CheckPoint 156-215 - · PDF fileCheckpoint 156-215.77 Questions & Answers ... The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one GAiA server working as the SmartConsole,

CheckPoint_156-215.77

Number: 156-215.77Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 6.0

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Checkpoint 156-215.77 Questions & Answers

Check Point Certified Security Administrator

Version: 6.0Checkpoint 156-215.77 Exam

Topic 1, Volume A

Exam A

QUESTION 1You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software levelof each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost- effective way to upgrade yourGateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

A. SmartView Tracker and SmartView MonitorB. SmartLSM and SmartUpdateC. SmartDashboard and SmartView TrackerD. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 2Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licensesthat will expire within the next 30 days?


A. SmartView TrackerB. SmartPortalC. SmartUpdateD. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?

A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint fileB. User Name, Password, Management Server IPC. Password, Management Server IPD. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 4Message digests use which of the following?

A. DES and RC4B. IDEA and RC4C. SSL and MD4D. SHA-1 and MD5



QUESTION 5Which of the following is a hash algorithm?


A. 3DESB. IDEAC. DESD. MD5



QUESTION 6Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

A. Asymmetric encryptionB. Dynamic encryptionC. Certificate-based encryptionD. Symmetric encryption



QUESTION 7You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsoleapplication should you use to confirm your suspicions?

A. SmartDashboardB. SmartUpdateC. SmartView StatusD. SmartView Tracker



QUESTION 8A digital signature:

A. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.C. Decrypts data to its original form.D. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 9Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?

A. Security GatewayB. Management Server


C. Policy ServerD. SmartLSM


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one GAiA server working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2008 asboth Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Distributed InstallationB. Hybrid InstallationC. Unsupported configurationD. Stand-Alone Installation



QUESTION 11The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server as the SmartConsole and a second server running GAiA as bothSecurity Management Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Distributed InstallationB. Unsupported configurationC. Hybrid InstallationD. Stand-Alone Installation



QUESTION 12The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 7 workstation as the SmartConsole, one GAiA device working as SecurityManagement Server, and a third server running SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Hybrid InstallationB. Unsupported configurationC. Stand-Alone InstallationD. Distributed Installation



QUESTION 13The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server as SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a secondserver running GAiA as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Stand-Alone Installation.B. Distributed Installation.C. Unsupported configuration.D. Hybrid Installation.

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 14When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.B. SmartConsoleC. SecureClientD. Security Gateway



QUESTION 15Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R77 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he doesNOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

A. Three machinesB. One machineC. Two machinesD. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes



QUESTION 16Which command allows Security Policy name and install date verification on a Security Gateway?

A. fw show policyB. fw stat -lC. fw ctl pstat -policyD. fw ver -p



QUESTION 17You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing usersand add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile,you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

A. Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users.B. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.C. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.D. Restore the entire database, except the user database.



QUESTION 18Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?


A. Database Revision ControlB. Policy Package managementC. dbexport/dbimportD. upgrade_export/upgrade_import



QUESTION 19Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. Whatoccurs with the remote Gateway after reboot?

A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through theGateway.

B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through theGateway.

C. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security ManagementServer is not available.

D. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic.



QUESTION 20How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped or accepted by a rule in the SecurityPolicy?

A. SNMP trap alert scriptB. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.C. User-defined alert script

D. Pop-up alert script



QUESTION 21Which of the following is NOT useful to verify whether or not a Security Policy is active on a Gateway?

A. fw ctl get string active_secpolB. fw statC. cpstat fw -f policyD. Check the Security Policy name of the appropriate Gateway in SmartView Monitor.



QUESTION 22You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R77 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration ofyour Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?

A. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/confB. upgrade_export commandC. Database Revision ControlD. GAiA backup utilities



QUESTION 23Which R77 feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier Security Policy versions without changing object configurations?

A. upgrade_export/upgrade_importB. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimportC. Database Revision ControlD. Policy Package management



QUESTION 24What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

A. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to asecondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.

B. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.C. Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use

SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.D. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.



QUESTION 25Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAiA from the command line?

A. ifconfigB. sysconfigC. cpconfig

D. dhcp_cfg



QUESTION 26The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties and testing. He managed to lock himself out of hisaccount. How can you unlock this account?

A. Type fwm unlock_admin from the Security Management Server command line.B. Type fwm unlock_admin -u from the Security Gateway command line.C. Type fwm lock_admin -u <account name> from the Security Management Server command line.D. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.



QUESTION 27The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of theiraccounts. How should you unlock these accounts?

A. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.B. Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.C. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.D. Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.



Explanation:

QUESTION 28You are the Security Administrator for ABC-Corp. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on GAiA. You are concerned that the system might not be retainingyour entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on GAiA.Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer.

A. /etc/sysconfig/netconf.CB. /etc/conf/route.CC. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethxD. /etc/sysconfig/network



QUESTION 29Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources' servers should have its own Policy Package.These rules must be installed on this machine and not on the Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?

A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.B. When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after

selecting Policy > Install on Target.C. In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on

Target.



QUESTION 30You have a diskless appliance platform. How do you keep swap file wear to a minimum?

A. Issue FW-1 bases its package structure on the Security Management Server, dynamically loading when the firewall is booted.B. The external PCMCIA-based flash extension has the swap file mapped to it, allowing easy replacement.C. Use PRAM flash devices, eliminating the longevity.D. A RAM drive reduces the swap file thrashing which causes fast wear on the device.



QUESTION 31Your R77 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every48 hours. How do you create this schedule?

A. On a GAiA Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility.B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log

switch, and select the Time object.C. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select

the Time object.D. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object's Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.



QUESTION 32Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R77 configuration?

A. Policy Package ManagementB. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another serverC. Execute command upgrade_exportD. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 33Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of a R77 configuration?

A. upgrade_importB. cpinfo -recoverC. cpconfigD. fwm dbimport -p <export file>



QUESTION 34When restoring R77 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?

A. SIC CertificatesB. LicensesC. Route tablesD. Global properties



QUESTION 35Your organization's disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the new distributed R77 installation benefits. Your plan mustmeet the following required and desired objectives:

Required ObjectivE. The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired ObjectivE. The R77 components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up at least once a week.

Desired ObjectivE. Back up R77 logs at least once a week.

Your disaster recovery plan is as follows:

- Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers.

- Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the files created by the command upgrade_export.

- Configure the GAiA back up utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.

- Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.

- Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.

- Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.

Upon evaluation, your plan:

A. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.B. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.C. Does not meet the required objective.D. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.



QUESTION 36Your company is running Security Management Server R77 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do youadd a new administrator account?

A. Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator

B. Using SmartDashboard or cpconfigC. Using the Web console on GAiA under Product configuration, select AdministratorsD. Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators



QUESTION 37What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?

A. ipsoinfoB. CSTC. uag-diagD. cpinfo



QUESTION 38Which of these Security Policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?

A. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.B. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible.C. Using domain objects in rules when possible.D. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base.



Explanation:

QUESTION 39Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both usingautomatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server isdropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?

A. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.B. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.C. Routing is not configured correctly.D. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.



QUESTION 40You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway's external interface. You browse to the Google Website from host, 10.1.1.10successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?

A. Two, one for outbound, one for inboundB. Only one, outboundC. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connectionD. Only one, inbound



QUESTION 41Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point's Hide Network Address Translation method?

A. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address

B. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translationC. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP addressD. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation



QUESTION 42Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internetconnectivity?

A. HideB. Static DestinationC. Static SourceD. Dynamic Destination



QUESTION 43NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?

A. HTTP Logical ServerB. GatewayC. Address RangeD. Host



QUESTION 44Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IPaddress on your DMZ?


A. Dynamic Source Address TranslationB. Hide Address TranslationC. Port Address TranslationD. Static Destination Address Translation



QUESTION 45You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IPaddress. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewallexternal interface and the Internet.

What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?

A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.B. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall's external address.C. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.D. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.



QUESTION 46After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to thatmachine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?

A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal - Network defined by IPand Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.

B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology toExternal.

C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External. Change topology toOthers +.

D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal - Network defined by IPand Mask. Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.



QUESTION 47Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?

A. Allow bi-directional NATB. Automatic ARP configurationC. Translate destination on client-sideD. Enable IP Pool NAT



QUESTION 48Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router.You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services.Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?

A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.B. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.D. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule.



QUESTION 49An internal host initiates a session to the Google.com website and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of__________.

A. client side NATB. source NATC. destination NATD. None of these



QUESTION 50A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiatingpacket will translate the _________.

A. destination on server sideB. source on server sideC. source on client sideD. destination on client side



QUESTION 51A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiatesa session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?

A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.B. Nothing else must be configured.C. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.



QUESTION 52When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?

A. Nothing happens.B. The destination is modified.C. The destination port is modified.D. The source port is modified.

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 53The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

A. Phase two key negotiationB. Address translationC. Log Consolidation EngineD. User data base corruption



QUESTION 54In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.B. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.C. The Security Gateway's ARP file must be modified.D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.



QUESTION 55Secure Internal Communications (SIC) is completely NAT-tolerant because it is based on:

A. IP addresses.

B. SIC is not NAT-tolerant.C. SIC names.D. MAC addresses.



QUESTION 56Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?

A. InboundB. OutboundC. Post-inboundD. Eitherbound



QUESTION 57You are MegaCorp's Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, whileothers use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the rule order if both methods are used together? Give the BEST answer.

A. The Administrator decides the rule order by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.B. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.C. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.D. The rule position depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the

others.



QUESTION 58Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:

1) NAT decision is based on the destination port.

2) Both Source and Destination IP's have to be translated.

3) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway.

4) NAT should be performed on the server side.

A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 4C. 1, 3, and 4D. 2 and 3



QUESTION 59After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is thelikely source of the issue?

A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the packet's outbound passage.C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet.D. It is due to NAT.



QUESTION 60Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R77 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do youconfigure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?

A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.



QUESTION 61You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R77 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site toaccess your intranet Web server. To limit the partner's access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:

1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

- Allow bi-directional NAT

- Translate destination on client side

Do the above settings limit the partner's access?

A. Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.B. No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.C. Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.D. No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.


Explanation


QUESTION 62You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the defaultsettings in Global Properties / NAT.)

When you run fw monitor on the R77 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in themonitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?

A. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machineB. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machineC. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machineD. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine



QUESTION 63You have configured Automatic Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box Translate destination on client site from Global Properties > NAT.Assuming all other NAT settings in Global Properties are selected, what else must be configured so that a host on the Internet can initiate an inbound connection tothis host?

A. No extra configuration is needed.B. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway's external interface.C. The NAT IP address must be added to the external Gateway interface anti-spoofing group.D. A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway's internal interface.



QUESTION 64You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows:

SourcE. Any || Destination: web_public_IP || ServicE. Any || Translated SourcE. original || Translated Destination: web_private_IP || ServicE. Original

"web_public_IP? is the node object that represents the new Web server's public IP address. "web_private_IP? is the node object that represents the new Website's private IP address. You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.

When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet you see the error "page cannot be displayed?. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?

A. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.B. There is no ARP table entry for the protected Web server's public IP address.C. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the Web server's private IP address.D. There is no NAT rule translating the source IP address of packets coming from the protected Web server.



QUESTION 65You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp's Check Point Firewall. You need to allow two NAT rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give theBEST answer.

A. No, it is not possible to have more than one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares itagainst the first rule in the Rule Base, then the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule.

B. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using Manual NAT (bidirectional NAT).C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.D. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (bidirectional NAT).



QUESTION 66What is the default setting when you use NAT?

A. Destination Translated on Server sideB. Destination Translated on Client sideC. Source Translated on both sidesD. Source Translated on Client side



QUESTION 67You receive a notification that long-lasting Telnet connections to a mainframe are dropped after an hour of inactivity. Reviewing SmartView Tracker shows thepacket is dropped with the error:

Unknown established connection

How do you resolve this problem without causing other security issues? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Increase the service-based session timeout of the default Telnet service to 24-hours.B. Ask the mainframe users to reconnect every time this error occurs.C. Increase the TCP session timeout under Global Properties > Stateful Inspection.D. Create a new TCP service object on port 23 called Telnet-mainframe. Define a service-based session timeout of 24-hours. Use this new object only in the rule

that allows the Telnet connections to the mainframe.



QUESTION 68Which SmartConsole tool would you use to see the last policy pushed in the audit log?


A. SmartView TrackerB. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.C. SmartView StatusD. SmartView Server



QUESTION 69SmartView Tracker logs the following Security Administrator activities, EXCEPT:

A. Object creation, deletion, and editingB. Tracking SLA complianceC. Administrator login and logoutD. Rule Base changes



QUESTION 70What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker menu?

A. Current logs are exported to a new *.log file.B. Exported log entries are not viewable in SmartView Tracker.C. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel.D. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log.



QUESTION 71By default, when you click File > Switch Active File in SmartView Tracker, the Security Management Server:

A. Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file.B. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file.C. Prompts you to enter a filename, and then saves the log file.D. Purges the current log file, and prompts you for the new log's mode.



QUESTION 72You are working with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole component can be used to monitor changes to rules or object properties made bythe other administrators?

A. Eventia TrackerB. SmartView MonitorC. Eventia MonitorD. SmartView Tracker


Explanation


QUESTION 73Which SmartView Tracker mode allows you to read the SMTP e-mail body sent from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company?

A. This is not a SmartView Tracker feature.B. Display Capture ActionC. Network and Endpoint TabD. Display Payload View



QUESTION 74You can include External commands in SmartView Tracker by the menu Tools > Custom Commands.

The Security Management Server is running under GAiA, and the GUI is on a system running Microsoft Windows. How do you run the command traceroute on anIP address?

A. There is no possibility to expand the three pre-defined options Ping, Whois, and Nslookup.B. Go to the menu Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Windows command tracert.exe to the list.C. Use the program GUIdbedit to add the command traceroute to the Security Management Server properties.D. Go to the menu, Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Linux command traceroute to the list.



QUESTION 75Where is the easiest and BEST place to find information about connections between two machines?

A. All options are valid.B. On a Security Gateway using the command fw log.C. On a Security Management Server, using SmartView Tracker.D. On a Security Gateway Console interface; it gives you detailed access to log files and state table information.



QUESTION 76Which of the following can be found in cpinfo from an enforcement point?

A. Everything NOT contained in the file r2infoB. VPN keys for all established connections to all enforcement pointsC. The complete file objects_5_0.cD. Policy file information specific to this enforcement point



QUESTION 77Which R77 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway?

A. SmartView TrackerB. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.C. SmartView ServerD. SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 78You have detected a possible intruder listed in SmartView Tracker's active pane. What is the fastest method to block this intruder from accessing your networkindefinitely?

A. Modify the Rule Base to drop these connections from the network.B. In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Block Intruder.C. In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Suspicious Activity Rules.D. In SmartDashboard, select IPS > Network Security > Denial of Service.



QUESTION 79Where can an administrator specify the notification action to be taken by the firewall in the event that available disk space drops below 15%?

A. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > Threshold SettingsB. SmartView Tracker > Audit Tab > Gateway CountersC. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > ThresholdsD. This can only be monitored by a user-defined script.



QUESTION 80Where can an administrator configure the notification action in the event of a policy install time change?

A. SmartView Monitor > Gateways > Thresholds SettingsB. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > ThresholdsC. SmartDashboard > Policy Package ManagerD. SmartDashboard > Security Gateway Object > Advanced Properties Tab



QUESTION 81Where are custom queries stored in R77 SmartView Tracker?

A. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system under the user's profile.B. On the Security Management Server tied to the GUI client IP.C. On the Security Management Server tied to the Administrator User Database login name.D. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system shared by all users of that local PC.



QUESTION 82How do you view a Security Administrator's activities with SmartConsole?

A. Eventia SuiteB. SmartView Monitor using the Administrator Activity filterC. SmartView Tracker in the Management tabD. SmartView Tracker in the Network and Endpoint tabs



QUESTION 83Which SmartView Tracker selection would most effectively show who installed a Security Policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network?

A. Management tabB. Custom filterC. Network and Endpoint tabD. Active tab



QUESTION 84You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log. How do you view Security Administrator activity?

A. SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the Security Management Server's Operating System.B. SmartView Tracker in Network and Endpoint ModeC. SmartView Tracker in Active ModeD. SmartView Tracker in Management Mode



QUESTION 85Which of the following R77 SmartView Tracker views will display a popup warning about performance implications on the Security Gateway?

A. All Records QueryB. Account Query

C. Active TabD. Audit Tab



QUESTION 86While in SmartView Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 minutes,but cannot remember all the steps. What is the correct order of steps needed to set up the block?

1) Select Active Mode tab in SmartView Tracker.

2) Select Tools > Block Intruder.

3) Select Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker.

4) Set Blocking Timeout value to 60 minutes.

5) Highlight connection that should be blocked.

A. 1, 2, 5, 4B. 3, 2, 5, 4C. 1, 5, 2, 4D. 3, 5, 2, 4



QUESTION 87SmartView Tracker R77 consists of three different modes. They are:

A. Log, Active, and Audit

B. Log, Active, and ManagementC. Network and Endpoint, Active, and ManagementD. Log, Track, and Management



Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION 88When you change an implicit rule's order from Last to First in Global Properties, how do you make the change take effect?

A. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway.B. Select Install Database from the Policy menu.C. Select Save from the File menu.D. Reinstall the Security Policy.



QUESTION 89How does the button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page retrieve the address?

A. Route TableB. SNMP GetC. Address resolution (ARP, RARP)D. Name resolution (hosts file, DNS, cache)



QUESTION 90Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

A. Security GatewayB. HostC. Security Management objectD. Network



QUESTION 91Spoofing is a method of:

A. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.B. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.C. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.D. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.



QUESTION 92How can you activate the SNMP daemon on a Check Point Security Management Server?

A. Using the command line, enter snmp_install.B. From cpconfig, select SNMP extension.

C. Any of these options will work.D. In SmartDashboard, right-click a Check Point object and select Activate SNMP.



QUESTION 93Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R77 Security Gateway?

A. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.B. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.C. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.D. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.



QUESTION 94When you use the Global Properties' default settings on R77, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic?

A. SmartUpdate connectionsB. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security GatewayC. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange informationD. RIP traffic



QUESTION 95You have installed a R77 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway objectand Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is theproblem?

A. The object was created with Node > Gateway.B. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.D. The new Gateway's temporary license has expired.



QUESTION 96A marketing firm's networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking teamasks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check theseobjects and rules?


A. SmartView TrackerB. SmartView MonitorC. SmartView StatusD. SmartDashboard



QUESTION 97Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?

A. Limit grouping to rules regarding specific access.B. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.C. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.D. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule.



QUESTION 98Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?

A. Grouping rules by date of creationB. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup RuleC. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rulesD. Grouping functionally related rules together




A. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rulesB. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules

C. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule BaseD. Grouping rules by date of creation




A. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rulesB. Placing more restrictive rules before more permissive rulesC. Grouping authentication rules with QOS rulesD. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule



QUESTION 101You would use the Hide Rule feature to:

A. View only a few rules without the distraction of others.B. Hide rules from read-only administrators.C. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack.D. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.



QUESTION 102You are a Security Administrator using one Security Management Server managing three different firewalls. One firewall does NOT show up in the dialog box whenattempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is a possible cause?

A. The firewall has failed to sync with the Security Management Server for 60 minutes.B. The firewall object has been created but SIC has not yet been established.C. The firewall is not listed in the Policy Installation Targets screen for this policy package.D. The license for this specific firewall has expired.



QUESTION 103Your shipping company uses a custom application to update the shipping distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notifyremote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateway's Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Since you areresponsible for multiple sites, you want notification by a text message to your cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following wouldwork BEST for your purpose?

A. Logging implied rulesB. User-defined alert scriptC. SNMP trapD. SmartView Monitor Threshold



QUESTION 104A client has created a new Gateway object that will be managed at a remote location. When the client attempts to install the Security Policy to the new Gatewayobject, the object does not appear in the Install On check box. What should you look for?

A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) not configured for the object.B. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway option from the Network Objects dialog box.C. Anti-spoofing not configured on the interfaces on the Gateway object.D. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Security Gateway option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the

Security Gateway object.



QUESTION 105A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard connections to the stand-alone installation of R77. After running thecommand fw unloadlocal, you are able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes. Which of the following change is the most likely cause of theblock?

A. The Allow Control Connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.B. A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R77 Gateway.C. The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it.D. The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN Gateway.



QUESTION 106When configuring anti-spoofing on the Security Gateway object interfaces, which of the following is NOT a valid R77 topology configuration?

A. ExternalB. AnyC. SpecificD. Not Defined

Correct Answer: B



QUESTION 107You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The POP3 rule is disabled.B. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.C. The POP3 rule is hidden.D. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.



QUESTION 108As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this?Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

A. in the user object's Authentication screen.B. in the Gateway object's Authentication screen.C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.



QUESTION 109

The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of thefollowing should you remember?

A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security

Server.C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.



QUESTION 110Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, using an LDAP server.

A. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and "Leading the way in IT Testing & Certification Tools" -www.testking.com 58 Checkpoint 156-215.77 Examcreate an LDAP resource object.

B. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.C. Enable User Directory in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.



QUESTION 111You cannot use SmartDashboard's User Directory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?

1) Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system.

2) Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard's User Manager from connecting to the LDAP server.

3) Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has root permission (or at least write permission Administrative access) in the LDAP Server's access controlconfiguration.

A. 1, 2, and 3B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 2D. 1 and 3



QUESTION 112Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens by default.

A. 259, 900B. 256, 600C. 80, 256D. 8080, 529



QUESTION 113What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?

A. 23B. 264C. 900D. 259

Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 114Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow the Telnetservice to itself from any location. How would you configure authentication on the Gateway? With a:

A. Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900B. Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign onC. Client Authentication for fully automatic sign onD. Session Authentication rule



QUESTION 115Which authentication type permits five different sign-on methods in the authentication properties window?

A. Client AuthenticationB. Manual AuthenticationC. User AuthenticationD. Session Authentication



QUESTION 116Which Client Authentication sign-on method requires the user to first authenticate via the User Authentication mechanism, when logging in to a remote server with

Telnet?

A. Manual Sign OnB. Agent Automatic Sign OnC. Partially Automatic Sign OnD. Standard Sign On



QUESTION 117Which Security Gateway R77 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The:

A. Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the Client Authentication rule Source.B. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled.C. Refreshable Timeout setting, in Client Authentication Action Properties > Limits.D. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment.



QUESTION 118All R77 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers can NOT perform authentication?

A. FTPB. SMTPC. HTTPD. RLOGIN

Correct Answer: B



QUESTION 119Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R77 uses to validate connection attempts? Select the response below that includes theMOST complete list of valid authentication methods.

A. Proxied, User, Dynamic, SessionB. Connection, User, ClientC. User, Client, SessionD. User, Proxied, Session



QUESTION 120Security Gateway R77 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the response below that contains the MOST correct list of supportedservices.

A. SMTP, FTP, TELNETB. SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNETC. FTP, HTTP, TELNETD. FTP, TELNET



QUESTION 121

With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R77 user definitions on a(n) _________ Server.

A. LDAPB. RadiusC. SecureIDD. NT Domain



QUESTION 122The User Directory Software Blade is used to integrate which of the following with Security Gateway R77?

A. RADIUS serverB. Account Management Client serverC. UserAuthority serverD. LDAP server



QUESTION 123If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?

A. Connectivity between the R77 Gateway and LDAP serverB. Secure Internal Communications (SIC)C. Overlapping VPN DomainsD. Domain name resolution

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 124Which type of R77 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?

A. SMTP Security ServerB. HTTP Security ServerC. FTP Security ServerD. HTTPS Security Server



QUESTION 125You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard?

A. A group with generic userB. All usersC. LDAP Account Unit GroupD. Internal user Group



QUESTION 126For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?

A. TelnetB. SSHC. FTPD. HTTPS



QUESTION 127Which of the following is an authentication method used by Identity Awareness?

A. SSLB. Captive PortalC. RSAD. PKI



QUESTION 128What is the purpose of an Identity Agent?

A. Provide user and machine identity to a gatewayB. Manual entry of user credentials for LDAP authenticationC. Audit a user's access, and send that data to a log serverD. Disable Single Sign On



QUESTION 129What type of traffic can be re-directed to the Captive Portal?

A. SMTPB. HTTPC. All of the aboveD. FTP



QUESTION 130The Captive Portal tool:

A. Acquires identities from unidentified users.B. Is only used for guest user authentication.C. Allows access to users already identified.D. Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.



QUESTION 131Captive Portal is a __________ that allows the gateway to request login information from the user.

A. Pre-configured and customizable web-based toolB. Transparent network inspection tool

C. LDAP server add-onD. Separately licensed feature



QUESTION 132Complete this statement from the options provided. Using Captive Portal, unidentified users may be either; blocked, allowed to enter required credentials, orrequired to download the _____________.

A. Identity Awareness AgentB. Full Endpoint ClientC. ICA CertificateD. SecureClient



QUESTION 133Users with Identity Awareness Agent installed on their machines login with __________, so that when the user logs into the domain, that information is also used tomeet Identity Awareness credential requests.

A. Key-loggingB. ICA CertificatesC. SecureClientD. Single Sign-On



QUESTION 134Which of the following methods is NOT used by Identity Awareness to catalog identities?

A. AD QueryB. Captive PortalC. Identity AgentD. GPO



QUESTION 135When using AD Query to authenticate users for Identity Awareness, identity data is received seamlessly from the Microsoft Active Directory (AD). What is NOT arecommended usage of this method?

A. Leveraging identity in the application control bladeB. Basic identity enforcement in the internal networkC. Identity-based auditing and loggingD. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)



QUESTION 136The Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). What is not a recommended usage of this method?

A. When accuracy in detecting identity is crucialB. Leveraging identity for Data Center protection

C. Protecting highly sensitive serversD. Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)



QUESTION 137Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?

A. From the Internet


B. Through internal interfacesC. Through all interfacesD. According to the Firewall Policy



QUESTION 138If you were NOT using IKE aggressive mode for your IPsec tunnel, how many packets would you see for normal Phase 1 exchange?

A. 9B. 2C. 3

D. 6



QUESTION 139How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?

A. 12B. 1C. 3D. 6



QUESTION 140How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Aggressive Mode?

A. 12B. 6C. 3D. 1



QUESTION 141Which of the following actions take place in IKE Phase 2 with Perfect Forward Secrecy disabled?

A. Symmetric IPsec keys are generated.B. Each Security Gateway generates a private Diffie-Hellman (DH) key from random pools.C. The DH public keys are exchanged.D. Peers authenticate using certificates or preshared secrets.



QUESTION 142Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPsec Security Association (SA)?

A. vpn debug ipsecB. vpn ipsecC. fw ipsec tuD. vpn tu



QUESTION 143How many packets are required for IKE Phase 2?

A. 12B. 2C. 6D. 3



QUESTION 144Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

A. Peers agree on encryption method.B. Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.C. Peers agree on integrity method.D. Each side generates a session key from its private key and the peer's public key.



QUESTION 145Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

A. WebUIB. SmartView TrackerC. SmartView MonitorD. SmartReporter



QUESTION 146UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.

A. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IPB. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IPC. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXLD. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables



QUESTION 147The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?

A. Session and TransportB. Physical and DataC. Presentation and ApplicationD. Datalink and Network



QUESTION 148Your company has two headquarters, one in London, and one in New York. Each office includes several branch offices. The branch offices need to communicatewith the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration forestablishing VPN Communities for this company? VPN Communities comprised of:

A. One star Community with the option to mesh the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the mesh centerGateways option checked; all London branch offices defined in one satellite window, but, all New York branch offices defined in another satellite window.

B. Two mesh and one star Community: One mesh Community is set up for each of the headquarters and its branch offices. The star Community is configured withLondon as the center of the Community and New York is the satellite.

C. Two star and one mesh Community: One star Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the Community center, and its branches as satellites.The mesh Community includes only New York and London Gateways.

D. Three mesh Communities: One for London headquarters and its branches, one for New York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New Yorkheadquarters.



QUESTION 149Your company has two headquarters, one in London, one in New York. Each of the headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need tocommunicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration forestablishing VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprisedof:

A. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches; one for New York headquarters and its branches; and one for London and New Yorkheadquarters.

B. Two mesh and one star Community: Each mesh Community is set up for each site between headquarters their branches. The star Community has New Yorkas the center and London as its satellite.

C. Two star communities and one mesh: A star community for each city with headquarters as center, and branches as satellites. Then one mesh community forthe two headquarters.

D. One star Community with the option to mesh the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the "mesh centerGateways? option checked; all London branch offices defined in one satellite window; but, all New York branch offices defined in another satellite window.



QUESTION 150Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?

A. Scalability to accommodate user groupsB. Centralized managementC. Strong authenticationD. Strong data encryption



QUESTION 151Which of the following is NOT true for Clientless VPN?

A. The Gateway can enforce the use of strong encryption.B. The Gateway accepts any encryption method that is proposed by the client and supported in the VPN.C. Secure communication is provided between clients and servers that support HTTP.D. User Authentication is supported.



QUESTION 152You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities should you do first?

A. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA.B. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA).C. Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List.D. Manually import your partner's Access Control List.



QUESTION 153

Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies. Your manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policyto benefit from the new features. This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would you start such a migration?

A. This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified mode Gateway does not work.B. This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.C. You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all Gateways at the same time.D. Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then migrate Gateway per Gateway.



QUESTION 154Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner site gives you his VPN settings and you notice thathe setup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES 256 for IKE phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup?

A. The two algorithms do not have the same key length and so don't work together. You will get the error .... No proposal chosen....B. All is fine as the longest key length has been chosen for encrypting the data and a shorter key length for higher performance for setting up the tunnel.C. Only 128 bit keys are used for phase 1 keys which are protecting phase 2, so the longer key length in phase 2 only costs performance and does not add

security due to a shorter key in phase 1.D. All is fine and can be used as is.



QUESTION 155Why are certificates preferred over pre-shared keys in an IPsec VPN?

A. Weak performancE. PSK takes more time to encrypt than Diffie-Hellman.B. Weak Security: PSK are static and can be brute-forced.C. Weak security: PSKs can only have 112 bit length.

D. Weak scalability: PSKs need to be set on each and every Gateway.



QUESTION 156When using an encryption algorithm, which is generally considered the best encryption method?

A. Triple DESB. AES-256C. CAST cipherD. DES



QUESTION 157Which do you configure to give remote access VPN users a local IP address?

A. Encryption domain poolB. NAT poolC. Office mode IP poolD. Authentication pool



QUESTION 158Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from _____________.

A. sysconfigB. The ICA management toolC. SmartUpdateD. SmartDashboard



QUESTION 159Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?

A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.C. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.D. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.



QUESTION 160Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation keyon the Gateway's side with the command cpconfig and put in the same activation key in the Gateway's object on the Security Management Server. Unfortunately,SIC can not be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?

A. The installed policy blocks the communication.B. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated.C. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig.D. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.



QUESTION 161John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R77 Security Management Server and a new R77 Gateway. He now wants to establish SICbetween them. After entering the activation key, he gets the following message in SmartDashboard -

"Trust established?

SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won't install and interface fetching does not work. What might be a reason for this?

A. SIC does not function over the network.B. It always works when the trust is establishedC. The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.D. This must be a human error.



QUESTION 162The SIC certificate is stored in the directory _______________.

A. $CPDIR/registryB. $CPDIR/confC. $FWDIR/databaseD. $FWDIR/conf



QUESTION 163You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway. After the SIC reset operation is complete, the policy that will be installed is the:


A. Standard policy.B. Initial policy.C. Last policy that was installed.D. Default filter.



QUESTION 164Identity Awareness is implemented to manage access to protected resources based on a user's _____________.

A. Application requirementB. Computer MAC addressC. IdentityD. Time of connection



QUESTION 165Which of the following allows administrators to allow or deny traffic to or from a specific network based on the user's credentials?

A. Access PolicyB. Access RoleC. Access RuleD. Access Certificate



QUESTION 166John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to a set of designated IP addresses to minimize malwareinfection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

He has received a new laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address,but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with astatic IP (10.0.0.19).

He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources, and installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location and installspolicy.

John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and was not able to connect to the HR Web server. What is the next BESTtroubleshooting step?

A. Investigate this as a network connectivity issueB. Install the Identity Awareness AgentC. Set static IP to DHCPD. After enabling Identity Awareness, reboot the gateway



QUESTION 167John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infectionand unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but thatlimits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants tomove around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect. How does he solve this problem?

A. John should install the Identity Awareness AgentB. The firewall admin should install the Security PolicyC. John should lock and unlock the computerD. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue



QUESTION 168John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infectionand unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the

organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule thatlets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access tothe HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

What should John do when he cannot access the web server from a different personal computer?

A. John should lock and unlock his computerB. Investigate this as a network connectivity issueC. The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PCD. John should install the Identity Awareness Agent



QUESTION 169Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because theiPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the CaptivePortal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:

1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.

2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.

3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action.

Ms. McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?

A. Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule "Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal?

B. Have the security administrator reboot the firewallC. Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access RoleD. Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad



Topic 3, Volume C

QUESTION 170When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

A. Requires client and server side software.B. Prompts the user to enter credentials.C. Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway.D. Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.



QUESTION 171Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed?

A. BridgeB. Load SharingC. High AvailabilityD. Fail Open



QUESTION 172What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.D. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.



QUESTION 173What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.D. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.



QUESTION 174Which rule position in the Rule Base should hold the Cleanup Rule? Why?

A. First. It explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.B. Last. It explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic.

C. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.D. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.



QUESTION 175Which item below in a Security Policy would be enforced first?

A. IP spoofing/IP optionsB. Security Policy First ruleC. Administrator-defined Rule BaseD. Network Address Translation



QUESTION 176When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?

A. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).C. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.D. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules. Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).



QUESTION 177A Cleanup rule:

A. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.B. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.C. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.D. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.



QUESTION 178Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?

A. You create them in SmartDashboard.B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.C. Changes to the Security Gateway's default settings do not affect implicit rules.D. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.



QUESTION 179You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?

A. LastB. After Stealth RuleC. FirstD. Before Last



QUESTION 180All of the following are Security Gateway control connections defined by default implied rules, EXCEPT:

A. Exclusion of specific services for reporting purposes.B. Acceptance of IKE and RDP traffic for communication and encryption purposes.C. Communication with server types, such as RADIUS, CVP, UFP, TACACS, and LDAP.D. Specific traffic that facilitates functionality, such as logging, management, and key exchange.



QUESTION 181In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy > Global Properties > Firewall tab. In order for theSecurity Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the SecurityManagement Server on port ______.

A. 259B. 900C. 256D. 257



QUESTION 182A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?

A. Objects_5_0.CB. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificateC. Rule Bases_5_0.fwsD. fwauth.NDB



QUESTION 183You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following wouldyou choose to do?

A. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.C. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.D. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.



QUESTION 184Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?

A. User AuthenticationB. Client AuthenticationC. Session AuthenticationD. Cleanup



QUESTION 185Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?

A. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.B. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.C. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.D. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.



QUESTION 186Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources' servers should have a unique Policy Package.These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?

A. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets afterselecting Policy > Install.

B. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule.D. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.



QUESTION 187A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R77 Security Gateway.

A. IPSB. CleanupC. RejectD. Stealth



QUESTION 188In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties> FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate tothe Security Gateway on port ______.

A. 259B. 900C. 256D. 80



QUESTION 189To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP orSSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this?

A. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.B. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action

and select Accept here.

C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. "HTTP_SSH?) and define aclause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Booleanoperator AND.

D. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible.



QUESTION 190What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?

A. Keep all connectionsB. Keep data connectionsC. Re-match connectionsD. Reset all connections



QUESTION 191What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?


A. To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway.

B. To permit management traffic.C. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted.D. To permit implied rules.



QUESTION 192MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway. How do youapply the license?

A. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.B. Using your Security Management Server's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.C. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and applying the license locally with the command cplic put.D. Using each of the Gateways' IP addresses, and applying the licenses on the Security Management Server with the command cprlic put.



QUESTION 193Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting Packages > Distribute Only and choosing the targetGateway, the:

A. selected package is copied from the CD-ROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.B. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.C. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.D. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.



QUESTION 194Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting Packages > Distribute and Install Selected Package andchoosing the target Gateway, the:

A. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.B. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.C. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.D. selected package is copied from the SmartUpdate PC CD-ROM directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.



QUESTION 195What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new packages with SmartUpdate?

A. A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade packageB. SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PCC. SmartUpdate GUI PCD. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server



QUESTION 196What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate R77?

A. Fetch sync status

B. Reboot GatewayC. Preinstall verifierD. Get all Gateway Data



QUESTION 197What mechanism does a gateway configured with Identity Awareness and LDAP initially use to communicate with a Windows 2003 or 2008 server?

A. WMIB. CIFSC. RCPD. LDAP



QUESTION 198Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate via LDAP?

A. Check Point PasswordB. Active Directory Server objectC. Windows logon passwordD. WMI object



Explanation:

QUESTION 199Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP?

A. Login Distinguished Name and passwordB. Windows logon passwordC. Check Point PasswordD. WMI object



QUESTION 200Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP?

A. Check Point PasswordB. WMI objectC. Domain Admin usernameD. Windows logon password



QUESTION 201Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

A. Gateway Object > General PropertiesB. Security Management Server > Identity AwarenessC. Policy > Global Properties > Identity AwarenessD. LDAP Server Object > General Properties



QUESTION 202How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

A. Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.B. No action is necessary. This access is available by default.C. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on all interfaces.D. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for an external interface.



QUESTION 203To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role?

A. ActionB. SourceC. UserD. Track



QUESTION 204

To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role?

A. SourceB. TrackC. UserD. Action



QUESTION 205What command with appropriate switches would you use to test Identity Awareness connectivity?

A. test_ldapB. test_ad_connectivityC. test_ldap_connectivityD. test_ad



QUESTION 206What command syntax would you use to see accounts the gateway suspects are service accounts?

A. pdp check_logB. pdp show serviceC. adlog check_accountsD. adlog a service_accounts

Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 207What command syntax would you use to turn on PDP logging in a distributed environment?

A. pdp track=1B. pdp tracker onC. pdp logging onD. pdp log=1



QUESTION 208Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

A. TACACSB. Captive PortalC. Check Point PasswordD. Windows password



QUESTION 209Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

A. Check Point PasswordB. TACACSC. LDAPD. Windows password



QUESTION 210What gives administrators more flexibility when configuring Captive Portal instead of LDAP query for Identity Awareness authentication?

A. Captive Portal is more secure than standard LDAPB. Nothing, LDAP query is required when configuring Captive PortalC. Captive Portal works with both configured users and guestsD. Captive Portal is more transparent to the user



QUESTION 211How granular may an administrator filter an Access Role with identity awareness? Per:

A. Specific ICA CertificateB. AD UserC. Radius GroupD. Windows Domain



QUESTION 212Can you use Captive Portal with HTTPS?

A. No, it only works with FTPB. No, it only works with FTP and HTTPC. YesD. No, it only works with HTTP



QUESTION 213Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

A. Source NetworkB. Source MachineC. Source UserD. Source Server



QUESTION 214In which Rule Base can you implement an Access Role?

A. DLPB. Mobile Access

C. IPSD. Firewall



QUESTION 215Access Role objects define users, machines, and network locations as:

A. Credentialed objectsB. Linked objectsC. One objectD. Separate objects



QUESTION 216Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled?

A. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checkedB. Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checkedC. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checkedD. Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked



QUESTION 217Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?

A. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.B. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process.C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.D. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.



QUESTION 218You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for this particular server. How many can you create duringinstallation?

A. OneB. Only one with full access and one with read-only accessC. As many as you wantD. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server



QUESTION 219During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time verification?


A. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUIB. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfigC. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the GatewayD. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard



QUESTION 220How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security Management Server and Security Gateway?

A. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gatewayobject in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC).

B. Use SmartUpdate to retype the Security Gateway activation key. This will automatically sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.C. From the Security Management Server's command line, type fw putkey -p <shared key> <IP Address of Security Gateway>.D. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Security Management Server Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). Then retype the activation key on the

Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.



QUESTION 221

How can you recreate the Security Administrator account, which was created during initial Management Server installation on GAiA?

A. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will beprompted to create a new account.

B. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password.C. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.



QUESTION 222You need to completely reboot the Operating System after making which of the following changes on the Security Gateway? (i.e. the command cprestart is notsufficient.)

1. Adding a hot-swappable NIC to the Operating System for the first time.

2. Uninstalling the R77 Power/UTM package.

3. Installing the R77 Power/UTM package.

4. Re-establishing SIC to the Security Management Server.

5. Doubling the maximum number of connections accepted by the Security Gateway.

A. 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5C. 2, 3 onlyD. 3, 4, and 5 only



QUESTION 223The Security Gateway is installed on GAiA R77 The default port for the Web User Interface is _______.

A. TCP 18211B. TCP 443C. TCP 4433D. TCP 257



QUESTION 224Over the weekend, an Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new R77 Security Gateway using GAiA. You want to confirm communicationbetween the Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Security Policy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy?

A. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on both theSecurity Gateway and the Management Server.

B. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the new Security Gateway.C. You first need to initialize SIC in SmartUpdate.D. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on the

Security Management Server.



QUESTION 225An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R77 Security Gateway over the weekend. He e-mailed you the SIC activation key.You want to confirm communication between the Security Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Policy. What might prevent you from installing thePolicy?

A. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a policy install through it to the remote new Security Gateway appliance. Resolve by running thecommand fw unloadlocal on the local Security Gateway.

B. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the R77 Security Gateway appliance in order to remove the restrictive default policy.C. You first need to create a new Gateway object in SmartDashboard, establish SIC via the Communication button, and define the Gateway's topology.D. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on the

Security Management Server.



QUESTION 226How can you reset the Security Administrator password that was created during initial Security Management Server installation on GAiA?

A. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and edit the cpconfig administrator.B. As expert user Type fwm -a, and provide the existing administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password.C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password.D. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the Password portion of the file. Then log in to the

account without a password. You will be prompted to assign a new password.



QUESTION 227You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What musthappen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?

A. SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.B. An office mode address must be obtained by the client.C. The SNX client application must be installed on the client.D. Active-X must be allowed on the client.



QUESTION 228Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?

A. fw printverB. fw verC. fw statD. cpstat -gw



QUESTION 229Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the Security Policy name and timestamp currently installed on a firewall module?

A. cpstat fwdB. fw verC. fw statD. fw ctl pstat



QUESTION 230Suppose the Security Gateway hard drive fails and you are forced to rebuild it. You have a snapshot file stored to a TFTP server and backups of your Security

Management Server. What is the correct procedure for rebuilding the Gateway quickly?

A. Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., GAiA). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Revert to thestored snapshot image, and install the Security Policy.

B. Run the command revert to restore the snapshot, establish SIC, and install the Policy.C. Run the command revert to restore the snapshot. Reinstall any necessary Check Point products. Establish SIC and install the Policy.D. Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., GAia). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Reinstall any

necessary Check Point products and previously applied hotfixes. Revert to the stored snapshot image, and install the Policy.



QUESTION 231Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?

A. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.B. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer

Security Gateway version.C. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting.D. This command is no longer supported in GAiA.



QUESTION 232What are you required to do before running the command upgrade_export?

A. Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.B. Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server.C. Close all GUI clients.D. Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.



QUESTION 233A snapshot delivers a complete GAiA backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in /var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore alocal snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz?

A. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file.Then, provide the correct file name.

B. As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz.C. As expert user, type the command revert --file MySnapshot.tgz.D. As expert user, type the command snapshot - R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.



QUESTION 234What is the primary benefit of using the command upgrade_export over either backup or snapshot?

A. upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is not available.B. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where backup and snapshot will not.C. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will take a much shorter amount of time.D. upgrade_export has an option to back up the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup and snapshot will not.



QUESTION 235What is the syntax for uninstalling a package using newpkg?

A. -u <pathname of package>B. -i <full pathname of package>C. -S <pathname of package>D. newpkg CANNOT be used to uninstall a package



QUESTION 236Your primary Security Gateway runs on GAiA. What is the easiest way to back up your Security Gateway R77 configuration, including routing and networkconfiguration files?

A. Copying the directories $FWDIR/conf and $FWDIR/lib to another location.B. Using the native GAiA backup utility from command line or in the Web based user interface.C. Using the command upgrade_export.D. Run the pre_upgrade_verifier and save the .tgz file to the directory /temp.



QUESTION 237You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R77 GAiA Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do youuse?

A. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/confB. GAiA back up utilitiesC. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands

D. Database Revision Control



QUESTION 238You are running a R77 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed.What back up method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?

A. manual backupB. upgrade_exportC. backupD. snapshot



QUESTION 239Before upgrading SecurePlatform to GAiA, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of theCheck Point configuration as well as the system configuration.

An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problem after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex staticrouting configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?

A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the boot menu of GAiA.C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and copying netconf.C from the production environment.D. A backup cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 240Which operating systems are supported by a Check Point Security Gateway on an open server? Select MOST complete list.

A. Sun Solaris, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Check Point SecurePlatform, IPSO, Microsoft WindowsB. Check Point GAiA and SecurePlatform, and Microsoft WindowsC. Check Point GAiA, Microsoft Windows, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Sun Solaris, IPSOD. Check Point GAiA and SecurePlatform, IPSO, Sun Solaris, Microsoft Windows



QUESTION 241You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R71 to R77. Prior to upgrading, you want to back up the Gateway should there be any problems with theupgrade. Which of the following allows for the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?

A. database revisionB. snapshotC. upgrade_exportD. backup



QUESTION 242An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:

A. A license can be taken from one Security Management Server and given to another Security Management Server.B. Only one IP address is used for all licenses.C. The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of a Security Gateway. Each module's license has a unique IP address.D. Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.



QUESTION 243You are running the license_upgrade tool on your GAiA Gateway. Which of the following can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?

A. Perform the actual license-upgrade processB. Simulate the license-upgrade processC. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License RepositoryD. View the status of currently installed licenses



QUESTION 244If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on GAiA, how is the system recovered?

A. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>.B. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file name>.C. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and re-attempt the upgrade.D. GAiA will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.



QUESTION 245Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import process?

A. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted.B. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten.C. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited.D. It will conflict with any future upgrades when using SmartUpdate.



QUESTION 246Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?


A. Security Management ServerB. Check Point GatewayC. SmartConsoleD. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching



QUESTION 247If a Security Gateway enforces three protections, LDAP Injection, Malicious Code Protector, and Header Rejection, which Check Point license is required inSmartUpdate?

A. IPSB. SSL: VPNC. SmartEvent IntroD. Data Loss Prevention



QUESTION 248Central license management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following functions?

1. Check for expired licenses.

2. Sort licenses and view license properties.

3. Attach both R77 Central and Local licesnes to a remote module.

4. Delete both R77 Local Licenses and Central licenses from a remote module.

5. Add or remove a license to or from the license repository.

6. Attach and/or delete only R77 Central licenses to a remote module (not Local licenses).

A. 1, 2, 5, & 6B. 2, 3, 4, & 5C. 2, 5, & 6D. 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5

Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 249Which command gives an overview of your installed licenses?

A. cplicenseB. showlicC. fw lic printD. cplic print



QUESTION 250Where are SmartEvent licenses installed?

A. SmartEvent serverB. Log ServerC. Security Management ServerD. Security Gateway



QUESTION 251ALL of the following options are provided by the GAiA sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:

A. Export setupB. DHCP Server configurationC. Time & DateD. GUI Clients



QUESTION 252Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility on a Management Server?

A. Export setupB. DHCP Server configurationC. GUI ClientsD. Time & Date



QUESTION 253Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?

A. fw cpinfoB. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txtC. diagD. cpstat - date.cpstat.txt



QUESTION 254Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

A. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of aGAiA Security Gateway.

B. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.C. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.D. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.



QUESTION 255How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?

A. fw unload policyB. fw unloadlocalC. fw delete all.all@localhostD. fwm unloadlocal



QUESTION 256How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?

A. clish -c show routing active enableB. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forwardC. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forwardD. ipsofwd list



QUESTION 257Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R77?

A. fw tab -uB. fw shutdownC. fw mergeD. fwm policy_print <policyname>



QUESTION 258You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication.Choose the BEST reason why.

A. You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.B. Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.C. You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.D. Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)

Explanation


Topic 4, Volume D

QUESTION 259Which authentication type requires specifying a contact agent in the Rule Base?

A. Client Authentication with Partially Automatic Sign OnB. Client Authentication with Manual Sign OnC. User AuthenticationD. Session Authentication



QUESTION 260What is the difference between Standard and Specific Sign On methods?

A. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate foreach service specifically defined in the window Specific Action Properties.

B. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows, but re-authenticate for each host to which he is trying toconnect. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate for each service.

C. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate foreach service and each host to which he is trying to connect.

D. Standard Sign On requires the user to re-authenticate for each service and each host to which he is trying to connect. Specific Sign On allows the user to signon only to a specific IP address.



QUESTION 261Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

A. Templates, UsersB. Users, NetworksC. Users, User GroupsD. Networks, Hosts



QUESTION 262How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R77 Security Gateway?

A. By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard.B. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out.C. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap.D. By installing a Security Policy.



QUESTION 263How do you use SmartView Monitor to compile traffic statistics for your company's Internet Web activity during production hours?

A. Select Tunnels view, and generate a report on the statistics.B. Configure a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway.C. Use Traffic settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day.D. View total packets passed through the Security Gateway.



QUESTION 264What happens when you run the command. fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?

A. Connections from the specified source are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.B. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.C. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.D. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked with the need to change the Security Policy.



QUESTION 265An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rulefor GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs forGRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).

Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.

If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.

Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?

A. The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.B. The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security Gateway

cannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.C. The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView

Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of theday.

D. The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.



QUESTION 266Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to operate correctly?

A. 514B. 257C. 256D. 258



QUESTION 267In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?

A. Rule 0B. Blank field under Rule NumberC. Rule 1D. Cleanup Rule



QUESTION 268

A third-shift Security Administrator configured and installed a new Security Policy early this morning. When you arrive, he tells you that he has been receivingcomplaints that Internet access is very slow. You suspect the Security Gateway virtual memory might be the problem. Which SmartConsole component would youuse to verify this?

A. Eventia AnalyzerB. SmartView TrackerC. SmartView MonitorD. This information can only be viewed with the command fw ctl pstat from the CLI.



QUESTION 269You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the problematic host. Youwant to block this for an hour while you investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?

A. Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.B. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker.C. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.D. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.



QUESTION 270In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs. What can you do to keep old log files, when free space fallsbelow 45 MB?

A. Do nothing. Old logs are deleted, until free space is restored.B. Use the command fwm logexport to export the old log files to another location.C. Configure a script to run fw logswitch and SCP the output file to a separate file server.

D. Do nothing. The Security Management Server automatically copies old logs to a backup server before purging.



QUESTION 271How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?

A. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.C. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.



QUESTION 272True or FalsE. SmartView Monitor can be used to create alerts on a specified Gateway.

A. True, by right-clicking on the Gateway and selecting Configure Thresholds.B. True, by choosing the Gateway and selecting System Information.C. False, an alert cannot be created for a specified Gateway.D. False, alerts can only be set in SmartDashboard Global Properties.



QUESTION 273Which R77 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway?

A. SmartView MonitorB. SmartUpdateC. SmartView StatusD. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.



QUESTION 274Which R77 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy install?

A. SmartView MonitorB. SmartView TrackerC. SmartDashboardD. SmartView Status



QUESTION 275You are trying to save a custom log query in R77 SmartView Tracker, but getting the following error:

Could not save <query-name> (Error: Database is Read Only)

Which of the following is a likely explanation for this?

A. Another administrator is currently connected to the Security Management Server with read/write permissions which impacts your ability to save custom logqueries to the Security Management Server.

B. You do not have OS write permissions on the local SmartView Tracker PC in order to save the custom query locally.C. You have read-only rights to the Security Management Server database.D. You do not have the explicit right to save a custom query in your administrator permission profile under SmartConsole customization.



QUESTION 276The R77 fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

A. Traffic issuesB. Log Consolidation EngineC. User data base corruptionD. Phase two key negotiation



QUESTION 277You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you would like to see how often the particular rules match.Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.

A. In the SmartView Tracker, if you activate the column Matching Rate.B. In SmartReporter, in the section Firewall Blade - Activity > Network Activity with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.C. SmartReporter provides this information in the section Firewall Blade - Security > Rule Base Analysis with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.D. It is not possible to see it directly. You can open SmartDashboard and select UserDefined in the Track column. Afterwards, you need to create your own

program with an external counter.



QUESTION 278A company has disabled logging for some of the most commonly used Policy rules. This was to decrease load on the Security Management Server and to maketracking dropped connections easier. What action would you recommend to get reliable statistics about the network traffic using SmartReporter?

A. SmartReporter analyzes all network traffic, logged or not.B. Network traffic cannot be analyzed when the Security Management Server has a high load.C. Turn the field Track of each rule to LOG.D. Configure Additional Logging on an additional log server.



QUESTION 279What is a Consolidation Policy?

A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.C. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.D. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.



QUESTION 280Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete andvalid list.

A. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView StatusB. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView MonitorC. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdateD. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI




Documents

CheckPoint 156-215 - · PDF fileCheckpoint 156-215.77 Questions & Answers ... The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one GAiA server working as the SmartConsole,