BPSCNotes Mock Test-8 · A)Shiksha- Phonetics B) Kalpa- Rituals and ceremonies C)Vyakarana - Grammar D)Nirukta – Metrics E) None of the above/ More than one of the above. Correct

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QUESTIONS RESPONSES 16 Total points:

No negative marking

/ 1

A) Manda: Chenab River

B) Sutkagendor : Dasht River

C) Daimabad : Pravara River

D) Alamgirpur : Hindon River

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer


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Ans-E) None (i.e, All are correctly matched)Exp: Northernmost site of IVC: Manda (Chenab River)Southernmost site of IVC: Daimabad (Pravara River)Easternmost site of IVC: Alamgirpur (Hundon river)Western-most site of IVC: Sutkagendor (Dasht River)

1. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 0


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A) Great Granary

B) Ploughed Field

C) Human skeleton huddled together

D) Mesopotamium seals


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Ans-BExp:=> Mohenjo-Daro (meaning Mound of Dead):1. Excavated by RD Bannerji in 1922.

2. Situated on the Bank of river Indus in Larkana district of Punjab (Pakistan).

3. Great Bath, Collegiate Building and the Assembly Hall are the special features of the site.

4. Pashupati Mahadeva (Proto Shiva) seal, great grenary, human skeleton huddled together, dice andfragment of woven cotton have been excavated.

=> Kalibanga (Black Bangles), Rajasthan:1. Excavated by BB Lal in 1961.

2. Situated on the bank of river Ghaggar

3. Evidence of ploughed Yeld, wooden furrow, seven Yre-altars, bones of camel and two types ofburials (Circular grave and rectangular grave) have been found.

2. Which one of the following was not found at Mohenjodaro? 1


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A) Chinese Civilization

B) Turkish Civilization

C) Mesopotamia

D) Egypt Civilization


Correct answer

B) Turkish Civilization

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Ans-(B) Turkish Civilization

3. Which of the following civilizations is not the contemporarycivilization of Indus Valley Civilization?

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A) Rigveda

B) Samaveda

C) Yajurveda

D) Atharvaveda


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Ans-AExp: The 10th Mandal of Rigveda contains Purusha Sukta which explains the 4 Varnas

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A) Rigveda

B) Samaveda

C) Yajurveda

D) Atharvaveda


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Ans-AExp:Third Mandal of Rigveda contains the Gayatri Mantra which was compiled in the praise of sun godSavitri.

4. Which of the following Vedic literature where the Varnasystem was discussed?

1


5. Which of the following Vedic literature contains GayatriMantra?

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A)Shiksha- Phonetics

B) Kalpa- Rituals and ceremonies

C)Vyakarana - Grammar

D)Nirukta – Metrics


Correct answer

D)Nirukta – Metrics

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Ans-DThe Vedanga are six auxiliary disciplines in Vedic culture are as:

(A)Shiksha- Phonetics (B) Kalpa- Rituals and ceremonies(C)Vyakarana - Grammar(D)Nirukta – Etymology (Origin of words)(E)Chhanda – Metrics(F)Jyotisha- Astronomy

6. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 0


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A) Adi Parva

B) Karna Parva

C) Bhishma Parva

D) Shanti Parva


Correct answer

C) Bhishma Parva

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Ans-CThe Yrst part of the great battle, with Bhishma as commander for the Kaurava and his fall on the bedof arrows. (Includes the Bhagavad Gita in chapters 25-42)

7. Bhagavad Gita is extracted from which Parva ofMahabharata?

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A) Satudri

B) Kubha

C) Gomati

D) Parushni


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Ans-DThe Battle of the Ten Kings is a battle alluded to in the Rigveda, the ancient Indian sacred collectionof Vedic Sanskrit hymns. The battle took place during the middle or main Rigvedic period, near theParushni (Ravi) River in Punjab.

8. The Dasrajan War was fought on the bank of which river? 1


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A) Akshavapa : Courier

B) Suta : Treasurer

C) Bhagadudha : Tax Collector

D) Khasttri: Chamerlain


Correct answer

B) Suta : Treasurer

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Ans-BExp:B) Suta/ Sarathi: Royal herald or charioteer

9. Which of the following civil functionaries of Later VedicPeriod is not correctly matched?

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A) Jabala Upanishad

B) Aitareya Brahamana

C) Maitrayani Samhita

D) Vrihadarnyaka Upanishada


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Ans-(A) Jabala UpanishadaIn Jabala Upanishad, there is a clear reference of four Ashrams i.e. Brahmachari, Grihastha,Vanaprastha and Sanyasi.

10. The earliest reference to the 4 Ashramas (the stages of Life)is found in ________ .

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A) Brahma Vivaha

B) Daiva Vivaha

C) Gandharva Vivaha

D) Asura Vivaha


Correct answer

B) Daiva Vivaha

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Ans-BTypes of Marriages in later Vedic Ages:

Brahma Vivah=> Marriage of a girl with the boy of same Varna with Vedic rites and rituals

Daiva Vivah=> When father donated his daughter to a priest as a part of Dakshina.

Arsa Vivah=> A token bride-price of a Cow and a Bull was given

Prajapati Vivah=> Marriage without dowry Gandharva Vivah=> It was a kind of love marriage or swyamavara type

Asura Vivah=> Marriage by PurchasePaisach Vivah=> Seduction of a girl while sleeping or mentally unstable due to a drinkRakshasha Vivah=> Marriage by abduction

11. Giving the girl to the priest himself in lieu of his fees wascalled ________ Vivaha during Later Vedic Period.

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A) Ajatashatru

B) Bimbisara

C) Udayin

D) Mahapadma


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Ans-C

Haryanka Dynasty (544 BC- 492 BC):=> Bimbisara

Founded the dynastyExpanded the dynasty (Magadha Kingdom) by annexing Anga and entering into matrimonial allianceswith Kosal and Vaishali.He was contemporary of BuddhaCapital City was Rajgir (Girivraja)

=> Ajatashatru

He killed his father and seized the throne

Built the fort of Rajagriha and a watch-fort (Jaladurga) on the bank of Ganga

=> Udayin

Laid the foundation of Patliputra at the conduence of the Son and Ganga

12. Who laid the foundation of the city of Patliputra? 1


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A) Gautami

B) Alara Kalama

C) Rahul

D) Sujata


Correct answer


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Ans-E) NoneGautami: Siddhartha was brought up by his mother's younger sister, Mahaprajapati GautamiAlara Kalama: His Yrst teacherRahul: his sonSujata: In a famous incident, after becoming starved and weakened, he is said to have accepted milkand rice pudding from a village girl named Sujata

13. Which of the following persons was not related to the life ofBuddha?

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A) Venaya pitakas

B) Sutta pitakas

C) Abhidhamma pitakas

D) Jatakas


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Ans-D

The Jātaka tales are a voluminous body of literature native to India concerning the previous births ofGautama Buddha in both human and animal form. The future Buddha may appear as a king, anoutcast, a god, an elephant—but, in whatever form, he exhibits some virtue that the tale therebyinculcates.

14. The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the storiesof the various births of Buddha is-

1


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A) Rishabha

B) Mahavira

C) Ajitnath

D) Arishtanemi


Correct answer


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Ans-E) More than oneExp: Both options (A) & (D) are correct.

15. The name of which Jain Tirthankara is found in the RigVeda?

0


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A) Alexander Cunningham

B)James Princep

C)Max Muller

D)Mortimer Wheeler


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Ans-B) James PrincepExplanation: James Princep (1799-1840) was an English scholar, orientalist and antiquary. He wasthe founding editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and is best remembered fordeciphering the Kharosthi and Brahmi scripts of ancient India. He was the Yrst to decipher theinscriptions of Ashoka and the Brahmi script.

16. The inscriptions of Ashoka and the Brahmi script weredeciphered by ___ .

1


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A) Sannidhatri

B) Pradeshta

C) Yukta

D) Samahatra


Correct answer

D) Samahatra

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Ans-D) SamahatraExplanation: Mauryan administration: Samaharta – chancellor of the exchequer; responsible for thecollection of revenue. The Revenue Department had Samharta who was incharge of the collection ofall revenues in the empire

17. In the revenue department of Mauryas, who among thefollowing was in-charge of the collection of all revenues in theempire?

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A) Mauryan Period

B) Sunga Period

C) Satavahana Period

D) Sakas


Correct answer

B) Sunga Period

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Ans-B

Pushyamitra Sunga was a Brahmin army chief of Brihadratha, the last king of the Mauryas.Pushyamitra Sunga’s capital was at Pataliputra.He followed Brahminism. Some accounts portray him as a persecutor of Buddhists and a destroyerof stupas but there has been no authoritative evidence to this claim.During his reign, the Stupas at Sanchi and Barhut were renovated. He built the sculptured stonegateway at Sanchi.He performed Vedic sacriYces such as Ashvamedha, Rajasuya and Vajapeya.Pushyamitra Sunga patronised the Sanskrit grammarian Patanjali.

18. The jne gateway railing which surrounds the Sanchi Stupa ,built by Ashoka, constructed during whose period?

0


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A) Muizuddin Muhammad Ghori

B) Ikhtiyaruddin Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khilji

C) Mahmud Ghazni

D) Qutubuddin Aibak


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Ans-B

According to the records Nalanda University was destroyed three times by invaders, but rebuilt onlytwice. The Yrst destruction was caused by the Huns under Mihirakula during the reign ofSkandagupta (455–467 AD). But Skanda’s successors restored the library and improved it with aneven bigger building.

The second destruction came in the early 7th century by the Gaudas. This time, the Buddhist kingHarshavardhana (606–648 AD) restored the university.

The third and most destructive attack came when the ancient Nalanda University was destroyed bythe Muslim army led by the Turkish leader Bakhtiyar Khilji in 1193. It is believed that Buddhism as amajor religion in India had a setback for hundreds of years due to the loss of the religious textsduring the attack. And, since then, the NU has not been restored until the recent developments.

19. Who destroyed the Nalanda University in 1193 AD and burntit down?

1


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A) Tairave

B) Karamai

C) Pandu

D) Karai


Correct answer

D) Karai

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Ans-D

The commonest and possibly the largest source of revenue was land-tax called Karai, but the shareof the agricultural proudce, claimed and collected by the king,is not speciYed. The ma and veli wasthe measure of land and kalam as measure of grain. A well-known unit of territory yielding tax was avariyam (Vari meant tax) and an omcer in-charge of collecting the tax from that unit of land wascalled a Variyar.

Tributes paid by the feudatories and war booty (irai) constituted a considerable part of royalresources. Trade local and long-distance, constituted a very important source of royal revenue. Tollsand custom duties were ulgu or sungum. The duties to be paid to the king were generally known asKadamai or Paduvadu.

20. What was the term used for land tax during Sangam Age? 0


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A) Kural

B) Tolkappiyam

C) Silappadikaram

D) Manimekalai


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Ans-AThe Tirukkural or Thirukkural ( literally Sacred Verses), or shortly the Kural, is a classic Tamil textconsisting of 1,330 couplets or Kurals, dealing with the everyday virtues of an individual. Consideredone of the greatest works ever written on ethics and morality, chiedy secular ethics, it is known for itsuniversality and non-denominational nature. It was authored by Valluvar, also known in full asThiruvalluvar.

Tirukkural by Tiruvalluvar known as the Bible of Tamil Land’, it is a compound of the Dharmasastra,the Arthasastra and the Kamasutra

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A) Guptas,

B) Cholas,

C) Mauryas,

D) Mughals


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Ans-A) Gupta Period

21. Which of the following is called 'The Bible of Tamil Land'? 1


22. Aryabhatta and Varahmihira belong to which age— 1


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A) Chandragupta I

B) Chandragupta II

C) Samudragupta

D) Kumaragupta


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Ans-BFa-hien, a Chinese pilgrim, visited India during the reign of Chandra Gupta II

23. During which Gupta king’s reign did the Chinese travelerFahien visit India?

1


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A) Nagananda

B) Ratnavali

C) Harshacharita

D) Priyadarsika


Correct answer

C) Harshacharita

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Ans-CHarshacharita was written by Banabhatta

24. Which of the following Sanskrit plays was not written byHarshavardhan?

0


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A) Qutubuddin Aibak

B) Iltutmish

C) Razia Sultan

D) Ghiyasuddin Balban


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Ans-BIltutmish introduced Silver Tanka and Copper Jital , the two coins of the Delhi Sultanate. The coinsprior to Iltutmish were introduced by the invaders which bear the Sanskrit characters and even Bulland Shivalinga. Iltutmish was the Yrst to introduce a “Pure Arabic Coin” in India.

25. The jrst Silver Tanka of Delhi Sultanate was issued by- 1


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(a) Chandrabhana

(b) Hindmoon

(c) Vikram

(d) Chandrasara

(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: c

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will have an year-long Vikram Sarabhai centenarycelebration starting in August 2019 to honour the visionary scientist and legendary founding father.Sarabhai, the architect of the Indian space programme, the Yrst ISRO chief and renowned cosmic rayscientist, was born on August 12, 1919. ISRO’s tributes to Sarabhai start with naming the Yrst Indianmoon landing spacecraft of the Chandrayaan-2 mission ‘Vikram’. The mission is planned for early2019.

26. What is the name given to the lander of second moonmission of India, which will be India’s jrst moon landingmission?

1


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(a) Operation Rahat

(b) Operation Insaniyat

(c) Operation Manawata

(d) Operation Madad


Correct answer

(d) Operation Madad

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Answer: d

27. Which operation was undertaken by the South NavalCommand for relief from noods in different parts of Kerala?

0


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(a) 61st

(b) 57th

(c) 31st

(d) 71st


Correct answer

(b) 57th

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Ans-BIndia's rank on the Global Innovation Index (GII) has improved from 60 in 2017 to 57 in 2018

28. What is India’s ranking in the Global Innovation Index 2018? 0


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(a) PARYAVARAN

(b) PARIVESH

(c) SULABH

(d) SUGAM


Correct answer

(b) PARIVESH

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Ans-BOn the occasion of World Biofuel Day 2018, Prime Minister launched web portal PARIVESH, a singlewindow for environmental, wildlife, forest and Coastal Regulation Zone clearances. He also releaseda book on National Biofuel Policy 2018.

29. What is the name of a single window web portal forenvironmental, wildlife, forest and coastal zone clearancelaunched by the Prime Minister on August 10?

0


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(a) Bangalore

(b) Anmedabad

(c) Pune

(d) Amravati


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Ans-DAndhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu unveiled what is being claimed as the world’sYrst indigenously made high energy storage device developed by the Bharat Energy StorageTechnology Private Limited in Amaravati on August 6

30. Where was the world’s jrst ingeniously made high energystorage device unveiled on August 6, 2018?

1


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(a) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(b) Union Ministry of Environment

(c) Ministry of Culture

(d) Ministry of Water Resources Development


Correct answer

(c) Ministry of Culture

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Answer: c

Project ‘Mausam’ is theinitiative of Ministry of Culture to be implemented by the ArchaeologicalSurveyof India (ASI) as the nodal agency with research support of the Indira Gandhi National Centrefor the Arts (IGNCA) and National Museum asassociate bodies. This project aims to explore themulti-faceted Indian Ocean ‘world’ — collating archaeological and historical research in order todocument the diversity of cultural, commercial and religious interactions in the Indian Ocean. Themain objective of theproject is to inscribe places andsites identiYed under Project Mausam astrans-national nominationfor inscription on UNESCO’s World Heritage List.

31. Project Mausam, which was recently in the news, is theinitiative of:

0


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(a) Maharashtra

(b) Kerala

(c) Goa

(d) Andhra Pradesh


Correct answer

(d) Andhra Pradesh

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Answer: d

Andhra Pradesh has emerged the “front-runner” in the Yeld of energy emciency according to theStates’ Energy Emciency Preparedness Index (SEEPI) released by the Bureau of Energy Emciency(BEE) and NITI Aayog. The World Bank has already ranked A.P. No. 1 in Energy EmciencyImplementation Readiness

32. Which state has got the highest ranking in the Bureau ofEnergy Eociency and NITI Aayog’s ‘State Energy EociencyPreparedness Index’ 2018 (SEEPI)?

0


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(a) Cambodia

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) Indonesia

(d) Thailand


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Ans-D

Exercise Maitree is a joint military exercise between Indian Army and Royal Thai Army which is beingconducted from 06 to 19 August 2018 in Thailand. It is a platoon level exercise which comprises ofinfantry component. The opening ceremony started with familiarization of organisation and displayof weapons & equipment of both armies.

33. With which country did India’s joint military exercise‘Maitree’ started on 6th August?

1


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(a) Ministry of Rural Development

(b) Ministry of Road Transport

(c) Union Finance Ministry

(d) Ministry of Women and Child Development


Correct answer

(b) Ministry of Road Transport

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Ans-B

The Minister for Road Transport & Highways, Shipping, Water Resources, River Development andGanga Rejuvenation Shri Nitin Gadkari launched Bidder Information Management System (BIMS) andBhoomi Rashi and PFMS linkage — two IT initiatives of the Road Transport & Highways Ministry thatare aimed at expediting pre constructionprocesses relating to bidding and land acquisition respectively. BIMS is aimed at streamlining theprocess of pre-qualiYcation of bidders for EPC Mode of contracts for National Highway works withenhanced transparency and objectivity. Bhoomi Rashi, the portal developed by MoRTH and NIC,comprises the entire revenue data of the country, right down to 6.4 lakh villages.

34. Which Ministry recently launched a ‘Bhoomi Rashi’ portal? 0


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(a) Widow Ashram located in Vrindavan

(b) Free food huts in Varanasi

(c) Low cost ashram fortourists

(d) New orphanage in Mathura


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Ans-AThe Minister for Women & Child Development, Smt Maneka Sanjay Gandhi, alongwith Chief Ministerof Uttar Pradesh, Shri Adityanath Yogi today inaugurated the widows’ home ‘Krishna Kutir’ at afunction at Vrindavan, Mathura, Uttar Pradesh

35. What is ‘Krishna Kutir’ established by the Ministry of Womenand Child Development?

1


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(a) Karnataka

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Madhya Pradesh


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Ans-a

The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) — which has proposed to the Karnatakagovernment tolift the ban on night tramc through Bandipur. A report submitted by theChamarajanagar police to the NTCA pointed to the fact that before the introduction of the ban onnight tramc through Bandipur, there were 23 accident deaths in the core zone between 2004 and2009. This declined to seven between 2010 and 2017 and all of them were on the stretch fromMaddur to Moolehole gate leading to Wayanad during the daytime

36. : The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)has proposed to lift the ban on night traoc through BandipurTiger Reserve. In which state is this Tiger Reserve located?

1


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(a) 300,000

(b) 500,000

(c) 10,000,00

(d) 20,000,00


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Answer: a

WHO lauds India’s commitment to accelerated coverage of safe sanitation services which, assuming100% coverage is achieved by October 2019, could avert up to 300 000 deaths due to diarrhealdisease and protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) since the country launched the Swacchh BharatMission in 2014

37. According to the World Health Organization, how many livescan be saved in India by achieving the goal of Swacchh BharatMission by October 2019?

1


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(a) Powerloom

(b) Child malnutrition

(c) Enrollment in schools

(d) Clean Drinking Water Supply


Correct answer

(a) Powerloom

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Ans-AUnion Ministry of Textiles and Union Ministry of Power have joined hands under the initiative SAATHI(Sustainable and Accelerated Adoption of emcient Textile technologies to Help Small Industries) inorder to sustain and accelerate the adoption of energy emcient textile technologies in the powerloomsector and cost savings due to use of such technology.

38. Recently two Union Ministries have joined hands under theinitiative SAATHI for the development of:

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(a) Bihar

(b) Punjab

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Rajasthan


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Ans-d)Rajasthan has become the Yrst State in the country to implement the national policy on bio-fuelsunveiled by the Centre in May this year. The desert State will lay emphasis on increasing productionof oil seeds and establish a Centre for Excellence in Udaipur to promote research in the Yelds ofalternative fuels and energy resources

39. Which is the jrst state of the country to implement nationalbio-fuels policy announced in May 2018 by the CentralGovernment?

1


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(a) Amartya Sen

(b) Gopal Krishna Gandhi

(c) Aruna Roy

(d) Harsh Mandir


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Answer: b

Former West Bengal Governor Gopal krishna Gandhi has been chosen for this year’s Rajiv GandhiSadbhavana Award for promoting communal harmony and peace. The award carries a citation and acash award of Rs. 10 lakh.

40. Who has been chosen for this year’s Rajiv GandhiSadbhavana Award for promoting communal harmony andpeace?

1


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A) 3000 km

B) 4000 km

C) 5000 km

D) 6000 km


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Ans-C

India successfully tested its long range surface-to-surface ballistic missile, Agni-5, for its full rangefrom Dr Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha. The nuclear-capable intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM)has a strike range of 5,000 km, which can cover most of China.

The missile will eventually be inducted into the tri-service, Strategic Forces Command, whichmanages India’s nuclear arsenal. With the Agni-5, India will become part of a small group ofcountries having ICBMs (range of 5,000-5,500 km) — only the US, China, Russia and France areknown to have ICBMs.

41. India successfully test-jred its indigenously developednuclear capable long range ballistic missile Agni-5 with a strikerange of ______ km.

1


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A) Harikrishna

B) P. Karthikeyan

C) Saptarshi Roy

D) R. Praggnanandhaa


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Ans-D

As per the latest data of the World Chess Federation; the total numbers of chess Grandmasters inIndia are 50. World popular chess player Mr. Viswanathan Anand was the Yrst Grandmaster in India.As on june 2018, at the age of 12 year and 10 months, R. Praggnanandhaa is the youngestGrandmaster of India. As of now Russia has highest number of GM i.e.240, USA 94, Germany 91 andUkraine 89

42. __________ has become India's youngest and world's secondyoungest Grandmaster.

1


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A) Delhi - Chandigarh

B) Mumbai-Pune

C) Pune- Indore

D) Delhi-Meerut


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Ans-DDelhi–Meerut Expressway is India's widest 96 km long controlled-access expressway, connectingDelhi with Meerut via Dasna in Ghaziabad in India. The 8 lanes old stretch of National Highway 24 upto Uttar Pradesh Gate is widened to 14 lanes, the road between UP Gate and Dasna will be also befourteen-laned.

43. India's jrst 14 lane expressway has been constructedbetween-

1


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(a) Family Planning is the need of the hour

(b) Family Planning is a Human right

(c) Family Planning and Sustainable Goals

(d) The right to family planning


Correct answer

(b) Family Planning is a Human right

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Ans-bThe World Population Day is a United Nations' initiative celebrated on the 11th of July every year.This day aims at spreading awareness about the exploding world population and the importance ofreproductive health. World Population Day 2018 observes the theme, "Family planning is a humanright."

44. What was the theme of World Population Day that wascelebrated on 11th July 2018?

0


/ 1

(a) Gujarat

(b) Telangana

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Tamil Nadu


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Ans-A

Gujarat becomes third state to recognize Jews, which entitles them to a raft of welfare beneYts forreligious minority communities.

Maharashtra and West Bengal are the other states that have granted minority status to their Jewishcommunities

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(a) Noida

(b) Gandhinagar

(c) Gurugram

(d) Pune


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Ans-A) Noida

45. Recently, which state government has given religiousminority status to its Jewish Community?

1


46. At which of the following places has Samsung opened theworld’s largest mobile factory?

1


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(a) Ahmedabad, Gujarat

(b) Ranchi, Jharkhand

(c) Surat, Gujarat

(d) Leh, Jammu and Kashmir


Correct answer

(d) Leh, Jammu and Kashmir

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Ans-dThe Yrst-ever metal craft exhibition was held in Chilling village, Leh.Main Aim is To promote andpreserve the metal craft tradition of Ladakh.The maiden exhibition, organised by the Youth Association for Conservation and Development HemisHigh Altitude National Park, in collaboration with Heritage Home Chilling, showcased the indigenouscraft to the visitors.

47. The jrst-ever metal craft exhibition was held in the Chillingvillage of _____ .

0


/ 1

(a) New Delhi

(b) Mumbai

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Chennai


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Ans-A) New Delhi

Archaeological Survey of India(Governing body of protected sites)

Founder: Alexander CunninghamFounded: 1861Headquarters: New DelhiParent organisation: Ministry of Culture, Government of India

48. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated ‘DharoharBhawan’, the new Headquarters building of the ArchaeologicalSurvey of India (ASI) in which city?

1


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(a) Healthy Breathing

(b) Breathe India

(c) Pure Breathing

(d) Healthy Breathing


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Ans-BA WHO report in May this year listed 14 Indian cities among 20 most polluted cities of the world.Now, Niti Aayoga has come up with an action plan for the government to Yght air pollution.Highlighting that Yve most polluted cities of the world are in India, Niti Aayog has proposed a 15-point formula to combat air pollution. Titled, Breathe India, the Niti Aayog action plan seeks"concerted action from all levels of governance". It has cited a WHO report to state that Kanpur,Faridabad, Gaya, Varanasi and Patna are most polluted cities in the world.

49. Niti Aayog has proposed a 15-point action plan named“_____” for combating air pollution in ten most polluted cities inIndia?

1


/ 1

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Telangana

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Karnataka


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Ans-b) Telangana

50. The Botanical Garden in Kothaguda reserve forest was re-launched after renovation in which state?

1


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(a) Bihar

(b) Gujarat

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Assam


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Ans-AWith the launch of cost-effective innovative water project, Bihar will soon provide the cheapestdrinking water in the world.

The Yrst of such a water project was launched in Bihar's Darbhanga district on Saturday, by SulabhInternational, an organisation that introduced the concept of 'Sulabh Sauchalya' in the country.With the help of this project, the people will easily be able to get pure and clean water only in50paisa/litre.

The 'Sulabh Jal' project converts contaminated pond and river water into safe drinking water

51. ‘Sulabh Jal’, the jrst of world’s cheapest drinking waterproject was launched by Sulabh International in which state?

1


/ 1

(a) China

(b) Pakistan

(c) India

(d) Russia


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Ans-DFor the Yrst time, the militaries of India and Pakistan took part in a mega anti-terror drill of theShanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) in Russia aimed at expanding cooperation among themember countries to deal with the growing menace of terrorism and extremism.

India participated in the drill for the Yrst time since becoming a full member of the SCO in June 2017.As part of the SCO initiatives, the SCO Peace Mission Exercise is conducted biennially for the SCOmember states.

52. Militaries of India and Pakistan will be part of a mega anti-terror drill in _____ in August which is being organized by theShanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?

1


/ 1

(a) 18th

(b) 22nd

(c) 21st

(d) 25th


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Ans-CThe 2018 FIFA World Cup was the 21st FIFA World Cup, an international football tournamentcontested by the men's national teams of the member associations of FIFA once every four years. Ittook place in Russia from 14 June to 15 July 2018

53. FIFA 2018 was the _____ edition of the international footballtournament?

1


/ 1

(a) Kathmandu, Nepal

(b) Dhaka, Bangladesh

(c) Colombo, Sri Lanka

(d) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia


Correct answer

(b) Dhaka, Bangladesh

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Ans-BIndia inaugurated its largest visa centre in the world in the Bangladeshi capital on Saturday to reducethe waiting time for applicants.

Bangladeshis constitute one of the largest number of visitors from a single country to India.

54. Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the largestIndian visa center in the world in _____.

0


/ 1

(a) Delhi

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Karnataka

(d) Bihar


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Ans-DState-funded shelter homes for women and children in Bihar may get transgender security guards asthe government has instructed the authorities to prefer them during recruitment. The instructionfollowed allegations of sexual exploitation of inmates in some of the state's shelter homes in therecent past.

55. Which state has given priority to deploy transgender securityguards in its shelter homes?

1


/ 1

(a) Electron and proton

(b) Electron and neutron

(c) Proton and neutron

(d) Proton, neutron and electron


Correct answer

(c) Proton and neutron

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Ans.(c)The constituents of an atom are protons, neutrons and electrons. The protons and neutrons andneutrons (nucleons) are found in the nucleus of atoms. The nucleus of an atom in surrounded byelectrons.

56. Constituents of atomic nucleus are: 0


/ 1

(a) Rutherford

(b) Dalton

(c) Einstein

(d) Thompson


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Ans.(a)The nucleus is a very dense region consisting of protons and neutrons at the centre of an atom. Itwas discovered in 1911 as a result of Ernest Rutherford’s interpretation of the 1909 Geiger-Marsdengold foil experiment. The proton-neutron model of the nucleus was proposed by Dmitri Ivanenko in1932.

57. The atomic nucleus was discovered by: 1


/ 1

(a) Two protons

(b) An atom of helium

(c) Sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons

(d) Two positrons are each positron carries a single positive charge


Correct answer

(b) An atom of helium

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Ans.(b)An alpha particle is a fast moving particle containing two protons and two neutrons (a Heliumnucleus). Alpha particles carry a charge of +2 and strongly interact with matter. Produced duringalpha decay, alpha particles can travel only a few inches through the air and can be easily stoppedwith a sheet of paper.

58. The alpha particle carries two positive charges. Its mass isvery nearly equal to that of

0


/ 1

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8


Correct answer

(b) 4

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Ans.(b)The mass number of an elements is the sum of a total number of protons and neutrons inside in itsnucleus and represents by A. Therefore, mass number A = number of proton + number of neutron.Therefore, mass number = 2 + 2 = 4

59. What is the mass number of an element, the atom of whichcontains two protons, two neutrons and two electrons?

0


/ 1

(a) Total internal renection

(b) Refraction

(c) Scattering

(d) Interference


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Ans.(a)The optical Ybre is a very him strand of glass or plastic cable for transmitting light from one point toanother. They work on the principle of total internal redection. There is no loss of signal through anoptical Ybre.

/ 1

(a) Audiography

(b) Lexieography

(c) Photography

(d) Holography


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Ans.(d)Holography is a technique of producing a three-dimensional image of an object.

60. Optical jbre works on the principle of: 1


61. The technique to integrate and mark the image of a three-Dimensional object is-

1


/ 1

(a) convex lens

(b) concave lens

(c) plano-convex lens

(d) plano-concave lens


Correct answer

(b) concave lens

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Ans.(b)Myopia is the term used to deYne being shortsighted.It can be corrected by using concave lens.

62. Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use- 0


/ 1

(a) Sulphonic acid

(b) Sulfenic acid

(c) Amino acid

(d) Carbolic acid


Correct answer

(b) Sulfenic acid

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Ans.(b)Peeling, cutting or crushing an onion’s tissue releases enzyme called alliinases which convert thesemolecules to sulfenic acids. The sulfenic acid in turn, spontaneously rearranges to form syn-propanethial-s-oxide, the chemical that triggers the tears.

63. Peeling of onions causes tears as onions release- 0


/ 1

(a) Egg

(b) Larva

(c) Pupa

(d) Imago


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Ans.(c)The silkworm produces the silk of commercial importance in pupa stage of its life cycle. The egg isthe Yrst stage of a silkworm’s life cycle. The larva is the vegetative stage where growth takes place.In pupa stage, as the silkworm prepares to pupate, it spins a protection cocoon. About the size andcolour of a cotton ball, the cocoon is constructed from one continuous strand of silk perhaps 1.5 kmlong. The silk cocoon serves as protection for the pupa. Cocoon is the stage in which the larva spinssilk thread around it and Imago is the adult stage which completes the life cycle of a silk worm

64. At which stage in its life cycle, does the silkworm yield thejbre of commerce?

1


/ 1

(a) Nuclear Fission

(b) Nuclear Fusion

(c) Oxidation Reactions

(d) Reduction Reactions


Correct answer

(b) Nuclear Fusion

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Ans.(b)The Sun produces energy by the nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium in its core. Since there is ahuge amount of hydrogen in the core, these atoms stick together and fuse into a helium atom. Thisenergy is then radiated out from the core and moves across the solar system. This is the mainsource of energy for the sun and stars. Besides that the gravitational contraction in stars is also thesource of their energy.

65. The energy of sun is released due to- 0


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(a) Ozone

(b) Carbon monoxide

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Water vapour


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Ans-cCarbon dioxide (CO2). Accounts for around three-quarters of the warming impact of current humangreenhouse-gas emissions. The key source of CO2 is the burning of fossil fuels such as coal, oil andgas, though deforestation is also a very signiYcant contributor

66. Which one of the following contributes largely to the‘greenhouse effect’ ?

1


/ 1

(a) Mercury

(b) Bromine

(c) Water

(d) Alcohol


Correct answer

(b) Bromine

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Ans-bSeventeen elements are generally classiYed as nonmetals; most are gases (hydrogen, helium,nitrogen, oxygen, duorine, neon, chlorine, argon, krypton, xenon and radon); one is a liquid (bromine),and a few are solids (carbon, phosphorus, sulfur, selenium, and iodine).

67. Which among the following is liquid non-metal at roomtemp.?

0


/ 1

(a) Resonance

(b) Reverberation

(c) Echo

(d) Total Internal Renection


Correct answer

(c) Echo

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Ans-C

Both radar and sonar locate objects from the echo of a signal that is bounced off the object. Radaruses radio waves, which are a type of electromagnetic energy. Sonar uses the echo principle bysending out sound waves underwater or through the human body to locate objects.

68. SONAR is based on the principle of - 0


/ 1

A) Pivot joint

B) Fixed joint

C) Ball and Socket joint

D) Hinge joint


Correct answer

C) Ball and Socket joint

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Ans-CA ball and socket joint (enarthrosis, spheroidal joint) is a joint in which the ball-shaped surface of abone Yts into the cup-like indentation of another bone. This type of joint allows the bone to move in a360° angle—with more freedom than other joints.

69. The joint which helps in rotating a body in all directions iscalled _______

0


/ 1

A) reproduction

B) digestion

C) respiration

D) excretion


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Ans-(D) excretion

/ 1

A) lunar

B) solar

C) shadow

D) equinox


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Ans-A) lunar

70. Living organisms throw body wastes from its bodies by aprocess called ________.

1


71. A _______ eclipse occurs when earth comes between sunand moon in a straight line.

1


/ 1

A) one third

B) two third

C) half

D) three fourth


Correct answer

B) two third

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Ans-BThe oceans and seas cover almost two-thirds of the Earth's surface, absorb 80 percent of allradiation coming from the sun, and contain nearly 97 percent of the Earth's water.

72. Oceans and seas cover _______ of the earth. 0


/ 1

A) recycling

B) landjlling

C) composting

D) vermicomposting


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Ans-D

Vermicompost is the product of the composting process using various species of worms, usually redwigglers, white worms, and other earthworms, to create a mixture of decomposing vegetable or foodwaste, bedding materials, and vermicast. Vermicast is the end-product of the breakdown of organicmatter by earthworms.

73. The method of preparing compost with the help of redworms is called ____________.

1


/ 1

A) root hair

B) stomata

C) leaf veins

D) sepals


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Ans-B

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria and some protistans use the energyfrom sunlight to produce glucose from carbon dioxide and water. This glucose can be converted intopyruvate which releases adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by cellular respiration. Oxygen is also formed.During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is taken in from the atmosphere through the stomata andoxygen is released as a waste product.

74. Which part of the plant gets carbon dioxide from the air forphotosynthesis?

1


/ 1

a) villi

b) trachea

c) appendix

d) oesophagus

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

a) villi

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Ans-a

The inner walls of small intestine have thousand of Ynger like out growth these are called villi.Function: The villi increase the surface area for absorptionof digested food.

75. The inner walls of the small intestine have millions of smalljnger like projections called--

0


/ 1

A) 10 Years

B) 12 Years

C) 15 Years

D) 5 Years


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Answer: A [10 Years]

To become a judge of the Supreme court, an individual should be an Indian citizen. The normsrelating to the eligibility has been envisaged in the Article 124 of the Indian Constitution. In terms ofage, a person should not exceed 65 years of age. The article further laid out that to become elevatedas a judge of the top court, a person should serve as a judge of one high court or more(continuously), for at least 5 years or the person should be an advocate in the High court or theSupreme court for at least 10 years or a distinguished jurist.

76. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court tobe eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court ofIndia?

1


/ 1

A) 63rd Amendment Act

B) 69th Amendment Act

C) 74th Amendment Act

D) 76th Amendment Act


Correct answer

B) 69th Amendment Act

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Answer: B [69th Amendment Act]

NCR is India's largest and one of the world's largest agglomeration with a population of over46,069,000. Delhi and its urban region have been given the special status of National Capital Region(NCR) under the Constitution of India's 69th Amendment Act of 1991.

77. Via which among the following amendments of theConstitution of India, Delhi was designated as National CapitalTerritory (NCT)?

0


/ 1

A) It is an independent and statutory body.

B) It consists of members having a tenure of six years.

C) Since 1st October 1993, the Commission has been a two-member body

D) Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections toGram Panchayats and State Muncipalities.


Correct answer

B) It consists of members having a tenure of six years.

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Answer: B [It consists of members having a tenure of six years.]

Election Commission of India is a Constitutional Body created under Article 324 of the Constitutionof India. It was set up on 25th January 1950.

The Yrst Chief Election Commissioner was appointed on 21st March 1950. Since its creation, theCommission was single member body except for brief period from 16th October 1989 to 1st January1990 when it was converted into a three member body. Subsequently, since 1st October 1993, theCommission has been a three-member body, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and twoElection Commissioners.

Election Commission of India conducts elections to the omces of President & Vice President of India,both Houses of Parliament {Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha}, State Legislative Assemblies and StateLegislative Councils.

The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have tenureof six year, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status as thejudges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from omceonly through impeachment by Parliament. Election Commissioners including the Chief ElectionCommissioner have equal say in the decision making of the Commission.

78. Which of the following Statements is correct regarding theElection Commission of India?

0


/ 1

A) First Schedule

B) Second Schedule

C) Third Schedule

D) Ninth Schedule


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Answer: A [First Schedule]

These states are speciYed in the First Schedule of the constitution. First Schedule lists the Statesand Territories of India and also lists if any changes to borders of them. Articles 2, 3 and 4 enableparliament by law admit a new state, increase, decrease the area of any state.

Chronology of states' bifurcation in India till date:1947 - Provinces and around 550 princely states were merged with existing provinces.1953 - Andhra Pradesh was carved out of Madras. States' reorganisation commission was formed.1953 - Northeast Frontier Agency was formed.1956 - 14 states and 6 UTs were created.1960 - Bombay state split into Maharashtra and Gujarat.1963 - Nagaland carved out of Assam.1966 - Haryana and Himachal Pradesh carved out of Punjab state.1972 - Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura were formed.1975 - Sikkim became part of Indian Union.1987 - Goa and Arunachal Pradesh became states (earlier these were UTs).2000 - Uttaranchal (out of Uttar Pradesh), Jharkhand (out of Bihar) and Chhattisgarh (out of MadhyaPradesh) were formed.

79. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution ofIndia has to be amended to provide for the formation of a newState ?

1


/ 1

A) Appellate Jurisdiction

B) Original Jurisdiction

C) Advisory Jurisdiction

D) Writ Jurisdiction


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Answer: B [Original Jurisdiction]

Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court:Subject to the provisions of this constitution, the Supreme Court shall, the exclusion of any othercourt, have original jurisdiction in any dispute • Between the Government of India and one or more states • Between the Government of India and any state or states or one side and one or more other stateson the other • Between two or more states

The dispute should involve a question whether of law or fact on which depends existence of a legalright which the court is called upon to determine.

80. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court ofIndia to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the Statesthrough:

1


/ 1

A) Lok Sabha

B) Rajya Sabha

C) State Legislative Assemblies

D) State Legislative Councils


Correct answer

C) State Legislative Assemblies

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Answer: C [State Legislative Assemblies]

Article 54 : Election of President:The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of –(a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Explanation: In this article andin article 55, “State” includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union territory ofPondicherry.

Article 61 : Procedure for impeachment of the President:(1) When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall bepreferred by either House of Parliament.(2) No such charge shall be preferred unless –(a) the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after atleast fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number ofmembers of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and(b) such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the totalmembership of the House.(3) When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shallinvestigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the rightto appear and to be represented at such investigation.(4) If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds ofthe total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or caused to beinvestigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained, suchresolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his omce as from the date on whichthe resolution is so passed.

81. Which of the following is a part of the electoral college forthe Election of the President but does not participate in theproceedings for his/her impeachment?

0


/ 1

A) The Constitution of State-Level Election Commissions.

B) Panchayati-Raj reforms.

C) Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution

D) Interlinking of himalayan and peninsular rivers.


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Answer: C [Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.]

The committee on constitutional amendments by the President of the Indian National Congress,popularly known as the Swaran Singh committee from the name of the chairman, is reported to havefelt that a chapter on fundamental duties for the citizen should be included along with the existingfundamental rights in the constitution.

82. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended : 1


/ 1

A) Lok Sabha only

B) Rajya Sabha only

C) Either of the two houses of the Parliament

D) Joint Sitting of the two houses of the Parliament


Correct answer

B) Rajya Sabha only

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Answer: B [Rajya Sabha only]

Article 63 : The Vice-President Of IndiaArticle 67(b): Removal of Vice-President of India:Vice-President may be removed from his omce by a resolution of the Council of States passed by amajority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People; but noresolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice hasbeen given of the intention to move the resolution.

83. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India canbe moved in :

0


/ 1

A) The Ordinance Making power of the President

B) Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

C) Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir

D) An Election Commission to hold free and fair elections in the country.


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Answer: A [The Ordinance Making power of the President]

Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgateOrdinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is notpossible to enact laws in the Parliament.

An Ordinance may relate to any subject that the Parliament has the power to legislate on. Conversely,it has the same limitations as the Parliament to legislate, given the distribution of powers betweenthe Union, State and Concurrent Lists. Thus, the following limitations exist with regard to theOrdinance making power of the executive:

i. Legislature is not in session: The President can only promulgate an Ordinance when either of thetwo Houses of Parliament is not in session.

ii. Immediate action is required: The President cannot promulgate an Ordinance unless he is satisYedthat there are circumstances that require taking ‘immediate action’[ii].

iii. Parliamentary approval during session: Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within sixweeks of reassembling or they shall cease to operate. They will also cease to operate in caseresolutions disapproving the Ordinance are passed by both the Houses.

Just as the President of India is constitutionally mandated to issue Ordinances under Article 123, theGovernor of a state can issue Ordinances under Article 213, when the state legislative assembly (oreither of the two Houses in states with bicameral legislatures) is not in session.

/ 1

A) Habeas Corpus

B) Mandamus

C) Quo Warranto

D) Certiorari

84. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for: 1


85. Which of the following writs literally means ‘We Command’ ? 1


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Answer: B [Mandamus]

Types of Writs in IndiaWrits - Provisions in Indian ConstitutionThe Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of thefundamental rights conferred by Part III of Indian Constitution under Article 32. Thus the power toissue writs is primarily a provision made to make available the Right to Constitutional Remedies toevery citizen. The Right to Constitutional Remedies, as we know, is a guarantor of all otherfundamental rights available to the people of India.

In addition to the above, the Constitution also provides for the Parliament to confer on the SupremeCourt power to issue writs, for purposes other than those mentioned above.

Similary High Courts in India are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of any of therights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.

Types of WritsThere are Yve types of Writs - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.

1. Habeas Corpus"Habeas Corpus" is a Latin term which literally means "you may have the body." The writ is issued toproduce a person who has been detained , whether in prison or in private custody, before a court andto release him if such detention is found illegal.

2. MandamusMandamus is a Latin word, which means "We Command". Mandamus is an order from the SupremeCourt or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform a public or statutoryduty. This writ of command is issued by the Supreme Court or High court when any government,court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.

3. CertiorariLiterally, Certiorari means to be certiYed. The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme Court orany High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi judicialauthority.

There are several conditions necessary for the issue of writ of certiorari .

There should be court, tribunal or an omcer having legal authority to determine the question with aduty to act judicially.Such a court, tribunal or omcer must have passed an order acting without jurisdiction or in excess ofthe judicial authority vested by law in such court, tribunal or omcer.The order could also be against the principles of natural justice or the order could contain an error ofjudgment in appreciating the facts of the case.4. ProhibitionThe Writ of prohibition means to forbid or to stop and it is popularly known as 'Stay Order'. This writis issued when a lower court or a body tries to transgress the limits or powers vested in it. The writ ofprohibition is issued by any High Court or the Supreme Court to any inferior court, or quasi judicialbody prohibiting the latter from continuing the proceedings in a particular case, where it has nojurisdiction to try. After the issue of this writ, proceedings in the lower court etc. come to a stop.

Difference between Prohibition and Certiorari:

While the writ of prohibition is available during the pendency of proceedings, the writ of certiorari canbe resorted to only after the order or decision has been announced.

Both the writs are issued against legal bodies.5. The Writ of Quo-WarrantoThe word Quo-Warranto literally means "by what warrants?" or "what is your authority"? It is a writissued with a view to restrain a person from holding a public omce to which he is not entitled. Thewrit requires the concerned person to explain to the Court by what authority he holds the omce. If aperson has usurped a public omce, the Court may direct him not to carry out any activities in theomce or may announce the omce to be vacant. Thus High Court may issue a writ of quo-warranto if aperson holds an omce beyond his retirement age.

Conditions for issue of Quo-Warranto

The omce must be public and it must be created by a statue or by the constitution itself.The omce must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at thewill and during the pleasure of another.There must have been a contravention of the constitution or a statute or statutory instrument, inappointing such person to that omce.

/ 1

A) Mandamus

B) Quo Warranto

C) Habaes Corpus

D) Certiorari


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Ans-c) Habaes Corpus


86. Which of the following writs is said to be a guarantor ofpersonal freedom?

1


/ 1

A) Preamble to the Constitution

B) Directive Principles of State Policy

C) Fundamental Rights

D) Judicial Review


Correct answer

D) Judicial Review

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Answer: D [Judicial Review]

Judicial Review forms the part of the basic structure of the Constitution which cannot be altered bythe amendment procedure.

87. Which of the following parts/ provisions of the IndianConstitution cannot be amended :

0


/ 1

A) Manipur

B) Punjab

C) Jammu & Kashmir

D) 7 North East States


Correct answer

D) 7 North East States

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Answer: D [7 North East States]

AFSPA became a law on September 11, 1958. Initially, it was applicable to the seven Northeasternstates of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura. This wasso because in all these states there were movements of ethnic groups demanding separation fromIndia. The government felt that such insurgencies could be checked through deployment of thearmed forces, and they would need special powers to carry out their responsibilities. AFSPA wasextended to J&K in 1990, on similar considerations.

88. In which among the following states, Armed Forces (SpecialPowers) Act (AFSPA) was imposed for the jrst time?

0


/ 1

(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level.

(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels

(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and districtlevels

(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village block, district and in thestate levels


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Ans-(c)According to 73rd amendment act, three-tier system of Panchayats exists: Village level, DistrictPanchayat at the district level, the intermediate Panchayat which stands between the village andDistrict Panchayats in the States where the population is above 20 Lakhs.

89. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?

1


/ 1

(a) Calcutta

(b) Madras

(c) Bombay

(d) Delhi


Correct answer

(a) Calcutta

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Ans-(a) CalcuttaCalcutta Municipal Corporation was set up in the year 1876.

90. In India, the jrst Municipal Corporation was set up in whichone among the following?

0


/ 1

A) 5

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6


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Ans-A

Explanation:

P ÷ 44 = 432

=> P = 432 * 44 = 19008

P / 31 = 19008 / 31 = 613, remainder = 5

91. A number when divided by 44, gives 432 as quotient and 0as remainder. What will be the remainder when dividing thesame number by 31?

1


/ 1

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6


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Ans-AExplanation:

Trick: Number is divisible by 9, if sum of all digits is divisible by 9, so (2+2+3+*+4+3+1) = 15+* shouldbe divisible by 9, 15+3 will be divisible by 9, so that least number is 3.

92. What least value should be replaced by * in 223*431 so thenumber become divisible by 9?

1


/ 1

A) 9700

B) 9710

C) 9720

D) 9730


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Ans-C

Explanation:

LCM of 27-18-12-15 is 540.After dividing 9999 by 540 we get 279 remainder.So answer will be 9999-279 = 9720

93. Find the largest number of four digits which is exactlydivisible by 27,18,12,15?

1


/ 1

A) 19

B) 17

C) 13

D) 9


Correct answer

B) 17

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Ans-B

Explanation:

Answer will be HCF of (400-9, 435-10, 541-14)

HCF of (391, 425, 527) = 17

94. Find the greatest number that will divide 400, 435 and 541leaving 9, 10 and 14 as remainders respectively?

0


/ 1

A) 36

B) 37

C) 38

D) 39


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Ans-D

Explanation:

Let the average after 17th match is xthen the average before 17th match is x-3

so 16(x-3) + 87 = 17x => x = 87 - 48 = 39

95. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th match andthus increases his average by 3. Find his average after 17thmatch?

1


/ 1

A) 30

B) 35

C) 37

D) 41


Correct answer

B) 35

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Ans-B

Explanation:

Let A's age 10 years ago = x years. Then, B's age 10 years ago = 2x years.(x + 10) / (2x+ lO) = 3/4 => x = 5.So, the total of their present ages =(x + 10 + 2x + 10) = (3x + 20) = 35 years.

96. Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of theirpresent ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages?

0


/ 1

A) 20 years

B) 21 years

C) 22 years

D) 24 years


Correct answer

C) 22 years

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Ans-C

Explanation:

Let the son's present age be x years. Then, man's present age = (x + 24) years=> (x + 24) + 2 = 2(x + 2)=> x + 26 = 2x + 4So, x = 22

97. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his agewill be twice the age of his son. The present age of his son is-

0


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A) 150%

B) 200%

C) 300%

D) 350%


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Ans-C

Explanation:

Let the S.P = 100then C.P. = 25

ProYt = 75

ProYt% = 75/25 * 100 = 300%

98. If the cost price is 25% of selling price. Then what is theprojt percent?

1


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A) 18%

B) 20%

C) 22%

D) 24%


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Ans-B

Explanation:

Let the cost price = Rs 100then, Marked price = Rs 135

Required gain = 8%, So Selling price = Rs 108Discount = 135 - 108 = 27

Discount% = (27/135)*100 = 20%

99. A shopkeeper jxes the marked price of an item 35% aboveits cost price. The percentage of discount allowed to gain 8%is?

1


/ 1

A) 5 days

B) 6 days

C) 7 days

D) 8 days


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Ans-B) 6 days

100. A does a work in 10 days and B does the same work in 15days. In how many days they together will do the same work ?

1


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A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B) J.B.Kriplani

C) Pattabhi Sitaramaiyya

D) Nellie Sengupta


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Answer: C [Pattabhi Sitaramaiyya]

Subhash Chandra Bose was re-elected the President of INC at the Tripuri Session in 1939 bydefeating the Gandhi ji’s Candidate Pattabhai Sitaramaiyya. He demanded that the Congress shoulddeliver a six-months’ ultimatum to Britain and in the event of its rejection a country-wide struggle for‘Poorna Swaraj’ should be launched. His warning and advice went unheeded, his powers as Presidentwere sought to be curtailed. He, therefore, resigned in April 1939, and announced, in May 1939, theformation of the Forward Bloc within the Congress.

101. Subhash Chandra Bose was re-elected the President ofINC at the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating Gandhiji’scandidate :

1


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A) Bhagat Singh

B) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

C) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

D) Pulin Behari Das


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Answer: B [Vinayak Damodar Savarkar]

Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society) was a secret society founded by Vinayak DamodarSavarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904.

102. The revolutionary organisation ‘Abhinav Bharat Society’was founded in 1904 by:

1


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A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

B) Jawahar Lal Nehru

C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D) Subhash Chandra Bose


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Ans-c)The Karachi session (1931) was presided by Sardar Patel. The congress adopted a resolution onFundamental Rights and Economic Policy which represented the Party's Social, Economic andPolitical programme

103. Who presided over the Karachi Session of Indian NationalCongress where the resolutions on Fundamental Rights andNational Economic Policy were passed?

1


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A) Lord Cornwallis

B) Warren Hastings

C) William Bentinck

D) Charles Metcalfe


Correct answer

B) Warren Hastings

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Answer: B [Warren Hastings]

From 1772, Warren Hastings served as Governor General of Fort Williams and the regulating act waspassed after his arrival. Important events under his rule include Trial of Nandkumar and Raja ChaitSingh of Banaras; codiYcation of Hindu and Muslim laws; First and second Anglo-Maratha wars,Second Anglo-Mysore war, Abolition of Dual System and quinquennial settlement of land revenue,foundation of Madarasa Aaliya (1781) and Asiatic Society (1784). He implemented several reformsin all walks of administration. The Regulating Act 1773 and Pitts India Act, 1784 were important actspassed during his tenure.

104. In the tenure of which Governor-General an attempt wasmade for the jrst time to codify Hindu and Muslim customarylaws?

0


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A) Charter Act 1813

B) Charter Act 1833

C) Charter Act 1853

D) Charter Act 1793


Correct answer

B) Charter Act 1833

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Answer: B [Charter Act 1833]

The civil services were started in under the Charter Act of 1833. In 1853, the civil services became anopen competition however the exams were conducted in London only. The 1st exams were held in1855 under the board of control’s supervision.

105. Under which among the following acts, Civil Servicesstarted in India?

0


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A) Wood’s Despatch

B) Hartog Committee Report

C) Minute on Indian Education by Lord Macauley

D) English Education Act of 1930


Correct answer

A) Wood’s Despatch

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Answer: A [Wood’s Despatch]

Woods Despatch (19th July, 1854) is called a Magnacarta of English education and also as anIntellectual charter. It included the recommendations such as the construction separate departmentfor administration for education in each state ;eestablishment of institutions for training teachers forall classes of schools ; maintenance of existing government colleges and high schools;establishment of new middle schools ; increase attention to vernacular schools, indigenous orotherwise, for elementary education ;introduction of grant in aid to schools. In accordance withWood’s despatch, Education Departments were established in every province and universities wereopened at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 and in Punjab in 1882 and at Allahabad 1887.

106. Which among the following is called Magnacarta ofEnglish education?

0


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A) Indulal Yagnik

B) NG Ranga

C) EMS Naboodiripad

D) Shankar Dayal Sharma


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Answer: C [EMS Naboodiripad]Elamkulam Manakkal Sankaran Namboodiripad, popularly EMS, was an Indian communist politician,who served as the Yrst Chief Minister of Kerala state in 1957–59 and then again in 1967–69. As amember of the Communist Party of India, he became the Yrst non-Indian National Congress chiefminister in the Indian republic

107. Who among the following was the jrst Non-Congress chiefminister of India?

1


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A) Withdrawal of British from South East Asia

B) Failure of Cripps Mission

C) Failure of August Offer

D) Arrest of Mahatma Gandhi


Correct answer

B) Failure of Cripps Mission

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Answer: B [Failure of Cripps Mission]

The failure of 'Cripps mission' was one of the key factors contributing towards Gandhi's decision tocall for 'Bharat Chhodo Andolan' (Quit India Movement) on August 8, 1942. The movement wasinitiated with a hope of attaining immediate independence from the British.

108. Which among the following was the immediate cause ofQuit India Movement?

0


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A) 1947

B) 1935

C) 1950

D) 1925


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Answer: C [1950]

On April 8, 1950, the Delhi Pact ( also called Nehru-Liaquat Pact) was signed. It was the outcome ofsix days of talks between India and Pakistan. The Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, JawaharlalNehru and Liaquat Ali Khan wanted to ensure the rights of minorities in both countries. Mostimportantly, they wanted to avert another war, which seemed to be brewing since the partition in1947.

109. In which year, Liaquat–Nehru Pact was signed? 1


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a) Lord Bentick

b) Lord Cornwallis

c) Lord Curzon

d) Lord Wellesely


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Ans:- (b) Lord Cornwallis

The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was brought into effect by the East India Company headed bythe Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793. This was basically an agreement between thecompany and the Zamindars to Yx the land revenue. First enacted in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, thiswas later followed in northern Madras Presidency and the district of Varanasi. Cornwallis thought ofthis system inspired by the prevailing system of land revenue in England where the landlords werethe permanent masters of their holdings and they collected revenue from the peasants and lookedafter their interests. He envisaged the creation of a hereditary class of landlords in India. This systemwas also called the Zamindari System.

110. During the colonial rule in India, the Permanent Settlementwas introduced by ?

1


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a) Dadabhai Naoroji

b) Gopal Krishna Gokhle

c) Pheroz Shah Mehta

d) W.C. Bannerjee


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Ans:- (a) Dadabhai NaorojiElected for the Liberal Party in Finsbury Central at the 1892 general election, he was the Yrst BritishIndian MP.

111. The jrst Indian to contest an election to the British Houseof Commons was ?

1


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a) Hyder Ali

b) Mir Qasim

c) Mir Jafar

d) Nawab of Oudh


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Ans:- (c) Mir Jafar

Facts about the Battle of Plassey:Fought between: Siraj-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Bengal and the British East India CompanyPeople involved: Siraj-ud-daulah, Colonel Robert Clive, Mir Jaffar, Mohan Lal, Small French ForcesMir Jafar, who was Siraj-ud-daulah’s army commander-in-chief was bribed by Clive and promised tobe made the Nawab of Bengal if the British won.The French had supported the Nawab.When: 23 June 1757Where: Plassey (Palasi/Palashi), 150 km north of Calcutta.Result: Decisive victory for the British and the installment of Mir Jaffar as Bengal’s Nawab by Clive.

Background:The East India Company had established factories at Surat, Madras, Bombay and Calcutta in the 17thcentury.Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar had issued a Farman in 1717 granting the Company rights to resideand trade freely within the Mughal Empire. The Company was also accorded the right to issuedastaks for movement of goods. This right was misused by the Company omcials.When Alivardi Khan, grandfather of Siraj-ud-daulah became the Nawab of Bengal, he took a stricterstance against the Company.When Siraj succeeded him as the Nawab, he ordered the company to stop their fortiYcation activitiessince they didn’t have the permission to do so. But the company carried on with their fortiYcations.This led the Nawab to attack the British station in Calcutta in which they were beaten by the Nawab’s3000-strong army.Calcutta was occupied by the Nawab’s forces in June 1756 and the prisoners were kept in a dungeonin Fort William. This incident is called the Black Hole of Calcutta since only a handful of the prisonerssurvived the captivity where over a hundred people were kept in a cell meant for about 6 people.Fort William and other British establishments in Calcutta had fallen into the hands of the Nawab.When news of this reached Madras in August, they sent troops under Colonel Robert Clive to winback the Bengal establishments of the British. Calcutta was recaptured in January 1757.On the day of the Battle, in 23rd June, Robert Clive’s forces won against the much larger force of theNawab since the Nawab was betrayed by Mir Jaffar and others in his own camp.

112. Who betrayed Siraj-Ud-Daula in the Battle of Plassey in1757?

1


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a) 1904

b) 1905

c) 1906

d) 1911


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Ans-b

Partition of Bengal, (1905), division of Bengal carried out by the British viceroy in India, Lord Curzon,despite strong Indian nationalist opposition. It began a transformation of the Indian NationalCongress from a middle-class pressure group into a nationwide mass movement. The partition of the Bengal province came into effect during his viceroyalty on 16th October 1905.The Swadeshi and Boycott movements in the national struggle started as a result of this partition.People started boycotting British goods which had dooded the Indian market and had dealt a blow tothe indigenous industry.The partition did succeed in creating a communal rift in the country and even contributed to the birthof the Muslim League in 1906.

113. When did the partition of Bengal take place? 1


/ 1

A) Gnaga Narayan

B) Sidhu & Kanha

C) Sayed Hasan

D) Raja Porhat


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Ans-A

Bhumij are an Adivasi people living primarily in the Indian states of Assam, West Bengal, Odisha,Jharkhand and Bihar.Earlier they were given land by the king in view of the acts of bravery for agricultural purposes. Theywere known as robbers (chuars), and their various outbreaks were called chauris. The people in thesurrounding areas were quite scared of them. But Bhumijs do not revolt for their personal interest butfor the interest of the person who is entitled for. The history of Bhumij is the act of their bravery thatthey have shown time and again against the illegal decision of the existing authority. In the year1798, when the Puncheet estate was sold to pay arrears of revenue, the Bhumij raised their headviolently and disturbed the peace of the country till this was cancelled. The Bhumij revolt of 1832 isquite well-known. In this case, there was a disputed succession over the crown. The court decidedthe eldest son of the king, the son of the second wife instead of the son of the Yrst wife (patrani), tobe the king. The Bhumij did not approve the decision and took active part in this revolt known asGanganarayan rebellion also known as Chuar Vidroh, the famous revolt of 1832 carried out by theBhumij.

114. Who led the Bhumij Revolt? 1


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A) Ramosi Uprising

B) Munda Uprising/Rebellion

C) Santhal Rebellion

D) Kol Uprising


Correct answer

B) Munda Uprising/Rebellion

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Ans: B

Munda Rebellion is one of the prominent 19th century tribal rebellions in the subcontinent. BirsaMunda led this movement in the region south of Ranchi in 1899-1900. the ulgulan, meaning 'GreatTumult', sought to establish Munda Raj and the right of the indigenous people over their resourceswhich were being snatched away from them by landlords and money lenders and colonial rulersduring the Pre-independence time.

115. Which of the following uprising/rebellion is also known asUlgulan (great commotion)?

0


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(a) William IV

(b) Victoria

(c) Edward VII

(d) George V


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Ans-BIn August 1858, the British parliament passed an act that set an end to the rule of the company. Thecontrol of the British government in India was transferred to the British crown. At this time, Victoriawas the queen of Britain. The supreme body in Britain was the British parliament to which the Britishgovernment was responsible. All activities of the British government were however, carried out in thename of the monarch. A minister of the British government, called the secretary of state, was maderesponsible for the government of India. As the British government was responsible to parliament,the supreme body for India also was the British parliament. The British Governor-General of India wasnow also given the title of viceroy which means the representative of the monarch.

116. Who was the monarch of Britain at the time ofcommencement of the Government of India Act, 1858?

1


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(a) 10

(b) 15

(c) 13

(d) 14


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Ans-b

Features of Act1. It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. Itchanged the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) wasthe direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the Yrst Viceroy ofIndia.

2. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court ofDirectors.

3. It created a new omce, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control overIndian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and wasresponsible ultimately to the British Parliament.

4. It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. The councilwas an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council.

5. It constituted the secretary of state-in-council as a body corporate, capable of suing and beingsued in India and in England.

117. As per government of India Act-1858, how many memberswere appointed to assist the Secretary of State for India?

1


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(a) Abolition of sati: Lord William Bentick

(b) Abolition of slavery: Lord Ellenborough

(c) First railway line in India: Lord Canning

(d) Swadeshi movement: Lord Minto II


Correct answer

(c) First railway line in India: Lord Canning

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Ans-cDalhousie introduced a new system of internal communication in India. He was the father of IndianRailways. Dalhousies' famous Railway Minute of 1853 convinced the home authorities of the need ofthe railways and laid down the main lines of their developmentThe Yrst passenger train in India ran between Bombay (Bori Bunder) and Thane on 16 April 1853. The14-carriage train was hauled by three steam locomotives: Sahib, Sindh and Sultan. It could carry 400people and ran on a line of 34 kilometres (21 mi) built and operated by GIPR

118. Which of the following is not matched correctly? 0


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A) Churchill

B) Ramsay McDonald

C) Chamberlain

D) Disraeli


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Ans-BFirst Round Table Conference was held between November 1930 and January 1931. It was omciallyinaugurated on November 12, 1930 at House of Lords at London by the British King (George V) andwas chaired by then British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald.

/ 1

A) M. K. Gandhi

B) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

C) Dr. Ambedkar


D) Y. Chintamani

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Ans-A

In response to the inadequacy of the Simon Report, the Labour Government, which had come topower under Ramsay MacDonald in 1929, decided to hold a series of Round Table Conferences inLondon.

The Yrst Round Table Conference convened from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931. Prior to theConference, M. K. Gandhi had initiated the Civil Disobedience Movement on behalf of the IndianNational Congress. Consequently, since many of the Congress' leaders were in jail, Congress did notparticipate in the Yrst conference, but representatives from all other Indian parties and a number of

119. Which of the following British Prime Minister headed theFirst Round Table Conference in London?

1


120. Which of the following leader did not attended the FirstRound Table Conference?

1

Princes did. The outcomes of the Yrst Round Table Conference were minimal: India was to developinto a federation, safeguards regarding defence and Ynance were agreed and other departmentswere to be transferred. However, little was done to implement these recommendations and civildisobedience continued in India. The British Government realized that the Indian National Congressneeded to be part of deciding the future of constitutional government in India.

Lord Irwin, the Viceroy, met with Gandhi to reach a compromise. On 5 March 1931 they agreed thefolowing to pave the way for the Congress' participation in the second Round Table Conference:Congress would discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement, it would participate in the secondRound Table Conference, the Government would withdraw all ordinances issued to curb theCongress, the Government would withdraw all prosecutions relating to offenses not involvingviolence and the Government would release all persons undergoing sentences of imprisonment fortheir activities in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

The second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December1931 with the participation of Gandhi and the Indian National Congress. Two weeks before theConference convened, the Labour government had been replaced by the Conservatives. At theconference, Gandhi claimed to represent all people of India. This view, however, was not shared byother delegates. In fact, the division between the many attending groups was one of the reasons whythe outcomes of the second Round Table Conference were again no substantial results regardingIndia's constitutional future. Meanwhile, civil unrest had spread throughout India again, and uponreturn to India Gandhi was arrested along with other Congress leaders. A separate province of Sindwas created and the interests of minorities were safeguarded by MacDonald's Communal Award.

The third Round Table Conference (17 November 1932 - 24 December 1932) was not attended by theIndian National Congress and Gandhi. Many other Indian leaders were also absent. Like the two Yrstconferences, little was achieved. The recommendations were published in a White Paper in March1933 and debated in Parliament afterwards. A Joint Select Committee was formed to analyse therecommendations and formulate a new Act for India. The Committee produced a draft Bill inFebruary 1935 which was enforced as the Government of India Act of 1935 in July 1935.


/ 1

A) Ursa major

B) Ursa minor

C) Hercules

D) Lyra


Correct answer

B) Ursa minor

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Ans-B

Ursa Minor also known as the Little Bear, is a constellation in the Northern Sky.Ursa Minor ("Little Bear") is situated opposite to Ursa Major ("Big Bear"), and like The Big Dipper alsocontains an asterism of seven main stars.

121. The following constellation consists of seven main stars- 0


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A) 360

B) 24

C) 180

D) Injnite


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Ans-BEarth is divided into twenty-four time zones of approximately equal width. The time in eachsuccessive time zone is one hour different from the times in neighboring time zones. To establishtime zones, Earth's rotation rate of 360 degrees of longitude per day was divided by 24 hours.The starting point for these time zones is the prime meridian in Greenwich, also called GreenwichMean Time. Theoretically, every 15° east or west of Greenwich means one hour more or less.

122. The Longitudes divides earth into how many time zones? 1


/ 1

A) 21 March

B) 21 June

C) 23 September

D) 22 December


Correct answer

B) 21 June

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Ans-BThe summer solstice, also known as midsummer, occurs when one of the Earth's poles has itsmaximum tilt toward the Sun. It happens twice yearly, once in each hemisphere.On 21st June, the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly onthe Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat.Since a large portion of the northern hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is summer in theregions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21stJune.

123. The northern tip of the earth is inclined towards the Sunon:

0


/ 1

A) Rocky Mountains

B) Himalayas

C) Andes

D) Ural Mountains


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Ans-cThe Andes of South America forms the longest mountain chain in the world, stretching for anestimated distance of 7,000 km (4,350 miles). It cuts across seven South American countries ofArgentina, Ecuador, Venezuela, Colombia, Peru, Bolivia, and Chile.

124. The world's longest above-water mountain range is- 1


/ 1

A) Yellow River

B) Nile River

C) Godavari River

D) Yangtze River


Correct answer

D) Yangtze River

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Ans-DThe Yangtze River (China) is the world's third longest river and the longest to dow entirely within onecountry.

125. Longest river in the world to now entirely within onecountry-

0


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A) The Himadri

B) The Himachal

C) The Shivaliks

D) Purvanchal


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Ans-BTHE LESSER HIMALAYA OR HIMACHAL:

1. This range lies towards the south of the Great Himalayas.

2. The altitude of peaks in this range varies from 3,700 to 4,500 meter.

3. The most important mountain range here is the Pir Panjal mountain range and it is the longestrange.

4. All great valleys like Kashmir Valley, Kangra Valley, Kullu Valley are present here.This region is also known as for its hill stations (for e.g. Kullu,-Manali, Kufri, Shimla, Mussoorie,Nanital, etc.).

126. In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleysof Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?

1


/ 1

a) Silica and nickel

b) Nickel magnesium

c) Silica and magnesium

d) Nickel and iron


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Ans-DDeep inside Earth, near its center, lies Earth's core which is mostly made up of nickel and iron (nife).Above the core is Earth's mantle, which is made up of rock containing silicon, iron, magnesium,aluminum, oxygen and other minerals.

127. The core of the earth is made of the mixture of- 1


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A) S wave

B) P wave

C) L wave

D) W wave


Correct answer

B) P wave

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Ans-B

Types of Seismic WavesEarthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves.Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directionstravelling through the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves.The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves.These waves move along the surface.The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different elasticity (stiffness)(Generally density with few exceptions). The more elastic the material is, the higher is the velocity.Their direction also changes as they redect or refract when coming across materials with differentdensities.There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves.Primary waves or P waves (longitudinal)(fastest)Secondary waves or S waves (transverse)(least destructive)Surface waves or L waves (transverse)(slowest)(most destructive)

128. Which of the following is a longitudinal wave? 0


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A) Estuary

B) Delta

C) Cape

D) Moraines


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Ans-B) Delta

129. ________ is a triangular landmass that forms at its mouthwhen a river splits into several branches just before entering thesea.

1


/ 1

a) Shift northward

b) Shift southward

c) Shift eastward

d) Shifts westward

) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

a) Shift northward

Feedback

Ans-a) Shift northward

ITCZ exists because of the convergence of the trade winds. In the northern hemisphere the northeasttrade winds converge with southeast winds from the Southern Hemisphere. The point at which thetrade winds converge forces the air up into the atmosphere, forming the ITCZ.The ITCZ follows the sun in that the position varies seasonally. It moves north in the NorthernHemisphere summer and south in the Northern Hemisphere winter. Therefore, the ITCZ isresponsible for the wet and dry seasons in the tropics.

130. When the ICTZ shifts to the north during summers, whathappens to the wind belts?

0


/ 1

a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere

b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere

c) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere, Thermosphere

d) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere, Thermosphere


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Ans-a

The atmosphere has Yve different layers that are determined by the changes in temperature thathappen with increasing altitude.TroposphereStratosphereMesosphereThermosphereExosphere

131. Which one of the following is correct order of layers inatmosphere?

1


/ 1

a) Oyashio Current

b) West wind drift

c) Gulf Stream

d) Canaries Current


Correct answer

b) West wind drift

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Ans-b) West wind drift

132. Which one of the following ocean current is NOT found innorthern hemisphere?

0


/ 1

A) 483 km

B) 362 km

C) 401 km

D) 415 km


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Ans-ALength & Breadth of Bihar: Length: North to South 345 kms & Breadth: East to West 483 kms.

Bihar Important Facts and Point to Remember:Bihar Established in Year: 1912 as Bihar and Orissa Province while in 1936 as BiharTotal area of Bihar: 94,163 km2Rank of Bihar as per Area in India: 12thTotal Population of Bihar: 103,804,637 (Census 2011)Rank of Bihar as per Population in India: 3rd (Census 2011)Population Density of Bihar: 1,102/km2 (Census 2011)Total Literacy of Bihar (Census 2011) = 63.4% (28th)Literacy of Bihar (Census 2011) = 73.4% (male)Literacy of Bihar (Census 2011) = 53.3% (female)

Geographical Location of Bihar:24º 20′ 10″ and 27º3’15” North Latitude83º 19′ 50″ and 88º17’40” Eastern Longitude

State Animal of Bihar: OxState Bird of Bihar: SparrowState Flower of Bihar: MarigoldState Tree of Bihar: Peepal

133. The length of Bihar from east to west is- 1


/ 1

A) West Champaran

B) Munger

C) Jamui

D) East Champaran


/ 1

A) Ganga

B) Kosi

C) Mahananda

D) Bagmati


Correct answer

D) Bagmati

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Ans-D) Bagmati river

River Bagmati originates in Kathmandu valley of Nepal, crosses into India at Dheng (Bihar), dows innorthern parts of Bihar and conduences in river Kosi. Before entering into Bihar it covers 195 km inNepal (394 km in Bihar) and drains water from an area of 7884 sq.km.

134. Valmiki National Park is located in- 1


135. Which of the following rivers has second longest length inthe Bihar?

0


/ 1

A) The Reserve Bank of India

B) The Planning Commission

C) The Finance Ministry

D) The Securities and Exchange board of India


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Ans-c) The Finance Ministry

/ 1

A) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely

B) Payment for imports in terms of rupees

C) Repayment of loans in terms of rupees

D) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freelyby the market forces of demand and supply


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Ana-DCapital account convertibility of the Rupee means the ability to convert INR into any foreign currency,and the foreign currency back to the Rupee at any time without any restriction on the amount at themarket rates.

136. Fiscal policy in India is formulated by- 1


137. Full convertibility of a rupee means- 1


/ 1

A) Growth has no relation with the change in prices

B) Rate of growth and prices both are decreasing

C) Rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase

D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase


Correct answer

D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase

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Answer (d). Stagdation is a blend of stagnation (in economic growth) and indation (rise in prices)

/ 1

A) Goods produced in an economy in a year

B) Goods and services produced in an economy in a year

C) Final goods produced in an economy in a year

D) Final goods and services produced in an economy in a year


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Ans-DGDP represents the monetary value of all goods and services produced within a nation's geographicborders over a speciYed period of time, , normally a year.

138. The term stagnation refers to a situation where- 0


139. Gross Domestic Product is dejned as the value of all- 1


/ 1

A) The World Bank

B) The Reserve Bank of India

C) The World Trade Organization

D) The International Monetary Fund


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Answer (d)The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations. TheSDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usablecurrencies of IMF members

140. Special Drawings Rights (SDRs) relate to- 1


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(a) Trading blocs

(b) Trade ventures

(c) Trade partners

(d) Trade organisations


Correct answer

(a) Trading blocs

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Ans-AIn economics, trading blocs are a formal agreement between two or more regional countries thatremove trade barriers between the countries in the agreement while keeping trade barriers for othercountries.Example: NAFTA, ASEAN etc

141. Formalised system of trading agreements with groups ofcountries is known as-

0


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(a) Share

(b) Debenture

(c) Mutual fund

(d) Treasury bill


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Ans-d

When the government is going to the Ynancial market to raise money, it can do it by issuing two typesof debt instruments – treasury bills and government bonds. Treasury bills are issued when thegovernment need money for a shorter period while bonds are issued when it need debt for more thansay Yve years.

Treasury bills; generally shortened as T-bills, have a maximum maturity of a 364 days. Hence, theyare categorized as money market instruments (money market deals with funds with a maturity ofless than one year).

Treasury bills are presently issued in three maturities, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasurybills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Rather, they are issued at a discount (at areduced amount) and redeemed (given back money) at the face value at maturity.

142. A short-term government security paper is called- 1


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(a) increase

(b) decrease

(c) remain constant

(d) innation is independent of tax rates


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Ans-a

It is the increase in money supply which ultimately leads to indation. So in order to reduce indation,the govt and central banks adopt tight Yscal and monetary policies to suck out the extra moneysupply or the purchasing power from the people of the economy. Increase in tax rate is a kind of tightor contractionary Yscal policy which will reduce the money supply by reducing the disposable incomeavailable to the people.

143. During periods of innation, tax rates should- 1


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(a) supplies mote than the demand for products in the World Market.

(b) supplies more in the Domestic Market.

(c) sells a commodity at a lower price in the World Market and charges a higherprice in the Domestic Market.

(d) sells a commodity at a higher price in the World Market and charges a lower pricein the Domestic Market.


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Ans-c

Dumping is a term used in the context of international trade. It's when a country or company exportsa product at a price that is lower in the foreign importing market than the price in the exporter'sdomestic market.

144. “Dumping” is a situation when the seller- 1


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A) 40%

B) 60%

C) 55%

D) 65%


Correct answer

B) 60%

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Ans-B) 60%Economic Survey 2018

145. India‘s internal trade in goods and services (excludes non-GST goods and services) is actually even higher and is about____________ of GDP.

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(a) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)

(b) Foreign Investment and Promotion Board (FIPB)

(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)


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Ans-bExplanation: The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) under Department of Economic Affairs,Ministry of Finance offers a single window clearance for applications on Foreign Direct Investment(FDI) in India that are under the approval route. The sectors under automatic route do not require anyprior approval from FIPB and are subject to only sectoral laws. As per the regulations under ForeignExchange Management Act (FEMA) 1999, an Indian company receiving FDI does not require any priorapproval of the Reserve Bank of India at any stage. It is only required to report the capital indow andsubsequently the issue of shares to the RBI in prescribed formats under both the routes.

146. Foreign Direct Investment through government approvalroute requires approval of which of the following governmentagency?

1


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(a) Wage level

(b) The output of goods and services

(c) The amount of money needed to purchase a given quantity of goods andservices

(d) Purchasing Power


Correct answer

(d) Purchasing Power

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Ans. (d)

Explanation: When a country faces indation, we require more money to purchase a given quantity ofgoods and services and the purchasing power of rupee decreases. In case of indation generallywages increases but nothing can be said about the output. So, (d) option is true.

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(a) Number of people not in job as a ratio of total population

(b) Number of people not in job as a ratio of labour force

(c) Number of people not in job but actively looking for job as a ratio of labourforce

(d) Number of people not in job but actively looking for job as a ratio of totalpopulation


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147. If a country is experiencing innation then what mustdecrease:

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148. Unemployment rate is dejned as: 1

Ans. c

The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO),since its inception in 1950, does the measurementof employment / unemployment in India.

The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) provides three different estimates of employmentand unemployment based on different approaches / reference periods used to classify an individual’sactivity status. These are the

1. Usual status approach with a reference period of 365 days preceding the date of survey2. Current weekly status approach with a reference period of seven days preceding the date of survey3. Current daily status approach with each day of the seven days preceding date of survey as thereference period.

In order to Ynd out whether an individual is employed or unemployed it needs to be Yrst determinedwhether h/she belongs to the ‘Labour Force’ or not, which in turn depends on the Activity Status ofthe individual during the chosen reference period.

Activity Status refers to the activity situation in which the individual is found during the referenceperiod with respect to his participation in economic or non-economic activities.

The NSSO deYnes following three broad Activity Status i) Working (engaged in an economic activity)i.e. ‘Employed’ ii) Seeking or available for work i.e. ‘Unemployed’ iii) Neither seeking nor available forwork.

All those individuals having a broad activity status as i) or ii) above are classiYed as being in theLabour Force and those having activity status iii) are classiYed as outside the Labour Force. Thuslabour force constitutes of both employed and unemployed.

In other words, Labor force (also called work force) is the total number of people employed orseeking employment in a country or region.One is classiYed as ‘not in labour force’, if he or she wasengaged in relatively longer period in any one of the non-gainful activities.

Unemployment rate is the percent of the labor force that is without work.


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(a) Bihar

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Punjab

(d) Uttar Pradesh


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Ans-d) Uttar Pradesh

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(a) Bihar

(b) West Bengal

(c) Kerala

(d) Uttar Pradesh


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Ans-a) Bihar

Submitted 16/11/2018, 06:42

149. As per 2011 census, the State in India with the largest ruralpopulation ?

1


150. As per 2011 census, which state has become the mostdensely populated state with 1102 persons per squarekilometer?

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BPSCNotes Mock Test-8 · A)Shiksha- Phonetics B) Kalpa- Rituals and ceremonies C)Vyakarana - Grammar D)Nirukta – Metrics E) None of the above/ More than one of the above. Correct