Cell Quiz Review - Dr Magranndrmagrann.com/MLT/Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1.docx · Web viewMethylene blue When drawing blood from a pediatric or adult patient with small veins,

Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1

1) The function (or functions) of a hematology laboratory is (are) to

confirm the physician’s impression of a possible hematological disorder, establish or rule out a diagnosis, screen for asymptomatic disorders

2) The major intended purpose of the laboratory safety manual is to

protect the patient and laboratory personnel

3) What is not an appropriate safety practice?A. Disposing of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof

containersB. Frequent handwashingC. Sterilizing lancets for reuseD. Keeping food out of the same areas as specimens

C

4) If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor area, the first step in cleanup should be

absorb blood with disposable towels

5) What procedure is the most basic and effective in preventing nosocomial infections?

Washing hands between patient contacts

6) The likelihood of infection after exposure to HBV-infected or HIV-infected blood or body fluids depends on all of the following factors except the

A. source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluidB. concentration of the virusC. duration of the contactD. presence of nonintact skin

A

7) HBV and HIV may be directly transmitted in the occupational setting by all of the following except

A. parenteral inoculation with contaminated bloodB. exposure of intact skin to contaminated blood or

certain body fluidsC. exposure of intact mucous membranes to contaminated

blood or certain body fluidsD. sharing bathroom facilities with an HIV-positive

person

D

8) Standard precautions have been instituted in clinical laboratories to prevent _____ exposures of healthcare workers to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV and HBV.

A. parenteralB. nonintact mucous membraneC. nonintact skinD. all of the above

D

9) Exposure to _____ constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in healthcare personnel.

blood

10) The transmission of HBV is _____ probable than transmission of HIV.

A. lessB. more

B

1


11) Gloves for medical use may beA. sterile or nonsterileB. latex or vinylC. used only onceD. all of the above

D

12) Diluted bleach for disinfecting work surfaces, equipment, and spills should be prepared daily by preparing a _____ dilution of household bleach.

1:10

13) The above dilution requires _____ mL of bleach diluted to 100 mL with H2O.

10

14) The laboratory procedure manual does not need to include

the name of the supplier of common laboratory chemicals

15) What statements is not a nonanalytical factor in a Quality Assessment system?

Monitoring the standard deviation and reporting results of normal and abnormal controls

16) In what laboratory situations is a verbal report permissible?

When emergency test results are needed by a physician

17) Accuracy is _____ Closeness to the true value18) Calibration is _____ Comparison to a known physical constant19) Control is _____ The value is known in a specimen similar

to a patient’s whole blood or serum.20) Precision is _____ How close test results are when repeated.21) Standards is _____ A purified substance of a known

composition.22) Quality is _____ The process of monitoring accuracy and

reproducibility of known control results.23) What is not a function of a quantitative QC

program?Confirms the correct identity of patient specimens

24) Define Mean The arithmetic average25) Define Range The difference between the upper and

lower measurements in a series of results26) Define Variance The degree to which test data vary about

the average27) Define Standard Deviation The expression of the position of each test

result to the average28) The coefficient of variation is the standard deviation expressed as a

percentage of the mean29) The z score measures how many standard deviations a particular

number is from the R/L of the mean30) Acceptable limits of a control value must fall within ±2 standard deviations of the mean31) A trend change in QC data is a progressive change all in one direction

away from the mean for at least 3 days32) A continuously increasing downward variation in a

control sample in one direction from the mean can indicate

A. deterioration of reagents used in the testB. deterioration of the control specimenC. deterioration of a component in an instrumentD. all of the above

D

2


33) What statements is true of a gaussian curve? It represents a normal bell-shaped distribution

34) Two standard deviations (2 SD) from the mean in a normal distribution curve would include

95% of all values

35) Which agency is responsible for ensuring safe and healthful working conditions for every U.S. worker?

Occupation Safety & Health Administration (OSHA)

36) What mandated regulation did the Occupation Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) implement to improve safety against bloodborne pathogens in the laboratory?

Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens

37) Standard Precautions was implemented by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as a way to protect healthcare workers from

Bloodborne pathogen exposure

38) Basic personal protective equipment includes all of the following except

A. GlovesB. GownsC. Face maskD. Respirator

D

39) What does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimate to be the approximate number of needlestick injuries that occur each year in the United States?

380,000

40) What type of container is appropriate for the disposal of needles and other sharp objects that have come into contact with blood or body fluids?

Red biohazard puncture resistant containers

41) What viruses is stable in dried blood at room temperature for 7 days?

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

42) In 1991, what did OSHA issue as a federal mandate that all employers must provide to their employees?

Hepatitis B vaccine

43) What diseases must a laboratory worker and phlebotomist demonstrate immunity against?

Measles and HBV, HBV and rubella

44) What is the minimum contact time that bleach or an EPA-registered disinfectant must be in contact with a work surface to properly destroy human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

10 minutes

45) Implementation of Standard Precautions eliminates Need for separate isolation for infectious patients, Need for warning labels on specimens

46) According the CLSI, the minimum components of a laboratory procedure document must include

A) Principle of the procedure and clinical applicationB) Reagent, supplies, and equipment informationC) Limitation of the procedureD) All of the above

D

47) What did the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) act establish?

Levels of testing

48) What component is not part of laboratory quality assessment?

Standardized break time

3


49) What is the most common source of laboratory error?

Preanalytical/preevaluation

50) If a delay is encountered in the analysis of a whole blood specimen, it should not be

Frozen or left at room temperature

51) ISO 15189 is An optional accreditation in the United States

52) Accuracy describes the Closeness to the true value53) Precision describes the Closeness of values with repeated analyses54) Quality control assay Monitors accuracy and reproducibility of

assay results55) Calibration Is comparison of instrument to known

constant56) A standard Contains a known concentration of purified

substances57) Proficiency testing Involves multiple labs58) Calculate the mean for the following series of

numbers.12, 15, 18, 19, 11, 17, 16

15.4

59) Calculate the median for the following series of numbers.

12, 15, 18, 19, 11, 17, 16

16

60) In terms of standard deviations, what is the confidence limit that laboratories should meet?

2 SD

61) What is not a type of changes in the Levey-Jennings approach?

Drop off of results

62) You are the quality control supervisor reviewing the results of last week. You notice that during the first part of the week the results for hemoglobin were trending down with a result on the 4th at the minus 2 SD line. The next day the results rebounded and were above the plus 2 SD line. What do you think happened?

The tech noticed that the results were out and opened a new bottle of control material.

63) The fire department inspector enters the lab asking you about your chemical safety protocol. What do you do?

Show the inspector the safety manual with MSDS sheets for all chemicals in the lab

64) What is the best way for you to dispose of extra HCl after you finish using it?

Pull out your chemical safety manual and look for the MSDS sheet for HCl

65) When the coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the cellular elements is

plasma

66) Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA?

Is used for most routine coagulation studies

67) Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by neutralizing the effect of

thrombin

State the color of the stopper with the appropriate anticoagulant. 68. _____ EDTA69. _____ Heparin70. _____ Sodium citrate71. _____ No anticoagulant

68. Lavender69. Green70. Blue71. Red

4


The following five procedural steps are significant activities in the performance of a venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence.A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure to site, and label all tubes.D. Apply the tourniquet and perform the venipuncture.E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure to the patient.

E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure to the patient.B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.D. Apply the tourniquet and perform the venipuncture.C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure to site, and label all tubes.

77) The appropriate veins for performing a routine venipuncture are the

cephalic, basilic, and median cubital

78) A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in both arms. What is an acceptable procedure?

Obtain sample from below the IV site with special restrictions.

79) The bevel of the needle should be held _____ in the performance of a venipuncture.

upward

80) A hematoma can form ifa. improper pressure is applied to a site after the

venipunctureb.the patient suddenly moves and the needle comes out of

the veinc. the needle punctures both walls of the veind. all of the above

D

81) Phlebotomy problems can includea. the use of improper anticoagulantsb.misidentification of patientsc. improper angle of the needle or having the needle up

against the side of the vessel walld. all of the above

D

82) What skin puncture areas is (are) acceptable for the collection of capillary blood from an infant?

Medial or lateral plantar surface

83) The proper collection of capillary blood includesa.wiping away the first drop of bloodb.occasionally wiping the site with a plain gauze pad to

avoid the buildup of plateletsc. avoiding the introduction of air bubbles into the column

of blood in a capillary collection tubed. all of the above

D

5


84) A peripheral blood smear can be prepared froma.EDTA-anticoagulated blood within 1 hour of collectionb.free-flowing capillary bloodc. citrated whole bloodd. both A and B

D

85) Identify the characteristic(s) of a good peripheral blood smear.

a. It progresses from thick at the point of origin to thin.b.It has a blunt feathered termination.c.The outer margins do not touch the edges of the slide.D. All of the above.

D

86) Poor blood smears can be caused bya. a delay in preparing the smear once the drop of blood

has been placed on the slideb.a drop of blood that is too large or too smallc. holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor

drying conditionsd. all of the above

D

87) If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by

increasing the angle of the pusher slide

88) The examination of bone marrow is useful ina.diagnosing a bleeding disorderb.diagnosing some disorders associated with erythrocytes

and leukocytesc.diagnosing acute leukemiasd. both B and C

D

89) Appropriate bone marrow aspiration sites in an adult are the

anterior and posterior iliac crest andsternum

Name the color the following stains gives to blood cells.90) _____ Basic stain91) _____ Acidic stain92) _____ Neutrophilic

90. Blue-purple color91. Orange-red color92. Pink-lilac color

Identify the following as Romanowsky-type or non–Romanowsky-type stains93) _____ Wright94) _____ May-Grünwald95) _____ Giemsa96) _____ Methylene blue

93. Romanowsky-type94. Romanowsky-type95. Romanowsky-type96. Non–Romanowsky-type

97) If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of a Wright-stained preparation, possible causes include that

the buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short

98) Identify the red blood cell layer. Bottom layer

6


A.99) Name the most common anticoagulant used in the

hematology laboratory.EDTA

100) Choose the correct ratio of anticoagulant to blood in the citrate evacuated tube used for aPTT testing.

9:1

101) Thrombin is inactivated by which anticoagulant? Heparin102) What is the correct “order of draw” when using

multiple evacuated tubes?Yellow, light blue, red, lavender (light purple)

103) A specimen for complete blood count (CBC) is dropped off in the lab and you notice that the doctor has drawn a green-top tube. What do you tell the physician?

The incorrect tube was drawn and the specimen cannot be used for a CBC.

104) The mode of action for the EDTA anticoagulant is Chelation105) The agency that posted the Safety and Health

Information Bulletin regarding the reuse of phlebotomy supplies was

Occupational and Safety Health Administration (OSHA)

106) What evacuated tube stopper color and anticoagulant additive combinations is incorrect?

Blue and sodium fluoride

107) You recently moved to Denver. On your first day of performing phlebotomies, you notice that all of your tubes are underfilling. Why is this happening?

You are using out-of-date plastic evacuated tubes.

108) After greeting the patient, what is the first thing the phlebotomist must do?

Have patients say and spell their name

109) You enter a patient’s room to draw blood from a patient named Mr. Jones. Upon inspection of the name bands, you find that both patients are named Jones. Choose your next course of action.

Refuse to draw blood from either patient

110) Identify the median cubital vein. Should point to the median cubital

7


111) You need to collect blood from a left breast mastectomy patient with an intravenous tube (IV) in her right arm. Which option is your best for this patient?

Draw the blood specimen from at least 3 inches below the IV on the right side

112) You are the supervisor of the outpatient phlebotomy laboratory and one of your patients just fainted. In which order do you perform the following first aid steps?

Lie the patient down, loosen tight clothing, and elevate the patient’s legs

113) Hematoma formation at the site of venipuncture is considered what type of complication?

Vascular

114) What is the second most common complication of venipuncture?

Infection

115) A hematoma that occurs during the phlebotomy procedure is usually due to

The needle going through the vein and too slowly

116) Which finger on the adult patient is best when performing a capillary blood collection?

Ring (third) finger

117) Which site on the infant patient is best when performing a capillary blood collection?

Heel

118) Why should the first drop of blood from a capillary puncture be wiped away?

Contamination with alcohol and lymphatic fluid

119) What is the best way to increase blood flow in an infant’s foot?

Use a heel warmer or warm water

120) What is the proper angle for the pusher slide when making a bedside peripheral blood smear?

45 degrees

121) When making a blood smear at the bedside, you notice that all of your smears are too short. What two things can you do to increase the length?

Use a bigger drop of blood and decrease the angle of the pusher slide

122) What components of a Romanowsky-type stain is considered to be the acidic stain?

Eosin

123) What components of a Romanowsky-type stain is considered to be the basic stain?

Methylene blue

124) When drawing blood from a pediatric or adult patient with small veins, what is the most appropriate needle size?

23G

125) What area of the body is the most common site for bone marrow aspiration and collection?

Iliac crest

126) What is not a technique for preparing a bone marrow slide?

Thick prep

127) You are in charge of the blood slide staining station today and are getting complaints from the laboratory staff performing the microscopic differential white blood cell slide examination that the blood slides are “too red”. What do you need to do?

Increase the pH of the staining solution

128) The smallest organized unit of living tissue is the cell129) The cell membrane’s major components are proteins and lipids130) What is a characteristic of osmosis? Movement of water molecules131) What is a characteristic of active transport?

A. Requires energy (ATP)B. Movement of molecules up the concentration

gradient

D

8


C. Requires a carrier moleculeD. All of the above

132) Phagocytosis isA. a type of endocytosisB. the engulfment of fluid moleculesC. the engulfment of particulate matterD. Both A and C

D

Match the following organelles with their appropriate function.

133) _____ Centrioles134) _____ Rough ER135) _____ Smooth ER136) _____ Golgi apparatus

133. Points of attachment of the spindle fibers

134. Protein production135. Lipid synthesis136. Concentration of secretory granules

Match the following organelles with their appropriate function.

137. _____ Lysosomes138 _____ Microtubules139 _____ Mitochondria149. _____ Ribosomes

137. Intracellular digestion138. Cytoskeleton139. Energy production andheme synthesis140. Protein synthesis

141) Glycogen is a carbohydrate142) A cellular inclusion that represents a common

storage form of iron isferritin

143) The nucleus of the cell contains chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm144) The overall function of DNA is control of cellular function and

transmission of genetic information145) Heterochromatin is genetically inactive and found in patches or

clumps

146) Chromosomal translocation isa. a frequent activity of homologous chromosomes in

meiosisb.a rearrangement of genetic materialc. the process in which a segment of one chromosome

breaks away from its normal locationD. All of the above

D

147) A chromosomal deletion is loss of a segment of chromosomeMatch the following activities with the appropriate period

of time. Use an answer only once.140. _____ G1141. _____ S142. _____ G2143. _____ G0

140. An active period of protein synthesis and cellular metabolism

141. DNA replication142. Immediately precedes actual mitotic

division143. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity

Match the following mitotic activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an answer only once.

144. _____ Prophase145. _____ Metaphase146. _____ Anaphase

144. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense

145. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator

146. Chromatids separate and move to

9


147. _____ Telophase148. _____ Cytokinesis

opposite ends of the mitotic spindle147. Two identical daughter cells form148. Division of the cellular cytoplasm

149) In meiosis, the cells produced contain 23 chromosomes150) Hematologists are interested in inherited disorders.

What are inherited disorders?a.Sickle cell traitb.Sickle cell anemiac.Hemophiliad. All of the above

D

151) Molecular techniques are being used to detect abnormalities of

a. erythrocytesb.leukocytesc. some coagulation factorsd. All of the above

D

152) The first inherited hematologic disorder to be diagnosed using molecular biologic assay was

sickle cell anemia

153) PCR testing is useful ina. forensic testingb.genetic testingc.disease diagnosisd. All of the above

D

154) The traditional PCR technique amplifies low levels of specific DNA sequences

155) PCR protocola.doubles the specific amount of DNA with each cycleb.typically has three temperature stepsc. repeats the number of cycles about 30d. all of the above

D

156) Variations of PCR includea.nested primersb.real-time PCRc.microarray analysisd. both A and B

D

157) The method considered to be the “gold standard” of molecular methods is

DNA sequencing

158) The Southern blot procedure has diagnostic applications for diseases or disorders associated with

a. significant changes in DNA (e.g., deletion)b.determination of clonality in lymphomas of T- or B-cell

originc.detection of restriction fragment length polymorphismsd. all of the above

D

159) The Northern blot procedure can be used for analysis of the proximal product of gene expression

160) All of the following are true of FISH except _____a.The acronym stands for fluorescent in situ

hybridization.

D

10


b.It is a tissue-based molecular diagnostic assay.c. It is a prenatal diagnosis of a genetic disorder.d. It is useful in the diagnosis of various anemias.161) Microarrays are DNA probes bonded on glass chips162) Molecular techniques provide a diagnostic tool toa.detect MRD in hematological malignanciesb.monitor patients following bone marrow transplantationc.detect an early relapse in a patient treated for a

hematological malignancyd. all of the above

D

163) The composition of cellular membranes is made of all of the following except

a.Proteinsb.Cholesterolc.Triglyceridesd. Phospholipids

C

164) The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane is a dynamic structure composed of ________ floating in lipids.

Protein

165) What is the definition of osmosis? The process of net movement of water molecule through a semipermeable membrane that allows water to move at an equal rate

166) Why is diffusion important in cellular physiology? It is ____.

A passive process in which substances move from areas of high to low concentration

167) The process of active transport is important to cellular function because it drives the ____.

Sodium-potassium pump to move against the concentration gradient

168) Endocytosis is the process in which a phagocytic cell does what to particle(s) or molecule(s)?

Engulfs and transports to the cellular cytoplasm where it is formed into a vacuole

169) Dysplasia is defined as The appearance of abnormal cytologic features and tissue organization

170) The term metaplasia can be defined by what? The change from one adult cell type to another cell type

171) What is considered the functional unit of the cell? Organelles172) What is the visible effect of hypotonic solution on

the shape of RBCs?They rupture and release hemoglobin (hemolysis).

173) What is the visible effect of hypertonic solution on the shape of RBCs?

They shrivel up (crenate).

174) Ribosomes, the small dense granules found in cells, contain what?

Ribonucleic acid

175) The cells lysosome contains what? Hydrolytic enzymes176) Genetic material composed of nucleic acids and

protein is known asChromatin

177) Where is the most likely location in the body to find the storage form of iron known as ferritin?

Spleen and bone marrow

178) Heterochromatin is a substance that is characterized by all of the following except

a.Appears condensed and darkly staining in the nucleus

D

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of the cellb.Is the genetically inactive area of the nucleusc.Replicates in the later parts of the S phased. Is the pale staining uncoiled areas in the cell179) Histones are thought to be Important to structural integrity of

chromatin180) A chromosomal trisomy is a term that is used to

describe what chromosomal characteristic?A chromosome that fails to separate from

its sister chromatid that leads to a set of three chromosomes

181) Which is not one of the phases of mitosis? Cellophase182) What is the programmed cell death that is

associated with normal physiology known as?Apoptosis

183) A patient being seen in by the oncology practice has been informed that his lab results are showing low levels of leukemic cells but has been reassured that he is in remission. What is this condition known as?

Minimal residual disease

184) The in vitro method of polymerase chain reaction takes low levels of what substance and amplifies it to higher quantities for laboratory testing?

ADeoxyribonucleic acid

185) The physician calls the lab to order ‘the lab test for DNA deletion’. What test is the physician requesting?

Southern blot

186) Which is the correct order for the four basic phases of mitotic division?

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

187) What blood cell would most likely have the highest concentration of glycogen due to its body defense functions?

Neutrophilic leukocyte

188) In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes finish arriving at the opposite poles of the dividing cell?

Telophase

189) What are the base pair combinations of deoxyribonucleic acid?

Adenine with thymine; cytosine with guanine

190) You are the technologist performing polymerase chain reactions testing today. How long should your primers segments be?

16–20 base pairs

191) Why is deoxyribonucleic acid sequencing the best laboratory technique or ‘gold standard’?

It displays the exact base sequence of a fragmented specimen.

192) The Southern blot procedure examines what proximal product of gene expression?

Fragmented deoxyribonucleic acid

193) The normal sequence of blood cell development is yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

194) The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte (platelet) is

megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte—megakaryocyte—thrombocyte

195) The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is (are)

rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

196) The cell maturation sequence of the segmented neutrophil is

myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN)

197) As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most cases

decreases

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198) As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm (N:C) in most cases

decreases

199) The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell matures

becomes more clumped

200) The presence of nucleoli is associated witha. immature cellsb.all young cells, except myeloblastsc. only erythroblastsd. disintegrating cells

A

201) In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the cytoplasm of the cell

light blue and lacks granules

Describe the cellular characteristics of the appropriate mature leukocyte.

202) Segmented neutrophil203) Monocyte204) Lymphocyte205) Band form neutrophil206) Eosinophil

202. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult leukocytes in the peripheral blood203. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus204. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm205. An elongated and curved nucleus206. Large orange granules

207) Choose the most immature form of stem cell found in the human body.

Totipotential

208) The multipotential hematopoietic stem cell found in the bone marrow can produce

Red blood cells

209) What is the name of the connective tissue cell that originates from mesenchymal origins?

Tissue mast cells

210) These cells are present several days after fertilization and can develop into any cell type except they cannot become a fetus. Name this cell.

A. MultipotentialB. PluripotentialC. TotipotentialD. Omnipotential

B

211) This type of cell is derived from pluripotential stem cells, is found in adults, and is limited to form specific types of tissues. Name this cell.

Multipotential

212) During the second trimester of pregnancy, which site becomes the primary site for blood cell development?

Liver

213) . During fetal development, when does the liver first take over as the primary site for blood cell development?

Second month of gestation

214) . During fetal development, when does the bone marrow become the primary functional location for the production of blood cells?

Fourth month of gestation

215) Bone marrow contains all of the following exceptA. Fat tissueB. Hematopoietic cellsC. Osteoblasts and osteoclastsD. Muscle

D

216) Bone marrow storage and production are most likely to be found in which areas of an older adult?

Axial skeleton

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217) The progression of multipotential stem cell into colony-forming units (CFU-GEMM) influences which cell line(s) development?

Granulocyte-erythrocyte-monocyte-megakaryocyte

218) The hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) that exist in the bone marrow contain a diverse population of stromal cells and all of the following except

A. FibronectinB. CollagensC. Interleukin-5D. Proteoglycans

C

219) Hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) can be found in what source that can be cryopreserved for autologous transplantation if needed?

Umbilical cord blood

220) The location of erythopoiesis in the adult human is located within

Erythopoietic islands

221) Myeloid cells account for a maximum percentage of _____ in normal bone marrow?

85%

222) What developmental feature of lymphoid cells distinguishes them from other cells? Lymphoid cells develop in the ____, a feature that distinguishes them

Lymphoid follicles

223) A macrophage that has ingested iron-rich hemosiderin is called?

Siderophage

224) When trying to determine the maturity of a cell by using the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio (N:C ratio), what statements about the nucleus is true?

As the N:C ratio decreases, the cell is more mature.

225) In which cell line does the mature cell have an anuclear appearance?

Erythrocytes

226) In a mature monocyte, the chromatin pattern is best described by which statement?

The chromatin pattern is loose and lacy.

227) In a mature granulocyte, the chromatin pattern is best described as?

The chromatin pattern is highly clumped.

228) All of the following mature cells have segmented nuclei attached by fine filaments, except

A. MonocytesB. NeutrophilsC. EosinophilsD. Basophils

A

229) A mature lymphocyte’s nuclear shape is best described by which statement?

Has a round or oval nucleus that is small and may contain a cleft

230) When examining a Wright-stained blood smear, the smear appears to have many cells with a high N:C ratio and dark-blue staining cytoplasm. The cells staining dark blue are ___.

Immature cells

231) Which cell line does not exhibit granules during the entire maturation sequence?

Erythrocytes

232) In which cell line are you most likely to observe pseudopod formation?

Granulocytes

233) In which cell line are you most likely to observe vacuolization throughout its life cycle?

Monocytes

234) All of the following situations may cause cells to D

14


exhibit vacuoles exceptA. Bacterial infectionB. Viral infectionC. MalignanciesD. Slow blood flow during the collection process235) In which cell line are you most likely to see a pale-

blue cytoplasm in a normal mature cell?Lymphocytes

236) The presence of nucleoli in cells is associated with Ribosomal RNAMatch the Growth Factors with the cells237) EPO238) IL-7239) IL-15240) IL-4241) G-SF

237.RBCs238.T cells239.NK cells240.B cells241.Neutrophils

What test measures the percentage of blood volume that consists of erythrocytes by measuring the ratio of packed red blood cells to total blood volume?

Hematocrit

What is the normal percentage of erythrocytes in blood?

45%

Hematocrit measures the percentage of blood volume that consists of what cells?

erythrocytes

What is the most abundant type of WBC? NEUTROPHILSWhat WBC is the first to respond to infection?How do they destroy bacteria?

NEUTROPHILSPhagocytize bacteria

Which WBCs are the ones that primarily destroy the dissolved toxins that bacteria secrete into body fluids?

Neutrophils

What WBC secretes histamines?What is it called when it leaves the circulation to enter the tissues?

BASOPHILSMAST CELL

Which WBC fights allergies and parasitic infections, and during these conditions, their numbers increase.

EOSINOPHILS

What are MONOCYTES called when they leave the circulation and enter the tissues?

MACROPHAGES

Which WBCs phagocytize bacteria? Monocytes (macrophages) and neutrophils.

Do monocytes and neutrophils kill viruses? NoWhat WBC kills viruses?What WBC acts against a specific foreign molecule

Lymphocytes (specifically, the T-lymphocytes, also called T-cells)All lymphocytes (B-cells and T-cells) act against a specific foreign molecule.

What are the two main classes of lymphocytes? T cells (T-lymphocytes) and B cells (B lymphocytes)

Which WBC attacks organs after an organ transplant? T cells

15


How do B cells fight infection? by becoming cells that produce antibodies

What are the actual cells that produce the antibodies? Plasma cellsWhat are the two main features of mononucleosis? Inflammation of lymph vessels

(lymphangitis)Infection of B lymphocytes with the Epstein-Barr virus

Which immune system cell type is preferentially destroyed by the AIDS virus?

T cells (T-lymphocytes).

By secreting hormones, the thymus causes which cells to become active?

T cells (T-lymphocytes).

Why are most people sick more often as children than as adults in their 20s through 30’s?

We build up many varieties of memory lymphocytes during childhood, providing immunity from more and more antigens during adulthood

What is a plasma protein involved in blood clotting? fibrinWhat are platelets responsible for? Blood clottingList the blood cells in order of longevity (life span), from longest—lived to shortest—lived.

lymphocytes, erythrocytes, platelets, neutrophils

What is a condition in which the blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is diminished?

ANEMIA

What blood disease is a form of anemia where the RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin that deforms the cells into strange shapes (target cells, spheres, but not sickled)

THALASSEMIA

Which form of anemia is found especially in the African race; always characterized by sickle-shaped erythrocytes

SICKLE CELL DISEASE

Which form of anemia is from a single amino acid mutation resulting in a valine amino acid substituted for glutamic acid?

SICKLE CELL DISEASE

Which form of anemia is characterized by very large erythrocytes?

Megaloblastic anemia

What type of anemia is from loss of intrinsic factor; a frequent result of gastric bypass surgery?

Megaloblastic anemia

What type of anemia can occur due to a blood transfusion of mismatched blood?

Acquired Hemolytic anemia

What type of anemia is it when a person cannot maintain iron in a reduced state?

G6PD deficiency

What type of anemia is from chronic blood loss? Hemorrhagic anemiaWhat type of disorder of the blood cells causes them to shrink over time due to problems with the red blood cell membrane?

Hereditary spherocytosis

What disorder of blood is characterized by too few mature white blood cells?

LEUKEMIA

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What condition is too few platelets (abnormally low concentration)?

Thrombocytopenia

What is a hereditary disease of males, where they are unable to clot properly because they are missing some clotting factors?

Hemophilia

What blood type is the universal donor?What blood type is the universal acceptor?

Type O negativeType AB positive

What disorder happens to an RH positive baby of an Rh negative mother?

HDN (Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn)

What type of immunity is when the body is naturally exposed to an infectious agent and launches an immune reaction?

Naturally acquired active immunity

What type of immunity is when a person receives a vaccination?

Artificially acquired active immunity

What type of immunity is when a baby receives antibodies through mother’s milk?

Naturally acquired passive

What type of immunity is when a person receives an infusion of antibodies?

Artificially acquired passive immunity

What types of allergies are immediate and deadly? AnaphylacticWhat type of allergic response is when the body’s first exposure to the substance will not cause a reaction, but all exposures afterward will trigger the response, such as with poison ivy?

Delayed allergic reaction

What is a hereditary problem where the body thinks its own tissues are foreign bodies, and it constantly tries to kill off its own tissues?

Autoimmune disease

What can cause hypoxia (decreased oxygen to the tissues)

A) Ischemia (reduced blood flow to a tissue)B) Malfunctioning hemoglobinC) Increasing altitude

What is the antidote for arsenic poison (found in rat poison)

I.V. injection of vitamin K

What is the effect of baby aspirin on prostaglandin synthesis?

It blocks the ability of COX to cleave arachidonic acid into prostaglandin (decreases PG synthesis)

What does a decrease in PG synthesis do to clotting times?

Increases them so it takes longer to form blood clots

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Cell Quiz Review - Dr Magranndrmagrann.com/MLT/Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1.docx · Web viewMethylene blue When drawing blood from a pediatric or adult patient with small veins,