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Welcome to Dentistry Explorer. These are test series we are organizing for MDS (Masters in Dental Surgery) entrance

exam. Covering syllabus provided via Medical Education Committee. There will be series of exam from this Friday so don't

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faculties from respective departments.

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• Single best response type with Multiple choice questions

• Four options (A, B, C, D)

• No. of questions - 200

• Recall:Understanding:Application - 30:50:20

Duration - 3 hours



Dental Implants

1. The laboratory analog

a. Is used to seat the abutment directly onto the implant

b. Is used during the impression procedure to transfer the of the implant to the laboratory

c. Replicates the implant for use in the cast

d. Is an abutment used for a cement-retained restoration

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Contemporary Implant dentistry (Carl E. Misch) 3rd ed

A laboratory analog is a replica of an implant, abutment, or attachment mechanism, usually

incorporated within a cast for a prosthetic reconstruction. The analog provides a replica which

shows the exact position of a patient's implant.

2. The primary advantage of screw-retained implant-supported prosthesis is

a. Antirotation

b. The ability of the screw to loosen in function

c. Retrievability

d. Useful for small teeth

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Contemporary Implant dentistry (Carl E. Misch) 3rd ed

The traditional rationale for screw retention is the retrievability of the restoration. ... The screw

retained restoration is easily removed which allows for repair or examination of soft tissue and

direct visualization of the implant.

3. All of the following are likely to loosen the implant screws except:

a. Excessive cantilever contacts

b. Forces on the long axis of the implant

c. Inadequate preload

d. Excessive lateral contacts

Ans: The correct answer is B. Reference: Contemporary Implant dentistry (Carl E. Misch) 3rd ed

The forces should be directed along the long axis of the implant.



4. The ideal crown height space needed for fixed implant prosthesis should range between

a. 6 and 10 mm

b. 8 and 10 mm

c. 8 and 12 mm

d. 10 and 14 mm

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Contemporary Implant dentistry (Carl E. Misch) 3rd

ed.

The ideal CHS needed for a fixed implant prosthesis should range between 8 and 12 mm.

This measurement accounts for the biological width, abutment height for cement retention

or prosthesis screw fixation, occlusal material strength, esthetics, and hygiene

considerations around the abutment crowns.

5. Anterior mandible mainly consists of …….. type of bone

a. D1

b. D2

c. D3

d. D4

Ans: The correct answer is B. Reference: Contemporary Implant dentistry (Carl E. Misch) 3rd

ed.

Chapter 7; page 135; table 7-2



Oral pathology:

1. The patient presents with ‘sand paper’ feel of skin and ‘pastia lines’ in

the areas of skin folds, the most characteristic oral manifestation of this

disease is:

a. Frochheimer spots

b. Diptheric membrane

c. Monro’s abscess

d. Strawberry tongue

Key: d, the extraoral features mentioned above are of scarlet fever.

Strawberry and raspberry tongue is the characteristic oral feature.

Frochheimer spots are present not only in scarlet fever but also in

rubella and rubeola. Diptheric membranes are specific for

diphtheria infection. Monro’s abscess is seen in psoriasis. Ref:

Shafers 6th ed, 311

2. One of the following is derived from odontogenic ectomesenchyme

with or without included odontogenic epithelium:

a. Ameloblastoma

b. Squamous odontogenic tumor

c. Complex odontoma

d. Cementoblastoma

Key: d, Ameloblastoma and squamous odontogenic tumor are

derived from odontogenic epithelium without odontogenic

ectomesenchyme while complex odontoma is derived from

odontogenic epithelium with odontogenic ectomesenchyme with or

without hard tissue formation. Ref: Shafers 6th ed, 271



3. The most common malignant salivary gland tumor in children is:

a. Acinic cell carcinoma

b. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

c. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

d. Basal cell adenocarcinoma

Key: b, Ref: Shafers 6th ed, 232

4. Peripheral zone of increased cellularity, the ‘cambium layer’ is

characteristic histopathologic feature of:

a. Botyroid rhabdomyosarcoma

b. Alveolar rahbdomyosarcoma

c. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

d. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

Key: a, pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma shows ‘racquet’, ‘strap’

and ‘ribbon’ cells. Ref: Shafers 6th ed, 195

5. A malignant epithelial neoplasm exhibiting squamous differentiation as

characterized by formation of keratin and or presence of intercellular

bridges. This definition given by Pindborg JJ et al, 1997 corresponds

to:

a. Spindle cell carcinoma

b. Adenosquamous carcinoma

c. Epidermoid carcinoma

d. Lymphoepithelioma

Key: c, also known as squamous cell carcinoma. Ref: Shafers

6th ed, 101



6. The cystic lumen is filled with degenerated keratin forming concentric

layers or ‘onion rings’ and the epithelium lacks rete processes. The

most likely diagnosis is:

a. Dermoid cyst

b. Gingival cyst of newborn

c. Epidermal cyst

d. Thyroglossal duct cyst


7. The oral lesions are identical to that of candidiasis or thrush, white,

velvety, patch like covering of oral mucosa, isolated or diffuse in

distribution. The likely fungal infection other than candidiasis is:

a. Geotrichosis

b. Mucormycosis

c. Candidiasis

d. Phycomycosis

Key: a, Mucormycosis is other name for phycomycosis. Ref:

Shafers 6th ed, 367

8. The earliest reference to tooth decay is probably from the ancient

Sumerian text known as:

a. Humoral theory

b. The legend of worms

c. Vital theory

d. Parasitic theory




9. Epithelium of the peri-apical granuloma does not originate from:

a. Respiratory epithelium of maxillary sinus

b. Oral epithelium growing through fistulous tract

c. Oral epithelium proliferating from periodontal pocket, bifurcation or

trifurcation

d. Epithelial lining of the salivary glands.

Key: d, Ref: Shafers 6th ed, 485

10. The most active compound of vitamin B6 when ingested is:

a. Pantothenic acid

b. Pyridoxal

c. Pyridoxine

d. Pyridoxamine

Key: c, Ref: Shafers 6th ed, 645



Oral Medicine and Radiology:

1. The patient undergoing dental treatment has penicillin allergy. This patient falls

under which sub category of medical complexity status (MCS)?

a. MCS 0

b. MCS 1A

c. MCS 1B

d. MCS 1C

Key: d, MCS 0 is major category and not sub category. Under sub

category A: there is no anticipated complication, B: minor complications

are anticipated that can be controlled in dental chair, C: major

complications are anticipated that must be addressed by medical

provider and sometime may need hospital setting. Ref: Burkett 12th ed,

11

2. One of the following falls under extended spectrum of antibiotics:

a. Clindamycin

b. Metronidazole

c. Cephalosporins

d. Tetracyclines

Key: c, narrow spectrum: clindamycin, dicloxacillin, macrolides,

metronidazole, penicillin G and penicillin V, Extended spectrum:

cephalosporins, extended spectrum penicillins, fluoroquinolones, Broad

spectrum: tetracyclines, augmentin, sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim.

Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 31



3. A child patient in dental setting requires cardiac prophylaxis. He is able to

tolerate oral therapy but is allergic to penicillin. The most suitable doze of

clindamycin is:

a. 15mg/kg

b. 20mg/kg

c. 30mg/kg

d. 50mg/kg

Key: b, 15mg/kg is for azithromycin or clarithromycin and 50mg/kg is for

cephalexin. Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 33

4. Kaposi sarcoma, lymphoproliferative disorders, bone marrow suppressions are

recrudescent lesions in immunocompromised host. The most likely pathogen

of herpesviridae is:

a. HHV 5

b. HHV 6

c. HHV7

d. HHV 8

Key: d, Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 59

5. One of the following is the least likely reason for appearance of red lesion in

oral mucosa:

a. Acanthosis

b. Atrophic epithelium

c. Reduction in number of epithelial cells

d. Increased vascularization

Key: a, acanthosis means benign thickening of stratum spinosum

responsible for white appearance of mucosa. Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 91



6. Idiopathic pigmentation is the feature of one of the following disease:

a. Nijmegen breakage syndrome

b. Familial cavernous malformation

c. Johanson Blizzard syndrome

d. Laugier-hunziker pigmentation

Key: d, Option a, b and c are associated with café-au-lait pigmentation.

Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 139

7. Oral cancer (T4a, N2, M1) falls under which stage of oral cancer?

a. Stage III

b. Stage IV C

c. Stage IV B

d. Stage IV A

Key: b, Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 183

8. The patient with oral cancer is planned for neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The

neoadjuvant therapy is:

a. Used prior to surgery to debulk the tumor

b. Used after surgery but before radiotherapy

c. Used after radiotherapy but before surgery

d. Used in combination with radiotherapy

Key: a, Neoadjuvant (debulk) chemotherapy is used prior to surgery.

Adjuvant (curative) chemotherapy is used after surgery but before

radiotherapy. Concurrent/ concomitant (synergistic) chemotherapy is

used in combination with radiotherapy. Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 208



9. To ensure an unstimulated saliva sample, the patient is instructed to refrain

from eating, drinking, smoking, chewing gum, and oral hygiene practices or any

other oral stimulation for at least________ minutes prior to the test session:

a. 120

b. 90

c. 60

d. 30

Key: b, Ref: Burkett 12th ed, 224

10. Patient complains of pain in jaw, temple and pre-auricular area and is modified

with jaw movement and parafunction. On examination patient complains of

familiar pain on master muscle on palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Myalgia

b. Myosistis

c. Myofascial pain with referral

d. Myospasm

Key: a, Ref: Burkett 12th ed,278

11. The traditional unit of equivalent dose is:

a. Roentgen

b. Rad

c. Rem

d. Curie

Key: c, roentgen is traditional unit of exposure, Rad is traditional unit of

absorbed dose, and curie is traditional unit of radioactivity. Ref: W and

P 8th ed, 75



12. The basis of radiographic image formation is:

a. Photoelectric absorption

b. Compton scatter

c. Coherent scatter

d. Both b and c

Key: a, Scatter radiation will degrade the image. Ref: W and P 8th ed, 64

13. Scanner related artifact resulting from imperfections in scanner detection or

poor calibration is:

a. Aliasing artifact

b. Ring artifact

c. Cupping artifact

d. Missing value artifact

Key: b, Aliasing and ring artifacts are procedure related artifacts while

cupping and missing value artifacts are introduced artifacts. Ref: W and

P 8th ed, 494

14. The most common magnetic field strength used in clinical magnetic resonance

imaging is:

a. 0.5 T

b. 1 T

c. 1.5 T

d. 2 T

Key: c, the magnetic field strength ranges from 0.1 to 7 T with 1.5 T being

the most commonly used. Ref: W and P 8th ed, 660



15. The anterior teeth in panoramic radiograph appear fat. The patient is

positioned:

a. Poorly at midline

b. Too far anterior to the focal trough

c. With chin chipped downwards

d. Too far posterior to focal trough

Key: d, Ref: W and P 8th ed, 443

Pediatric dentistry

1. In the most recent pedodontic treatment triangle the society is placed

A. There is no society

B. Inside the triangle

C. Encircle the triangle

D. None

Ans-C

The pedodontic treatment triangle was first explained by GZ Wright in 1975 and was later

modified by McDonald et al. in 2004. In 2004 modification society was placed inside the

triangle. It was again modified in 2013 by GZ Wright. In this 2013 modification, he encircles

the triangle with society.



2. Favourable Sequence of eruption of the primary teeth in the mandibular arch is

A. A B C D E

B. A B D C E

C. A B D E C

D. A C B D E

Ans-B

The favourable sequence of teeth eruption in permanent dentition is different for maxillary and

mandibular arch but it is the same for primary dentition. The correct favourable sequence of

teeth eruption for both arch in primary dentition is A B D C E.

3. In the Maxillary arch position of the distal extension of distal shoe appliance is placed

A. Slightly buccally

B. Midway

C. Slightly palatally

D. Any of the above

Ans-A

It is because the normal direction of the eruption of maxillary permanent first molar is

distobuccal until it meets muscular resistance. After this initial movement, the maxillary first

permanent molar moves in a mesial direction until it touches the distal surface of the second

primary molar.



4. In which tooth the buccal cusp is present

A. Maxillary permanent first molar

B. Maxillary primary second molar

C. Mandibular permanent first molar

D. Mandibular second primary molar

Ans-D

The mandibular primary second molar has a total of 5 cusps(3 in the buccal surface and 2 in

the palatal surface). Mesiobuccal and distobuccal developmental grooves divide the buccal

surface into 3 cuspal potions of almost equal in size. The 3 buccal surface cusps are named as

the mesiobuccal cusp(MBC), the buccal cusp(BC), and the distobuccal cusp(DBC).

5. Retrocuspid papilla is present at

A. Lingual aspect of the primary mandibular canine

B. Labial aspect of the primary mandibular canine

C. Lingual aspect of the primary maxillary canine

D. Labial aspect of the primary mandibular canine

Ans- A

Retrocuspid papilla is a small elevated nodule on the lingual aspect of the primary mandibular

canine. It is regarded as a normal anatomical variant seen most commonly in children. This is

bilaterally present in the attached gingiva.



6. Which of the following is also called emotional surprise therapy?

A. Nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation sedation

B. Hand over mouth exercise

C. Positive reinforcement

D. Time out

Ans- B

Hand over mouth exercise is an advanced behavior management technique for pediatric dental

patients where the pediatric dentist gently places a hand over the child's mouth and tells the

child that his hand will be removed as soon as the child is quiet and can listen without being

loud and disruptive. It was introduced by Evangelina Jordan. It was also called emotional

surprise therapy by Lampsire and aversive conditioning by Kramer.

7. which of the following type of children’s cry in the pediatric dental clinic is regarded as not a cry at all?

A. Obstinate cry

B. Frightened cry

C. Compensatory cry

D. Hurt cry

Ans-C

The cry is mainly four types that are observed in the pediatric dental clinic. Of these,

compensatory cry is regarded as not a cry at all. This type of cry is monotone and sound is

slow. It is sort of a coping mechanism for unpleasant and uncomfortable situations.



8. What percentage of Silver Diamine Fluoride(SDF) is effective in dental caries prevention?

A. 2%

B. 1.23%

C. 48%

D. 38%

Ans-D

Silver diamine fluoride (SDF) was first promoted in Japan in late 1960. When SDF is applied

to carious lesions, the fluoride enhances remineralization, and the silver ions act as an

antibacterial agent and inhibit the growth of cariogenic biofilms. SDF also preserves the dentin

collagen from further degradation. 38% SDF has been used mostly. Its disadvantage is that it

cause dark staining of caries tissue.

9. Which of the following is also called as maternally derived Streptococcus mutans

disease(MDSMD)

A. Congenital heart disease

B. Dental caries

C. Early childhood caries

D. Rampant caries

Ans-C

Early Childhood Caries(ECC) is defined as the presence of one or more decayed (non-cavitated

or cavitated lesions), missing (due to caries) or filled tooth surfaces in any primary tooth in a

preschool-age child between birth and 71 months of age. A child born with a sterile oral cavity.

Mutans streptococcus transfer into child’s mouth by kissing or tasting food by mother before feeding the child.



10. What is the RT PCR test use for CPVID-19 diagnosis

A. Real time polymerase chain reaction

B. Rapid test polymerase chain reaction

C. Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction

D. Reaction time polymerase chain reaction

Ans- C

The COVID-19 RT-PCR test is a reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)

test for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from SARS-CoV-2 from nasopharyngeal or

oropharyngeal swabs. It is a gold standard test for the diagnosis of COVID-19.

11. Which of the following area is not covered by anticipatory guidance?

A. Fluoride adequacy

B. Oral hygiene

C. Oral habits

D. Caries restoration

Ans-D

Anticipatory guidance is defined as proactive counseling of parents and patients (by the dentist

before the event that happening) regarding the developmental changes that will occur in the

interval between health supervision visits that includes information about the daily caretaking

specific to that upcoming interval. It covered 6 major areas like oral development, fluoride

adequacy, oral hygiene, diet and nutrition, oral habits, injury, or trauma prevention.



12. What is mortal pulpotomy

A. Single visit pulpotomy

B. Partial pulpotomy

C. Non-vital pulpotomy

D. Regenerative pulpotomy

Ans- C

Ideally, treatment of choice for non-vital tooth is pulpectomy. Sometime pulpectomy of a non-

vital tooth is impractical due to child’s uncooperative behavior and non-negotiable root canals.

In such a case, two visits non-vital pulpotomy is done with beechwood cresol.

13. Incidence of cleft palate is more in

A. Male child

B. Female child

C. Equal in both

D. Either equal or more in a male child

Ans- B

In a female, the fusion of palatal shelves occurs one week later than males. So female palate

expose for a longer time to teratogenic substances. Hence the incidence of cleft palate is more

in a female.



14. According to Sigmund Fraud’s topographic model, the conscious level of our mind occupied

A. Around 10%

B. Around 20%

C. Around 50%

D. Around 90%

Ans-A

According to Fraud human mind is explained as that of an iceberg. Our mind consists of a

conscious, preconscious, and subconscious mind. Of these three, the conscious mind occupy

around 10% part(visible tip of iceberg) only. This conscious mind is where we are paying

attention at the moment like you are paying attention to this explanation.

15. Which of the following type of mouthguard is also regarded as boil and bite type.

A. Stock mouthguard

B. Mouth formed mouthguard

C. Custom fabricated mouthguard.

D. None of the above

Ans- B

A mouthguard is used to prevent sports related dental injuries like boxing. It must be easy in

fabrication, comfortable in the mouth, providing good retention, and protecting from sport

related dental injury. It is mainly of 3 types as mentioned above. Of these, mouth formed

mouthguard is also regarded as boil and bite type. This mouthguard is fabricated by placing the

mouthguard into boiling water so that it gets soft and then it is placed in the person’s mouth where it is molded with dentist finger pressure as well as the facial and intraoral muscular

movement of the person to enhance adaptation.



Orthodontics

1. Class II elastic is an example of (d)

a. Reciprocal anchorage

b. Intra-maxillary anchorage

c. Inter-maxillary anchorage

d. Both a and c

2. Lip trap is seen in (b)

a. Class I malocclusion

b. Class II division 1 malocclusion

c. Class II division 2 malocclusion

d. Class III malocclusion

3. Which of the following is an active component of a removable orthodontic appliance? (d)

a. Z-spring

b. Acrylic base plate

c. C-clasp

d. Adams’ clasp

4. Which of the following is the best indication of for myofunctional appliance therapy? (c)

a. Negative visual treatment objective (VTO)

b. Anterior open bite

c. Horizontal growth pattern

d. Lower anterior crowding

5. An example of muscular anchorage is (b)

a. Jasper jumper

b. Lip bumper

c. Activator

d. FR-III regulator

6. Face mask therapy is indicated in (d)

a. Class II malocclusion due to retrognathic mandible

b. Class III malocclusion due to prognathic mandible

c. Class II malocclusion due to prognathic maxilla

d. Class III malocclusion due to retrognathic maxilla

7. Which of the following acts as first messenger in the biological process of tooth movement?

(d)

a. cAMP

b. Ca++

c. cGMP

d. substance P



8. Among the following, which is otherwise known as natural implant? (d)

a. Ankylosed tooth

b. Commercially pure titanium implant

c. Temporary anchorage device (TAD)

d. Maxillary first molar

9. Which of the following malocclusion is not self-correcting? (b)

a. Midline diastema in mixed dentition

b. Anterior open bite in deciduous dentition

c. Deep bite in mixed dentition

d. Spacing in deciduous dentition

10. In gum pad stage of dentitional development, lateral sulcus is present between (b)

a. first deciduous molar segment and second deciduous molar segment

b. first deciduous molar segment and deciduous canine segment

c. deciduous canine segment and deciduous lateral incisor segment

d. in between deciduous central incisors segments

11. Which of the following is not the key to normal occlusion? (a)

a. Steep curve of Spee

b. Absence of rotation

c. Class I molar relationship

d. Tight contacts

12. Closing of midline diastema by using a removable appliance

a) Reciprocal single simple anchorage

b) Reciprocal simple compound anchorage

c) Reciprocal stationary single anchorage

d) Reciprocal stationary compound anchorage

Key A'

Reference [GRABER 3rd ed 520]

• Closure of midline diastema by using a removable appliance and correction of cross bites by intraarch elastics an example of Reciprocal single simple anchorage or option'A'.

• Closure of midline diastema by fixed appliance is an example of reciprocal single stationary

anchorage or option'C'Cleft lip and palate is usually associated with (c)

13. Midline diastema present in children is self-correcting if it is not more than (a)

a. 2 mm

b. 1.5 mm

c. 3 mm

d. 1 mm



14. Z spring is used for (a)

a. Labial movement of incisor

b. Lingual movement of incisor

c. Intrusion of incisor

d. Intrusion of molar

15. Which of the following was devised by Edward H Angle (c)

a. Lingual appliance

b. Straight wire appliance

c. Edgewise appliance

d. Twin block

PERIODONTICS

1. Bacterial plaque was described by

a) W.D Miller

b) G.V. Black

c) Robert Koch

d) J. Leon Williams

Answer d. Bacterial plaque was described by J. Leon Williams (1852–1932), an American

dentist who practiced in London and in 1897 described a gelatinous accumulation of bacteria

adherent to the enamel surface in relation to caries (CARRANZA’s 11th edition chapter 1 page

5)

2. Degree of keratinisation closely related to which enzyme

a) Alanine transminase

b) Alkaline phosphatase

c) Aspartate transaminase

d) Acid phosphatase

Answer d. The uppermost cells of the stratum spinosum contain numerous dense granules,

keratinosomes or Odland bodies, which are modified lysosomes. They contain a large amount

of acid phosphatase, an enzyme involved in the destruction of organelle membranes, which

occurs suddenly between the granulosum and corneum strata and during the intercellular

cementation of cornified cells and is closely related to the degree of keratinisation

(CARRANZA’s 11th edition chapter 3 page 16)



3. ‘Keystone’ pathogen, which subverts the host immune system and changes the microbial

composition of dental plaque, leading to periodontal bone loss is

a) Fusobacterium

b) P. Gingivalis

c) A. actinomycetemcomitans

d) P. intermedia

Answer b. Keystone pathogen hypothesis indicates that certain low-abundance microbial

pathogens can orchestrate inflammatory disease by remodellimg normally benign microbiota

into dysniotic, and P.gingivalis is labelled as the keystone pathogen, this means that it is central

to the disease process and which subverts the host immune system and changes the microbial

composition of dental plaque, leading to periodontal bone loss. (CARRANZA’s 13th edition

chapter 8 page 139)

4. 17years old male presents crowded teeth with plaque and generalized gingival inflammation

with BOP, patient reported stress affecting sleep. The cause for the gingival inflammation in

this case is

a) Stress

b) Puberty

c) Plaque

d) Crowded teeth

Answer c. Plaque is the primary cause of the gingival inflammation, stress and hormonal

influences impact the magnitude of gingivitis but are not the primary cause , crowded teeth

leads to the plaque accumulation it doesnot cause or initiate inflammation. (CARRANZA’s 13th edition chapter 10)



5. Which of the following genetic disorders is not associated with periodontal disease?

a. Down syndrome

b. Cyclic neutropenia

c. Oro-facial digital syndrome

d. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

Answer c. A number of extremely rare conditions consistently include periodontitis among

the array of clinical manifestations that define a syndrome. Some of the syndromes that

include periodontitis are caused by mutations in specific genes. For example, mutations in

the cathepsin C gene have been shown to cause both Papillon- Lefèvre and Haim-Munk

syndromes, some forms of nonsyndromic prepubertal periodontitis, and may also be

associated with risk of aggressive periodontitis. Periodontitis frequently occurs in some

subtypes of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Kindler syndrome, Down syndrome (trisomy 21),

leukocyte adhesion deficiencies, hypophosphatasia. (CARRANZA’s 13th edition chapter

11 page 173)

6. All of the following are features of infrabony pocket except

a. Pattern of bone destruction is vertical

b. Base of the pocket is coronal to the crest of the alveolar bone

c. Transseptal fibers are oblique

d. PDL follow the angular pattern of adjacent bone

Answer b

(CARRANZA’s 13th edition chapter 23 page 314)



7. Which crytal forms are more frequently detected and constitute the bulk of calculus

a) Magnesium whitlockite and Hydroxyapatite

b) Hydroxyapaptite and octacalcium phosphate

c) Hydroxyapatite and brushite

d) Octacalcium phosphate and magnesium whitlockite

Answer b. Hydroxyapatite and octacalcium phosphate are detected most frequently (i.e., in

97% to 100% of all supragingival calculus) and constitute the bulk of the specimen. Brushite

is more common in the mandibular anterior region, and magnesium whitlockite is found in the

posterior areas. The incidence of the four crystal forms varies with the age of the deposit.

(CARRANZA’s 13th edition chapter 13)



8. 65 years old patient has prominent painful erythema and erosion of the gingiva and attached

mucosa in the maxillary and mandibular soft tissues. He was hypertenisive and had reported

that the lesion was worsen, histopathological examination showed hyperkeratosis, basal cell

degeneration of the epithelium, serrated rete ridges, and a superficial bandlike infiltrate in the

lamina propria, DIF studies revealed a shaggy, linear signal of fibrin at the epithelial–

connective tissue interface. What is the diagnosis?

a) Desquamative gingivitis

b) Lichen planus

c) Ulcerative stomatitis

d) Pemphigoid

.

Answer b. Desquamative gingivitis is a clinical term and not a diagnosis. Diagnostic Findings

for Conditions That Can Manifest as Desquamative Gingivitis are pemphigus, cicatrial

pemphigoid, bullous pemphigoid, lichen planus, chronic ulcerative stomatitis, systemic lupus

erythematosus

Microscopically, three main features characterize oral lichen planus: (1) hyperkeratosis or

parakeratosis, (2) hydropic degeneration of the basal layer, and (3) a dense, bandlike infiltrate,

consisting primarily of T lymphocytes, in the lamina propria. Classically, the epithelial rete

ridges have a sawtooth configuration. Hydropic degeneration of the basal layer of the

epithelium can be sufficiently extensive that the epithelium becomes thin and atrophic or

detaches from the underlying connective tissue and produces a subepithelial vesicle or an ulcer.

Colloid bodies (i.e., Civatte bodies) are often seen at the epithelium–connective tissue

interface.

Direct immunofluorescence of lesional and perilesional oral lichen planus biopsy specimens

reveals linear fibrillar (i.e., shaggy) deposits of fibrin in the basement membrane zone, along

with scattered immunoglobulin-staining cytoid bodies in the upper areas of the lamina propria.

(CARRANZA’s 13th edition chapter 22)

9. 15mm long probe marked at each millimeter and color coded at the 5th, 10th, and 15th

millimetres is

a) Marquis color-coded probe.

b) University of North Carolina 15 probe

c) University of Michigan “O” probe, with Williams markings d) Michigan “O” probe with markings

Answer b



Types of periodontal probes. A, Marquis color-coded probe. Calibrations are in 3-mm sections.

B, University of North Carolina 15 probe, a 15-mm long probe marked at each millimeter and

color coded at the 5th, 10th, and 15th millimeters. C, University of Michigan “O” probe, with

Williams markings (at 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, and 10 mm). D, Michigan “O” probe with markings at 3, 6, and 8 mm. E, World Health Organization probe, which has a 0.5-mm ball at the tip and

markings at 3.5, 8.5, and 11.5 mm and color coding from 3.5 to 5.5 mm.

(Carranza 13th edition Chapter 50)

10. Locally delivered antimicrobial products, Arestin contains?

a) Tetracycline

b) Minocycline

c) Doxycycline

d) Chlorhexidine

Answer b.

Locally delivered, controlled-release antimicrobial products, A chlorhexidine-containing chip

(PerioChip), a doxycycline gel (Atridox), and minocycline microspheres (Arestin). A fourth

product, an ethylene or vinyl acetate copolymer fiber containing the antibiotic tetracycline

(Actisite as a 12.7-mg, 9-inch filament), was the first product introduced into the U.S. market

in the early 1990s. (Carranza 13th edition Chapter 53)



11. Vertical incision should

a) Not split a papilla

b) Be placed over root prominence

c) Length of flap should be longer than width

d) Base of flap should be narrower than margin

Answer a

Vertical incisions should not (A) split a papilla or (B) be placed over a root prominence. When

two vertical incision are used, (C) the length of the flap should not be longer than the width of

the flap, and (D) the base of the flap should not be narrower than the margin of the flap.

(Carranza 13th edition Chapter 60)

12. Gingivectomy is contraindicated in all except

a) Access to bone required

b) Narrow zone of keratinized tissue

c) Elimination of infrabony pockets

d) Elimination of suprabony pockets

Answer d

Gingivectomy may be performed for the following indications:

1. Elimination of suprabony pockets if the pocket wall is fibrous and firm

2. Elimination of gingival enlargements

Contraindications to gingivectomy include the following:

1. Access to bone required

2. Narrow zone of keratinized tissue

3. Aesthetics

4. Patients with high postoperative risk of bleeding (Carranza 13th edition Chapter 61)

13. Demineralized freeze-dried bone allograft (DFDBA) is

a) Osteoinductive

b) Osteoconductive

c) Osteogenic

d) Osteopromotive

Answer a. Demineralized freeze-dried bone allograft (DFDBA) is thought to have

osteoinductive effects because viable BMPs within the donor tissue matrix are exposed by the

decalcification process (Carranza 13th edition)



14. Marginal tissue recession extends to or apical to the mucogingival junction. There is no

loss of bone or soft tissue in the interdental area, is which type based on Miller’s classification of recession

a) Class I

b) Class II

c) Class III

d) Class IV

Answer b.

P.D. Miller's classification of denuded roots.

Class I. Marginal tissue recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction. There is no

loss of bone or soft tissue in the interdental area. This type of recession can be narrow or wide.

Class II. Marginal tissue recession extends to or apical to the mucogingival junction. There is

no loss of bone or soft tissue in the interdental area. This type of recession can be subclassified

as wide and narrow.

Class III. Marginal tissue recession extends to or apical to the mucogingival junction. There is

bone and soft tissue loss interdentally or malpositioning of the tooth facially.

Class IV. Marginal tissue recession extends to or apical to the mucogingival junction. There is

severe bone and soft tissue loss interdentally or severe tooth malposition (Carranza 13th edition

Chapter 65)



15. 30 years old female complains of pain in the right mandibular molar, on examination pocket

depth of 7-8mm was present irt 46, no carries/fracture present, suppuration and bop present,

radiograph showed extention of bone loss upto apical third and periapical radiolucency in the

distal root. The endo-perio lesion of this case is

a) Primary pulpal infection

b) Primary periodontal infection

c) Both primary pulpal and primary periodontal infection

d) Combined infection

Answer b.

Classification of endodontic-periodontic lesions. (A) Primary pulpal infection can lead to

chronic periradicular periodontitis by which a periapical radiolucency can develop and migrate

cervically. Mandibular molars can also have accessory canals in lateral orientation or in the

furcation area. These accessory canals can allow migration of the primary pulpal infection and

cause secondary breakdown of the periodontium at their respective loci. (B) Primary

periodontal infection can lead to extensive breakdown of alveolar crest bone that migrates from

the cervical area to the apex. In these lesions, one would find generalized bone loss around a

single tooth or that often could involve multiple adjacent teeth. Because of the

pulpalperiodontal continuum through main root canal foramina or through accessory canals,

extensive periodontal infection can cause irritation in the pulp tissues. (C) Both primary pulpal

infection and primary periodontal infection can occur simultaneously in an “independent”

endo-perio lesion, exhibiting the characteristics of both. (D) Primary pulpal and primary

periodontal infections can occur extensively in this “combined” endo-perio lesion.



Prosthodontics

Complete Dentures

1. Residual ridge resorption is

a. Directly proportional to dampening effect factors

b. Not related to anatomic factors

c. A pathologic process

d. All of the above

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Essentials of Complete Denture Prosthodontics (Winkler)

3rd edition.

RRR proportional anatomic factors + bone resorption factors + force factors + 1

bone formation factors damping effect factors time

2. In classification of tongue position, the tip of the tongue is in normal position in:

a. Class I

b. Class III

c. Class II

d. Class I and II

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Essentials of Complete Denture Prosthodontics (Winkler)

3rd edition. Tongue position is important to the prognosis of mandibular denture. Wright classified

tongue positions as follows: Class I- the tongue lies in the floor of the mouth with the tip forward

and slightly below the incisal edges of the mandibular anterior teeth; class II- the tongue is flattened

and broadened but the tip is in a normal position; and class III- the tongue is retracted and

depressed into the floor of the mouth with tip curled upward, downward, or assimilated into the

body of the tongue.

3. Main disadvantage of silicone resilient liner is

a. Easy staining

b. Lack of adherence to acrylic resin

c. Leaching out of plasticizer

d. Easy bleaching

Ans: The correct answer is B. Reference: Essentials of Complete Denture Prosthodontics (Winkler)

3rd edition. Silicone elastomers remain soft but adhere with difficulty to the acrylic resin base.



4. Average ratio of bone loss between maxilla and mandible in anterior region is estimated to be

a. 2:3

b. 1:3

c. 3:1

d. 1:4

Ans: The correct answer is D. Reference: Prosthodontic treatment for edentulous patients (Zarb)

13th edition; Chapter 1; page 15. In complete denture wearers, the mean reduction in height of the

mandibular process measured in the anterior region may be approximately four times greater than

that in the corresponding maxillary process.

Removable Partial Dentures

1. Lingual or cingulum rests are used primarily on

a. Maxillary canines

b. Mandibular canines

c. Maxillary incisors

d. Mandibular incisors

Ans: The correct answer is A. Reference: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Prosthodontics, 4th edition,

Chapter 2, Page 47. Lingual or cingulum rests are used primarily on maxillary canines. The normal

morphology of a maxillary canine permits preparation of a satisfactory rest seat with minimal tooth

reduction. The thickness of enamel on the lingual surface of a mandibular canine rarely allows a

lingual rest to be used. Lingual rests on incisors are also rare.

2. If the interarch space is extremely limited or if drifting of the remaining teeth has resulted in

a space that is too narrow; which of the following is indicated?

a. RAPs ( Reinforced acrylic pontics)

b. Tube teeth

c. Braided posts

d. Metal pontics

Ans: The correct answer is D. Reference: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Prosthodontics, 4th edition,

Chapter 3, Page 92. The use of cast metal pontics in removable partial denture applications is

restricted to the replacement of posterior teeth. Such pontics are used where interarch space is

extremely limited or where drifting of the remaining teeth has resulted in a space that is too narrow

for placement of a denture tooth.



3. If a mesiofacial undercut is available on the abutment tooth adjacent to the distal extension

space ………….. should be used

a. Reverse circlet clasp

b. Infrabulge clasp

c. Combination clasp

d. Any of the above

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Prosthodontics, 4th edition,

Chapter 3, Page 83. If a mesiofacial undercut is available on the abutment tooth adjacent to a distal

extension space, a combination clasp incorporating a wrought-wire retentive element should be

used to dissipate functional stresses.

4. Push type retention is not shown by

a. Akers clasp

b. Roach clasp

c. Bar type clasp

d. Vertical projection clasp

Ans: The correct answer is A. Reference: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Prosthodontics, 4th edition,

Chapter 3, Page 78. An infrabulge clasp approaches the undercut region of an abutment from an

apical direction. Therefore, an infrabulge clasp exhibits a “push” type of retention that is more

effective than the “pull” retention associated with a suprabulge clasp. Options B, C, D are all

synonyms of infrabulge clasp

Maxillofacial prosthesis

1. Mandibular flange prosthesis was developed first by

a. Robinson and Rubright

b. Cantor and Curtis

c. Aramany

d. Beumer

Ans: The correct answer is A. Reference: Mandibular resection guidance prostheses: A literature

review

Robert L. Schneider, D.D.S., MS.,* and Thomas D. Taylor, D.D.S., M.S.D.



Fixed Partial Denture

1. The recommended sequence for evaluation of crown is

1. Occlusion

2. Marginal integrity

3. Stability

4. Proximal contacts

5. Characterization and glazing

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

c. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5

d. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

e.

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics; Rosensteil,

Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 29 – Evaluation, Characterization and

Glazing; Page 751; Following a logical sequence during the evaluation procedures is

important if mistakes are to be avoided. The recommended sequence is as follows:

1. Proximal contacts

2. Marginal integrity

3. Stability

4. Occlusion

5. Characterization and glazing

The proximal contacts are evaluated first because excessive contact there prevents the

restoration from seating, which leads to a marginal discrepancy. If a restoration is not

seating completely, then assessing stability and sectioning, or adjusting the occlusion, is

premature.

2. The dentist should rest his or her eyes between viewings by focusing or glancing on ………. a. Gray surface

b. Blue surface

c. White surface

d. Light yellow surface

Ans: The correct answer is A. Reference: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics; Rosensteil,

Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 23 – Description of color, Color-replication

process, and Esthetics; Page 638; The dentist should rest his or her eyes between viewings

by focusing on a neutral gray surface immediately before a matching; this balances all the

color sensors of the retina. Resting eyes on a blue card was once advised, but it is no longer

recommended because it results in blue fatigue. Between comparisons, glancing at a gray

object rests the operator’s eyes and helps avoid retinal cone fatigue.



3. How much larger or smaller should the internal diameter of a complete cast crown be,

compared to the diameter of the preparation?

a. Crown should be 20-40 µm smaller

b. Crown should be identical in size to the preparation

c. Crown should be 20-40 µm larger

d. Crown should be 40-80 µm larger

Ans: The correct answer is D. Reference: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics; Rosensteil,

Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 17 – Definitive casts and dies;

4. One of the treatment options for tilted molar abutment is orthodontic uprighting. The

average treatment time required is

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 9 months

d. 12 months

Ans: The correct answer is A. Reference: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics; 4th edition

(Shillingburg); Chapter 7: Treatment planning for the Replacement of Missing Teeth; Page 93

5. For a conventional tooth supported fixed partial denture, the maximum allowable

inclination that can be accommodated by preparation modification is

a. Less than 15 degrees

b. Less than 20 degrees

c. Less than 25 degrees

d. Less than 30 degrees

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics; 4th edition

(Shillingburg); Chapter 7: Treatment planning for the Replacement of Missing Teeth; Page 83

1. Rank the following in order of increasing retentiveness

1. Threaded post – 8 mm

2. Tapered post – 8 mm

3. Tapered post – 5 mm

4. Parallel post – 8mm

a. 1, 4, 2, 3

b. 2, 3, 4, 1

c. 3, 2, 1, 4

d. 3, 2, 4, 1


Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Threaded posts are most retentive, followed by

parallel posts.

Least retentive tapered posts. Longer the post, more retentive it is.



Endodontics

1. Which are you not looking for when exploring the apical third of a canal?

A. Hypercementosis

B. Branches

C. Lateral canal openings

D. Obstructions

Key: A

2. Electric pulp testing can be attempted on tooth having complete coverage crown by:

A) Snow plough technique

B) Bridging technique

C) Electric pulp testing is contraindicated on tooth having complete coverage

restoration

D) Soft start technique

Key: B

A bridging technique can be attempted to deliver the electric current to any

exposed natural tooth structure. The tip of an endodontic explorer is coated with

toothpaste or other appropriate medium and placed in contact with the natural

tooth structure. The tip of the electric pulp tester probe is coated with a small

amount of toothpaste and placed in contact with the side of the explorer.

Ref: COHEN 10th Edition, CHAPTER- 1: Diagnosis, page: 18

3. Which of the following is not the objective of access cavity preparation:

A. to remove all caries

B. to remove all coronal pulp tissue (vital or necrotic)

C. to obtain retention form

D. to establish restorative margins to minimize marginal leakage of the restored

tooth

Key: C



The objectives of access cavity preparation are (1) to remove all caries, (2)

to conserve sound tooth structure, (3) to completely unroof the pulp

chamber, (4) to remove all coronal pulp tissue (vital or necrotic), (5) to locate

all root canal orifices, (6) to achieve straight- or direct-line access to the

apical foramen or to the initial curvature of the canal, and (7) to establish

restorative margins to minimize marginal leakage of the restored tooth

Ref: COHEN 10th Edition, CHAPTER-7, Tooth Morphology and Access

Cavity Preparation, page: 150

4. To avoid external transportation of the root canal

A. precurve instruments

B. use large instruments

C. avoid the use of sodium hypochlorite

D. use vigorous instrumentation

Key: A

Ref: cohen’s pathways of the pulp, 10th edition, chapter-9 Cleaning and

Shaping of the Root Canal System

5. Which of the following root canal irrigation device having a combined

irrigation/evacuation system:

A. EndoActivator system

B. passive ultrasonic irrigation

C. EndoVac system

D. HealOzone

Key: C

EndoVac is a combined irrigation/evacuation system.

Ref: cohen’s pathways of the pulp, 10th edition, chapter-8, Instruments,

Materials, and Devices, page-256



6. MTAD is the

A. Type of retrograde filling material having MTA

B. irrigating solution created which is capable of removing the both the smear

layer and disinfecting the root canal system

C. Type of pulp capping agent

D. Retrograde resin filling material

Key: B

MTAD is the first irrigating solution created which is capable of removing the

both the smear layer and disinfecting the root canal system. It is a mixture of

3% doxycycline hyclate, 4.25% citric acid, and 0.5% polysorbate-80 (Tween

80) detergent.

Ref: cohen’s pathways of the pulp, 10th edition, chapter-8, Instruments,

Materials, and Devices, page-251

7. Gutta-percha is best sterilized in

A. an autoclave.

B. Chlorhexidine.

C. 5.5% sodium hypochlorite for 1 minute

D. paraformaldehyde for 1 minute

Key: C

8. The most important anatomic landmark for determining the location of pulp chambers

and root canal orifices is:

A. Cementoenamel junction

B. The floor of the pulp chamber

C. The walls of the pulp chamber

D. The floor–wall junction

Key: A

Ref: cohen’s pathways of the pulp, 10th edition, chapter 7 Tooth Morphology

and Access Cavity Preparation, page: 151

In one a study involving 500 pulp chambers, Krasner and Rankow108 found

that the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) was the most important anatomic

landmark for determining the location of pulp chambers and root canal

orifices.



Conservative Dentistry

1. Enamel contains:

A. 96% inorganic hydroxyapatite mineral by weight

B. 86% inorganic hydroxyapatite mineral by weight

C. 80% inorganic hydroxyapatite mineral by volume

D. 80% inorganic hydroxyapatite mineral by weight

Key: A Ref: Summit’s fundamental of Operative Dentistry 4th edition, chapter

1, Biological Considerations, page 1

2. The combined vertical dimension of junctional epithelium and connective tissue

attachment is termed as:

A. Periodontal width

B. Biological width

C. Sulcus width

D. Gingival width

Key: B Ref: Summit’s fundamental of Operative Dentistry 4th edition, chapter

1 Biological Considerations, page: 26,27

3. Severely “cupped out” cusp tips and teeth that have restorations standing above the

surrounding tooth structure, often termed “Amalgam island” are clinical findings

commonly associated with:

A. Chemical erosion

B. Attrition

C. Abrasion

D. Abfraction


2 Patient evaluation and problem-oriented treatment planning, page 48

Erosive lesions have a smooth, glassy appearance. Chemical erosion can be

distinguished from mechanical wear by the location and character of the

defects.



4. In the vita classical shade guide:

A. Letter designated for hue and digit designated for chroma

B. Letter designated for chroma and digit designated for hue

C. Both letter and digit designated for value

D. Both letter and digit designated for chroma


4, Color and shade matching, page: 82

The vita classical shade A to D arrangement distributes tabs into four groups

based on hue: A is red, B is yellow, C is gray and D is reddish gray. Within

each group, chroma increases with an increase in the tab number, which

appears after the letter designating the group.

5. Which of the following component of saliva involved in remineralization;

A. Lysozyme

B. Histamin

C. Bicarbonate

D. Statherin

Key: D Ref: Summit’s fundamental of Operative Dentistry 4th edition, chapter

5, Caries management: Diagnosis and treatment strategies, page: 97

6. A caries lesion at the margin of a restoration is:

A. Primary caries

B. Arrested caries

C. Recurrent caries

D. Pit and fissure caries

Key: C Ref: Summit’s fundamental of Operative Dentistry 4th edition, chapter

5, Caries management: Diagnosis and treatment strategies, page:108



7. Which of the following statement is false regarding primer:

A. The primer helps to make dentin surface more hydrophobic

B. The primer helps to make dentin surface more hydrophilic

C. The primer typically contains a molecule or molecules with both hydrophilic and

hydrophobic characteristics

D. It functions by penetrating the demineralized dentin and preparing it for the

bonding resin

Key:B Ref: Summit’s fundamental of Operative Dentistry 4th edition, chapter 9

Adhesion to enamel and dentin, Page: 209

ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

1) Which of the following is not a sclerosing agent?

a) Sodium psyllate

b) Sodium morruhate

c) Sodium tetradecyl sulphate

d) Sodium bicarbonate

Ans d

2) The plunging ranula is so called because of

a) Its size

b) Lifting of tongue

c) Extension through mylohyoid

d) Involovement of lingual nerv

Ans c

[shafer's 5th edi page 750]

Plunging ranula occurs due to herniation of spilled mucin through the mylohyoid

muscle producing swelling in the neck.



3) Which of the following is not a primary mandibular space?

a) Buccal

b) Sublingual

c) Submandibular

d) Pterygomandibular

Ans d

[neelima malik 4th edition page 565]

Primary mandibular spaces are

Submental space

Sublingual space

Submandibular space

Buccal space

Pterygomandibular space is secondary space.

4) Treatment of garre's osteomyelitis is

a) Incision and drainage

b) Sequestrectomy

c) Saucerization

d) Surgical recontouring

Ans d


Surgical recontouring is done to recontour the cortical expansion of the jaws.

5) Involucrum is

a) Dead bone

b) New live bone surrounding the dead bone

c) Previous live bone

d) Sclerotic bone

Ans b


Dead bone is called sequestrum, whereas involucrum is newly formed live bone that

is surrounding the dead bone.



6) Which of the following does not come under virtual planning in orthognathic surgery?

a) Clinical photographs

b) Cephalograms and prediction tracing

c) Digital dental model

d) CT scan correctly oriented to an anatomical frame of reference

Ans b

[oral and maxillofacial surgery review by laskin page 137]

Cephalograms and prediction tracing comes under traditional planning and

remaining options comes under virtual planning.

7) For standard Lefort I osteotomy, the vestibular incision extends from

a) From zygomatic buttress of one side to zygomatic buttress of other side

b) From 3rd molar of one side to 3rd molar of other side

c) From 2nd molar of one side to 2nd molar of other side

d) From 1st premolarof one side to 1st premolar of other side

Ans a


For planned Lefort I osteotomy, incision extends from either 1st molar or zygomatic

buttress of one side to same region of opposite side

8) Which of the following is not intraoperative complicaiton of Lefort I osteotomy?

a) Bleeding

b) Damage to teeth

c) Blindness

d) Avascular necrosis

Ans d


Options a, b and c are intraoperative complications whereas option d is

postoperative complication of Lefort I osteotomy.



9) Witch's chin may be the complication of which of the following procedure?

a) Genioplasty

b) Bsso

c) Ivro

d) Inverted l osteotomy

Ans a


After genioplasty, mentalis muscle is reapproxiamted carefully with resorbable

suture before mucosa closure. Failure of mentalis approximation can result in chin

ptosis also known as witch's chin.

10) An adult male of 47 years has apnea hyponea index score of 32. The severity of osa for

him is

a) Mild OSA

b) Moderate OSA

c) Severe OSA

d) No OSA

Ans c


AHI OSA severity

5-15 mild

15-30 moderate

>30 severe

11) A person was brought to emergency department after RTA. He opened his eyes to pain,

was disoriented and withdraws to pain. The GCS of the patient is

a) 5

b) 7

c) 8

d) 10

Ans d


Follow scoring for eye opening, motor response and speech component of glassgow

coma scale.



12) After maxillofacial injury, the blood loss of the patient was estimated to be 1900 ml. This

is classified as which class of hemorrhage?

a) Class I

b) Class II

c) Class III

d) Classs IV

Ans c


Class of hemorrhage blood loss in ml

I ` <750ml

II 750-1500ml

III 1500-2000ml

IV >2000 ml

13) For airway management of crushed panfacial fracture, the airway can be secured via

following mode of intubations except

a) Submental intubation

b) Tracheostomy

c) Intubation through orbit

d) Intubation through ear

Ans d

The common mode of intubation in such case is submental intubation.

Tracheostomy is also commonly practised. Intubation through orbit is also reported.

Intubation through ear has not been reported.

14) Following are indications for load bearing osteosynthesis except

a) Atrophic mandible

b) Continuity defect

c) Comminuted fracture

d) Condylar head fracture

Ans d


Option a,b and c requires load bearing osteosyntheis. Condylar head fracture is

managed generally conservatively.



15) Osteosynthesis with two lag screws is best suited in case of

a) Angle fracture

b) Coronoid fracture

c) Symphysis fracture

d) NOE fracture

Key c

[Oral and maxillofacial surgery review by Laskin page 175]

two lag screws are beneficial in linear non comminuted fractures, so symphysis

fracture is better option.

Public Health Dentistry

1. In a distribution, if the mean is less median, then the distribution is said to be

a. Negative skewed

b. Positively skewed

c. Normal distribution

d. No correlation

Key: a

Explanation: (Ref Mahajan’s 9th ed, pg 164)

Symmetrical curve--- mean=median=mode also if p=0.5

Positive (right) skewed---- mean>median>mode also if p<0.5

Negative (left) skewed----mode>median>mean also if p>0.5

2. In random sampling chance of being picked up is-

a. Same and known

b. Not same and not known

c. Same and not known

d. Not same but known

Key: a (Ref Mahajan’s 9th ed pg 128)

Simple random sampling, also, known as unrestricted random sampling

So every individual has the same probability of being chosen at any stage during

the sampling process.



3. P-value is the probability of-

a. Not rejecting a null hypothesis when true

b. Not rejecting a null hypothesis when false

c. Rejecting a null hypothesis when true

d. Rejecting a null hypothesis when false

Key: c

P value tells about the probability of type I error (i.e., rejection of null hypothesis

when it is true)

4. Suspected cause preceding the observed effects is an example for-

a. Consistency of association

b. Strength of association

c. Coherence of association

d. Temporal association

Key: d (Park 23rd ed)

Temporal association implies cause precedes or effect follows cause, i.e.,

suspected cause preceding the observed effect.

5. In a randomized control trial, the essential purpose of randomization is-

a. To produce double blinding

b. To decrease the follow-up period

c. To eliminate the selection bias

d. To decrease the sample size

Key: c

Randomization is the heart of RCT. Randomization is done while, dividing the

participants into study group and control group.

6. What IS Berkesonian bias-

a. Mis-classification bias

b. Recall bias

c. Non-response bias

d. Selection bias

Key: d



7. Following are properties of a slow sand filter EXCEPT

a. Occupies large area

b. Pretreatment of raw water by coagulation is not required

c. Purification is by biological process

d. Cleaning is by backwashing

Key:d (Park 23rd pg.715)

Cleaning of slow sand filter is by scraping method

8. Public health problem are determined by following criteria Except:

a. Prevalence of the dental diseases

b. Impact of the dental condition on an individual level

c. Impact of the dental condition on wider society

d. There is no perception on the part of the public or government

Key:d (Soben peter 5th ed, pg 245)

The criteria which define public health problems are:

1.Prevalence of condition

ii. Impact of the condition

iii. Impact of the condition on wider society

iv. Dental diseases are preventable and effective treatments are available

v. There is a perception on the part of the public or government

9. Components of school oral health program is/are-

a. Health appraisal

b. Curative services

c. Conducting dental inspections

d. Emergency care and first aid

Key: c (soben peter 5th ed pg 489)

10. Fluoride increases enamel resistance by-

a. Fluoride forms fluorapatite, which is less soluble mineral

b. Fluoride increases the rate of mineralization

c. Fluoride deposit calcium and phosphate ions from saliva

d. Fluoride inhibit Enolase and Bacterial phosphatase

Key: a (Soben peter 5th ed, 528)

Fluoride forms fluorapatite, which is a less soluble minerals-reduce

dissolution and solubility of enamel.



Anatomy

1. The taste buds, composed of modified epithelial cells, in tongue have a varied distribution.

In which part are these buds most numerous?

a. Foliate papillae

b. Vallate papillae

c. Fungiform papillae

d. Central region of the dorsum of tongue Key: (b)

2. Which of the following muscles of the tongue is NOT supplied by the hypoglossal nerve?

a. Genioglossus

b. Hyoglossus

c. Styloglossus

d. Palatoglossus

Key: (d)

3. Which is the most common position of the vermiform appendix?

a. Retrocaecal

b. Pelvis

c. Subcoecal

d. Preileal

key: a

4. Dangerous layer of scalp is:

a. Superficial fascia

b. Epicranial aponeurosis

c. Loose connective tissue

d. Pericranium

Key: c

5. Parotid duct opens into:

a. Labial vestibule opposite the crown of the upper second molar tooth

b. Labial vestibule opposite the crown of the upper third molar tooth

c. Buccal vestibule opposite the crown of the upper first molar tooth

d. Buccal vestibule opposite the crown of the upper second molar tooth

Key: d



Pharmacology

1. Mrs. Sharma was prescribed beclomethasone inhalation as a prophylactic treatment

for bronchial asthma. She was advised to rinse her mouth with water each time after

the inhalation. The advice to rinse mouth after each inhalation was given to avoid

which one of the following side effects?

a. Allergy

b. Fungal infection of the mouth

c. Diarrhoea

d. Tolerance to treatment

key: b

2. A 48-year-old non-vegetarian pregnant women presents with chill, rigor, and fever.

On examination of a Blood specimen plasmodium falciparum.

Which one of the following drugs would be of benefit to this individual?

a. Halophyntrine

b. Cloroquine

c. Mefloquine

d. Quinine

key: b

3. Which one of the following is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia:

a. paracetamal

b. prednesolone

c. dantrolone

d. pancuranium

Key: (c)

4. Which of the following drugs is ulcer protective?

a. Omeprazole

b. Ranitidine

c. Pirenzepine

d. Sucralfate

key: d

5. A 10-year-old master Prabin came to Eye OPD with complaint of eye strain and

headache. The patient was sent for cycloplegic refraction.The suitable cycloplegic

mydriatic to perform refraction for this case is:

a. Atropine

b. Homatropine

c. Cyclopentolate

d. Tropicamide

key: c



Pathology

1. Which of the following is NOT a non neoplastic polyp?

a. Tubular adenoma

b. Peutz – Jehger polyp

c. Juvenile polyp

d. Inflammatory polyp

key: a

2. A 30-year-old woman presented to the surgical OPD with a 2.5 cm swelling in

maximum dimension on the right parotid region. An excisional biopsy showed

microscopic features of mixed epithelial cells along with mesenchymal stromal matrix.

What is the favoured diagnosis in this case?

a. Warthins tumour

b. Pleomorphic adenoma

c. Basal cell adenoma

d. Carcinoma–ex–Pleomorphic adenoma

key: b

3. Following are the malignant tumour of bone EXCEPT:

a. Osteosarcoma

b. Chondroma

c. Multiple Myeloma

d. Ewing’s Sarcoma

Key (b)

4. A 19-year-old male presented with pain and swelling in the right thigh since one

month. X-ray findings revealed cortical thickening and widening of medullary cavity.

FNAC revealed uniform small round cells which showed PAS positivity. The most likely

diagnosis is:

a. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. b. Metastatic Neuroblastoma.

c. Ewing’s Sarcoma. d. Osteosarcoma

Key (c)

5. Swan neck deformity is seen in:

a. Gout

b. Pseudogout

c. Rheumatoid arthritis

d. Osteoporosis

Key: (c)



BIOCHEMISTRY:

1. Which vitamin is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?

a) Vit B

b) Vit A

c) Vit D

d) Vit K

Answer: ' D' [Satyanarayana 3rd & 4th eds 130-31]

Biotin, Vitamin K, B12 vitamins are synthesized in the gut by intestinal flora.

2. Lactate dehydrogenase is:

a) Isozyme

b) Coenzyme

c) Antienzyme

d) Zymogen

Answer: 'A' [Satyanarayana 3rd & 4th eds 104]

lsoenzymes catalyse the same reaction but differ in physical and chemical properties.

Lactate dehydrogenase, creatinine phosphokinase, alkaline phosphatase and alcohol

dehydrogenase are examples of isoenzymes

3. The portion of DNA in which RNA polymerase binds and starts transcription is called:

a) Terminator

b) Anti terminator

c) Operator

d) Promoter region

Answer: 'D' [Satyanarayana 3rd & 4th eds 544)

The binding of enzyme RNA polymerase to DNA is the prerequisite for the beginning of

transcription. The

specific region on the DNA where the enzyme binds is known as promoter region.

4."Argentaffinoma" is characterized by

excretion of:

a) 5- Hydroxy indole acetate

b) 3- Hydroxy phenyl pyruvate

c) Phenyl lactate

d) Phenyl acetate

Answer: A [Satyanarayana 3rd & 4th eds 356]

"Argentaffinomas" or malignant carcinoid syndrome is due to uncontrolled growth of

serotonin secreting cells of GIT. Normally 1 % of 'tryptophan' is utilized for serotonin

synthesis. In case of carcinoid syndrome very high amount of tryptophan is diverted for

serotonin

production. This results in impaired synthesis of NAO+ and NADP+ and the patient develops

the symptoms of pellagra due to niacin deficiency.



5. False statement about haemoglobin structure:

a) Hb has 2 polypeptide chains

b) Iron is present in ferrous state

c) Hb structurally similar to myoglobin

d) Ferrous ions are in porphyrin rings

Answer: A' [Satyanarayana 3rd & 4th eds 196]

Hemoglobin contains 4 polypeptide chains. The adult hemoglobin is made up of two alpha

chains and two

beta chains while fetal hemoglobin is made up of two alpha chains and two gama chains

MICROBIOLOGY:

1. Germ tubes are formed mainly by

a) Candida albicans

b) Candida stellatoidea

c) Candida tropicalis

d) Candida pseudotropicalis

Answer: 'A' [Ananthanarayan 8th ed 607-08 / 9th ed 612]

Candida albicans can be identifi ed from other candida species by growth characteristics,

sugar assimilation

and fermentation tests. It produces germ tubes within two hours when incubated in human

serum at 37°C

2. Common name for Trichuris trichura

a) Round worm

b) Whip worm

c) Tape worm

d) Seat worm

Answer: 'B' [Jayaram Panikar 6th ed 165]

3. A Cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the

presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most

commonly employed for the purpose is

a) India ink preparation

b) Methanamine silver stain

c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d) Phyte-ferraco stain

Answer: 'A' [Ananthanarayan 8th ed 610/ 9th ed 614)

Diagnosis of cryptococcosis is established by demonstration of capsulated, budding yeast

cells

in the lesions and by culture. India in k preparation stains t he capsules. In cryptococcal

meningitis, capsulated yeast cells are present in CS F. The fungus can be cultured in

sabouraud's agar.



4. Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus

infection during "window" period?

a) HBs Ag

b) IgM anti - HBc

c) Anti HBs

d) None of the above

Answer: 'B' [Ananthnarayan 8th ed 540 / 9th ed 548)

Anti-HBC is t he earliest antibody marker to be seen in blood. As anti-HBC remains lifelong, it

serves as a useful indicator of prior infection with HBV, even after all the other viral

markers, becomes undetectable. Initially, anti-HBC is predominantly IgM (indicates recent

infection), but after 6 months, it is mainly IgG (indicates remote infection).

5. The structure involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces is

a) Capsule

b) Fimbria

c) Flagella

d) None of the above

Answer: 'B' [Ananthanarayan 8th ed 21 / 9th ed 20)

Option 'C' Flagella are organs of locomotion.

Option 'A´ Capsule is sharply defined structure around the cell surface. When it is loose and

undemarcated, it is called slime layer. Capsule serves as a source of nutrition. It contains

virulence factors and makes the bacteria resistant to phagocytosis.

PHYSIOLOGY

1. Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes EXCEPT

a) Decline plasma calcium level

b) Decrease in plasma phosphate level

c) Neuromuscular hyperexcitability

d) Hypocalcemic tetany

Answer: 'B' [Sembulingam 5th ed 384]

Parathyroid decreases blood level of phosphate. It stimulates resorption of phosphate and

increases its urinary excretion. So removal of PTH glands increases blood phosphate level.

2. Small lymphocyte is:

a) Bigger than RBC

b) Same as the size of RBC

c) Smaller than RBC

d) None of these

Answer: 'C' [Sembulingam 4th ed 88/ 5th ed 93] A small lymphocyte has a diameter of

about 7 microns and RBC has a diameter of about 7.5 microns.



3. Axon hillock is a part of the soma of neuron which

a) Has dense Nissl granules

b) Has no Nissl granules

c) Is at commencement of dendrites

d) Is round in shape

Answer: 'B' [Sembulingam 5th ed 729)

Axon is the longer process of the nerve cell. Each neuron has only oneaxon.The axon arises

from axon hillock of the nerve cell body and it is devoid of Nissl granules.

4. Tubular maximum for glucose is

a) 180 mg/dl

b) 325 mg/min

c) 375 mg/min

d) 375 mg/dl

Answer: 'C' [Ganong 23rd ed 650/Sembulingam 5th ed 308]

Tubular transport maximum (Tm) is the rate at which a substance is reabsorbed from the

renal tubule. Tm for glucose is 375 mg/min. Renal threshold for glucose is 180mg/dl.

5. Carotid body/baroreceptor is located at the origin of

a) Common carotid artery

b) Internal carotoid artery

c) Aorta

d) External carotid

Answer: 'B' [Ganong 24th ed 589]

Carotid sinus is a small dilation in the internal carotid artery just above the bifurcation of the

common carotid into external and internal carotid branches. Baroreceptors are located in

this dilation. They are also found in the wall of the arch of the aorta.

Medicine

1. Erythropoietin is also produced by?

A. Pancreas

B. Spleen

C. Hepatocytes

D. Al of the above

Key C

Reference Harrison’s 18th Ed. 448

Explanation Physiologic regulator of RBC production, glycoprotein hormone EPO, is

produced & released by highly specialized epithelial-like peritubular capillary lining

cells within kidney



2. Platelet adhesion is mediated primarily by?

A. von Willebrand factor (vWF)

B. Gp IIb/IIIa

C. Gp Ia/IIa

D. Fibronectin

Key A

Harrison’s 18th Ed. 457

Platelet adhesion is mediated primarily by von Willebrand factor (vWF)

3. Drug of choice for focal seizure is

a. Phenytoin

b. Gabapentin

c. Lorazepam

d. ACTH

Key a

4. Murmur in mitral regurgitation is

a. Mild diagnostic murmur

b. Early diastolic murmur

c. Pansystolic murmur

d. Mid systolic murmur

Key c

5. All of the following are immunologic phenomenon of Infective endocarditis expect

a. Janeway lesion

b. Glomerulonephritis

c. Osler’s Node d. Roth Spots

Key c



Surgery

1. With respect to repair of cleft palate, the soft palate is first repaired, ideal time for

which is?

a. 12 months

b. 9 months

c. 6 months

d. 3 months

Key Ans. c. 6 months

(Ref. Bailey 25/e p661)

Cleft lip alone Cleft palate alone Cleft lip and palate

• Unilateral (one side): One operation at 5-6

months

• Bilateral (both sides): One operation at 4-5

months

• Soft palate only: One operation at 6 months

• Soft and hard palate: Two operations

• Soft palate at 6 months • Hard palate at 15-18

months

• Unilateral: Two

operations

• Cleft lip and soft palate

at 5-6 months

• Hard palate and gum pad with or without lip

revision at 15-18 months

• Bilateral: Two operations • Cleft lip and soft palate at 4-5 months

• Hard palate and gum pad with or without lip

revision at 15-18 months

2. Kaposi sarcoma is commonly seen in:

a. Upper limbs

b. Lower limbs

c. Head and Neck

d. Trunk

Key b Lower limbs

Kaposi’s Sarcoma • Kaposi’s sarcoma appears as rubbery bluish nodules that occur primarily on the extremities but may appear anywhere on the skin and viscera

• Classically, KS is seen in people of Eastern Europe or sub-Saharan Africa.



AIDS-related Kaposi’s Sarcoma • AIDS-related KS occurs primarily in male homosexuals and not in IV drug abusers or

hemophiliac

• Lesions spread rapidly to the nodes and GI and respiratory tract often are involved

• Development of AIDS-related KS is associated with concurrent infection with a

herpes-like virus (HHV-8) Pathology

• Usually multifocal rather than metastatic.

• Histologically, the lesions are composed of capillaries lined by atypical endothelial

cells

• Early lesions may resemble hemangiomas, while older lesions contain more spindle cells and resemble sarcomas.

• Lesions are locally aggressive but undergo periods of remission.

Treatment

• Treatment for all types of KS consists of radiation to the lesions.

• Combination chemotherapy is effective in controlling the disease, although most patients develop an opportunistic infection during or shortly after treatment

• Surgical treatment is reserved for lesions that interfere with vital functions:, such

as − Bowel obstruction and Airway compromise

3. In triage green color indicates:

a. Ambulatory patients

b. Dead or moribund

c. High priority treatment or transfer

d. Medium priority or transfer

Key a. Ambulatory patients

4. First step taken in case of multiple injuries of face and neck:

a. Blood transfusion

b. IV fluids

c. Reconstruction

d. Maintenance of airways

Key d. Maintenance of airways



5. Signs of base of skull fracture are following except:

a. Raccoon eyes

b. Battle’s sign c. Constricted pupil

d. aemotympanum

Key c. Constricted pupil

ANESTHESIA

1) Which is the most sensitive area of the mouth to receive local anesthesia?

a) Hard palate

b) Pulp chamber

c) Buccal mucosa

d) Gingival sulcus

Ans a

[local anesthesia, malamed 6th edi page 157]

2) Which is symptom of a barbed needle?

a) Traumatic needle insertion and withdrawl

b) Atraumatic needle insertion and withdrawl

c) Traumatic needle insertion and atraumatic needle withdrawl

d) Atraumatic needle insertion and traumatic needle withdrawl

Ans d


3) Which represents the best patient communication?

a) "dont worry, this wont hurt a bit"

b) "our dental practice specializes in pain-free shots"

c) "i'll give you a couple quick injections; after that, you wont feel a thing"

d) "this topical anesthetic will make the rest of the procedure most comfortable"

Ans d


Using the phrase, "more comfortable", and reffering to the administration of local

anesthetic as simply "the procedure" reduces the anxiety caused by trigger words

like pain, hurt, injection, and shot.



4) The success rate of mandibular anesthesia is NOT attributed to which factor?

a) Absence of consistent landmarks

b) Need for multiple needle insertions

c) Presence of a thick mandibular cortical plate

d) Inability to anesthesize the core fibers of the nerve

Ans b


The effect of multiple needle insertions is important to consider when administering

multiple supraperiosteal injections, a procedure that is not recommended for

mandibular anesthesia.

5) In preanesthetic checkup, a patient answers yes to less than three items of STOP BANG

questionnaire. This indicates that patient has

a) No risk of osa

b) Low risk of osa

c) Moderate risk of osa

d) High risk of osa

Ans b

[fonseca 3rd edition, vol 1 page 214]

Refer to table 17-2

STOP BANG stands for

Snoring

Tired

Observe for stop breath during sleep

Blood pressure

Bmi

Age

Neck circumference

Gender



Oral biology:

1. Rostral end of primitive streak forms the germ layer:

a. Endoderm

b. Ectoderm

c. Mesoderm

d. Ectomesenchyme

Key: a, It forms an endoderm where notochordal plates are embedded.

Ref: Orbans 12th ed, 5

2. The development of first permanent molar is initiated at:

a. 6th month in utero

b. 4th month in utero

c. 6th year after birth

d. 4th year after birth

Key: b, the second molar is initiated at about first year after birth and 3rd

molar at fourth or fifth year after birth. Ref: Orbans 12th ed, 22

3. The junction between inner and outer enamel epithelium is called:

a. Membrana preformativa

b. Cervical loop

c. Enamel navel

d. Enamel septum

Key: b, cervical loop is an area of intense mitotic activity. Basement

membrane that separates enamel organ and dental papilla prior to dentin

formation is called membrana preformativa. The outer enamel epithelium

shows small depression like umbilicus called enamel navel. Enamel

septum divides stellate reticulum into two parts. Ref: Orbans 12th ed, 27



4. The mean volume of single adult human pulp is:

a. 0.38cc

b. 0.03cc

c. 0.28cc

d. 0.02cc

Key: d, the total volumes of all the permanent teeth pulp is 0.38cc. Ref:

Orbans 12th ed, 109

5. The principle fibers of periodontal ligament are anchored to:

a. Supporting alveolar bone

b. Lamellated bone

c. Bundle bone

d. Alveolar bone

Key: c, the alveolar bone is divided into alveolar bone proper and

supporting alveolar bone. Alveolar bone proper is composed of lamellated

bone and bundle bone. Radiographically the bundle bone is known as

lamina dura. Ref: Orbans 12th ed, 200

Dental materials

1. Post cementation sensitivity associated with glass ionomer cementation is likely due to

a. Bacterial invasion of dentinal tubules

b. Tooth dessication

c. Incorrect occlusion/ hyperocclusion

d. Overaggressive tooth preparation

Ans: The correct answer is B. Reference: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics; Rosensteil,

Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 30 - Luting agents and Cementation

procedures, Page 776; Although glass ionomers have been reported to cause sensitivity, there

appears to be little pulpal response at the histologic level, particularly if the remaining dentin

thickness exceeds 1 mm. Side effects such as posttreatment sensitivity thought to result from

a lack of biocompatibility may actually be a result of desiccation or bacterial contamination of

the dentin rather than irritation by the cement.



2. Which of the following is a concern for resin cements?

a. Adhesion to tooth structure

b. Microleakage

c. Biocompatibility

d. Film thickness


Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 30 - Luting agents and Cementation

procedures, Page 779; Table 30-1

3. The area where the sprue is attached is more easily recontoured after sprue sectioning

through use of a

a. Diamond in high speed

b. Carbide in high speed

c. Separating disk

d. Arbor band

Ans: The correct answer is C. Reference: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics; Rosensteil,

Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 28 – Finishing the Cast restoration; Page 738;

A carborundum separating disk is used to cut through the sprue. Cutting should be

performed circumferentially, with a small area maintained in the center of the sprue. To

break this last connection, it is twisted and separated from the casting. Wire cutters are not

recommended because they may lead to distortion of the casting. Any excess in the area of

the sprue attachment is removed with the disk, and the area is refined with stones and

sandpaper disks.

4. Which of the following scales/ axes is devoid of any color element?

a. Hue

b. Value

c. Chroma

d. Saturation

Ans: The correct answer is B. Reference: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics; Rosensteil,

Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 23 – Description of color, Color-replication

process, and Esthetics; Page 624; Value is defined as the relative lightness or darkness of a

color or the brightness of an object. The brightness of any object is a direct consequence of

the amount of light energy the object reflects or transmits. It is possible for objects of

different hues to reflect the same number of photons and thus have the same brightness or

value. A common example is the difficulty experienced in trying to distinguish a green object

from a blue object in a black and white photograph. The colors of the two objects reflect the

same amount of light energy and therefore appear identical in the picture.



5. Polymerization of provisional resins is subject to termination. To prevent such, contact with

which of the following should be avoided or minimized when possible?

a. Free radicals

b. Water

c. Saliva

d. Eugenol


Land, Fujimoto; 1st South Asia edition; Chapter 17 – Definitive casts and dies;

NMC CPD Topics:

1. When treating 3rd degree burn you should:

a. Cool burn with ice

b. Remove clothing from charred area

c. Activate EMS or rush patient to nearest hospital

d. All of the above

Key: c

2. When performing CPR in an infant (laying face-up), you should use:

a. 2 finger

b. 3 finger

c. 4 finger

d. Palm

Key: a

3. You attempt to deliver a breath through a mask but it does not go in. What

is the next step?

a. Hyperextend the neck

b. Blow harder

c. Discard mask and use mouth-to-mouth

d. Reposition the airway

Key: d



4. You are treating an adult choking victim. They initially can cough, but now

are grasping their throat and turning blue. What is the next step?

a. Heimlich Maneuver

b. Begin CPR

c. Rescue breathing

d. Check pulse

Key: a

5. Choose the proper order of the Adult Chain of Survival:

a. Recognition, Call EMS, Advanced Life Support, Defibrillate, Post-

Cardiac Arrest Care

b. Recognition, Early CPR, Defibrillate, Advanced Life Support, Post-

Cardiac Arrest Care

c. CPR, Recognition, Call EMS, Defibrillate, Advanced Life Support

d. Recognition, Defibrillation, CPR, Call EMS, Advanced Life Support

Key: b

6. The most important consideration regarding the information in informed consent is:

a. It must be communicated free of emotion

b. It must be technically accurate

c. It must be strictly medical

d. It be understood by the patient

Key: d

7. The Bio Ethics science suggests that health care has moved, historically, to respect

for autonomy from which model?

a. Engineering

b. Contractual

c. Covenant

d. Priestly

Key: d



8. The concept of justice in ethics is:

a. an obligation of the patient to the society.

b. that the health resources must be distributed according to the principals of

equity.

c. taken as patients right to choose or refuse treatment.

d. For all medical Professionals to do good for all patients under circumstances

Key: b

9. According to the ethical principles, the benefits we are obliged to provide as

healthcare professionals are specified in part by

a. Our upbringing and personal values

b. Our relationship, role, and agreements

c. Our employer, the law, our conscience

d. Our contract with the hospital or clinic

Key: b

10. A patient with a severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating

falls under which category of physical status classification by American society of

anesthesiologists’?

a. P3

b. P4

c. P5

d. P6

Key: a, P1 normal healthy person, P2 patient with a mild disease, P3

patient with a severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not

incapacitating, P4 patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is

a constant threat to life, P5 moribund patient who is not expected to

survive without the operation, P6 declared brain-dead patient whose

organs are being removed for donor purposes.

Ref: 1-5, 10: CPR, AED and first aid (provider handbook). Dr Karl Disque

Ref: 6-9: Ref: Legal medicine and medical ethics by Ahmed Ammar



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