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    Time: 10:00 to 12:00 Hours Maximum Marks: 120

    2008

    Question Paper Code

    1. This is the Text Booklet inside which lies an Answer Sheet {Objective Response Sheet(ORS)}.

    2. Take out the Answer Sheet (ORS) from this Test Booklet without breaking the seal.3. Check whether the Text Booklet code and Answer Sheet (ORS) Code is same.4. Donot open seal of the question paper unless asked to do so by the invigilator.5. Read and follow carefully all the instructions given on the Answer Sheet (ORS).6. The Text Booklet contains four sections and 120 questions. Four possible answers (A, B,

    C and D) are given and there is only one correct answer for each question. Choose correctanswer by darken the appropriate bubble option A, B, C or D in theAnswer Sheet(ORS) with HB pencil. In case you wish to change an answer erase the old answercompletely using a good soft eraser.

    7. Each correct answer carries one mark and a wrong answer carries negative 0.25 marks.8. Please donot tamper with the Bar Code or make any unwanted mark on the Answer Sheet

    (ORS). You will be disqualified if found doing so.

    9.

    All the rough work should be done only on the blank pages provided for this purpose at theend of this Test Booklet. No extra page will be provided.

    10.No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall for any reason during the test.You are allowed to leave the hall only after the Answer Sheets (ORS) from all thecandidates have been collected and accounted for.

    11.Calculator, electronic diary, cellular phone, pager and any such electronic gadget will not beallowed in the examination hall.

    12.Candidates found violating the instructions of the Test/Invigilator, will be disqualified. Acandidate giving assistance to any other candidates or seeking/receiving help from any sourcein answering questions or copying in any manner in the test will forfeit his/her chance of

    being considered for admission.13.This question paper contains 40 printed pages including pages for rough work. Please check

    all pages and report, if there is any discrepancy.

    Name:Registration No.:

    AGENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

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    Section-I : Verbal Communication

    I . From lthe given options, identify the word or phrase which you think isnearest in

    meaningto the key word

    1. Raiment

    A. RemainB. EntertainmentC. ClothingD. Raindrops

    2. Mien

    A. MeanB. DemeanourC. MethodicalD. Catlike

    3. Menagerie

    A. Low-level workB. Diverse GroupC. Pertaining to laborersD. Archaic

    4. ArcanumA. CraniumB. MysteryC. AcidicD. Arduous

    5. Cormorant

    A. SelflessB. HugeC. GreedyD. Imitative

    II . From the given choices, identify the word or phrase which you think is opposite in

    meaningto the key word

    6. Censure

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    A. DullB. StarC. Express approvalD. Prodigy

    7. ReconditeA. ConduciveB. Simple to understandC. GreedyD. Not conducive

    8. Susurration

    A. SurrenderB. A whisperC. EsurientD. A loud noise

    9. Argus-eyed

    A. Extremely CarelessB. WatchfulC. ReticentD. Agile

    10. Irenic

    A. Promoting conflictB. GodlyC. IronicD. Containing Iron

    I II. Directions: The following passage is followed by five questions or unfinished

    statements about the passage, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing the

    statements. Choose the one you think fits best.

    The glade was pear-shaped, roughly a hundred yards long and fifty yards wide, with a stagnant

    pool of rain-water in the center of it. Deer and other game used this pool as a drinking-place and

    wallow and, curious to see the tracks round it, I left the path, which skirted the left-hand side of

    the glade and passed close under a cliff of rock which extended up to the road. As I approached

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    the pool I saw the pug-marks of the tigress in the soft earth at the edge of the water. She had

    approached the pool from the same direction as I had, and, evidently disturbed by me, had

    crossed the water and gone into the dense tree and scrub jungle on the right-hand side of the

    glade. A great chance lost, for had I kept as careful a look-out in front as I had behind I should

    have seen her before she saw me. However, though I had missed a chance, the advantages were

    now all on my side and distinctly in my favour.

    The tigress had seen me, or she would not have crossed the pool and hurried for shelter, as her

    tracks showed she had done. Having seen me, she had also seen that I was alone, and watching

    me from cover as she undoubtedly was, she would assume I was going to the pool to drink as she

    had done. My movements up to this had been quite natural, and if I could continue to make her

    think I was unaware of her presence, she would possibly give me a second chance. Stooping

    down and keeping a very sharp look-out from under my hat, I coughed several times, splashed

    the water about, and then, moving very slowly and gathering dry sticks on the way, I went to the

    foot of the steep rock. Here I built a small fire, and putting my back to the rock lit a cigarette. By

    the time the cigarette had been smoked the fire had burnt out. I then lay down, and pillowing my

    head on my left arm placed the rifle on the ground with my finger on the trigger.

    11. The author left the path because

    A. He wanted to see the tracks round it.B. He wanted to skirt the left-hand side of the gladeC. He did not want to disturb the deer and other animals which were drinking thereD. He wanted to see the tracks round the pool.

    12. The tigress had gone into the jungle because

    A. She wanted to cross the water.B. She had seen the author coming.C. She had approached the pool from the same direction as the author.D. She had left her pug marks in the soft earth at the edge of the water.

    13. The author did not see the tigress before she saw him because

    A. He did not keep a careful look-out behind.B. He was not aware of her presence near the pool.C. He did not keep a careful look-out in frontD. He crossed the pool and disappeared into the jungle.

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    14. The author coughed and splashed the water in order to

    A. Make the tigress believe that he was unaware of her presence.B. Keep a sharp look-outC. Make the tigress to move away from her hiding place.D. Make the tigress think that the author was aware of her presence.

    15. The author was expecting that

    A. Because of his movements the tigress would disappear into the jungle.B.The tigress would come out of her hiding place.C.The deer and other animals would come to drink water at the pool.D. He would see the pug-marks of the tigress again.

    IV. From the four choices, identify the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

    16. Some indulgent mothers ________ their children too much.

    A. PetrifyB. CondoneC. CossetD. Admire

    17. A poor copy of the monument was erected in the count yard and many unsuspecting

    travellers paid homage to that ________ master piece.

    A. ErsatzB. BoldC. PlacidD. Redolent

    18. The old ladys eyes were clean and shining set deeply in her ________ face.

    A. AcrimoniousB. MalodorousC. WiseacreD. Wizened

    19. She was well-dressed, obviously not a _________.

    A. QueenB. Socialite

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    C. LuminaryD. Mendicant

    20. The young management graduates worked up some optimistic projections--with a

    ___________ that these were speculative and should of course be tested.

    A. ConundrumB. CopyrightC. CaveatD. Hypothesis

    V. Directions: The following passage is followed by five questions or unfinished statements

    about the passage, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing the statements.

    Choose the one you think fits best.

    In the past century Irish painting has changed from a British-influenced lyrical tradition to an art

    that evokes the ruggedness and roots of an Irish Celtic past. At the turn of the twentieth century

    Irish painters, including notables Walter Frederick Osborne and Sir William Orpen, looked

    elsewhere for influence. Osborne's exposure to "plein air" painting deeply impacted his stylistic

    development; and Orpen allied himself with a group of English artists, while at the same time

    participated in the French avant-garde experiment, both as painter and teacher.

    However, nationalist energies were beginning to coalesce, reviving interest in Irish culture

    including Irish visual arts. Beatrice Elvery's ire (1907), a landmark achievement, merged the

    devotional simplicity of fifteenth-century Italian painting with the iconography of Ireland's Celtic

    past, linking the history of Irish Catholicism with the still-nascent Irish republic. And, although

    also captivated by the French plein air school, Sir John Lavery invoked the mythology of his

    native land for a 1928 commission to paint the central figure for the bank note of the new Irish

    Free State. Lavery chose as this figure ire, with her arm on a Celtic harp, the national symbol of

    independent Ireland.

    In Irish painting from about 1910, memories of Edwardian romanticism coexisted with a new

    sense of realism, exemplified by the paintings of Paul Henry and Sen Keating, a student of

    Orpen's. Realism also crept into the work of Edwardians Lavery and Orpen, both of whom made

    paintings depicting World War I, Lavery with a distanced Victorian nobility, Orpen closer to the

    front, revealing a more sinister and realistic vision. Meanwhile, counterpoint to the Edwardians

    and realists came Jack B. Yeats, whose travels throughout the rugged and more authentically

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    Irish West led him to depict subjects ranging from street scenes in Dublin to boxing matches and

    funerals. Fusing close observations of Irish life and icons with an Irish identity in a new way,

    Yeats changed the face of Irish painting and became the most important Irish artist of his

    century.

    21. The author points out the coexistence of romanticism and realism most probably in orderto show that

    A. thetransition in Irish painting from one predominant style to the other was not anabrupt one

    B. Irishpainters of the early twentieth century often combined elements of realism withthose of romanticism into a single painting.

    C. Irishpainters of the early twentieth century tended to romanticize the harsh reality ofwar

    D. fora time painters from each school influenced painters from the other school22. Which of the following best explains the author's use of the word "counterpoint" in

    referring to Yeats?

    A.Yeatsreacted to the realism of his contemporary artists by invoking nineteenth-century naturalism in his own painting style.

    B.Yeats'paintings differed significantly in subject matter from those of hiscontemporaries in Ireland.

    C.Yeatsbuilt upon the realism painting tradition, elevating it to unprecedented artisticheights.

    D.Yeatsavoided religious and mythological themes in favor of mundane portrayals ofIrish life.

    23. With respect to which of the following painters does the passage provide LEAST supportfor the assertion that the painter was influenced by the contemporary art of France?

    A.Walter Frederick Osborne

    B. Sir William OrpenC. Beatrice ElveryD. Sen Keating

    24. Which of the following is the most likely title of a longer article in which the passagemight have appeared?

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    A. "20thCentury Irish Masterpieces: A Coalescence of Painting Styles"B. WhoDeserves Credit for the Preeminence of Yeats among Irish Painters?"C. "Realismvs. Romanticism: Ireland's Struggle for National Identity"D. "IrishPaintings: Reflections of an Emerging Independent State"

    VI. From the given choices, identify the word or phrase which you think is nearest in

    meaningto the given phrase/idiom.

    25. An albatross around your neckA. A medallion that is won through ones own effortsB. An expensive necklaceC. A self- created problem that hinders progressD. A watch

    26. Sail close to the windA.Take risksB. Play safeC. Go boatingD. Enjoy the breeze

    27. Play the Devils AdvocateA. Support an argument with a lot of convictionB. A lawyer who defends criminalsC. Present a counter argument without believing in it.D. Respond in writing

    28. Eat CrowA. Eating LunchB. Admitting that one was wrongC. Not accepting ones faultD. Being Clever

    29. Vent your spleenA. Get your stomach and spleen examined.B. Make knowledgeable conversation about something

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    C. Release all the anger about somethingD. Get a surgery performed.

    30. Throw down the gauntletA. Accept defeatB. Make others awareC. Issue a challengeD. Dress up for a formal occasion

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    Section II: Analytical / Logical Reasoning

    Mark your response among A, B, C, D.

    Directions for Questions 31-34

    Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.

    Four people of different states live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different

    color. Each person has a different favourite drink. The following additional information is also

    known:

    I. The Punjabi lives in the red house.

    II. The Maharastrian drinks tea.

    III. The Keralite lives in the first house on the left.IV. In the second house from the left they drink milk.

    V. The Keralite lives adjacent to blue house.

    VI. The Bengali drinks fruit juice.

    VII. Tea is drunk in the blue house.

    VIII. The white house is to the right of the red house.

    Q 31. Milk is drunk by

    A. Keralite.B. Punjabi.

    C. Maharastrian.

    D. None of the above.

    Q 32. The Keralite drinks

    A. Milk.

    B. Cocoa.

    C. Tea.D. Fruit juice

    Q 33. The color of the Keralites house is

    A. Yellow.

    B. White.

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    C. Blue.

    D. Red.

    Q 34. Which of the following is not true?

    A. Milk is drunk in the red house.

    B. Maharastrian lives in the blue house.

    C. The Bengali lives in the corner house.

    D. The Maharastrian lives next to the Bengali.

    Directions for Questions 35-38

    Each question has a pair of CAPITALISED words followed by four pairs of words. Choose the

    pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized

    pair.

    Q 35. ATMOSPHERE : STRATOSPHEREA. Nimbus : Cloud

    B. Instrument : Calibration

    C. Aircraft : Jet

    D. Climate : Rain

    Q 36. FOOD : GOURMET

    A. Book : Critic

    B. Art : Connoisseur

    C. Sports : Fan

    D. Craft : Skill

    Q 37. DROUGHT : FAMINE

    A. Poverty : Plenty

    B. Drip : Fluid

    C. Camera : Flim

    D. Training : Skill

    Q 38. JUST : ARBITRARY

    A. Order : Chaos

    B. Fair : Whimsical

    C. Hope : Surprise

    D. Proper : Improper

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    Question 39-40 are based on the following:

    A farmer can plant only five different kind of vegetables: beans, cabbage, potato, carrot and

    tomato. Every year the farmer plants exactly three kinds of vegetables according to the following

    restrictions:

    I. If the farmer plants cabbage, he also plants beans that year.II. If the farmer plants potato in one year, he does not plant in the next year.

    III. If in any year, the farmer plants no more than one of the vegetables he planted in the

    previous year.

    Q 39. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for the farmer to plant in

    two successive years?

    A. beans, cabbage, potato; cabbage, carrot, tomato

    B. beans, carrot, tomato; beans, potato, carrotC. cabbage, carrot, tomato; beans, potato, carrot

    D. beans, carrot, tomato; beans, cabbage, potato

    Q 40. If the farmer plants beans, carrot and potato in the first year, which of the following

    combinations must be planted in the third year?

    A. beans, cabbage and potato

    B. beans, cabbage and carrot

    C. beans, potato and carrotD. beans, carrot and tomato

    Directions for Questions 41 - 43

    The following questions have two statements. Select the assumption that is absolutely necessary

    so that the second statement can be interpreted from the first statement.

    Q 41. Quality of education is high in India. Economic prosperity is an essential component to

    have quality of life.

    A. Quality of life demands economic opportunities.

    B. Economically rich people can avail better health care.

    C. Education is free.

    D. Education fetches high salaries.

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    Q 42. The U.S. used to rank at No. 1 position in competitiveness reports. The decline in the

    U.S. competitiveness is temporary.

    A. The U.S. prosperity is technology-driven.

    B. The sun never sets in the U.S. empire.

    C. Most countries have significant reserves in U.S. dollars.

    D. Massive imbalances (e.g. trade, fiscal) in U.S. have reached bottom.

    Q 43. Many IIT students have excessively high IQ. Many corporations in India prefer students

    from less famous institutes for challenge projects of higher altitude.

    A. Corporates in India are not very good at absorbing IIT students.

    B. High IQ can not be sustained on challenge projects.

    C. Attitude decides altitude.

    D. MNC firms are at higher altitude.

    Directions for Question 44 - 47In the following questions statement(s) (i) and (ii) are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b).

    You have to assume everything in the statement to be true even if they seem to be absurd or

    against the material truth or commonly known facts and then decide, which of the two

    conclusions logically follow.

    Give answer:

    A: if only conclusion (a) follows.

    B: if only conclusion (b) follows.

    C: if either (a) or (b) follows.D: if neither (a) nor (b) follows.

    Q 44. Statement

    (i) Firms in India have more strength in instrumentation than nano-bio.

    (ii) Firms from Japan plan to dominate in the game of instrumentation-driven nano-bio.

    Conclusions

    (a) Firms in Japan should not compete with firms in India in nano-bio.

    (b) Indian firms are unlikely to win in game of instrumentation-driven nano-bio against

    firms from Japan.

    A B C D

    Q 45. Statement:

    It must be recognized that the analysis of society scientist cannot be expected to be

    wholly free from biases derived from social milieu.

    Conclusions:

    (a) Social scientists lack objectivity.

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    (b) Social milieu creates various types of biases in the minds of the people living in that

    society.

    A B C D

    Q 46. Statement:

    The dissimilarities between the problems of rural and urban development stand out

    clearly when we compare the attitude of the government towards these fields.Conclusions:

    (a) Government has more favorable attitude towards rural development than urban

    development.

    (b) Government has more favorable attitude towards urban development than rural

    development.

    A B C D

    Q 47. Statements:

    (i) Authors are learned people.(ii) Some doctors are authors.

    Conclusions:

    (a) Some doctors are learned people.

    (b) There are more learned people than doctors.

    A B C D

    Directions for Question 48-50

    In each of the following questions one statement is followed by two arguments (a) and (b) one

    supporting and the other against it. Mark answer:

    A: if only argument (a) is strong.

    B: if only argument (b) is strong.

    C: if either argument (a) or (b) is strong.

    D: if neither argument (a) or (b) is strong.

    Q 48. Statement:

    The educated people should work in villages.

    Arguments:

    (a) Yes-Because they can revolutionise agriculture and revamp rural atmosphere.

    (b) No-The educated people should be employed in cities only because otherwise their

    education will go waste.

    A B C D

    Q 49. Statement:

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    Should the strikes be banned legally in India?

    Arguments:

    (a) Yes-Because strikes hamper production and create artificial scarcity of necessary

    goods.

    (b) No-Because the workers will lose right of expression and would be subjected to

    managerial dictates.

    A B C D

    Q 50. Statement:

    Should the states be autonomous in India?

    Arguments:

    (a) Yes-India should have Unity in Diversity in true sense of the term.

    (b) No-India will have a weak centre with powerful states within the country.

    A B C D

    Directions for Questions 51 - 58

    Below given is a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the

    facts stated in the passage. Y ou have to examine each inference separately and decide upon the

    degree of truth or falsity.

    Mark answer:

    A: The inference is definitely true, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.B: The inference is probably true, though not definitely true in light of the facts given.

    C: The data is inadequate.

    D: The inference is probably false, though not definitely false, in light of the facts given.

    Passage:

    With productive population in large countries such as India and China Asia was a key centre of

    world. Industrial and other revolutions shifted the centre of gravity of world economy towards

    West in Europe and later in America. Japan created many world-class emerging industries of thetime from steel, shipbuilding to rail-roads, automobile and electronics and achieved superior

    trade balance. After ICT, biotechnology and nanotechnology are the next emerging industries of

    future.

    Q 51. The centre of gravity of world economy will again return to India, the centre of Asia.

    A B C D

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    Q 52. With firms like Honda and Toyota still rising, Japan was and will remain competitive in

    automobiles industry for few more decades.

    A B C D

    Q 53. With strength in software, India will lead the world in ICT.

    A B C D

    Q 54. India need to be competitive in several industries across the spectrum from automobiles

    to nanotechnology to have superior trade balance.

    A B C D

    Q 55. China has become factory of world, but can not compete as well as India in knowledge

    industries such as biotech and nanotech.

    A B C D

    Q 56. With so many countries vying for competitiveness in emerging industries, India should

    prepare well to compete successfully in nanotechnology.

    A B C D

    Q 57. Trade balance for India in ICT is showing negative trend, India should shift rapidly into

    nanotech.

    A B C D

    Q 58. Since China is so aggressive to lead the world and India being a soft-power, India shouldlearn to form alliances to progress.

    A B C D

    Directions for Questions 59-60

    Each of the following problems consists of a question and two statements are labelled (1) and

    (2). You must decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the

    question using the data and your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts. Choose the

    correct answer from A to D as per the following guidelines, and make the appropriate marking inthe answer sheet.

    A. if statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.

    B. if statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.

    C. if both statements (1) and (2) together sufficient to answer the question asked, but neither

    statement is alone sufficient.

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    D. if statements (1) and (2) together are not sufficient to answer the question asked and

    additional data are needed.

    Q 59. Qutub is the tallest Minar in Delhi. Which is the tallest structure in India?

    (1) Air India building is tallest building in India.

    (2) Tallest structure in India is a building.

    A B C D

    Q 60. All state capitals in a country are sea ports. Is city X a state capital?

    (1) X has 4 museums

    (2) X is a sea port

    A B C D

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    Section III: Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation

    Answer Q 61 to 64 from the information given below in the diagram.

    A=Food

    B=ConveyanceC=ClothingD=MiscellaneousE=SavingF=House Rent

    61. If total monthly income of the family is Rs.3080/- how much amount is spent on clothingper month?A. Rs.534B. Rs.545C. Rs.580D. Rs.554

    62. How much angle does the miscellaneous expenses sector make at the centre?A. 60 degreesB. 46 degreesC. 36 degreesD. 33 degrees

    63. How much total expenses are incurred on food, clothing and conveyance every month?A. Rs.1794B. Rs.1684C. Rs.1584D. Rs.1694

    64. How much saving per annum is made by the family?A. Rs.7502B. Rs.7382C. Rs.7392

    A 25%

    C 18%

    B 12%

    E

    F 15%

    D 10%

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    D. Rs.790265. A watch which gains 12 minute in a day is 12 minutes fast at 4.00 pm on Sunday. What

    will be the true time when the watch shows 4.00 pm on Wednesday?A. 4.00 pmB. 3.12 pmC. 4.24 pmD. 3.36 pm

    66. A started business with Rs.12000. After 2 monthsB joined with Rs.15000, while after 4months after commencement of business by A, C joined with Rs.20000. The profit wasRs.9080. What is the share ofB?A. 2000B. 2800C. 1280D. 3000

    Study the diagram and answer the questions 67-71 that follow

    = Graduates= Rural population

    = Hard working people

    = Honest people

    3 3

    67. Graduates, hard working and honest rural population is indicated byA. 3B. 8C. 9D. 1

    68. Rural, graduate people who are neither honest nor hard working and indicated byA. 6B. 2C. 4D.

    3

    69. Which number indicates urban graduate people who are neither hard working nor honest?A. 5B. 9C. 6D. 7

    1

    23

    4

    9

    11

    12

    5

    6 7

    10

    8

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    70. People who are honest but not hardworking and do not live in villages are indicated byA. 10B. 9C. 7D. 8

    71. People who are graduate and honest and live in villages, but are not hard working arerepresented by

    A. 1B. 6C. 8D. 9

    72. I have a certain sum of money to be distributed among certain number of boys. If I giveRs.3 to each, I shall spend Rs.4 less but that if I give Rs.5 each, I shall need Rs.6 more.

    How much money do I have?

    A. 18B. 19C. 20D. 23

    73. If a man lose 4% by selling bananas at 12 a rupee. How many bananas should he sell fora rupee to gain 44%?

    A. 6B. 7C. 8D. 9

    74. The length of a ladder exactly equals the height of a wall. If the ladder is placed on a 2feet tall stool placed 10 feet away from the wall then its tip can just touch the top of the

    wall. The height of the wall isA. 15 ftB. 26 ftC. 28 ftD. 32 ft.

    75. Two positive integers differ by 5. The sum of their reciprocals is 9/14. Then one numberis

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    A. 3B. 2C. 1D. None

    76. A ship leaves on a long voyage. When it is 18 miles from the sea shore, a plane whosespeed is 10 times that of the ship is sent to deliver a bomb on the ship. How far from theshore does the plane catch the ship?

    A. 200 milesB. 220 milesC. 22 milesD. 20 miles

    77. In an office 1/3 of workers are women. 1/2 of the women are married and 1/3 of themarried women have children. If 3/4 of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men

    have children, what part of workers are without children?A. 5/18B. 7/18C. 3/7D. 11/18

    78. An amount doubles itself at the end of 8 years with certain rate of simple interest. Whatwill be the total simple interest on Rs 8,000 at that rate at the end of four years?

    A. Data inadequateB. Rs 2000C. Rs 4000D. Rs 8000

    79. Two buses travel to a place at a speed of 95 kmph and 80 kmph respectively. If thesecond bus takes 3 hours more than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is

    A. 1900 kmB. 1910 kmC. 1980 kmD. None of the above

    80. In a firm A, B and C contribute as capital Rs 25000; Rs 35,000 and Rs 40,000respectively. They agree to divide the profit in proportion to their capitals and to pay Rs

    2,000 and Rs 3,000 as salary to B and C respectively for their services to the firm. The

    amount which A would get out of the net trading profit of Rs 20,000 is

    A. Rs 7250B. Rs 9000C. Rs 3750

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    D. Rs 4000Study the following diagrams and answer questions 81-83. Diagram A represents a Bombaybased pharmaceutical factory of large company. Diagram B represents a Punjab based factoryof the same company. Both the units are manufacturing certain types of diagrams.

    81. Which type of medicines show the same percentage of production in both the Bombayand Punjab units of the company?

    A. Antibiotic injectionB. Vitamin tabletsC. Vitamin and iron tonicsD. Pain killer

    82. Work out tonnage of vitamin tablets produced both in Bombay and Punjab factories ofthe company, if 2% of total production amounts to 2.7 tonnes in each factory.A. 66.4 tonnesB. 64.8 tonnesC. 64.4 tonnesD. 64.6 tonnes

    83. If 25% production at each factory amounts to 2000 cases, how many cases of pain killersare produced in both units of the company?

    A. 1040 casesB. 3250 casesC. 2160 casesD. 3200 cases

    The graph below shows sales progression of company Y 1998 to 2002. After carefully studying

    the graph, answer the questions 84-86.

    Dia ramA Dia ramB

    12%25%

    32%18%

    13%

    20% 30%

    27%13%

    10%

    Antibiotic Ca sules

    Pain Killer

    Iron Tonic

    Antibiotic Inection

    Vitamin Tablets

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    84. The total sales in 2002 when compared with 1998 isA. 130%B. 134%C. 230%D. 234%

    85. The increase in sales between 2001 and 2002 isA. 60%B. 62%C. 76%D. 64%

    86. The percentage drop in sales between 1998 and 1999 isA. -95.6%B. -4.0%C. -4.6%D. -4.4%

    The statement given below is the receipts and expenditure of a firm manufacturing soaps and

    detergents. Study the data given in the statement and answer the following questions 87-89.

    RECEIPT AND EXPENDITURE STATEMENTGross Receipts Gross ExpensesItem Rs. % Item Rs. %Sales proceeds Direct manufacturing expenses

    Raw materials 1,21,662 43.3Packing materials 73.054 26.0Labour costs 23,321 8.3

    - Washing soap-Toilet soap- Detergent- Scrap/unusable items

    1,12,39055,35262,09524,164

    40.019.722.18.6

    Refunds- Excise duty 13,206 4.7 Indirect manufacturingcosts 7,024 2.5

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    - Loans 13,768 4.9 Staff welfarePension fund

    Sales TaxExcise dutyMarketing ExpensesGeneral Overheads

    4,7776,743

    8,99112,92511,80110,677

    1.72.4

    3.24.64.23.8

    Total Receipts 2,80,975 100.0 Total Expenses 2,80,975 100.087. Approximately what fractions of the total annual expenditure of the firm was the average

    yearly combined expenditure on packing materials, marketing expenditure and general

    over-heads?

    A. 1/4B. 1/3C. 1/2D. 2/3

    88. If the income from the sale of toilet soap during the given year is x, the total incomeduring the same period is about

    A. x5B. 5xC. 0.5xD. x2

    89. What is the correlation between refunds of loans and the indirect manufacturing costs andpension funds?A.There is no correlationB. Both represent expenditureC. Both are related to employees benefitsD. Both are equal in terms of percentage and total sum.

    90. Equal weights of alloys X and Y which contain zinc and tin in the proportion of 8:3 and6:5 respectively are melted to form a third alloy Z. Z contains zinc and tin in the

    proportion of

    A. 3:4B. 4:7C. 4:3D. 7:4

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    Section IV: Business Awareness

    91. Which bank introduced the first ATM in India?A. HSBCB. State Bank of IndiaC. CitibankD. Bank of America

    92. SSE Composite Index belongs to which of the following countries?A. South KoreaB.JapanC. IndonesiaD. China

    93. Budgetary deficit does NOT take into accountA. revenue deficitB. capital budget deficitC. balance of payment deficitD. interest payment on public debt

    94. The rate of exchange at equilibrium is one that maintainsA. the balance between imports and exportsB. the balance of payments at equilibrium over a certain period.C. the balance of payments at equilibrium with domestic deflationary policy.D. satisfactory foreign exchange reserve at the disposal of the monetary authority.

    95. What does SIM stand for in mobile phone industry?A. Subscriber Identification and MembershipB. Subscriber Identification ModuleC. Subscriber Identity ModuleD. Subscriber Identity Management

    96. Supply of money remaining the same, when there is an increase in demand for money,there will be

    A. a fall in the level of pricesB. an increase in the rate of interest.

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    C. a decrease in the rate of interest.D. an increase in the level of income and employment.

    97. Which Indian business group has a joint venture with Mitsubishi for cars?A.TataB. BirlaC. RelianceD. Mahindra

    98. Neutrality of money implies that a given increase in the money supply willA. increase all prices in the same proportion.B. increase all prices in different proportions.C. decrease all prices in the same proportion.D. not change prices at all.

    99. Java the computer language was invented byA. IBMB. MicrosoftC. SUN MicrosystemsD. AMD

    100. Where M is money supply, i is rate of interest, and I is investment, the correct likelysequence would be:

    A. M decrease, i goes down, I goes down, GNP goes down.B. M decrease, i goes up, I goes down, GNP goes down.C. M decrease, i goes up, I goes up, GNP goes up.D. M goes up, i goes up, I goes up, GNP goes up.

    101. Which French Bank was recently in the news for a $7.1 billion rogue trade fraud?A. BarclaysB. Societe GeneraleC. Credit AgricoleD. Banque de France

    102. In a flexible exchange rate system, an increase in the domestic interest rate would tend toA. improve the current account and worsen the capital account.

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    B. improve the current and capital accounts.C. worsen both the accounts.D. worsen the current account and improve the capital account.

    103. Open market operations refer toA. borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI.B. Lending by commercial banks to the industry and trade.C. Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI.D. Deposit mobilization.

    104. In India, the main source of national income isA. Agriculture sectorB. Manufacturing sectorC. Services sectorD. Foreign sector

    105. In which of the following situations should a country pursue a cheap monetary policy?A. Balance of Trade is unfavorable.B. Prices are rising.C. Gold is likely to flow out of the country.D. Budget deficit is high.

    106. What is "Near money"?A. Money held in local currencyB. Money held in foreign currencyC. Money that is easily convertible to cashD. Money in the nearest bank.

    107. Vodafone has entered the Indian mobile phone services market by acquiring a stake inA. SpicetelB. IdeaC. Hutchison EssarD.Tata Teleservices

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    108. Which of the following asset management companies does not offer a Gold ETF in India?A. UTI Mutual FundB. Kotak MahindraC. Benchmark Asset Management CompanyD. State Bank of India

    109. The MD of Pantaloon Retail India Limited isA. Harish BiyaniB. Kishore BiyaniC. GopiKishan BiyaniD. Ved Prakash Arya

    110. What is the full form of TRIP?A.Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property RightsB.Trade Related Intellectual ProvisionsC.Trade Relations of Intellectual PropertyD.Trade Relations in Intellectual Property

    111. Which brand of clothing has the adline "Power dressing for the new millennium"?A. Peter EnglandB. ArrowC. Van HeusenD. Louis Philippe

    112. Which 5 Year Plan is currently going on?A. XIB. XC. IXD. XII

    113. Which of the following mergers has not taken place?A. Deccan KingfisherB.Jet SaharaC. Indian Airlines and Air India

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    D. Spicejet Indigo114. The book Fortune at the Bottom of the Pyramid is written by

    A. Deepak JainB. KotlerC. C.K. PrahaladD. Manmohan Singh

    115. Who is the current RBI governor?A. Montek S. AhluwaliaB.Y. V. ReddyC. Bimal JalanD. C. Rangarajan

    116. How many companies are included in the NIFTY?A. 15B. 20C. 30D. 50

    117. Which Indian industrialist became the first Indian to get the Wharton School Dean'sMedal?

    A. Ratan TataB. Dhirubhai AmbaniC. Mukesh AmbaniD. L N Mittal

    118. CIPLA was set up byA. P.R.S. OberoiB. Malvinder SinghC. Khwaja Abdul HamiedD. Dr. S. K. Burman

    119. What is the name of the merged entity of Indian Airlines and Air India?

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    A. IndianB. Indian AirlinesC. Air IndiaD. Indigo

    120. Name the index which used to detect the Bullish or Bearish trend in the stock market.A. Advance Decline IndexB. S&P NIFTYC. BSE SENSEXD. CNX 10