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CAT Practice Test Section I: Number of questions – 30 Time: 70 minutes 1. A square pond has 2 m sides and is 1 m deep. It is to be enlarged into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in adjacent figure. Assuming the depth remaining the same, what would be the volume of earth to be removed? 1. (2π – 4)m 3 2. (4π – 4)m 3 3. (4π – 2)m 3 4. (2π – 2)m 3 2. The m th term of an arithmetic progression is x and the n th term is y, then the sum of the first (m + n) terms is 1. 2. 3. 4. 3. A rectangle ABCD is inscribed in a circle. Let PQ be the diameter of the circle parallel to the side AB. If BPC = 30, then the ratio of the area of the rectangle to the area of the circle is 1. 2. 3. 4. 4. For every positive integer n, n > 2 can be written as a sum of distinct positive integers e.g. 4 = 1 + 3, 5 = 1 + 4 = 2 + 3, 7 = 2 + 5 = 1 + 2 + 4 etc. Let f(n) be the maximum number of distinct positive integers whose sum is 2n e.g. f(2) = 2. Which of the following relations is false? 1. f(5) = f(6) 2. f(5) = f(4) 3. f(4) = f(3) 4. None of these 5. Ravi’s watch is 10 minutes slow and Ravi is under the impression that it is five minutes fast. Raju’s watch is five minutes fast and Raju think it is 10 minutes slow. They both plan to catch a train at 4 O'clock. Who gets there first? 1. Raju 2. Both will reach at same time 3. Ravi 4. Cannot be determined 6. The no. of ways in which three distinct numbers in an AP can be selected from 1, 2, ...., 24 is 1. 144 2. 276 3. 572 4. 132

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Page 1: CAT Practice Test - HitBullsEye Practice Test paper.pdf · CAT Practice Test Section I: Number of questions – 30 Time: 70 minutes 1. A square pond has ... 0.643 4. 0.8 DIRECTIONS

CAT Practice Test

Section I: Number of questions – 30

Time: 70 minutes 1. A square pond has 2 m sides and is 1 m deep. It is to be enlarged into a circular pond with the diagonal

of the square as diameter as shown in adjacent figure. Assuming the depth remaining the same, what would be the volume of earth to be removed?

1. (2π – 4)m3 2. (4π – 4)m3 3. (4π – 2)m3 4. (2π – 2)m3 2. The mth term of an arithmetic progression is x and the nth term is y, then the sum of the first (m + n)

terms is

1. 2.

3. 4. 3. A rectangle ABCD is inscribed in a circle. Let PQ be the diameter of the circle parallel to the side

AB. If BPC = 30, then the ratio of the area of the rectangle to the area of the circle is

1. 2. 3. 4. 4. For every positive integer n, n > 2 can be written as a sum of distinct positive integers e.g.

4 = 1 + 3, 5 = 1 + 4 = 2 + 3, 7 = 2 + 5 = 1 + 2 + 4 etc. Let f(n) be the maximum number of distinct positive integers whose sum is 2n e.g. f(2) = 2. Which of the following relations is false?

1. f(5) = f(6) 2. f(5) = f(4) 3. f(4) = f(3) 4. None of these

5. Ravi’s watch is 10 minutes slow and Ravi is under the impression that it is five minutes fast. Raju’s

watch is five minutes fast and Raju think it is 10 minutes slow. They both plan to catch a train at 4 O'clock. Who gets there first? 1. Raju 2. Both will reach at same time 3. Ravi 4. Cannot be determined

6. The no. of ways in which three distinct numbers in an AP can be selected from 1, 2, ...., 24 is

1. 144 2. 276 3. 572 4. 132

Page 2: CAT Practice Test - HitBullsEye Practice Test paper.pdf · CAT Practice Test Section I: Number of questions – 30 Time: 70 minutes 1. A square pond has ... 0.643 4. 0.8 DIRECTIONS

DIRECTIONS for questions 7 and 8: Refer to the information given below and answer the questions: A package­shipping man delivers a minimum of 10 packages and a maximum of 15 packages in any particular week (Monday to Friday). The number of packages he delivers on Monday is always equal to the number of packages he delivers on Friday. On Thursday, he delivers one package less than the number he delivered on Tuesday. 7. If at least 1 package is delivered every day of the week, then the minimum and maximum number of

packages he can possibly deliver on Monday are

1. 2, 4 2. 1, 5 3. 1, 6 4. 3, 4 8. If 10 packages are delivered in total and a minimum possible number of packages delivered on

Monday, then the number of packages delivered on Wednesday could be

1.1 or 3 2. 2 or 3 3. 4 or 3 or 7 4. 1 or 3 or 5 or 7 or 9

9. N, where a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive even integers and v, w, x, y, z are five consecutive odd integers. If v = a + 1 and n represents a natural number, then which of the following is the most suitable value of N in terms of n?

1. 2. 3. 4.

10. If a + b + c = 0, where a ≠ b ≠ c, than is equal to ­ 1. Zero 2. 1 3. ­1 4. abc

11. If α, β are the roots of x2 + x + 1 = 0 and γ, δ are the roots of x2 + 3x + 1 = 0,

then (α – γ) (β + δ) (α + δ) (β – γ) =

1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. 8 12. Find the area of the triangle EFG if ABCD & EHBG are rectangles.

1. 3 2. 1.5 3. 1.8 4. None of these 13. In a club of 80 members, 10 members play none of the games Tennis, Badminton and Cricket. 30

members play exactly two of these games and 30 members play exactly one of these games. 45 members play atleast one of the games among Tennis and Badminton, whereas 18 members play both Tennis and Badminton. The number of Cricket playing members is

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1.32 2. 51 3. 25 4. 57 14. Four horses are tied on the four corners of a square field of 14 m length so that each horse can just

touch the other two horses. They were able to graze in the area accessible to them for 11 days. For how many days is the un­grazed area sufficient for them?

1. 3 days 2. 4 days 3. 5 days 4. 2 days

15. Which of the following expressions are exactly equal in value?

1. (3x – y)2 – (5x2 – 2xy) 2. (2x – y)2 3. (2x + y)2– 2xy 4. (2x + 3y)2– 8y (2x + y)

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 1, 2 and 3 only 3. 1, 2 and 4 only 4. None of these

16. There are ten plates numbered 1, 2, ... , 10. Each plate contains some fruits and the total number of

fruits on all the plates is 100. There are 16 fruits on Plate 1, and the total number of fruits on every third plate is the same. What is the maximum possible number of fruits contained on Plate 8?

1.10 2. 8 3.11 4. 16

17. The 2002nd digit after the decimal point in the decimal expansion of will be

1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 18. In the metro railway system, every station sells tickets for every other station. Some new stations are

added for which 46 sets of additional tickets were required. How many stations were there originally and how many new stations were added?

1. 5 original, 6 new 2. 6 original, 5 new 3.11 original, 2 new 4. 11 original, 3 new

19. Player A has n + 1 coins, while player B has n coins. Both players throw all of their coins

simultaneously and observe the number of heads. If all coins are fair, then what is the probability that A obtains more heads than B?

1. 2. 3. 4. 20. A sells two types of sugar with labels Cubes and Granular so that both the sugars form a homogenous

mixture when mixed. He sells Cubes at Rs. 18 per kg and incurs a loss of 10% where as on selling Granular for Rs. 30 per kg. he gains 20%. How should he mix the dearer and cheaper sugar types so as to achieve a profit of atleast 25%,on selling the mixture at Rs. 27.5 per kg?

1. 1 : 2 2. 2 : 1 3. 2 : 3 4. 3 : 2

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 & 22: The following table gives information about rainfall and temperature during the two seasons – summer and winter in different states. Summer months are considered from March to October, while winter months span from November to February. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

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State Winter temperature range (in°C)

Summer emperature range (in °C)

Rainfall in winter (in cm)

Rainfall in summer (in cm)

Soil type

Andhra Pradesh 8 to 30 28 to 45 50 to 75 150 to 175 Loamy Madhya Pradesh

2 to 30 28 to 50 10 to 15 80 to 100 Hard, Rocky

Chhattisgarh 5 to 30 30 to 48 10 to 15 80 to 100 Hard, Rocky West Bengal 5 to 30 26 to 42 60 to 80 175 to 200 Loamy Tamil Nadu 8 to 32 30 to 46 40 to 60 140 to 160 Black, Loamy Karnataka 8 to 32 28 to 46 35 to 50 100 to 120 Black, Clay Jammu & Kashmir

­ 20 to 15 18 to 36 15 to 20 80 to 100 Rocky

Punjab ­ 2 to 25 24 to 42 20 to 30 100 to 120 Loamy Tripura 2 to 25 20 to 38 60 to 80 180 to 200 Loamy,

Red clay Himachal Pradesh

­15 to 15 16 to 34 20 to 30 80 to 100 Rocky

Gujarat 5 to 35 28 to 48 5 to 10 30 to 40 Sandy, Rocky Manipur 2 to 25 18 to 36 30 to 40 140 to 160 Clay Mizoram 2 to 25 18 to 34 50 to 60 120 to 140 Clay Orissa 5 to 30 28 to 48 60 to 80 160 to 175 Loamy Kerala 5 to 32 24 to 45 100 to 120 240 to 260 Loamy Rajasthan 0 to 35 28 to 52 5 to 10 15 to 20 Sandy Maharashtra 2 to 35 28 to 48 20 to 30 60 to 80 Black, Loamy Haryana ­2 to 30 30 to 50 40 to50 70 to 90 Loamy Jharkhand 2 to 30 26 to 48 30 to 40 100 to 120 Loamy Arunachal Pradesh

­5 to 20 18 to 33 25 to 40 80 to 100 Rocky

Bihar 1 to 28 28 to 48 40 to 50 100 to 110 Loamy Uttaranchal ­10 to 20 20 to 34 25 to 40 50 to 70 Rocky Nagaland ­2 to 24 20 to 36 40 to 50 120 to 140 Rocky Assam 1 to 25 28 to 40 40 to 60 110 to 130 Loamy, Clay Goa 4 to 32 28 to 42 70 to 90 200 to 220 Black, Clay Delhi 1 to 25 28 to 49 30 to 35 80 to 90 Sandy Sikkim ­5 to 20 16 to 32 30 to 35 70 to 80 Rocky, Clay Uttar Pradesh ­3 to 32 28 to 50 40 to 50 90 to 110 Rocky, Loamy,

Clay 21. Which state has the least maximum temperature during the summer season?

1. Jammu & Kashmir 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. None of these 22. How many different types of soil have been mentioned in the above table?

1. Five 2. Six 3. Seven 4. None of these DIRECTIONS for questions 23 ­ 25: The following pie charts show the expenditure outlays on various items during the school education and higher studies of Yuvraj. The various items pertaining to school education are represented by the letters S1, S2, …, S7. and those related to higher studies are represented by the letters H1, H2, ..., H7. Refer to the diagram to answer the questions that follow.

Page 5: CAT Practice Test - HitBullsEye Practice Test paper.pdf · CAT Practice Test Section I: Number of questions – 30 Time: 70 minutes 1. A square pond has ... 0.643 4. 0.8 DIRECTIONS

Items School Education Higher Studies 1 Hostel S1 H1 2 Clothing S2 H2 3 Others S3 H3 4 Caution Money S4 H4 5 School Fees S5 H5 6 Books S6 H6 7 Tuition Fees S7 H7 Total Rs. 1,10,467 Rs. 2,21,436

23. If investment on item S1 is Rs. 13,620, then what is the approximate investment on item S6?

1. Rs. 16,675 2. Rs. 17,675 3. Rs. 18,795 4. Data insufficient 24. A student misreads the degree measure of item H3 as 26.7° and proceeds to calculate the expenditure

outlay for item H3. The difference between the actual expenditure outlay for item H3 and the expenditure outlay as calculated by the student for item H3, is 1. Rs. 22,413 2. Rs. 21,243 3. Rs. 24,213 4. Rs. 22,143

25. If D.M. (degree measure) of H1 + D.M. of H7 = 123.5°

D.M. of H7 ­ D.M. of H4 = 72.6° D.M. of H6 ­ D.M. of H1 = 16.1°

D. M. of H1 ­ D. M. of H4 = 40.3°, then 1. 0.745 2. 0.585 3. 0.643 4. 0.8

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 ­29: Refer to the following information and answer the questions. V.C. Gupta School of management is an institute famous for its IIT Degree course. One can get admission through its entrance exam named VCGET. VCGET is conducted on second Sunday of December and this year it will be conducted on 10th December 2006. Notification for VCGET has come and many students have applied for the same. The institute wants to give an impression that a large number of students are appearing in VCGET this year, therefore it gives roll number to the students in the manner given in the table. Zone 1 2 3 4 5 6 Roll number in the list of the institute (x)

2­100 101­500 501­2000 2001­ 5000

5001­10000 >10000

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Roll number given to the student

1.2 x 1.5 x + 50

1.75 x + 100

2 x + 150 0.9 (2.25 x + 200)

0.9 (2.50 x + 250)

VCGET will be conducted in six different zones numbered 1 to 6. For example if a student’s roll number is 200 (zone will be 2) his roll number given by the institute will be 1.5 × 200 + 50 = 350. Some more information is provided below 1. Actual roll number is the order in which the institute received application form and is represented by ‘x’ in

the table. 2. Roll number 1 is assigned to the applicant whose application form is received by the institute very first. 3. If the roll number given to the student (which will be calculated by the formula given in III row of the table)

is not an integer, it is rounded off to the next higher integer. 4. Only the institute has record of actual roll number i.e., the order in which the institute received application forms. Also no two forms are received by the institute simultaneously. 26. If Rohan’s actual roll number is between 450 and 600, which of the following most accurately

describes the range in which his roll number given by the institute lies? 1. 888­1150 2. 725­1150 3. 775­1100 4.838­1100

27. Mini got her admit card and her roll number is 12786, what is her Actual roll number in the list of the

institute? 1. 6225 2. 6226 3. 6203 4. 6204

28. Which of the following is true for the Virtual roll numbers?

1. The Virtual roll number of at least one student in the last range will clash with that of a student in the last­but­ one range.

2. The Virtual roll number of at least one student in the last range will clash with that of a student in the actual roll number range of 2001­5000.

3. The Virtual roll number of at least one student in the actual roll number range of 5001 ­ 10000 will clash with that of a student in the actual roll number range of 2001­5000.

4. The Virtual roll numbers of no two students will clash. 29. If the Virtual roll number that a student got is 10791, what is his/her Actual Roll number?

1. 4707 2. 5320 3. 5240 4. Cannot be determined uniquely

DIRECTIONS for questions 30: Read the information given below and answer the questions. According to the Hawking equation: The age of a Redwood tree is directly proportional to the sum of the square roots of its weight in kg and its height in metres. A 10­year old Redwood tree had a height of 16 metres. After one year the height of the tree remained the same while the weight increased by 13 kg, where A ­ age, h ­ height, w ­ weight of the tree. 30. What is the Hawking equation?

1. A =2 2. A = 3

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3. A = 4. A =

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Section II: Number of questions – 30 Time: 70minutes

DIRECTIONS for question 31: Choose the correct option. 31. False Land is an island in the Indian Ocean. The inhabitants of the False Land island answer every

question with two sentences, one of which is always true, and the other always false. Somebody ate the pizza you baked. You are sure its either Ramu, Shamu or Mohit. You ask them, “Who ate the pizza I baked?” You get the following replies.

Ramu : “There is a cat behind you. I ate the pizza”. Shamu : “I did not eat the pizza. There is no cat behind you”. Mohit : “There are no cats here because we are in Indian Ocean. Ramu did not eat the pizza. Who ate the pizza?

1. Ramu 2 Shamu 3. Mohit 4.Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 32 & 33: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. In a family with four generations, A is the oldest male with age 80 years. There are four married couples in the family and all husbands are 3 years older than their respective wives. In the family there are two brothers and two sisters and difference between the two brothers is 2 years and also the difference between the two sisters is 2 years. Q is R’s sister­in­law and she has two girls. E is the mother of two sons and P is one of them. Q and S are daughters­in­law of D. Age of Q is 27 years. R is the younger grandson of C. D is 25 years older than his elder son. J and Z are granddaughters of E, sum of their ages is 8 and J is older. 32. What is the age of P’s grandmother?

1. 80 2.77 3.75 4.Can’t be determined 33. What is the relationship between S and J?

1. Aunt­niece 2. Uncle­niece 3. Father­daughter 4. None of these DIRECTIONS for questions 34 – 39: Choose the correct option. 34. A group of six engineers are working as a team on a project which is currently well behind schedule.

To catch up they agree to work evening sessions for six days, from Monday through Saturday. Each evening they will work at the home of a different member of the team. The team consists of three men ­ J, K and L ­ and three women P, Q and R. While scheduling when to meet at each team member’s house, they agree to the following conditions. The men and women will be alternately hosting the sessions. They will meet at K’s house earlier in the week than they meet at R’s house; and they will meet at P’s house earlier in the week than they meet at L’s house.

If J is the host on Monday and Q is the host on Tuesday, then each of the following must be true except 1. K is the host on Wednesday. 2. L is the host on Friday. 3. P is the host on Thursday. 4. P hosts a session later in the week than R does.

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35. The HR manager of a multinational marketing firm has to send three sales persons to a conference in Sand land and three other sales persons to a conference in Time land. She must select the six people who will attend the conference from the following list of seven salespeople: J, K, L, M, N, P and Q. In making her decisions as to who goes and where they go, the manager is bound by the following conditions: J must go to Sandland, and L must go to Timeland. K cannot go to a conference with either L or P. Neither N nor Q can go to a conference unless the other goes, to attend the same.

Which of the following is a list of salespeople who could go to the conference in Sandland? 1. J, Q, P 2. J, M, P 3. J, K, P 4. J, N, P

36. A, B, C, D, ... X, Y, Z are the players who participated in a tournament. Everyone played with every

other player exactly once. A win scores 2 points and a loss scores 0 points. None of the matches ended in a draw. No two players obtained the same score. At the end of the tournament, the ranking list is published which is in accordance with the alphabetical order. Then

1. N wins over M. 2. Q wins over A 3.S wins over H. 4. None of these.

37. Six puppies ­ K, L, M, S, T, U ­ must each be scheduled for examination by a veterinarian. The

puppies are to be examined one at a time in six consecutive time slots on the same day according to the following conditions.

M cannot be examined immediately before or immediately after S. L must be examined immediately before U. K must be examined fourth. If S is examined sixth, then which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the time slots where M could be examined?

1. First 2. First or second 3.First or third 4. First or second or third

38. To improve discipline in the college campus, the chairman of the university decided to make a

committee consisting of 3 members. For this purpose he called 7 people ­ Mr. Avneesh Singh, Mr. Brijkishore Shrivastav, Mr. Chandra Prakash, Mr. David Yohan, Mrs. Aditi Pradhan, Mr. Ravi Natrajan and Mrs. Rukmini Bajpayee. In making the selection he must follow the following conditions.

Either Mr. Brijkishore or Mr. David will be on the committee.

Mr. Chandra Prakash or Mr. David will be on the committee. Mr. Chandra Prakash or Mrs. Aditi will be on the committee. Neither Mr. Avneesh nor Mr. Chandra Prakash will be on this committee. How many different

committees could be formed? 1. 4 2. 6 3. 2 4.12

39. Prince Waldo went to fight a 3­headed, 3­tailed dragon. He has a magic sword that can, in one stroke,

chop off one head, two heads, one tail or two tails. This dragon is of a type related to the Hydra; if one head is chopped off, a new head grows; in place of one tail, two new tails grow; in place of two tails, one new head grows; if two heads are chopped off, nothing grows. What is the smallest number of strokes required to chop off all the heads and tails, thus killing the dragon?

1. 5 strokes 2. 9 strokes 3. 12 strokes 4.15 strokes

Page 10: CAT Practice Test - HitBullsEye Practice Test paper.pdf · CAT Practice Test Section I: Number of questions – 30 Time: 70 minutes 1. A square pond has ... 0.643 4. 0.8 DIRECTIONS

DIRECTIONS for question 40: In the beginning the sentence is given, followed by a blank. From the options given, choose the best alternative that makes the most meaningful sentence. 40. Independent India attempted __________________________

1. to set up the mechanisms that would democratize the community institutions and allow the tribal people to shape their own destinies through the creation of the Fifth and Sixth schedule of the Constitution.

2. to set up mechanisms that would democratize community institutions and allow tribal people to shape their own destinies through the creation of the Fifth and Sixth schedules of the Constitution.

3. the setting up of mechanisms that would democratize community institutions and allow the tribal peoples to shape their own destinies through creating the Fifth and Sixth schedules in the Constitution.

4. through the creation of the Fifth and Sixth schedules in the Constitution, to set up mechanism that would democratize community institutions and allow tribal people to shape their own destiny.

DIRECTIONS for the question 41 to 43: For each of the following questions read the passage & answer the questions that follow. The novel Pride and Prejudice is a tale about courtship in 19th century England. Elizabeth’s first impression of Darcy is a completely negative one, due to his judgmental description of her upon first seeing her at the ball; “She is tolerable; but not handsome enough to tempt me; and I am in no humor at present to give consequence to young ladies who are slighted by other men.” The first impression of Elizabeth, and the reader, is that Darcy is arrogant and headstrong. Before these events transpired, Elizabeth’s mother, Mrs. Bennett, pointed out Darcy as a candidate for Elizabeth to marry. Mr. Darcy soon drew the attention of the room by his fine, tall person, handsome features, noble mien; and the report which was in general circulation within five minutes after his entrance, of his having ten thousand a year.” Elizabeth will hear none of it, considering the spiteful comment she overheard Darcy making about her previously. A major obstacle in the relationship between Elizabeth and Darcy was Mr. Wickham, who becomes the object of Elizabeth’s affections. Upon first meeting each other, Elizabeth finds that there is an extreme amount of tension between Wickham and Darcy. After talking to Mr. Wickham, Elizabeth goes into town, where she runs into Mr. Darcy, who gives her a letter explaining the true nature of his relationship with Mr. Wickham. This letter marks the point in the novel where Elizabeth begins to like Darcy. Darcy tells the real reason for Wickham’s disinheritance; Wickham was engaged in problematic relation with Darcy’s sister. This marks the beginning of the constructive relationship of Darcy and Elizabeth. The wealth of Mr. Darcy proves to be divider between Darcy and Elizabeth. This difference in social class proves to be a reason for which Darcy seemed to try to purposely self­destruct his relationship, as well as a perfect example of the influence English social ideals have on the lives of England’s high society. The final obstacle in the relationship of Elizabeth and Mr. Darcy is the aunt of Mr. Darcy, Lady Catherine de Bourgh. Lady de Bourgh is optimistic that Darcy will marry her daughter, “Mr. Darcy is engaged to my daughter”. Lady de Bourgh explains to Elizabeth, the family history behind this arranged marriage. From their infancy, they have been intended for each other. Elizabeth, however, decides to choose her own happiness over that of Lady de Bourgh and replies; “I’m marrying your nephew,” This final step Elizabeth takes, proves to overcome the obstruction in the relationship of Elizabeth and Darcy. Again, this is another example of the customs of the time with the interfamily arranged marriages based on social standing and wealth instead on mutual liking or disliking between two individuals. 41. What is the tone of the passage?

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1. Didactic 2. Pedantic 3. Satirical 4. Acrimonious

42. What can be inferred from the first meeting between Ms. Elizabeth and Mr. Darcy?

1. The arctic first encounter between Elizabeth and Darcy leaves the reader more than doubtful of anything sparking between the two in the future.

2. Elizabeth’s pride makes her misjudge Darcy on the basis of poor first impression and Darcy’s prejudice against Elizabeth’s poor social standing blinds him for a time to her many virtues.

3. Some preconceived notions, they had about each other, might have led Darcy to speak negative about Elizabeth.

4. It seems highly likely that they will not meet at the end as Darcy seems to be committed to his values and status.

43. What is the primary purpose of the author of the novel?

1. To highlight the social life in 19th century England. 2. To criticize social customs and structures, but at the same time to spin a beautiful tale of finding

love in the most unexpected of the places. 3. To peep into entangled web of human emotions through writing a story. 4. To highlight the clash of egos between the old and new generation.

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words or phrases that are highlighted. From the highlighted words or phrases select the most appropriate word or phrase to from correct sentences. Then from the options given choose the best one. 44. 1. A nice lunch was served up (A)/served out (B) there at the function.

2. We should jest with (A)/at (B) the communal thing. 3. I hesitate to compare my own works to (A) / with (B) those of someone like Dickens. 4. He embarked in (A)/on (B) the new business with the full fervor. 5. She expressed disgust at (A) / with (B) the government’s failure to act.

1. BBBAB 2. AAABA 3. BABAA 4. ABABA

DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence in this part has one or two missing elements, as indicated by a series of dashes. Following the sentences, you will see lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words that best fits the meanings of the sentence as a whole. 45. If it were true that the enduring lessons are learned from ­­­­­­­­­ errors, Broadway would be the

repository of ­­­­­­­­­­­ theatrical wisdom.

1. dubious, reflective 2. egregious, transcendent 3. thespian, eternal 4. dim­witted, tenuous.

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative amongst the four. 46. Eaten voraciously with a lot of gaiety during the social gatherings, the municipal committee has put

restrictions on the sale of twelve limb octopus in the open markets that remain open throughout the week, of suburban towns of Netherlands.

1. Eaten voraciously with a lot of gaiety during the social gatherings

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2. Eaten voraciously with immense happiness during the social gatherings 3. Though Octopus is eaten voraciously with a lot of gaiety during the social gatherings 4. While eaten voraciously with a lot of gaiety during the social gatherings

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option that best answers the question. 47. This time around, it’s BJP Rajya Sabha MP Arun Jaitley who comes under Julian Assange’s

nerdo­anarchic war against the Establishment. Mr. Jaitley apparently had told Robert Blake, the US charge d’affaires in New Delhi in 2005, that Hindutva was an “opportunistic issue” for the BJP. Everyone, barring the RSS, seems to be pouncing on the poor man – Jaitley not Blake – for this ‘admission’ which, strangely, Mr. Jaitley has since the Wiki leaked, denied making. We say ‘strangely’ because one would have thought that by stating that Hindutva was an “opportunistic issue”, Mr. Jaitley was confirming that BJP wasn’t really a nutty party that wanted a Hindu nation, but was a master of political branding.

Which of the following will logically follow after the paragraph?

1. Hence there seems to be a huge communication gap between media and Jaitley. 2. Anything said lightly should not be taken seriously in the world of politics as there are always

different interpretations of the statements made by the politicians. 3. Therefore BJP seems to be the party with vision and is opportunistic in encashing the religious

sentiment of the people 4. Being a hypocrite about a bad thing is better than being a hypocrite about a good thing. DIRECTIONS for the question 48 to 51: Read the passage & answer the questions that follow. To the very many Indians reeling under the impact of the tragic events of 2008, let me offer this consolation—that there have been some other very bad years, too. 1984 and 1966 and 1948 were likewise peppered with violence and murder, and by riots and rebellions. I think here of 1962, an otherwise placid year marred by the humiliating defeat in the border war with China; of 1975, a year when India, for the first and hopefully the last time, was brought under the authoritarian rule of a single party run by a single family; of 1992, when the destruction of a medieval mosque and the riots that followed called into question the secular and plural ideals of the Indian Constitution; and of 2002, when a pogrom against Muslims was conducted by the Gujarat administration with the complicity of the central government, the event and its aftermath shaming India in the eyes of the world. Here, then, is a listing of the bad and the very bad years experienced by India in the sixty years since independence: 1948, 1962, 1966, 1975, 1984, 1992, 2002, and 2008. Which of these was the very worst? It is hard to give an unambiguous answer, for three reasons. The first is the imperfect state of our knowledge, the flawed powers of recall of the historian as much as of the citizen. A second reason why I prefer not to pick one year above (or below) the rest is that, in such a choice, bias and prejudice must always play some part. The Indian for whom secularism is the most important binding value of the Republic will tend to think of 1992 and 2002 as being the worst of all years. The third reason why any singular choice must be contentious lies in the method being followed here. Because the media—and the electronic media even more so—tends to privilege spectacular, dramatic events, the citizen chooses to do so too. However, behind and beyond the killings and the bomb blasts lie very many less visible sufferings and tragedies. To speak only of this past year, 2008, even if the fidayeen had not targeted Mumbai, the MNS not targeted Biharis, and the VHP not targeted Christians, there would still have been millions of Indians without access to safe drinking water, decent schools and hospitals, and a fair living wage. Had these dramas not been played out in front of television screens, in homes and localities across the land there would

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still have been women abused and violated, Dalits and tribals harassed and victimized, slum­dwellers evicted, and beggars turned away. This, indeed, may be the most significant reason why one must refuse to single out one particular year as more dreadful than the rest. Here I would suggest that we need to construct an index of ‘Gross National Unhappiness’, in which the trials of daily life must necessarily count as much as the dislocations and deaths caused by extraordinary happenings such as terrorist strikes. Who is to say which of the sixty years since India became independent has been the worst of all? 48. The structure of the passage is

1. Description of chronology of catastrophic events. 2. Factual analysis of cause and effect of vicious cycle of the violence in the society. 3. Argumentative in analyzing a few visible and other hidden problems of the people. 4. A tale presenting the mockery of democracy.

49. All of the following can be inferred, except

1. Perceptions of an individual play a great role in understanding and interpretation of the environment around him or her.

2. Media highlight only those events which are helpful in generating hype in the public. 3. People tend to forget events, as they have short term memory. 4. As per the law of averages, after a few peaceful years, there will definitely be a few bad years in

the journey of a nation. 50. The author is most likely to agree with which of the following?

1. In a diverse country like India, sectarian violence is bound to happen. 2. Besides measuring various parameters of population, G.N.U index must also be calculated. 3. Every nation has its own set of problems, some acute and some chronic, to deal with. 4. Besides catastrophic events, other chronic social problems should also be taken into consideration to

analyze the quality of the life of people of a nation. 51. Which of the following is likely to weaken the claim of the author that G.N.U index should be

calculated?

1. It is difficult to form a team which will be skillful enough to calculate G.N.U. 2. Given the variability of these different events and processes, and the impossibility of measuring them

in quantitative terms will make the task of calculating G.N.U index impossible. 3. Several social scientists have failed so far and success in the near future is a remote possibility. 4. It is very difficult to compute a G.N.U index for a single year, let alone so many.

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words or phrases that are highlighted. From the highlighted words or phrases select the most appropriate word or phrase to from correct sentences. Then from the options given choose the best one. 52. 1. We have already discussed this point in foregoing (A)/forgoing (B) lessons.

2. The eruption (A)/ irruption (B) of Mughals destroyed the glory of the Ottoman Empire. 3. Her anger was righteous (A)/rightful (B) as no one can tolerate such an insult. 4. I cannot adopt an attitude of servility (A)/servitude (B) to get the promotion. 5. Mahatma Gandhi led a godly (A)/ god­like (B) life.

1. ABAAA 2. BABAA 3. AABAA 4. AAABA

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DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence in this part has one or two missing elements, as indicated by a series of dashes. Following the sentences, you will see lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words that best fits the meanings of the sentence as a whole. 53. ­­­­­­­­­­­­­ is a criminal ­­­­­­ ­­­ in Turkey and covers cases where offensive descriptions of religion

are published.

1. Heathenism, pride 2. Sacrilege, violence 3. Blasphemy, offence 4. Obscenity, violence

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative amongst the four. 54. Exports in the manufacturing domain of Lithuania has increased to $ 137 billion in 2009, which is 20%

more than the previous year and has helped the country’s economy to offset the effects of recession.

1. Exports in the manufacturing domain of Lithuania has increased to $ 137 billion in 2009, which is 20% more than the previous year

2. Exports in the manufacturing domain of Lithuania has increased to $ 137 billion in 2009, which is 20% more than that of previous year

3. Exports in the manufacturing domain of Lithuania have increased to $ 137 billion in 2009, which is 20% more than that in previous year

4. Exports in the manufacturing domain of Lithuania have increased to $ 137 billion in 2009, a rise which is 20% more than in the previous year

DIRECTIONS for the question 55 to 57: For each of the following questions read the passage & answer the questions that follow. An example of research in the Piagetian tradition is the work of Lawrence Kohlberg. Piaget studied many aspects of moral judgment, but most of his findings fit into a two­stage theory. At approximately 10 or 11 years – children's moral thinking undergoes other shifts. Intellectual development, however, does not stop at this point. Kohlberg therefore interviewed both children and adolescents about moral dilemmas; Kohlberg’s core sample was comprised of 72 boys from Chicago. They were ages 10, 13 and 16. He gave them a case pertaining to moral dilemma, in which, a woman was near death from a special kind of cancer. There was one drug that the doctors thought might save her. It was a form of radium. The druggist was charging ten times what the drug cost him to make. Inability to buy the drug made the woman’s husband desperate and he broke into the man's store to steal the drug – for his wife. Should the husband have done that? Kohlberg is not really interested in whether children says ‘yes’ or ‘no’ to this dilemma but the reasoning behind the answer. At stage 1, children think of what is right as that which authority says is right. At stage 2, children are no longer so impressed by any single authority; they see that there are different sides to any issue. At stage 3, they emphasize being a good person and by doing well. At stage 4 the concern shifts towards obeying laws to maintain society as a whole. At stage 5 they emphasize basic rights and the democratic processes that give everyone a say, and at stage 6 they define the principles by which agreement will be most just. Kohlberg says that his stages are not the product of maturation. That is, the stage structures and sequences do not simply unfold according to a genetic blueprint. Neither, Kohlberg maintains, are his stages the product of socialization. That is, socializing agents (e.g., parents and teachers) do not directly teach new forms of thinking. Kohlberg found that the stages are not just isolated responses but are general patterns of thought that will consistently show up across many different kinds of issues. Kohlberg believes that his stages unfold in an

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invariant sequence i.e. children always go from stage 1 to stage 2 to stage 3 and so forth. So he wants to show how each new stage provides a broader framework for dealing with moral issues. Kohlberg's scale has to do with moral thinking, not moral action. Consequently, we would not expect perfect correlations between moral judgment and moral action. Still, Kohlberg thinks that there should be some relationship. He has first analyzed his stages in terms of their underlying cognitive structures and has then looked for parallels in purely logical and social thought. For this purpose, he has analyzed his own stages in terms of implicit role­taking capacities for the change in thinking to occur. How, then, can one promote moral development? Turiel found that when children listened to adults' moral judgments, the resulting change was slight. Kohlberg's theory has provoked a good deal of criticism. Not everyone is enthusiastic about the concept of stages in the development of morality. 55. Which of the following is likely to be the major criticism of Kohlberg’s method?

1. This method is culturally and socially biased. 2. Survey pertaining to moral thinking is likely to be judgmental and subjective. 3. No one can be sure of the seriousness of the responses given by the children. 4. Role of abstraction in creating difficulty for children to understand issues related to morality cannot

be ignored. 56. Which of following is likely to support that stages in the development of moral thinking are not the

product of socializing agents?

1. When we find our views questioned and challenged, we are motivated to come up with new idea. 2. A large part of a child’s life is spent in institutions like school and home. 3. It is difficult to imagine cognitive development in an individual without mentors. 4. In human relations, trade­offs certainly play a great role.

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57. All of the following are true, except 1. At stage 2 a person would overcome egocentrism and think about the perspectives in terms of

relativity. 2. At stage 6, a person defines the criteria by which he decides what is apt. 3. Stage 3 reasoning works best in two person relationship with family members but at stage 4

respondent becomes more broadly concerned with society as a whole. 4. Role­taking capacities would do little in solving moral dilemmas.

DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence in this part has one or two missing elements, as indicated by a series of dashes. Following the sentences, you will see lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words that best fits the meanings of the sentence as a whole. 58. Alexander did not know what these omens might­­­­­­­­­ and he asked his soothsayers to­­­­­­ them.

1. implicate, clarity 2. imply, illustrate 3. portend, interpret 4. cling to, dilate 59. The RBI has recently raised its inflation target for 2010­11 by one percentage point to eight per cent.

Food inflation, after showing signs of moderating, has climbed back to double digits. It is certain that relatively high inflation will accompany the expected high economic growth well in to the medium term. In an insightful analysis the survey points out that some undoubtedly beneficial developments will have the unintended consequence of stoking inflation. The case for comprehensive policies to support inclusive growth and providing safety nets to the poor has never been stronger. It aims at encouraging rural households that hold their savings in cash to deposit them with banks that will check the inflation. Which of the following will weaken the claim that by encouraging the people to deposit the money the money with the bank will control the inflation and will set the economy right?

1. It is very difficult to convince people to part with their money. 2. It is easy to strike a balance between inflation and oversupply of the money. 3. Several leaks in the system will not allow benefits to trickle down. 4. If previously dormant money gets into bank or a mutual fund, it automatically gets lent to other

people increasing the total supply of the money. DIRECTIONS for the question: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative amongst the four. 60. One of the books that reminds me of you is lying on the table placed behind the curtain.

1. One of the books that reminds me of you is lying on the table placed behind the curtain. 2. One of the books that remind me of you is lying on the table placed behind the curtain. 3. One of the books which reminds me of you is lying on the table placed behind the curtain. 4. One of the books which, reminds me of you is lying on the table placed behind the curtain.

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Bull CAT 07 ANSWER KEY

1.

1

31.

3

2. 1 32. 2 3. 1 33. 1 4. 2 34. 4 5. 1 35. 2

6. 4 36. 4 7. 2 37. 3 8. 4 38. 3 9. 1 39. 2 10. 2 40. 2

11. 4 41. 1 12. 3 42. 1 13. 4 43. 2 14. 1 44. 4 15. 3 45. 2

16. 3 46. 3 17. 3 47. 4 18. 3 48. 3 19. 4 49. 4 20. 3 50. 4

21. 4 51. 2 22. 3 52. 1 23. 2 53. 3 24. 4 54. 4

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25. 2 55. 1

26. 2 56. 1 27. 1 57. 4 28. 4 58. 3 29. 3 59. 4 30. 4 60. 1

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Bull CAT 07 _

EXPLANATIONS

1. The volume of earth to be removed = r2h – 2 × 2 × 1

= × 1 – 4 = (2 – 4) m3 2. Let the first term of the A. P. = a

and the common difference = d. Then, by the condition given in question. a + (m – 1)d = x (the mth term) ...1 and a + (n – 1)d = y (the nth term ) ...2.

From equation 1 and 2. : d = ... 3. The sum of (m + n) terms will be

[2a + (m + n – 1)d]

[a + (m – 1)d + a + nd]

(x + y + d)

From eq.3.. 3.

Let r be the radius of the circle. Given BPC = 30° BOC = 60° and ΔOBC is equilateral triangle.

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Hence, BC = r. Now, draw a perpendicular from O to AB. Which meets AB at E. Now, in ΔOEB, since, BEO = 90°, OBE = 30°, EOB = 60°.

Hence, cos 300 = =

BE=

AB=

Hence, required ratio = 4. For 2n = 10, we will have the sum (with maximum

distinct positive integers) as 10 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4, so f(5) = 4. Similarly, for 2n = 12, we will have: 12 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 1 + 2 + 4 + 5, so f(6) = 4. 6 = 1 + 2 + 3, so f(3) = 3 8 = 1 + 2 + 5 = 1 + 3 + 4, so f(4) = 3 f(5) = f(6) = 4. f(3) = f(4) = 3. Hence, f(5) ≠ f(4)

5.

Real

Time Time by Watch

Ravi 4:00 3:50 Ravi thinks : 3:45 Raju 4:00 4:05 Raju thinks : 4:15

So, Raju will reach the station first.

6. If we take common difference (CD) = 1, then (1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 4), (3, 4, 5) ..... (22, 23, 24). There will be 22 combinations. If CD = 2, then the total 20 combinations are possible i.e., (1, 3, 5), (2, 4, 6), (3, 5, 7) ..... (20, 22, 24). If CD = 3, then the total 18 combinations are possible (1, 4, 7), (2, 5, 8), (3, 6, 9), ..... (18, 21, 24). Total numbers ways will be equal to 22 + 20 + 18 ..... + 2. (Note: there will be two combination in last i.e., (1, 12, 23) (2, 13, 24) with CD = 11. Hence total possible combinations are

2 × (1 + 2 + 3 .....+ 11) = 2 × = 132. 7. Minimum package that can be delivered on Monday is

1, hence 1 package is delivered on Friday. Remaining at least 8 packages can be delivered on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday in different ways. Maximum that can be delivered on Monday would be when the delivery is made for maximum packages i.e., 15 with minimum packages delivered on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday i.e., 2, 1, and 1.

On Monday packages can be delivered.

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8. Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri 0 1 9 0 0 0 2 7 1 0 0 3 5 2 0 0 4 3 3 0 0 5 1 4 0

Number of packages is delivered on Wednesday could be 9, 7, 5, 3 or 1.

9. Let the five consecutive even numbers be 2n, 2n + 2, 2n + 4, 2n + 6, 2n + 8 be respectively equal to a, b, c, d and e, where n is a natural number. Then v, w, x, y and z are equal to 2n + 1, 2n + 3, 2n + 5, 2n + 7, 2n + 9. N =

= 10. Assume values like a = 1, b = 2 and c = –3, which

satisfy the given equations (a + b + c = 0) and a ≠ b ≠ c and check the result

11. α + β = –1, αβ = 1, γ + δ = –3, γδ = 1. Also γ2 + 3γ + 1 = 0; δ2 + 3δ + 1 = 0 So, (α− γ) (β + δ) (α + δ) ( β – γ) = [αβ – γ(α + β) + γ2] [αβ + δ(α + β) + δ2] = (1 + γ + γ2) (1 – δ + δ2) = (–2γ) (–4δ) = 8γδ = 8. [Given that γ2 + 3γ + 1 = 0 and δ2 + 3δ + 1 = 0]

12. Δ EFG and ΔCFD are similar triangles as one angle is vertically opposite angle, and remaining two angles are alternate interior angles. Now, length CG = 12 – 3 = 9 and EG/DC = 2/8 = 1/4 Therefore, the ratio of heights for ΔEFG : ΔCFD = 1:4 & perpendicular height from F to base EG = 9/5 Area of ΔEFG = ½ × 2 × 9/5 = 1.8

13. Various regions shown in the figure below denote the number of player playing different games, e.g. A members play only Tennis while G members play all the three games Tennis, Badminton and Cricket. By the conditions given in question: G A + B + C = 30 …………....1

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D + E + F = 30 ………….....2. A + C + D + E + F + G = 45……. .....3. E + G = 18 ......................4. and A + B + C + D + E + F + G = 70 …….......(5) By solving these equation we get the number of members who play cricket = B + D + F + G = 57.

14. Area of the square = 14 × 14 = 196 sq.m. Area to be grazed = π × 72 = 49π sq.m. So ungrazed area = 196 – 49π Area of 49π sq.m is sufficient to graze for 11 days. So Area of (196 – 49π) sq.m is sufficient to graze for

×(196­49π)= 14 – 11= 3 days

15. Statement I: (3x – y)2– (5x2 – 2xy) = 9x2 + y2 – 6xy – 5x2 + 2xy = 4x2 + y2 – 4xy = (2x – y)2. Statement II: (2x – y)2 Statement III: (2x + y)2– 2xy = 4x2 + y2 + 2xy Statement IV: (2x + 3y)2– 8y (2x + y) = 4x2 + 9y2 + 12xy – 16xy – 8y2 = 4x2 + y2 – 4xy = (2x – y)2

16. Plate No.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

No. of Fruits

16 x Y 16 x y 16 x

Now, 64 + 3x + 3y = 100 (given) 3(x + y) = 36 x + y = 12. The maximum value of x can be 11.

17.

= 0. 0004995004995004995 ...... repeats 6 digits starting with the hundredths digit. Since 2002 = 6(333) + 4, the 2002nd digit would be the same as the fourth digit in the cycle if the cycle started with the first digit. However, the cycle starts with the second digit past the decimal point. Thus, the 2002nd digit is the same as the third digit in the cycle which is 4.

18. By taking option 1, if there were 5 original cities and 6 new cities total additional tickets required = 2(10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5) = 90.

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By taking option 2, we get the number of tickets required = 80. By taking option 3, we get 2(12 + 11) = 46 tickets.

19. Let us assume player A has 3 coins and player B has 2 coins. Now, if A has all three heads B will have either two heads or one head or no heads, if A has two heads B will have either one head or no head and if A has one head then B will have no heads. Hence the probability that A obtains more heads than B = PA (all three heads) [PB (two heads) + PB (one head) + PB (no heads)] + PA (two heads) [PB (one head) + PB (no heads)] + PA (one head) × PB (no heads)]

. Similarly this can be checked for other values of A = n + 1 and B = n coins, and the same result will be obtained.

20.

Cost of ‘Cubes’ = ×18 = 20 per kg.

Cost of ‘Granular’ = ×30 = 25 per kg.

Cost of the mixture = ×27.5 = 4 × 5.5 = 22/ kg.

Required ratio =

= . 21. The state having the least maximum temperature in

summer season is Sikkim, i.e., 32°C. 22. The types of soil mentioned are loamy, clay, red clay,

sandy, black, rocky and hard – a total of 7 types. 23. Investment in item S1 = 13,620.

Therefore, in pie chart (I), item S1 subtends a central angle of 13620/110467 × 360° = 44.4°(approx.). Adding all central angles, we get 302.4°. Therefore, central angle of item S6 = [360° – 302.4°] = 57.6° Therefore, relative percentage of item S6 = 57.6/360°×100 = 16% Therefore, 16% of total expenditure outlay = 110467 × 16% = 17674.72 = 17,675 (approx).

24. Degree measure of item H3 = 62.7°. Degree measure of item as misread by student = 26.7°. Therefore, difference = 36.0°. 360° represents expenditure outlay of 2,21 436. Therefore, 36° represents expenditure outlay of 36°/360°×221436 = 22143(approx)

25. H1 + H7 = 123.5° .....(I) (given) H1 – H4 = 40.3° .....(II) (given) – + = – Therefore, H4 + H7 = 83.2° .....(III) Now, H7 – H4 = 72.6° .....(IV) (given) Therefore, 2H7 = 155.8°. Therefore, H7 = 77.9° .....(V) Substitute the value in (I) H1 + 77.9° = 123.5° Therefore, H1 = 123.5° – 77.9° = 45.6° ....(VI)

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Now, central angle of item H1 = 45.6°. Therefore,

= 0.585(approx).

26. Lower limit of Rohan’s Actual roll number is 450 and upper limit is 600. Range of his roll number is given by the institute can be found out as follows: 450 × 1.5 + 50 = 725 600 × 1.75 + 100 = 1150 Out of the given choices, 725 – 1150 is the most accurate range for his roll number.

27. Given the roll no. as 12,786 and all options in Zone 5 (5001 – 10000). Thus 12786 = 0.9(2.25x + 200) 12786 = 2.025x + 180 2.025x = 12606 x = 12606/2.025 = 6225.

28. Let us evaluate the choices one by one: Choice 1: Let us take minimum Actual roll number in the last range (i.e. > 10000) = 10001; and the maximum actual roll number in the last­but­one range (i.e. 5001 – 10000) = 10000. Here, Virtual roll number for 10001 in last range = 0.9(10001 2.5 + 250] = 22,728. Virtual roll number for 10000 in last but­one range = 0.910000 2.25 + 200] = 20,430. Hence, 1 is false. Choice 2: Virtual roll number for last range minimum (i.e. 10001) = 22,728 (as calculated earlier). Virtual roll number for maximum of the range 2001– 5000 = 5000 2 + 150 = 10150. Hence, 2. is false. Choice 3: The Virtual roll number (maximum) in range 2001 – 5000 = 5000 2 + 150 = 10150 The Virtual roll number (minimum) in range 5001 – 10000 = 0.9(5001 2.25 + 200] = 10308 Hence, 3 is also false. Choice 4: As there is no overlap between the Virtual roll numbers (maximum) of one range, with the Virtual roll numbers (minimum) of the next range, hence, we can say that Virtual roll numbers of no students will clash.

29. We know from the calculations done in the previous question that Virtual roll number for Actual roll number 5001 = 10,308. Hence, Actual roll number of Virtual roll number 10,791 must be above 5000. Trying choice 2.: 0.95320 2.25 + 200 = 10 953. Trying choice 3.: 0.95240 2.25 + 200 = 10,791.

30. From the condition given in the question, we can get following two equations 10 = k(4 + √w ) ...1 11 = k(4 + √w + 13 ) ...2. By dividing equations 1 and 2, we get w = 36 and k = 1. Hence Ans. 4.

31. First we assume that the first statement of Ramu is correct. So Second must be wrong and if Ramu’s second statement is wrong then Mohit’s second statement is correct and hence his first statement is wrong, also Ramu’s first statement is correct. So Shamu’s second statement is false and hence Shamus first statement is true.

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Now Ramu and Shamu both did not eat the Pizza then the only person left is Mohit.

32­33.

Genera ­tion I

A male 80 Years

Wife C

Female 77years

Genera ­tion II

D Male55 Year

Wife E

Female 52 years

Genera ­tion III

P Male 30 years

Wife

Q Female 27 year

P and R are Brother

R Male 28 years

Wife

S Female 25years

Genera tion IV

J Female 5 years

J and Z are sister

Z Female 3 years

32. C is P’s grandmother and she is 77 years old 33. Relation between S and J is aunt­niece. 34. Men: J, K, L Women: P, Q, R Days: M, T, W, Th, F,

S Men and Women will alternate, K < R, P < L. Since J is the host on Monday, the other two men, K and L, are the hosts on Wednesday and Friday. Since L must be a host later in the week than P, L cannot be the host on Wednesday. So, K is the host on Wednesday and L is the host on Friday. Since P must host a session earlier in the week than L, P must host the session on Thursday and R on Saturday. The schedule thus becomes M T W Th F S J Q K P L R.

35. The given information is Sales people: J, K, L, M, N, P, Q Cities: S, T 3 people: S, 3 people; T, J => S, L => T. K and L or K and P cannot go together. N and Q must go together (N ↔ Q). Options 1 and 4 violate the condition that Q and N must attend the same conference [N ↔ Q]. Option 3 violates the condition that K and P cannot attend the same conference. Since we need six people out of seven, the possible combination can be

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Sandland Timeland JMP LNQ

36. Each one of the 26 players plays 25 matches and none of the matches ends in a draw. Hence all the scores must be even. Also, each one of them got a different score. The maximum score possible is 50 and the minimum possible score is 0. There are exactly 26 possible scores: 50, 48, 46, 44 ... 4, 2, 0. The ranking is in alphabetical order which means A scored 50, B scored 48, and so on up to Z scored 0. This score is possible if A wins all the matches, B loses only to A and wins against all others ... and so on. This implies that every player wins only against all players who are below him in the final ranking. Thus none of the given options is true and the best answer is option 4.

37. Since L must be examined just before U, and K must be examined fourth, so L must not be examined third, fourth or sixth. Therefore U must not be examined first, fourth or fifth. M and S cannot be examined successively in either order. If S is examined sixth, the possible schedules will be 1 2 3 4 5 6 L U M K T S M L U K T S So, M could be in the first or third time slot.

38. Since Mr. Avneesh and Mr. Chandra Prakash cannot be selected for the committee, Mr. David and Mrs. Aditi must be selected for committee. Hence, Mr. Brijkishore must not be selected for the committee. Now, one remaining member will be selected from Mr. Ravi and Mrs. Rukmini. So two different committees can be formed

39. All of the tails must be converted to heads in such a way that the dragon is left with an even number of heads. The way to do this in the smallest number of strokes would be to first convert the 3 tails to 6 tails by using 3 (1 tail) strokes, then converting the 6 tails to 3 heads via 3 (2 tail) strokes. Finally, the six­headed dragon can be killed with 3 (2 head) strokes, for a total of 9 strokes.

40. The correct usage is 'attempt to do something', seen only in the second option. Also when you talk of a category – you do not use articles before nouns – hence ‘mechanisms’ is better than ‘the mechanisms.’ As we are referring to the 5th and 6th schedule, we need the word schedules. If we talk of one specific schedule, then we say Fifth Schedule. Both F and S are capital letters.

41. Option 1. The author is giving information about the courtship and talks about the right and wrong in behaviour (the wealth of Darcy becomes a divider between Darcy and Elizabeth and he tries to self­destruct the relationship). Hence didactic. The information given is not a trivial one and hence is not pedantic. Satire means a literary work holding up human vices and follies to ridicule or scorn. The passage does not convey this. There is no bitter or

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scathing language used hence acrimonious can be ruled out.

42. Looking at the first few lines where passage talks about impression they had about each other, it clear that there is little possibility of anything sparking between Ms. Elizabeth & Mr. Darcy, therefore option (1) is the best. There is no mention of the status of the Elizabeth’s social status in the very first paragraph so option (2) cannot be inferred. No mention of option (3) in the start, also looking at the first few lines, this cannot be inferred. Option (4) cannot be drawn on the basis of 1st or 2nd Para.

43. The whole story is setup in 19th century England and it makes a mockery at conservative mindset of the people and social ideals prevailing at that time. Peeping into web of emotions is a way adopted by the author of the novel to highlight the life of people of England of 19th century and is not the primary purpose of the author. Option (4) is weak as the ego clash between Darcy’s aunt and Ms.Elizabeth is one of the plots in the story and not the primary purpose of the author. Option (1) is also rejected as by highlighting the social life, the primary purpose is to criticize the social ideals at that time and not just to highlight the social life.

44. Option 4. To serve up is to dish out food. To jest at is to make fun of. The preposition ‘on’ is usually used with ‘embark’ To has traditionally been preferred when the similarity between two things is the point of the comparison and compare means ‘liken’. With, on the other hand, suggests that the differences between two things are as important as, if not more important than, the similarities. Disgust at something and disgust for / with somebody.

45. The question says that if one can learn from blunders or big mistakes than one would have supreme or consummate wisdom/would be the storehouse of wisdom. Going by the context the best option is (2). Errors cannot be dubious or, dramatic (thespian) therefore option (1) and (3) are rejected. Also from stupid (dim­witted) errors one cannot have tenuous wisdom.

46. This is a problem of misplaced modifier. The underlined statement in the question above is wrongly modifying the municipal committee, when it should modify the twelve limb octopus. Since municipal committee cannot be replaced with twelve limb octopus as the underlined statement has to be modified, the underlined statement should include the word octopus.

47. The author is saying that Jaitley honestly admitted that by projecting Hindutva as an important agenda, was like an opportunity grabbed by the BJP. So there is nothing wrong or bad about it as Jaitley said/used the word ‘opportunistic’ with positive intentions to cover the bad vibes associated with Hindutva in minds of people and the media and that too in spite of the fact that he might himself have known the ulterior motive of using ‘Hindutva’. Therefore going by the tone of the author, option (4) is the best.

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Option (1) is rejected as it out of context as there doesn’t seem to be any possibility of communication gap. As there are no different interpretations of jaitely’s statement since both the parties have clear ideas about the statement made. So option (2) is also rejected. Option (3) is already present in the question therefore will not come after the paragraph.

48. Option (2) is rejected as it has been done by the author only for a few events out of eight major catastrophic events which are based on hatred between the communities. Option (1) is rejected as all the events are not referring to holocaust as the event pertaining to year 1975 has political connotation. Option (4) is rejected as the passage is not talking about the rights of people and rights being violated by the government or the people themselves. Instead author has a few disastrous and a few bad years. In the passage author has tried to analyze a few years which he thinks that people will remember as bad because the events being given importance by the various institutions like media etc. in addition to these visible/observable chaos, there are other serious problems which will remain hidden because of the lack of the proper representation. Therefore option (3) is the best.

49. Only option (4) cannot be inferred as there no mention of the cyclicity of the time and hence the law of the averages is not making sense. Rest can be inferred on the basis of the three reasons given by the author that why it will be difficult to decide the worst year experienced by Indians since the country was founded.

50. In the passage author hasn’t given any hint whatsoever that if there is any correlation between the diversity and sectarian violence. So option (1) is rejected. As per the author it is difficult to compute G.N.U and also this is an opinionated statement by the author so option (2) is also rejected. Option (3) is true in general but in context of the passage the author is trying to find the worst year since independence. Option (4) is the best as per the 5th Para.

51. Option is not stating that why it is difficult to form a team which will be capable of calculating G.N.U or in other words it lacks logic, therefore rejected. If social scientists have failed earlier, it doesn’t mean that in future it is difficult to calculate G.N.U instead it will be easier for us to overcome the problems faced earlier and after rectification, at least there would be chances of calculating G.N.U.in other words option (3) is indirectly strengthening the claim instead of weakening. Option (4) is weak as it also lacks reason. As the events are so varied that different people will have different perceptions about them thereby making it very difficult to compute G.N.U. also there would so many abstract terms (human emotions) involved while calculating G.N.U that would make the task difficult. Hence option (2) is the best.

52. Foregoing = go before. Forgo = to let go. Eruption = bursting out. Irruption = invasion. Righteous = just. Rightful = just claim.

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Servility = flattery. Servitude = slavery. Godly = pious. God­like = like god.

53. The question says that if something against the religion is said or published then it would be taken as an offence. To get the hint focus on the phrase ‘offensive description’. Options (2) & (4) are rejected as the word ‘violence’ is not fitting in 2nd blank. Option (1) is also weak as ‘pride’ is not making sense.

54. This is a problem based on ‘subject­verb agreement’, improper comparisons and wrong usage of relative pronoun ‘which’. The subject of the statement is ‘Exports’ so it cannot have a singular verb ‘has’. So options (1) and (2) are incorrect. Moreover the usage of ‘which’ in which is 20% is ambiguous. What is ‘which’ referring to % what is 20% more­Exports or the rise in Exports? Then the statement ‘which is 20% more than the previous year’ is depicting an improper comparison. It should be more than the rise in the previous year

55. As the stages were derived from interviews with males, the female perspective on the issues related to morality is absent. For males, advanced moral thoughts revolve around rules, rights and abstract principles while women morality centers on interpersonal relationships and ethics of compassion of care. In the entire survey or trial subjects were from Chicago, so one can question if his stages would do justice to moral development in traditional village culture. Therefore option (1) is the best. Since the case given to children was clearly stated and all the responses given were to be judged on the basis of the reasoning behind them so there cannot be question on subjectivity involved and also there cannot be the element of non­seriousness in the entire exercise. Therefore option (2) & (3) are rejected. Option (4) is rejected as the aim of the exercise was to study the process of development of moral thinking in a child and was not to ignore the abstractness of the dilemma.

56. Socializing agents do not directly teach new form of thinking instead stages emerge from our own thinking about moral problems. As we get into discussions and debate with others, we find our views questioned and challenged and are therefore motivated to come up with new, more comprehensive positions. For example, a young man and woman discussing a new law. The man says that everyone should obey it, like it or not, because laws are vital to social organization i.e. stage 4 thinking. The woman notes, however, that some well­organized societies, such as Nazi Germany, were not particularly moral. Therefore the man sees that some evidence contradicts his views. He experiences some cognitive conflict and is motivated to think about the matter more fully, perhaps, moving a bit toward stage 5. This shows option (1) is the best. Option (2) & (3) are rejected because they are supporting instead of weakening the claim.

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Option (4) is rejected as it is out of the scope of the discussion.

57. At stage 2 children recognize that people have different interests and viewpoints hence they would overcome egocentrism and realize that perspective are relative to the individual. At stage 3 a child believes that people should live up to expectations of the family and community and behave in good ways. Good behavior means having good motives and interpersonal feelings such as love, empathy, trust, and concern for others. As with family members and close friends one would make a real effort to get to know other’s feelings and needs and try to help. Hence options (1), (3) are correct. Role­taking here would mean that all the parties ­ the druggist, husband and his wife ­ take the role of the others. To do this in an impartial manner, people can assume a ‘veil of ignorance’, acting as if they do not know which role they will eventually occupy. If the druggist did this, even he would recognize that life must take priority over property; for he wouldn’t want to risk finding himself in the wife’s shoes with property valued over life. Thus they would all agree that the wife must be saved­this would be a fair solution. So role taking capacity definitely will help in solving the dilemma. So option (4) is wrong contextually and hence is the answer option.

58. The question says that Alexander was not able to figure out the message behind the ‘omens’ so he went to people concerned i.e. ‘soothsayers’ to ‘decode’ or to tell the hidden message behind the omens. ‘Portend’ means ‘to foretell’, therefore as per the context option (3) is the best. In option (1), 2nd word is grammatically wrong i.e. ‘clarify’ will be right in place of ‘clarity’. Also omens are not dilated to get their meaning so option (4) is also rejected.

59. If money supplied to the people increases by any means, it will push the demand in the market for the goods, food items and services leading to the increase inthe prices of the goods, food items and services. In other words the inflation will increase as a result. This clearly the case presented in option (4), which says that if people deposit the money with the bank, the banks will have more money to lent to the people. This in turn will increase the demand, which will push the inflation up. The passage says that people should be encouraged to deposit the money with the bank and not that they should be compelled to part with their money or to deposit the money with the bank. This makes option (1) weak. Option (2) is rejected as it is strengthening the claim by saying that it is easy to maintain the inflation in spite of the oversupply of the money and if we are able to do that then depositing the money with the banks will not have any negative

60. The original statement is correct. ‘That’ is preferable over ‘which’ since a restrictive clause is required to modify the books. Hence, option 3 and option 4 are

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incorrect. One of the books (singular ) needs to be followed by reminds and not remind.

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