) The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.A) long B) short C) irregular D) sesamoid E) flat

51) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?A) synovial cartilageB) hyaline cartilageC) fibrocartilageD) osseous cartilageE) elastic cartilage

52) Fat is stored within theA)medullary cavity.B) diaphysis.C) epiphysis.D)metaphysis.E) spongy bone.

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53)Which of the following is a characteristic of bone?A) The matrix of the bone is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts.B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts.C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for an exchange of nutrients.D) all of the aboveE) both A and C

54) ________ accounts for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone.A) Calcium phosphateB) Calcium carbonateC) FluorideD)Water E) Collagen fibers

55) The ________ interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering.A) protein-proteinB) collagen-fiberC) hydroxyapatite-crystalD) protein-crystalE)mineral-crystal

56) The most abundant cell type in bone isA) osteolytes.B) osteoclasts.C) osteocytes.D) osteoblasts.E) osteoprogenitor cells.

57) ________ cells are located in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum.A) OsteoprogenitorB) OsteocyteC) OsteoblastD) OsteoclastE) Osteoid

58) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons areA) proximal. B) anterior. C) diagonal. D) radial. E) parallel.

59) The femur can withstand ________ times the body weight without breaking.A) 8 B) 30 C) 5 to 10 D) 3 E) 10 to 15

60) ________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone.A) Yellow B) Gray C) Red D) Blue E)White

61) ________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles.A) Short B) Irregular C) Compact D) Long E) Spongy

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62) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells.A)mesenchymalB) osteocyteC) osteoprogenitorD) osteoblastE) osteoclast

63)Which of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false?A) results from a mutationB) results in short, stubby fingersC) affects connective tissue genesD) affects epiphyseal cartilagesE) none of the above

64)Where in the body does the production of calcitriol start?A) liverB) skinC) kidneysD) boneE) small intestine

65) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels ofA) potassium. B) sulfate. C) iron. D) sodium. E) calcium.

66) Bone is composed of ________ percent cells.A) 25 B) 15 C) 10 D) 50 E) 2

67)While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott fracture. Whatwould you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?A) erythemaB) hematomaC) cyanosisD) hypertensionE) tachycardia

68) The lacunae of osseous tissue containA) capillaries.B) blood cells.C) chondroblasts.D) bone marrow.E) osteocytes.

69) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?A) The bone would be stronger.B) The bone would be less flexible.C) The bone would be more brittle.D) The bone would be more flexible.E) The bone would be less compressible.

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70) In compact bone, the osteonsA) are lacking in the diaphysis.B) are lined up perpendicular to the long axis.C) are arranged in an irregular pattern.D) are separated by medullary spaces.E) are lined up in the same direction.

71) The trabeculae of spongy boneA) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis.B) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone.C) will collapse under stress.D) are composed mostly of cartilage.E) are organized along stress lines.

72) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts, bones will becomeA) osteopenic.B) thicker.C) denser.D) calcified.E) stronger.

73) During appositional growthA) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis.B) bones grow longer.C) bones grow wider.D) bone is replaced by cartilage.E) osteoblasts are overwhelmed by osteocytes.

74)When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone,A) long bones have reached their adult length.B) interstitial bone growth begins.C) puberty begins.D) appositional bone growth begins.E) the bone becomes more brittle.

75)When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited onthe opposite side, bonesA) become thicker.B) grow longer.C) become more porous and weaker.D) grow wider.E) become shorter.

76) Accelerated closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused byA) an excess of growth hormone.B) high levels of vitamin D.C) elevated levels of estrogen.D) too much calcium in the diet.E) too little thyroxine.

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77) In normal adult bones,A) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed.B) there is no turnover of minerals.C) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases.D) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling.E) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year.

78)Which is greater? A) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent B) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is present

79)Which is greater? A) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is decreasedB) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased

80) The condition known as osteopeniaA) only affects the femur.B) causes a gradual reduction in bone mass.C) affects mostly women.D) is rarely seen as people age.E) is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet.

81)Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?A) bonesB) other tissues that connect bonesC) ligamentsD) cartilageE) tendons

82) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect tooccur as a result of this condition?A) bone fragilityB) decreased bone densityC) increases in blood levels of calciumD) all of the aboveE) A and B only

83)Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings ofosteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she prescribe for her patient?A) calcitoninB) estrogenC) thyroid hormoneD) parathyroid hormoneE) growth hormone

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84)Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings ofosteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for her patient?A) Vitamin CB) calcium supplementsC) Vitamin DD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

Figure 6-1 Bone Tissue

Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following question(s):

85)Which structure is termed an osteon?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

86)Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

87) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process?A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteonsB) osteoporosisC) surface growth of boneD) remodeling of compact boneE) remodeling of spongy bone

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88) Identify the structures labeled "4."A) interstitial lamellaeB) periosteumC) trabeculaeD) circumferential lamellaeE) concentric lamellae

89)Where would osteoclasts be most active?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

Figure 6-2 Endochondral Ossification

Use Figure 6-2 to answer the following question(s):

90)Where does growth in length occur?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

91)What type of tissue occurs at #1?A) hyaline cartilageB) fibrocartilageC) elastic tissueD)marrow tissueE) bone

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92)What process is shown at #6?A) secondary ossificationB) width growthC) length growthD) primary ossificationE) fracture repair

93) Identify the structure at #4.A) hyaline cartilageB) periosteumC) spongy boneD)mesenchymeE) intramembranous bone

94) Identify the structure labeled "2."A)marrow cavityB) epiphysisC) metaphysisD) trabeculaeE) diaphysis

95)Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system?A) pectoral girdleB) hyoid boneC) auditory ossiclesD) skullE) vertebral column

96)Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeletonB) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunkC) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respirationD) all of the aboveE) B and C only

97) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone.A) parietal B) temporal C) occipital D) frontal E) sphenoid

98) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture.A) sagittalB) lambdoidalC) rostralD) squamosalE) coronal

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99) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones.A) frontal, temporal, and occipitalB) frontal, parietal, and occipitalC) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipitalD) frontal, temporal, and parietalE) temporal, parietal, and occipital

100) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex, except the ________ bone.A) nasal B) frontal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) lacrimal

101) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones?A) frontal and temporalB) sphenoid and temporalC) temporal and maxillaD) temporal and zygomaticE) zygomatic and maxilla

102) The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone?A) vomerB) auditory ossiclesC) temporalD) zygomaticE) parietal

103) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is theA)mastoid process.B) styloid process.C) temporal process.D) condyloid process.E) occipital condyle.

104)Which of these is not one of bones of the face?A) vomer B) mandible C) maxilla D) zygomatic E) frontal

105) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except theA) occipital crest.B) jugular foramen.C) superficial nuchal lines.D) hypoglossal canals.E) petrous process.

106) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment forA)muscles that open and close the eye.B) muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column.C) muscles that close the mouth.D)muscles that turn the head.E) both A and D

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107)What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa?A) the inner earB) the pituitary glandC) tear glandD) the frontal sinusE) the lacrimal ramus

108) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is theA) articular tubercle.B) styloid process.C) medial concha.D)mastoid process.E) posterior clinoid process.

109) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to theA)mastoid process.B) articular tubercle.C) middle concha.D) styloid process.E) posterior clinoid process.

110) The facial nerve (N. VII) passes through internal acoustic meatus and then through theA) stylomastoid foramen.B) jugular foramen.C) carotid foramen.D)mastoid foramen.E) foramen lacerum.

111) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the ________ suture.A) coronalB) sagittalC) squamosalD) rostralE) lambdoidal

112) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at theA)mastoid process.B) superior clinoid process.C) cribriform plate.D) lateral palatine process.E)mandibular fossa.

113) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except theA)mandibular fossa.B) mastoid cells.C) sella turcica.D) internal acoustic meatus.E) petrous portion.

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114) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland.A) sellar B) olfactory C) nasal D) pituitary E) lacrimal

115) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone, except theA) foramen ovale.B) sella turcica.C) optic canals.D) cribriform plate.E) pterygoid processes.

116) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to theA) cribriform plate.B) crista galli.C) pterygoid processes.D) styloid process.E) perpendicular plate.

117) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s).A) palatineB) sphenoidC) maxillaryD) vomerE) both A and C

118) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through theA)maxillary foramina.B) ramus of the mandible.C) mandibular foramina.D) condylar process.E)mental foramina.

119) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through theA) condylar process.B) mental foramen.C) mandibular foramen.D) ramus of the mandible.E)maxillary foramen.

120) The hyoid boneA) attaches to tongue muscles.B) is superior to the larynx.C) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament.D) all of the aboveE) A and C only

121) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is theA) cribriform B) sphenoid C) crista galli D) ethmoid E)maxilla

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122) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones, except theA) zygomatic. B) maxillary. C) sphenoid. D) frontal. E) ethmoid.

123) The nasal conchaeA) attach muscles that move the eye.B) contain the nerves for olfaction.C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways.D) attach muscles that move the eyelids.E) protect the pituitary gland.

124) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones, except theA) ethmoid. B) sphenoid. C) maxillae. D) zygomatic. E) frontal.

125)Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false?A) They support cilia that move the mucus.B) They make skull bones lighter.C) The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities.D) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium.E) None of the aboveall are true.

126) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true, except thatA) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5.B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue.C) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements.D) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain.E) the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus.

127) The anterior fontanel is locatedA) posterior to the frontal bone.B) anterior to the parietal bones.C) inferior to frontal bone.D) both A and BE) both B and C

128) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are thesecondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later?A) thoracic and lumbarB) cervical and sacralC) cervical and lumbarD) thoracic and sacralE) sacral and lumbar

129) An exaggerated lateral curvature is termedA)mentosis.B) kyphosis.C) lordosis.D) scoliosis.E) gomphosis.

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130) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception.A) cervical B) pelvic C) thoracic D) sacral E) axial

131) The odontoid process is found on theA) coccyx. B) atlas. C) ribs. D) axis. E) sacrum.

132) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra.A) first cervicalB) second cervicalC) seventh cervicalD) first thoracicE) fifth lumbar

133) The ribs articulate with theA) thoracic vertebrae.B) lumbar vertebrae.C) cervical vertebrae.D) all of the aboveE) A and B only

134) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae.A) 7 B) 4 C) 5 D) 12 E) 31

135) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence ofA) costal cartilages.B) transverse foramina.C) transverse processes.D) notched spinous processes.E) facets for the articulation of ribs.

136) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae.A) 31 B) 5 C) 4 D) 7 E) 12

137)Which of the following are distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae?A) long spinous processesB) heart-shaped bodiesC) rib articulationsD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

138)Which of these types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct?A) coccygeal3 to 5B) sacral1C) thoracic12D) cervical7E) lumbral5

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139) All of the following are true of the sacrum, except that itA) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.C) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.D) articulates with the coccyx.E) articulates with the pelvic bones.

140) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae.A) laminaeB) auric archesC) spinous processesD) transverse processesE) pedicles

141) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.A) 12 B) 6 C) 2 D) 10 E) 24

142) The costal grooveA) is located on the exterior surface.B) is located on the interior surface.C) marks the path of blood vessels.D) both A and CE) both B and C

143) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is theA) body.B) angle.C) xiphoid process.D) tuberculum.E)manubrium.

144) The true ribs areA) ribs 1-7.B) also called vertebrosternal ribs.C) ribs 8-12.D) both A and BE) both B and C

145) How many bones make up the axial skeleton?A) 70 B) 60 C) 90 D) 50 E) 80

146) The skull contains ________ bones.A) 12B) 32C) 42D) 22E) none of the above

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147) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae?A) atlasB) axisC) vertebra prominensD) both A and BE) both A and C

148) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)A)making the skull lighter.B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.C) release of stress hormones.D) extra source of air.E) both A and B

149) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except betweenA) the mandible and the cranium.B) the occipital bone and the parietal bone.C) the vomer and the zygomatic bone.D) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.E) None of the abovethey are all sutures.

150) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and theA) laminae.B) transverse spinous processes.C) dorsal spinous processes.D) both A and BE) both A and C

151) You witness one of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, hisface looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn thathe has a brokenA) zygomatic bone.B) temporal bone.C) clavicle.D)mandible.E) external auditory meatus.

152)While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think toyourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronalsutures isA) sphenoidal fontanel.B) mastoid fontanel.C) cushion spot.D) anterior fontanel.E) occipital fontanel.

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153)While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observethe nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having severalepisodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when sheA) checks the infant's reflexes.B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper.C) checks the anterior fontanel for depression.D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits.E) none of the above

154) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age ofA) 2. B) 1. C) 4. D) 5. E) 3.

155) The term for undersized head isA) encephalopathy.B) macrocephaly.C) encephalitis.D)microcephaly.E) none of the above

156) ________ curves of the spine develop late in fetal development.A) PrimaryB) CompensationC) SecondaryD) AccommodationE) all of the above

157) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is theA) articular processes.B) vertebral arch.C) intervertebral space.D) vertebral body.E) none of the above

158)Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae.A) 7 B) 19 C) 11 D) 6 E) 10

159) As you move caudally along the spinal column,A) the vertebral foramina become relatively smaller.B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger.C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer.D) A and B onlyE) A, B, and C

160) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae, except thatA) the transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally.B) the superior articular processes face medially.C) the vertebral foramen is triangular.D) they lack costal facets.E) the vertebral bodies are delicate.

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161) The sternum containsA) the manubrium.B) the xiphoid process.C) the jugular notch.D) the body.E) all of the above

162) Ossification of the sternum is not complete until at least ageA) 25. B) 10. C) 6. D) 50. E) 16.

163)While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful toposition your hands correctly to avoid damage to theA) ribs.B) scapula.C) xiphoid process.D) sacrum.E) both A and C

164) The sacrum protects these organs:A) reproductiveB) urinaryC) digestiveD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

165) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by theA) vomer and sphenoid bone.B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones.C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.D) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones.E) nasal bones.

166) Of the following bones, which is unpaired?A) palatineB) nasalC) vomerD)maxillaryE) none of these

167) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with theA) ulna.B) occipital bone.C) temporal bone.D) sphenoid.E) parietal bone.

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168) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull areA) fibrocartilaginous discs.B) fontanels.C) sutures.D) foramina.E)Wormian bones.

169) The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments.A) styloidB) sternocleidomastoidC) suturalD) stylohyoidE) hyoid

170) The function of the hyoid bone is toA) anchor the tongue muscles.B) support the larynx.C) protect the trachea.D) both A and BE) A, B, and C

171) Identify the structure the occipital bone surrounds.A)magnum maximusB) maximus minimusC) foramen magnusD) foramina maximusE) foramen magnum

172) Fibrous connective tissue called ________ accommodates brain growth in infants.A) vertebrae B) sutures C) foramina D) fontanels E) frontals

173) Vertebrae of theA) lumbar region are fused.B) coccygeal region are fused.C) sacral region are fused.D) both A and CE) both B and C

174) Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile.A)most; mostB) least; mostC) not; excessivelyD) least; leastE)most; least

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175) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum.A) crookedB) obstructiveC) restrictiveD) deviantE) deviated

176) The smallest facial bones are theA) lacerum bones.B) zygomatic bones.C) ethmoid bones.D) lacrimal bones.E) nasal bones.

177) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are theA) anterior and posterior nuchal lines.B) cranial and caudal nuchal lines.C) medial and lateral nuchal lines.D) inferior and superior nuchal lines.E) anterior and superior nuchal lines.

178) The ________ passes through the ________.A) acoustic nerve; external acoustic meatusB) internal carotid artery; jugular foramenC) trigeminal nerve; foramen ovaleD) internal jugular vein; jugular foramenE) vagus nerve; foramen magnum

179) The primary spinal curvesA) develop several months after birth.B) are also called compensation curves.C) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera.D) all of the aboveE) B and C only

180)Which of these spinal deformities is correctly matched?A) scoliosislateral deviation of the spineB) lordosis"swayback"C) kyphosis"hump-backed"D) ricketsbow-leggedE) All are correctly matched.

181) The ligamentum nuchaeA) attaches the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae.B) stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae.C) helps to hold the head in an upright position.D) attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull.E) attaches the sternum to the ribs.

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182) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region.A) sacral B) coccygeal C) thoracic D) lumbar E) cervical

183) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense ofA) balance.B) hearing.C) smell.D) A, B, and CE) A and B only

184)Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium?A) clavicleB) sternumC) scapulaD) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2E) all the vertebrae

185) If there were no paranasal sinuses, all of the following would be true, except A) less mucus in the nasal cavity.B) the skull would be heavier.C) stronger neck muscles would be required.D) reduced ability to trap dust and particles.E) the ability to sneeze would be impaired.

186) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result inA) death.B) a long and narrow head.C) an unusually small head.D) a very broad head.E) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other.

187)Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true?A) fusion is delayed until mid-20sB) anchors a muscle that constricts the anal openingC) is more flexible in womenD) is the most caudal vertebral regionE) all of the above

188) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral columnA) the transverse foramina become larger.B) the size of the vertebral foramen decreases.C) the vertebrae become larger and heavier.D) all of the aboveE) A and B only

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189)While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal squama by a wild pitch. Which of the followingcomplaints would you expect her to have?A) a sore backB) a broken jawC) a sore chestD) a headacheE) a black eye

190) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured?A) temporal boneB) parietal boneC) mandibleD) sphenoid boneE) ethmoid bone

191) The alveolar process of the mandibleA) supports the lower teeth.B) supports the upper teeth.C) anchors the tongue.D) all of the aboveE) A and B only

192) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve theA) stylohyoid ligaments.B) alveolar process of the mandible.C) hyoid bone.D) condylar process of the mandible.E) greater cornu of the hyoid bone.

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Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity

Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions:

193)Which bone has foramina for the olfactory nerves?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

194) Identify the sphenoid bone.A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

195) Identify the internal occipital crest.A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

196)Which structure encloses the pituitary gland?A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8

197)What is the name of the structure labeled "8"?A) sella turcicaB) foramen rotundumC) foramen ovaleD) carotid canalE) foramen spinosum

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Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view)


198) Identify the structure labeled "7."A) laminaB) transverse processC) spinous processD) vertebral bodyE) pedicle

199)Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc?A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

200) Identify the structure labeled "1."A) spinous processB) transverse processC) transverse articular facetD) pedicleE) lamina

201)Where is the spinal cord located?A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

202) Identify the structure labeled "2."A) superior articular processB) transverse processC) laminaD) pedicleE) inferior articular process

203)Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?A)metacarpalsB) scapulaC) tibiaD) sacrumE) coxal bones

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204)Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?A) humerusB) metatarsalsC) femurD) scapulaE) None of the aboveall are appendicular bones.

205)Which of these adapts the pectoral girdle to a wide range of movement?A) tough ligaments and tendonsB) relatively weak jointsC) heavy bonesD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

206)Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch?A) proximal end of scapulaB) distal end of clavicleC) proximal end of clavicleD) distal end of scapulaE) both A and B

207)Which of these is most commonly fractured in a fall?A) radiusB) clavicleC) glenoid cavityD) scapulaE) navicular

208) The clavicle articulates with the scapulaA) distally with the acromion.B) distally with the coracoid process.C) proximally with the coracoid cavity.D) distally with the manubrium.E) distally with the glenoid cavity.

209) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at theA) acromion.B) scapular spine.C) glenoid tuberosity.D) subscapular fossa.E) coracoid process.

210)Which of these features is located near the proximal end of the humerus?A) olecranon fossaB) greater tubercleC) capitulumD) lateral epicondyleE)medial epicondyle

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211) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is theA) coronoid fossa.B) intertubercular groove.C) radial fossa.D) olecranon fossa.E) radial groove.

212)Which of these is a forearm bone?A) fibula B) tibia C) radius D) humerus E) femur

213)Which of these surface features does the ulna possess?A) styloid processB) trochlear notchC) olecranonD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

214) The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is theA) lateral epicondyle.B) medial epicondyle.C) radial groove.D) coronoid process.E) deltoid tuberosity.

215) The radius articulates with theA) humerus.B) carpals.C) ulna.D) all of the aboveE) A and C only

216) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.A) styloid processB) olecranon processC) radial tuberosityD) capitulumE) coronoid process

217) The bones that form the palm are theA)metatarsals.B) metacarpals.C) tarsals.D) phalanges.E) carpals.

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218) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are theA) phalanges.B) metacarpals.C) metatarsals.D) carpals.E) tarsals.

219) The bones that form the fingers are theA)metatarsals.B) carpals.C) metacarpals.D) phalanges.E) tarsals.

220) The carpus contains ________ bones.A) 8 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

221)Which of the following is not an upper limb bone?A) ulna B) humerus C) metatarsals D) carpals E) radius

222)Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?A) coxal boneB) sacrumC) lumbar vertebraeD) coccyxE) both B and D

223)What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?A) sacrum B) fibula C) tibia D) humerus E) femur

224) Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ________ bones.A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 E) 6

225) The largest component coxal bone is theA) pubis. B) tibia. C) femur. D) ischium. E) ilium.

226) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is theA) acetabulum.B) iliac crest.C) anterior iliac spine.D) posterior superior iliac spine.E) iliac notch.

227) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on theA) pubis. B) ischium. C) patella. D) ilium. E) femur.

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228) The sacrum articulates with theA) ilium.B) ischium and pubis.C) ilium and ischium.D) ischium.E) pubis.

229)When seated, the weight of the body is borne by theA) inferior rami of the pubis.B) posterior inferior iliac spines.C) iliac crests.D) obturator foramina.E) ischial tuberosities.

230) The pubic and ischial rami encircle theA) pubic symphysis.B) acetabulum.C) greater sciatic notch.D) obturator foramen.E) lesser sciatic notch.

231) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is theA) humerus.B) fibula.C) femur.D) tibia.E) coxal bone.

232) The distal end of the tibia articulates with theA) fibula.B) calcaneus.C) patella.D) coxal bone.E) talus.

233) Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along theA)medial epicondyle.B) linea aspera.C) intercondylar fossa.D) lesser trochanter.E) greater trochanter.

234) The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from theA) fibula. B) tibia. C) talus. D) femur. E) calcaneus.

235) The lateral malleolus is found on theA) calcaneus. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) patella. E) femur.

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236) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the ________ by the interosseous membrane.A) navicularB) femurC) patellaD) tibiaE) both A and B

237) The tarsus contains ________ bones.A) 7 B) 6 C) 8 D) 5 E) 4

238)Which of the following is the heel bone?A) calcaneus B) navicular C) cuboid D) patella E) talus

239) The weight of the body is supported by theA) proximal metatarsals.B) distal metacarpals.C) distal metarsals.D) calcaneus.E) both C and D

240) Another name for the first toe isA) hallux.B) lateral cuneiform.C) hyoid.D) phalanx.E) pollex.

241)Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?A) ilia extend far above sacrumB) heavy, rough textured boneC) relatively deep iliac fossaD) heart-shaped pelvic inletE) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees

242)Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis?A) sacrum broad and shortB) coccyx points anteriorlyC) bone markings not very prominentD) ischial spine points posteriorlyE) triangular obturator foramen

243) Study of human skeletons can reveal information concerning the person'sA) size and handedness.B) age and nutritional status.C) sex.D) all of the aboveE) A and B only

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244) Compared to the male skeleton, the female skeletonA) is larger.B) is heavier.C) has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis.D) has a smaller average cranium.E) both C and D

245) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of theA) sacrum.B) skull.C) teeth.D) pelvis.E) thoracic cage.

246)Which of the following is not a developmentally controlled process?A) closure of the fontanelsB) appearance of major vertebral curvesC) fusion of the coxal bonesD) bone remodelingE) reduction in mineral content

247) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where theA) coxal bones articulate with the femur.B) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.C) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.D) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.E) clavicle articulates with the humerus.

248) Each coxal bone consists of the following three fused bones:A) ulna, radius, and humerus.B) ilium, ischium, and pubis.C) femur, patella, and tibia.D) hamate, capitate, and trapezium.E) femur, tibia, and fibula.

249) The largest bone of the lower limb is theA) fibula. B) tibia. C) humerus. D) femur. E) calcaneus.

250) The pelvic organs are mostly found within theA) iliac fossa.B) obturator foramen.C) ishial fossa.D) pubic symphysis.E) ishial spine.

251) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle.A) radius B) vertebra C) sternum D) scapula E) clavicle

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252)Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle?A) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bonesB) clavicles, scapulae, and humerusC) clavicles and scapulaeD) clavicles onlyE) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna

253) The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones?A) clavicle and scapulaB) scapula and humerusC) humerus and ulnaD) clavicle and humerusE) none of the above

254) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.A) superiorB) distalC) medialD) proximalE) none of these

255) Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the radio-ulnarjoint.A) notch B) muscle C) groove D) tendon E) ligament

256) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist.A) 8; 2 B) 6; 2 C) 4; 2 D) 10; 3 E) 2; 8

257) Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones.A) 14 B) 10 C) 20 D) 18 E) 15

258)Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones?A) coxal bonesB) sacrumC) coccyxD) femurE) none of the above

259)Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles?A) gluteal linesB) iliac spinesC) greater sciatic notchD) both A and CE) none of the above

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260)Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet?A) coccyxB) inferior border of the pubic symphysisC) iliac crestD) ischial tuberositiesE) both A and B

261) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.A)wider B) smaller C) larger D) deeper E) longer

262) The longest bone is theA) sternum.B) coxal bone.C) humerus.D) femur.E) both C and D

263) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure?A) lesser trochanterB) cuboid boneC) calcaneusD) talusE) both B and C

264) The hand has 15 phalangeal bones; the foot has 14 phalangeal bones.A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false.B) The first statement is true and the second statement is true.C) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.D) The first statement is false and the second statement is false.E) Too much anatomical variability to be sure.

265)Which of the following is not a lower limb bone?A) patella B) tibia C) metatarsal D) femur E) fibia

266) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders?A) superior borderB) inferior borderC) lateral borderD) all of the aboveE) A and C only

267) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?A)wrist B) foot C) forearm D) ankle E) hand

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268)When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by theA) calcaneus and talus.B) distal metarsals and calcaneus.C) calcaneus and proximal metatarsals .D) talus and proximal metatarsals.E) talus and cuneiforms.

269) The talus contacts theA) navicular bone.B) calcaneus.C) tibial bone.D) both A and BE) A, B, and C

270) Compared to the hand, the footA) has a more restricted range of movement.B) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones.C) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.D) has more phalanges.E) contains ellipsoidal arches that help distribute body weight.

271) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured?A) his knee B) his hand C) his foot D) his hip E) his ankle

272) The clavicle articulates with the scapulaA) distally with the coracoid process.B) distally with the glenoid cavity.C) distally with the acromial process.D) proximally with the manubrium.E) both C and D.

273) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problemwith which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?A)weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsalsB) weak tarsometatarsal jointsC) a loose Achilles tendonD) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsalsE) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia

274) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is directedlaterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton isprobably fromA) an elderly female.B) a young female.C) a young male.D) an elderly male.E) Cannot tell on the basis of this information.

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Figure 8-1 The Humerus


275) Identify the structure labeled "9."A) greater tubercleB) trochleaC) medial epicondyleD) olecranon processE) lateral epicondyle

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276)Which structure does the radius rotate upon?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

277)When the arm is straight, which structure accepts the olecranon?A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9

278) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures.A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

279)Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity?A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

Figure 8-2 Bones of the Ankle and Foot


280) Identify the bone labeled "7."A) calcaneusB) cuneiform IC) cuboidD) talusE) navicular

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281) Identify the bone labeled "1."A)metatarsalB) talusC) calcaneusD) cuneiform VE) cuboid

282) On which bone does the tibia press?A) 7 B) 3 C) 9 D) 1 E) 2

283) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape.A) 8 B) 2 C) 7 D) 1 E) 3

284) Identify the bones labeled "9."A) tarsalsB) metacarpalsC) carpalsD)metatarsalsE) coxae

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Figure 8-3 The Scapula


285) Identify the structure labeled "7."A) scapular processB) acromionC) scapular notchD) spineE) coracoid process

286) Identify the structure labeled "1."A) coracoid processB) scapular processC) spineD) scapular notchE) acromion

287)Which structure is the acromion?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

288) Identify the structure labeled "2."A) acetabulumB) scapular cavityC) scapular notchD) glenoid cavityE) rotator cup

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289)What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"?A)manubriumB) clavicleC) humerusD) radiusE) femur

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Figure 8-4 The Femur


290) Identify the structure labeled "2."A) lateral condyleB) greater trochanterC) headD) linea asperaE) lateral epicondyle

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291) Identify the structure labeled "3."A) lateral condyleB) greater trochanterC) lateral epicondyleD) headE) lesser trochanter

292)Which structure articulates with the acetabulum?A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9

293) Identify the diaphysis of the femur.A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7

294) Identify the structure labeled "12."A) greater trochanterB) headC) lateral condyleD) linea asperaE) lateral epicondyle

295) An immovable joint is a(n)A) synarthrosis.B) amphiarthrosis.C) diarthrosis.D) syndesmosis.E) symphysis.

296) A slightly movable joint is a(n)A) synarthrosis.B) synostosis.C) diarthrosis.D) gomphosis.E) amphiarthrosis.

297) A freely movable joint is a(n)A) symphysis.B) synarthrosis.C) syndesmosis.D) amphiarthrosis.E) diarthrosis.

298) A suture is an example of a(n)A) diarthrosis.B) symphysis.C) synarthrosis.D) syndesmosis.E) amphiarthrosis.

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299) An epiphyseal line is an example of aA) synchondrosis.B) syndesmosis.C) gomphosis.D) symphysis.E) synostosis.

300) Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n)A) synostosis.B) syndesmosis.C) synchondrosis.D) amphiarthrosis.E) gomphosis.

301) A synovial joint is an example of a(n)A) diarthrosis.B) amphiarthrosis.C) syndesmosis.D) symphysis.E) synarthrosis.

302) A ligamentous connection such as an interosseus ligament is termed aA) syndesmosis.B) synchondrosis.C) synostosis.D) symphysis.E) gomphosis.

303)Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?A) provides nutrientsB) increases osmotic pressure within jointC) protects articular cartilagesD) shock absorptionE) lubrication

304)Which of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage?A) The matrix contains more water than other cartilages.B) It secretes synovial fluid.C) It is composed of hyaline cartilage.D) Surfaces are normally slick and smooth.E) There is no perichondrium.

305)Which of these is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints?A) synostosisB) gomphosisC) synchondrosisD) sutureE) all of the above

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306) Bursae are found in all of the following areas, exceptA) tendon sheaths.B) around blood vessels.C) around many synovial joints.D)within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure.E) beneath the skin covering a bone.

307) Dislocations are quite painful due to stimulation of pain receptors. One place these receptors are absent isA)within the joint capsule.B) inside the joint cavity.C) within the ligaments around the joint.D)within the tendons around the joint.E) both C and D

308) A movement away from the midline of the body is termedA) extension. B) inversion. C) flexion. D) abduction. E) adduction.

309) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement calledA) circumduction.B) retraction.C) eversion.D) rotation.E) opposition.

310) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termedA) eversion.B) plantar flexion.C) inversion.D) protraction.E) dorsiflexion.

311) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression?A) opening the mouthB) turning the hand palm upwardC) extreme bending of the head backwardsD) spreading the fingersE)moving the hand toward the shoulder

312) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving theA) leg. B) foot. C) hand. D) hip. E) arm.

313) The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.A) saddle B) hinge C) ellipsoid D) gliding E) pivot

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314) In a triaxial articulationA) no movement is possible.B) movement can occur in all three axes.C) movement can occur in only two axes.D) only circumduction is possible.E)movement can occur in only one axis.

315) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a(n) ________ joint.A) hinge B) ellipsoid C) gliding D) pivot E) saddle

316)Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints.A) hingeB) saddleC) ball-and-socketD) glidingE) ellipsoid

317)Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones?A) ball-and-socketB) hingeC) saddleD) glidingE) pivot

318)Which of the following types of joints is monoaxial, but capable of only rotation?A) pivotB) saddleC) glidingD) hingeE) ball-and-socket

319) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint.A) hip B) knee C) shoulder D)wrist E) elbow

320)Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension?A) turning the hand palm upwardB) moving the hand toward the shoulderC) spreading the fingersD) opening the mouthE) extreme bending of the head backwards

321)Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion?A) coracoacromialB) coracohumeralC) acromioclavicularD) coracoclavicularE) glenohumeral

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322) The elbow joint is extremely stable becauseA) the ulna and humerus interlock.B) several muscles support the joint capsule.C) the capsule lacks ligaments.D) the articular capsule is thin.E) the joint lacks bursae.

323) The radiocarpal joint is a(n) ________ joint.A) saddleB) hingeC) ellipsoidD) glidingE) immovable

324) The intercarpal articulations are ________ joints.A) saddleB) ball-and-socketC) glidingD) hingeE) ellipsoid

325) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints.A) ellipsoid B) pivot C) gliding D) hinge E) saddle

326)Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints?A) covered by a capsuleB) freely movableC) covered by a serous membraneD) contain synovial fluidE) lined by a secretory epithelium

327) A herniated intervertebral disc is caused byA) protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.B) loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity.C) transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage.D) slippage of the fibrocartilage disc.E) ossification of the vertebral disc.

328) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint includeA) almost complete bony socket.B) strong muscular padding.C) supporting ligaments.D) tough capsule.E) all of the above

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329) The normal movement of the hip joint during walking involvesA) adduction.B) abduction.C) flexion.D) extension.E) both C and D

330)Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint?A) anterior cruciate ligamentB) iliofemoral ligamentC) ischiofemoral ligamentD) pubofemoral ligamentE) ligamentum teres

331) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisciA) take the place of bursae.B) are found between the patella and femur.C) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.D) act as cushions and conform to the shape of the articulating surfaces.E) both A and D

332) The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are theA) cruciate ligaments.B) popliteal ligaments.C) fat pads.D) lateral menisci.E)medial menisci.

333) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament.A) poplitealB) posterior cruciateC) patellarD) tibial collateralE) anterior cruciate

334) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.A) tibial collateralB) poplitealC) anterior cruciateD) posterior cruciateE) patellar

335) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.A) cruciateB) poplitealC) fibular collateralD) tibial collateralE) patellar

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336) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of thefemoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.A) fibular collateralB) cruciateC) tibial collateralD) patellarE) popliteal

337) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.A) ball-and-socketB) ellipsoidC) saddleD) hingeE) gliding

338) The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions toA) reinforce the joint capsule.B) limit the range of movements.C) allow biaxial movement.D) all of the aboveE) both A and B

339) All of the following statements are true, except one. Identify the exception.A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint.B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particulardirection and strengthen and stabilize the joint.

C) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.D) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint.E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint.

340) Joints can be classified structurally asA) cartilaginous.B) synovial.C) fibrous.D) bony.E) all of the above

341) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones areA) pivot joints.B) condyloid joints.C) hinge joints.D) ellipsoid joints.E) saddle joints.

342) Complete dislocation of the knee is a rare becauseA) the knee is extremely resilient.B) the knee contains seven major ligaments.C) the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee.D) the knee is protected by the patella.E) the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks.

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343)Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction?A) opening the mouthB) extreme bending of the head backwardsC) turning the hand palm upwardD) spreading the fingersE)moving the hand toward the shoulder

344) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is aA) synotosis.B) gomphosis.C) synchondrosis.D) suture.E) none of the above

345) The surface of articular cartilage isA) slick.B) flat.C) smooth.D) rough.E) both A and C

346)Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?A) Friction in the joint increases.B) The exposed surface changes to a rough feltwork.C) The matrix begins to break down.D)Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.E) all of the above

347) Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints.A) hyperextendsB) abductsC) extendsD) flexesE) rotates

348) An extension past the anatomical position is known asA) rotation.B) double jointed.C) extension.D) hyperextension.E) flexion.

349)Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?A) turning the hand palm upwardB) moving the hand toward the shoulderC) extreme bending of the head backwardsD) opening the mouthE) spreading the fingers

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350) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known asA) dorsiflexion.B) inversion.C) eversion.D) plantar flexion.E) none of the above

351)Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes?A) rotationB) inversionC) plantar flexionD) dorsiflexionE) eversion

352) All of the following are structural classifications of synovial joints, except A) saddle. B) gliding. C) hinge. D) pivot. E) rolling.

353)Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?A) ankle B) knee C) wrist D) shoulder E) elbow

354)Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?A) opening the mouthB) spreading the fingersC) extreme bending of the head backwardsD)moving the hand toward the shoulderE) turning the hand palm upward

355) All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints, except A) rotation.B) extension.C) lateral flexion.D) flexion.E) dorsiflexion.

356)Which of the following ligaments assist in stabilization of the shoulder joint?A) coracoacromialB) subscapularisC) coracoclavicularD) all of the aboveE) both A and C

357)Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a rotator cuff injury?A) runnersB) white-water kayakersC) tennis playersD) baseball pitchersE) both B and D

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358) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is theA) radial joint.B) ulnaradial joint.C) humero-ulnar joint.D) ulnar joint.E) humeroradial joint.

359)Which of these is not considered to be an accessory synovial structure?A)menisciB) fat padsC) synovial membraneD) tendonsE) bursae

360) Degenerative changes in a joint can be the result of all of the following, except A) immobilization of the joint.B) bacterial infection.C) mechanical stress.D) bursitis.E) inflammation.

361) Nodding your head "yes" is an example ofA) protraction and retraction.B) pronation and supination.C) flexion and extension.D) lateral and medial rotation.E) circumduction.

362)Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food?A) circumductionB) flexionC) pronationD) abductionE) elevation

363) Lifting a stone with the tip of foot isA) inversion.B) dorsiflexion.C) circumduction.D) plantar flexion.E) eversion.

364)Muscles that extend the elbow attach to theA)medial epicondyle.B) coronoid process.C) radial tuberosity.D) lateral epicondyle.E) olecranon process.

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365) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results inA) flexion of the forearm.B) adduction of the forearm.C) rotation of the shoulder.D) extension of the forearm.E) abduction of the forearm.

366) The joints that are subjected to the greatest load are found in theA) hips. B) knees. C) spine. D) ankles. E) hands.

367) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is toA) dense regular connective tissue.B) rigid cartilaginous bridge.C) fibrous cartilage.D) completely fused.E) periodontal ligament.

368) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to theA) ligaments.B) tendons.C) patella.D) lateral meniscus.E)medial meniscus.

369)Which of these is not a property of articular cartilage?A) enclosed by a capsuleB) smooth, low-friction surfaceC) covered by perichondriumD) similar to hyaline cartilageE) lubricated by synovial fluid

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Figure 9-1 Bones of the Wrist and Hand


370) Identify the type of joint at label "5."A) saddle B) pivot C) hinge D) ellipsoid E) gliding

371) Identify the type of joint at label "4."A) ellipsoid B) hinge C) gliding D) pivot E) saddle

372) Identify the type of joint at label "3."A) pivot B) ellipsoid C) saddle D) gliding E) hinge

373) Identify the type of joint at label "2."A) pivot B) ellipsoid C) gliding D) saddle E) hinge

374) Identify the type of joint at label "1."A) saddle B) gliding C) ellipsoid D) pivot E) hinge

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Figure 9-2 A Simplified Sectional View of the Knee Joint


375) Identify the structure at label "1."A) synovial membraneB) joint cavityC) bursaD) articular cartilageE)meniscus

376)Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrocartilage?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

377)What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"?A) fibrocartilageB) synovial membraneC) bone tissueD) dense connective tissueE) hyaline cartilage

378) Identify the structure labeled "2."A) serous membraneB) joint capsuleC) periosteumD) synovial membraneE) intracapsular ligament

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379) Identify the structure labeled "5."A) intracapsular ligamentB) periosteumC) joint capsuleD) serous membraneE) synovial membrane

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

380) Todd is 13 and lives in an urban apartment. He spends most of his time watching TV and eating "junk" food.One afternoon, during recess, he falls on the playground and breaks his leg. Although he appears to behealthy, his leg takes longer to heal than expected. What might be the cause of the longer healing time?

381) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. A young resident suggests using a devicethat will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the healing process. Why might thispossibly help?

382) During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft?

383)What is the difference between ossification and calcification.?

384)What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.

385)Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitaminD3 deficiency? Explain.

386) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to havesinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the cause of Frank'sdiscomfort?

387) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencingdifficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?

388)What role do the fontanels play in infant development?

389) The structural features and skeletal components of the sternum make it a part of the axial skeleton, which isimportant in a variety of clinical situations. If you were teaching this information to prospective health careprofessionals, what clinical applications would you cite?

390)Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fracturesmore common in cervical vertebrae?

391) Sasha has a chronic sinus infection that she has treated herself. She develops a dangerous infection of thebrain. Explain to her how this happened.

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392) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle-aged men, Joe carries most of this extraweight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his "beer gut." During an annual physical, Joe'sphysician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. Why is the curvature of Joe'sspine changing, and what is this condition called?

393) Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution.

394)What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?

395)Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?

396) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia).What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?

397) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.

398) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?

399)When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?

400)Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?

401) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and stiffness in hershoulder joint. In talking with her, you discover that she has been spending many hours trying to improveher pitching skills for her school's softball team. What is likely causing the pain?

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Answer KeyTestname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE

1) E2) A3) D4) B5) E6) D7) E8) E9) B10) D11) A12) C13) C14) C15) E16) A17) C18) C19) A20) E21) A22) C23) D24) B25) C26) D27) C28) B29) C30) B31) A32) A33) C34) E35) D36) D37) B38) D39) A40) E41) A42) E43) C44) E45) A46) A47) E48) B49) D50) A51) B52) A53) E54) A55) D56) C57) A58) E

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59) E60) C61) E62) A63) B64) B65) E66) E67) B68) E69) D70) E71) E72) A73) C74) A75) B76) C77) E78) A79) B80) B81) E82) D83) B84) D85) B86) E87) D88) E89) E90) C91) A92) A93) B94) B95) A96) E97) C98) E99) B100) A101) D102) C103) A104) E105) E106) C107) C108) D109) D110) A111) B112) E113) C114) D115) D116) B

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117) E118) E119) C120) D121) B122) A123) C124) D125) E126) E127) D128) C129) D130) E131) D132) C133) A134) D135) E136) B137) D138) B139) C140) D141) A142) E143) E144) D145) E146) D147) D148) E149) A150) A151) D152) D153) C154) D155) D156) A157) D158) A159) D160) E161) E162) A163) E164) D165) D166) C167) C168) B169) D170) D171) E172) D173) E174) E

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175) E176) D177) D178) D179) C180) E181) C182) D183) E184) B185) E186) B187) E188) E189) D190) E191) A192) D193) E194) B195) C196) C197) C198) E199) E200) B201) C202) C203) D204) E205) B206) C207) B208) A209) A210) B211) D212) C213) D214) E215) D216) A217) B218) D219) D220) A221) C222) C223) E224) A225) E226) B227) D228) A229) E230) D231) C232) E

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233) B234) B235) C236) D237) A238) A239) E240) A241) E242) B243) D244) E245) D246) D247) D248) B249) D250) A251) D252) C253) B254) C255) A256) A257) A258) D259) A260) C261) B262) D263) C264) C265) B266) E267) A268) B269) E270) A271) C272) E273) A274) C275) C276) C277) D278) D279) C280) E281) C282) E283) A284) D285) D286) A287) E288) D289) C290) B

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291) A292) D293) E294) D295) A296) E297) E298) C299) E300) E301) A302) A303) B304) B305) E306) B307) B308) D309) E310) C311) A312) B313) B314) B315) E316) A317) D318) A319) C320) E321) C322) A323) C324) C325) C326) C327) A328) E329) E330) A331) D332) C333) C334) B335) D336) B337) D338) E339) C340) E341) D342) B343) D344) B345) E346) E347) D348) D

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349) B350) C351) C352) E353) D354) E355) E356) E357) E358) C359) C360) D361) C362) E363) B364) E365) A366) D367) C368) E369) C370) C371) A372) C373) C374) C375) C376) D377) E378) D379) A380) Assuming that there is no other disease process involved, Todd's problem is probably related to his poor diet. Good

nutrition is important for promoting the healing process. Insufficient quantities of protein, vitamin C, vitamin A,and vitamin D would cause the normal healing process to occur at a much slower rate. Todd's inactivity may alsocontribute to his slower rate of healing.

381) Osteoblasts are attracted to electrical fields produced by bone crystals when they are stressed. This is one of thereasons that trabeculae of bones are organized along stress lines. If the same type of electrical field could beduplicated at the site of the fracture, osteoblasts may be stimulated to migrate to the area and increase the rate ofbone production and thus healing of the fracture.

382) The chondrocytes of the epiphyseal cartilage enlarge and divide, increasing the thickness of the cartilage. On theshaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, "chasing" the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft.

383) Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue. Calcification means thedepositing of calcium salts in any tissue, including bone.

384) Osteopenia is a general term for reduced bone mass. Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are forms. Osteoporosis is acondition of reduced bone density, bone weakness, and pain resulting from the loss of mineral from bone withadvancing age. Osteomalacia is bone weakness caused by insufficient calcium deposits. It is known as rickets in theyoung.

385) A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract, leading toa shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the decrease in blood calcium would trigger therelease of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintainproper calcium levels in the blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggeredby high blood calcium levels.

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386) Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. In a deviated septum the cartilaginousportion of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. This condition often blocks the drainage of one or moresinuses with resulting sinus headaches, infections, and sinusitis.

387) Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity,which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) becauseof pain when the ribs are moved.

388) These fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a newborn infant. As the braingrows, the skull bones can move apart and allow for brain growth without interfering with nervous systemdevelopment and function. If they are prematurely ossified, brain development is restricted, leading to skulldeformity and mental retardation. This condition is called craniostenosis

389) Because it is accessible, the body of the sternum is often sampled for red bone marrow. The xiphoid process isuseful landmark in CPR; this part of the sternum is easily broken, because its only attachment is superior, to thesternum. A broken xiphoid process can cause injury to nearby organs.

390) The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors contribute to the rupturing of anintervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies; these factors increase thepossibility of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae.

391) The paranasal sinuses in the frontal bone are only a few millimeters of bone away from the cranial cavity. Chronicinfection has permitted the bone to be eroded and penetrated, introducing bacteria into the brain case.

392) The curvature of the spine is changing as a result of the heavy abdomen pulling on the anterior cavity. This extraweight causes abnormal spinal curvature to compensate for balance. The condition is called lordosis because itseffects are prevalent in the lumbar region.

393) The arches absorb shock as weight distribution shifts during movements. The longitudinal arch absorbs most of theshock of steps, while the transverse arch distributes the weight evenly.

394) The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base ofthe sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. The false pelvis consists of theexpanded, bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim.

395) The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body whereas the pectoral girdle onlysupports the upper limbs.

396) You could feel the inferior iliac notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur. You could feel the medialmalleolus of the tibia at the ankle.

397) These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, wider andmore circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project fartherlaterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum.

398) Osteoarthritis is a "wear-and-tear" disease seen usually in the elderly. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmunedisease in which the body's immune system attacks synovial joints, triggered by an infection or some other cause.

399) The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes the ulna torotate around the distal humerus, causing extension of the forearm.

400) The anterior, superior, and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by ligaments, muscles, andtendons, but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. As a result, a dislocation caused by an impact or a violentmuscle contraction is most likely to occur at this site. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and theglenoid labrum.

401) Her pain is probably caused by injury to the rotator cuff, which can result from repetitive motion, trauma, orexcessive force. The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of four muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. If torn,surgical repair may be indicated.

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