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Compulsory English Paper Solution3. (a) The author feels tha t as more and more time-saving devices such a s computers, cell phones, etc.
enter our lives, more and more desperate have w e become to escape them. In future, blinking machines
and s treaming videos will engulf our lives to such an extent that freedom will become a scarcity. Alone time
willbecome a scarcity and in fact, more valuable, as the re will be less of it available in the future.
(b) Today, people have lost touch w ith themselves and their lives have become empty as a result of the
constant inflow o f data in their lives. They are s lowly losing their freedom and control over the ir lives and
barely have any time or space to think for themselves or those a round them.
(c) The autho r feels that now adays, people are so busy in work that they hardly have any time left for their
persona l lives. So many time-saving devices like Internet and mobiles have entered peoples lives, leaving
little or no time for recreation. People are losing the moral and emotional clarity of their thoughts. Hence, he
says, We have more and more ways to communicate, but less and less to say.
(d) Peopleare takingan active interest in old-age fads such as yoga and meditation in order to get away
from the world of the high-speed devices and streaming videos. These devices have eaten away into thepersonal space of people and have left little or no time for simple pleasures of life. People hope that
spending time in a peaceful setting would help to make them calmer and sharper. They want to search that
emotional and moral clarity of their lives which they have lost, being part o f this modern (tech-obsessed)
world.
(e) The modern man has become so tech savvy and engrossed in the world of high-speed Internet that he
barely has time to empathize with others. The emotion of empathy requires an individual to be calm,
whereas the modern man is living in the fast lane, always in a rush to meet deadlines.
4. (a)
(i) desultory lacking a plan, purpose or enthusiasm
The candidates speech was marked by desultory ideas, going on to show how ill-prepared he was.
(ii) grapevine literally, it refers to a climbing plant on which grapes grow. However, figuratively it refers to
an informal way of spreading information or rumors through conversation.
I heard about their affair through the office grapevine.
(iii) holistic something that emphasizes on the importance of the whole/ complete s ystem and the
interdependence of its parts.
Our leaders need to adopt a more holistic approach to achieving nation-wide growth so as to ensure that even
the rural areas are uplifted.
(iv) insidious caus ing harm in a way that is gradual or no t eas ily noticed
Rheumatoid arthritis is an insidious disease that slowly eats away your joints.
(v) intransigence uncompromising or unwilling to change ones views or to agree about something
Her parents gave in to her intransigence and allowed her to pursue her dreams of becoming an actor.
(vi) paradigm - a typical model or pa ttern of something; a theory or a group of ideas about how something
should be done, made, or thought about
Free education for children belonging to lower income groups will bring about a paradigm change in education as
well as the society.
(vii) susceptible - likely or liable to be influenced or harmed by a particular thing
Londoners are more susceptible to depression due to the continuous rains and cold weather.(viii) ubiquitous - present or found everywhere
The companys advertisements are ubiquitous, its sales are bound to go up.
(ix) voracious having a huge appetite
The bloody dragon is a voracious beast that will keep seeking bloodier meat.
(x) venerable - valued and respected because of old age or wisdom
A venerable po litician is known by his deeds and accomplishments and no t his family background.
Exam Analys is Actual Papers Solutions
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4. (b)
(i) The word one functions as a pronoun in the given sentence. In order to maintain consistency, the same
pronoun should be used throughout the sentence. The correct sentence is One must do what one thinks
best.
(ii) The given sentence is in future tense, whereas the verb did is a past tense form of the verb do. The
correct sentence is He will surely not do that, will he?
(iii) When seeking permission from someone, one should use words such as may or might and not can or
could. The correct sentence is May I leave the room now, s ir?
(iv) Phrases that start with along w ith are called interrupters and are not part of the main subject. In the
given sentence, neighbor, which is a singular noun, is the subject. Hence, singular verb was w ill be used.
Also, the given sentence is in pas t tense, hence the phrase is stalled will be replaced by was s talled. The
correct sentence is My neighbor, along with two of his friends, was pushing his car, which was stalled.
(v) The correct sentence is I thought of helping him, but he did not welcome my suggestion. It isgrammatically incorrect to say I thought to
(vi) The prepos ition in should be replaced by on. In is used to indicate location/ position inside/within
something, for example, the book is lying in the cupboard.On is used to indicate a position that is supported
by the top surface o f something, for example, the book is lying on the table. Also, to maintain the correct
parallel structure, the -ing forms of verbs have been used in the sentence (eatingand sitting).
The correct sentence is When I was a child, I enjoyed eating ice cream while sitting on the bench.
(vii) Phrases that s tart with along with are called interrupters and are not part of the main subject. In the
given sentence, Principal, which is a singular noun, is the subject. Hence, singular verb is will be used. The
correct sentence is The Principal, along with the teachers, is planning to apply for a leave.
(viii) When question-indicating words such as who, what, why and where appear in the middle of an
interrogative sentence, the verb that follows them is usually placed at the end o f the sentence. For
example, Do you have an idea where she is?The correct sentence is Do you have an idea who that man is?
(ix) Phrases that start with as w ell as are called interrupters and are not part of the main subject. In the
given sentence, Unemployment, which is a s ingular noun, is the subject. Hence, singular verb influences
will be used. The correct sentence is Unemployment as well as poverty influences the votes.(x) A Past Perfect form of the verb expresses the idea tha t something occurred before another action in the
past. In the given sentence, the man had disappeared be fore I woke up. Hence, the past perfect form of
the verb disappear i.e. had disappeared should be used. The correct sentence is When I woke up, the
man had already disappeared after committing murder in the running train.
4. (c)
(i) No matter wha t she says, no one dares to criticize her for it.
(ii) Radha, being the e ldest, had to look a fter her parents.
(iii) She decorated the room so that it looked beautiful.
(iv) The young tourist exclaimed that it was a beautiful day.
(v) It was determined by the one-man committee that no action needed to be taken by them.
(vi) The proud father exclaimed that h is son was a wonde rful batsman.
(vii) My mother remarked were the children not lovely.
(viii) The streets w ere filled w ith tourists during the w orld cup.
(ix) How wonderful it would be if we go to Shimla!
(x) Had I gone out earlier, I would have finished the work.
4. (d)
(i) Even thoughhe was late for the meeting, his boss didnt get angry.
(ii) Ashe was late for the meeting, his bos s became angry.
(iii) Ill not get angry, providedyou are not late for the meeting.
(iv) I started early but I was still late for the meeting.
(v) Ill give you her telephone number in case you have prob lems finding her place.
4. (e)
(i) It would be a piece of cake to impress Ramesh Mohan.
(ii) It is a very good idea to visit old people in hospitals.
(iii) It is bad for your health to smoke 20 cigarettes a day.
(iv) It could be very dangerous to chat w ith strangers on the computer.
(v) It is a w aste of electricity to keep the computer on all day, says my father.
4. (f)
(i) My teacher said that I need to practise more.
Practise is a verb, while practice is a noun. In the above sentence, the infinitive form of verb i.e. to practise
has been used.
Example using practice It is a good practice to revise before examination.
(ii) The hot weather a ffects people in different ways.
Affect is a verb, while effect is a noun. In the above sentence, we use a verb to show the effect of the hot
weather (on people).
Example using effect The effects of women empowerment are far-reaching.
(iii) Wouldnt it be nice if we had to work only on a lternate days?
Alternate means every other or occurring or succeeding by turns , for example, the postman comes every
alternate day.
On the o ther hand, alternative is a second option that does not replace the first, for example, CNG is an
alternative for people who want to save the money spent on petrol.
(iv) Our politicians are known to evade taxes.
Evade means to escape or stay aw ay from doing something, while avoid means to stay away fromsomething.
Example us ing avoid I want to avoid unnecessary media attention.
Example using evade I evade media attention by wearing a disguise.
(v) The Principal complimented the students on their fine performance.
Compliment refers to an admiring remark, while complement refers to something that completes
something else o r makes it better, for example, the belt is a perfect complement to her outfit.
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4. (g)
(i) An amateur is someone who engages in a pursu it, study, science, or sport as a pastime rather than as a
profession. Some of its opposites are expert, professional, specialist, etc.
(ii) Modesty is the quality of not being too proud or confident about onese lf or ones abilities. Some of its
opposites are arrogance, boastfulness, pompousness , conceitedness, egotism, etc.
(iii) Shallow, literally means having a small distance to the bottom from the surface or highes t point.
However, figuratively it means not caring about or involving se rious or important things. Some of its
opposites are deep, profound, bottomless, superficial, etc.
(iv) Conceited means having or show ing too much pride in your own w orth or goodness. Some of its
opposites are humble, modest, egoless,etc.
(v)Atheist is a person w ho does not be lieve in the existence of God. Some of its oppos ites are theist,
believer, etc.
Solution of Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2013,
PaperI
Q1. Though not very useful from the point of view of a connected political history of South India, the
Sangam literature portrays the social and economic conditions of its time w ith remarkable vividness.
Comment.
Ans:Sangam Literature refers to a body of classical Tamil literature created between the years c. 600 BCE
to 300 CE. The period during which these poems were composed is commonly referred to as the Sangam
period.
The Tamil Sangams were academies, where Tamil poets and authors are said to have gathered periodically
to publish their works. The literature was primarily secular dea ling w ith everyday themes in a Tamilakam
context.
It deals with emotional and material topics such as love, war, governance, trade and bereavement. It
narrates about classification of sectional division of the concurrent society. It informs about different
religions (like Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Jainism etc.), various festivals (like worship of pattini), socialtraditions and customs prevalent in concurrent society, status of women, prevalent dresses and ornaments,
mutual behavior of the people towards one other.
It narrates about concurrent economic life on a large scale. Division of land according to its fertility and use,
like mullai (forests), marutham (agricultural land), neithal (coastal regions) and paalai (deserts) is revealed
by Sangam Literature.
It informs about prosperous internal trade, international sea trade and also about foreign trade. It narrates
about cities such as Madurai, Puhar and Uraiyur, which were centers of economic and industrial activities. A
large number of archeological evidence of international trade has been recovered from Arikamedu. Kalchi
was famous for pearl-culture. Puhar was a port city, whereas Uraiyur and Arikamedu were significant for
cotton industry.
Q2 (a) Discuss the Tandava dance as recorded in the early Indian inscriptions.
Ans:Tandave is a divine dance performed by the Hindu god Shiva. It is described as a vigorous dance that
is the source of the cycle of creation, preservation and dissolution.
In the Hindu texts, at least s even types of Tandava, namely Ananda Tandava, Tripura Tandava, Sandhya
Tandava, Samhara Tandava, Kali Tandava, Uma Tandava and Gauri Tandava, are found. Shiva as Nataraja isconsidered the supreme lord of dance.
The Rudra Tandava depicts his violent nature, first as the creator and later as the destroyer of the universe,
even of death itself, whereas the Ananda Tandava depicts Shiva enjoying.
It is well narrated in the Natya Shastra authored by Bharata Muni. The Bhagavata Purana talks of Krishna
dancing his Tandava on the head of the serpent Kaliya. According to Jain traditions, Indra is said to have
performed the Tandava in honour of Rishabha (Jain tirthankar) on the latter's birth.
Q 2 (b) Chola architecture represents a high watermark in the evolution of temple architecture.
Discuss.
Ans:The Cholas continued the temple building traditions of the Pallava dynasty and e levated the Dravidian
temple design to greater heights. They developed a typical style of temple architecture of South India
known a s Dravida style, complete with Vimana or Shikhara, high walls and the gateway topped by
Gopuram. Vijayalaya Choleswa ram temple is an e xample o f a surviving early Chola building.
The maturity and grandeur of the Cho la architecture had found expression in the two magnificent temples of
Thanjavur by Rajaraja Cho la and Gangaikondacholapuram by Rajendra Chola.
In the temple o f Thanjavur, two gopurams were built for the first time. The temple of Gangaikonda
Cholapuram follows the plan o f the great temple of Thanjavur but in most details, the Gangaikonda
Chloapuram has characteristics of its ow n. It had only one enclosure wa ll and one gopuram. The temple
architecture of Cholas is considered the pa rameter of Dravidian temple design.
Q3. Defying the barriers of age, gender and religion, the Indian women became the torch bearer during
the struggle for freedom in India.
Ans:The Indian women participated in the National Movement on a large scale. They joined almost all forms
of the movement.
From the Swadeshi Movement up to the Quit India Movement and even after independence, they played
significant role. They were involved in processions , picketing and even went to jail for their struggle for
freedom.
Sarojini Naidu and Nalini Sengupta we re elected as the President of the Indian National Congress . Anne
Besant was one of the main leaders of the Home Rule Movement. A number of women participated in the
election of local bodies and provincial assemblies under the British Indian Rule and worked as ministers andsecretaries.
They also joined the extremist and revolutionary wings of the movement. Kalpana Datta and Pritilata
Waddedar joined the Chittagong armoury raid. Caption Lakshmi Sahgal and others joined the Indian
Nationa l Army.
They joined communist and peasant movements along with workers movements on a large scale. They also
played significant role in the movements for social and religious reforms. They struggled for the abolition o f
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social evils including untouchability, reform in the status of women, prohibition against child marriage and
expansion of education.
The All India Women's Conference, founded in 1927 by Margaret Cous ins for the upliftment and betterment
of women and children, was an important example of the spreading consciousness among them.
Q4. Several foreigners made India their homeland and participated in various movements. Analyze
their role in the Indian struggle for freedom.
Ans:During the Indian National Movement, a number of foreigners played an important in the freedom
struggle. Charles Freer Andrews, a British Christian missionary and social reformer came to India and later
became a close friend of Mahatma Gandhi and identified completely with the cause o f India's independence.
Sister Nivedita (Margaret Elizabeth Noble) was a Scots-Irish social worker, author, teacher and a disciple ofSwami Vivekananda. She had close associations w ith the Ramakrishna Mission but because of he r active
contribution in the field of Indian Nationalism, she had to publicly dissociate herself from the activities of the
Ramakrishna Mission.
A British, Anne Besant, who was the chief of the Theosophical Society in India, played a leading role during
the Home Rule Movement and later was elected as the first woman President o f the Indian National
Congress . Another British, Nalini Sengupta, after her marriage to Jatindra Mohan Sengupta, became an
eminent nationalist, who actually understood the contemporary Indian social and political scenario, in terms
of the freedom struggle.
Three British communist leaders, namely, Philip Spratt, Ben Bradley and Lester Hutchinson were accused
under the Meerut Conspiracy Case in 1929. They were actively working for the left wing of the Indian
National Movement.
Q5. In many ways, Lord Dalhousie was the founder of modern India. Elaborate.
Ans:Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. To promote British
economic interests, he introduced a numbers of programmes, which also he lped in the modernization of
India. He also introduced social reforms against the social evils prevalent in India. He extended the British
Rule in India through his doctrine of lapse and wa rs such as second Anglo-Sikh war. Thus, he united a
larger part of India under similar rule.
He introduced the development of infrastructure in India. He was a prominent supporter of the development
of railways in India, which was introduced in 1853. He completed the Ganges canal and made liberal
provisions for metalled roads and bridges.
He created an imperial system of post-offices, reducing the rates of carrying letters and introducing postage
stamps. He created the department of public instruction and inaugurated the system of administrative
reports.
He encouraged the culture of tea. He ensured protection of forests and preservation of ancient and historic
monuments.
He introduced the Widow Remarriage Act. He a lso introduced the Lex Loci Act- a uniform civil code that
administered the same se t of secular civil laws to govern all people irrespective of their religion, caste and
tribe.
Q6. Critically discuss the objectives of Bhoodan and Gramdan movements initiated by Acharya VinobaBhave and their success.
Ans:Bhoodan and Gramdan movements were voluntary land reform movements in India sta rted by Acharya
Vinoba Bhave in 1951. It was to persuade wea lthy landowners to voluntarily give a percentage of their land
to the landless. However, this land could not be so ld.
The initial objective of the movement was to secure voluntary donations o f land and distribute it to the
landless, but the movement soon came out with a demand of 1/6th share of land from all land owners.
In 1952, the movement had widened the concept of gramdan and had started advocating commercial
ownership of land. But the movement could not get the expected success due to a number of reasons. The
land obtained by landless people under the movement could not be sold. In effect, landless labourers were
being given a small plot of land on which to settle, as well as grow some of their own food, so a s to give
them an incentive to remain in the village as a captive labour pool for the richer farmers and landlords.
The land donated under the movement was often barren and infertile and it was much more costly to grow
crops on it. The quantity of the land, received under the movement was very less and the number of the
needy people was much more. Thus, none of the recipients could get a sufficient piece of land that could be
used as the source of livelihood.
Q7. Write a critical note on the evolution and significance of the slogan Jai Jawan Jai
Kisan.
Ans: The slogan of Jai Jawan Jai Kisan means ha il the soldier and hail the farmer. Indian Prime Minister
Lal Bahadur Shastri gave this slogan to India in 1965 when the country was attacked by Pakistan and a t
the same time was facing a scarcity of food grains.
The slogan was given to enthuse the so ldiers to defend India and simultaneously cheering farmers to do
their best to increase the production of food grains to reduce dependence on import.
The slogan inspired not only the soldiers and the farmers but it also motivated all the Indians to face the
concurrent national emergency and to develop a sentiment of national unity. India repulsed the Pakistani
invasion successfully.
After Pokharan tests in 1998, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the then Prime Minister, added Jai Vigyan (Hail
knowledge) to the s logan. The slogan Jai Jawan Jai Kisan reverberates even today through the length and
breadth of the country.
Q8. Discuss the contribution of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad to pre and post independent India.Ans:Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, was born on November 11, 1888 in Mecca and was popularly known as
Maulana Azad. He was one o f the foremost leaders of Indian freedom struggle. He met Aurobinto Ghosh
and Sri Shyam Shundar Chakravarty and joined the revolutionary movement against the British rule. He
helped se t up secret revolutionary centers all over north India and Bombay.
In 1912, he sta rted a weekly journal in Urdu called Al-Hilal to increase the revolutionary recruits amongst
the Muslims. The British Indian government regarded Al- Hilal as the propagator of secessionist views and
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banned it in 1914. Then he s tarted anothe r weekly called Al-Balagh w ith the same mission of propagating
Indian nationalism and revolutionary ideas based on Hindu-Muslim unity. In 1916, this weekly was also
banned.
He roused the Muslim community through the Khilafat Movement. He supported Non-Cooperation Movement
and entered Indian National Congress in 1920. He was elected as the president of the special session of
the Congress in Delhi in 1923. He was aga in arrested in 1930 for violation of the salt laws.
He became the pres ident of Congress in 1940 at Ramgarh and remained in the post till 1946. He was a
staunch opponent of partition and supported a confederation of autonomous provinces. He was hurt greatly
by the partition.
He ws the first education minister in independent India and se rved as the Minister of Education in Pandit
Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet from 1947 to 1958.
Q9. Analyse the circumstances that led to Tashkent Agreement in 1966. Discuss the highlights of theagreement.
Ans:The Tashkent Agreement was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan after the Indo-Pakistan
War of 1965. A number of reasons were liable for the execution of this agreement.
Both United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (Soviet Union) intervened in the matter
and pushed Pakistan and India to a cease -fire in fear that the conflict might escalate and draw in other
powers.
India, having no ob jective to begin or to continue the w ar, agreed for the peace agreement. It did not want
to lose the support of Soviet Union in the United Nations on the issue of Kashmir, and did not want to risk
losing the supply of MIG fighter aircrafts, main battle tanks and o ther equipment from the Soviet Union.
The Indian Army had broken the delusion of Pakistan that India had been weakened after its so-called
defeat against China in 1962, and Pakistan could defeat India with more advanced weapons gained from
United States. Furthermore, Pakistan was unable to continue the war because it was totally dependent on
United States for its war e fforts
Continuation of the war could have caused unbearable damage of wealth and lives for both the countries.
As per the agreement, both the countries agreed:- to pull back their forces to their pre-conflict positions.
- to not interfere in each other's internal a ffairs.
- to restore economic and diplomatic relations between them.
- for orderly transfer of Prisoners of War.
- to work towards building good relations between the two countries.
Q10. Critically examine the compulsions, which prompted India to play decisive roles in the emergence
of Bangladesh.
Ans:Emergence of Bangladesh was the most important result of the Indo-Pak War, 1971. After
independence from British Rule, the Western Pakistan (Pakistan) imposed its hegemony over the East
Pakistan (now Bangladesh). East Pakistan revolted against the hegemony of Western Pakistan and later
this revolt converted into the liberation war of Bangladesh.
To escape from the brutality and genocide executed by Pakistan, a large number of refugees from
Bangladesh entered into the border states of India and became an unbearable burden on India for their
need of food and health services.
The refugees constituted an exiled government in India and launched a liberation war against Pakistan.They received sympathy, help and assistance from the Indian people a long with the Government of India on
a large scale.
Pakistan propaga ted this as a conspiracy of India against it and to attract the international attention on the
entire issue, initiated a war against India. Pakistan also wanted to divert the attention of its own people
from the liberation war towards the assumed conspiracy. India also wanted to end the matter of West
Pakistan and East Pakistan and to have a friendly government for the people in East Pakistan.
Q11. Latecomer Industrial revolution in Japan involved certain factors that were markedly different
from what the West had experienced.
Ans:The industrial revolution in Japan happened during the second ha lf of the 19th century after Meiji
Restoration. The industrial development of Japan was much more rapid than that of European na tions.
Foreign pressure from Britain, US, and French pushed Japan to open up its economy to outside nations and
later this led to industrial revolution.
Industrialization was seen as the solution to Japan's problems with outside nations.
Imperial authorities pushed industrialization.
Government hired foreign experts to show workers and managers how to modernize the economy.
Japan had very little minerals which were required as ba sic materials, such as iron and coal, for industrial
development an hence, was dependent on the import of essential minerals for its development on a large
scale.
Industrialization of Japan was followed by its rapid colonial expansion.
Q12. Africa was chopped into states artificially created by accident of European competition. Analyse.
Ans:Africa was colonized by European powers during 19th century till the 20th century, when every part of
the continent was colonized at least once. The modern colonial period began ending in the 1950s and fully
ended by the 1970s.
A number of European powe rs such as Britain, France, Germany, Netherland, Belgium etc. made their
colonies in Africa. The future of African states and communities was decided by European powers w ithout
involving African people in the process and they decided borderlines of African states according to the ir own
needs and convenience.
The borders of African states w ere decided over the map and were changed a ccording to the nego tiations
of colonial needs among European powers. This is why African states do not have natural continental
borders. This situation causes conflicts among African states even today.
Q13. American Revolution was an economic revolt against mercantilism. Substantiate.
Ans:The American Revolution was a struggle betw een the united thirteen colonies and Britain. The
revolution ended in 1783 with the Treaty of Paris and the colonies won their independence and were known
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Karnataka etc.
Demand for a separate s tate arises due to the regional discontent created by poor economic development.
The ambition of the people of a region to brand their regional culture and identity on global level is also a
reason for the demand of partition. It is also argued that smaller states can have a more responsive
administration because more attention can be pa id to a smaller population. Though it is not always true,
especially if we see in reference to Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh etc.
Political parties, ruling a t state level, are often charged to implement development projects in a particular
region of the state and it creates discontent in other regions, which feel ignored.
Q19(a). What do you understand by the theory of continental drift? Discuss the prominent evidences in
its support.
Ans:Continental drift is the movement of the Earth's continents relative to each othe r by appearing to drift
across the ocean bed. The theory of continental drift was superseded by the theory of plate tectonics,which explains how the continents move. Similar plant and animal fossils were found around different
continent shores, suggesting that they were once joined.
The complementary arrangement of the facing sides of South America and Africa is obvious, but is a
temporary coincidence. In millions of years, s lab pull and ridge-push, and other forces o f tectonophysics w ill
further separate and rotate those two continents. Widespread distribution of Permo-Carboniferous glacial
sediments in South America, Africa, Madagascar, Arabia, India, Antarctica and Australia was one of the major
pieces of evidence for the theo ry of continental drift.
Q19(b) The recent cyclone on the east coast of India was called Phailin. How are the tropical
cyclones named across the world? Elaborate.
Ans:Tropical cyclones are named to provide ease o f communication between forecasters and the general
public regarding forecasts, watches, and warnings. There is no scientific rule to name cyclones. They are
often named after the people (male or female), who are disliked.In 1945, the armed services o f United
States publicly adopted a list of women's names for typhoons o f the western Pacific. The North Indian
Ocean region tropical cyclones are named as of the a rrangement of 2006. The Southwest Indian Ocean
tropical cyclones were first named during the 1960/1961 season.
Q20 (a) Bring out the causes for the formation of heat islands in the urban habitat of the world.
Ans:The urban heat islandis a phenomenon in which central regions of urban centers exhibit higher mean
temperatures than the surrounding urban areas. Much of this effect can be attributed to low city albedo, the
reflecting power of a surface and the increased surface area of buildings that absorbs so lar radiation.
Concrete, cement, and metal surfaces in urban areas tend to abso rb heat energy rather than reflect it,
contributing to higher urban temperatures. The heat island effect has corresponding ecological
consequences on resident species. However, this effect has only been seen in temperate climates.
Q20(b) What do you understand by the phenomenon of temperature inversion in meteorology? How
does it affect the weather and the habitants of the place?
Ans: Temperature inversionis a reversal of the normal behaviour of temperature in the troposphe re in
which a layer o f cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air. Under normal conditions, airtemperature usually decreases with height.
Inversions play an important role in determining cloud forms, precipitation, and visibility. An inversion acts as
a cap on the upward movement of air from the layers below. Inversions a lso affect diurnal variations in air
temperature.
Q21. Major hot deserts in northern hemisphere are located between 20-30 degree north and on the
western side of the continents. Why?
Ans:The main reasons for the location of the major hot deserts in the northern hemisphere a re as under:
1. This is high air pressure region.
2. Mostly dry air currents are found here.
3. Some places are sheltered from rain-bearing winds from mountains.
4. Cold Ocean currents, often found at the western coast of the continents, are also an important reason.
Q22(a) Bring out the causes for more frequent landslides in the Himalayas than in Western Ghats.
Ans:Frequent landslides a re a common problem in the Himalayas due to the geographical features of themountains themselves. This relatively younger mountain belt is a geologically unstable area and is subject
to more seismic movement. Landslides are more common during the rainy season when the soil is heavy
with moisture or drainage is impeded.
Volcanoes , earthquakes and other geological activities also cause landslides.
Human activities related to agriculture, transportation, construction, mining etc. also increase the possibility
of a landslide, whereas the geographical structure of Weste rn Ghats provides it more stability.
Q22 (b) There is no formation of deltas by rivers of the Western Ghats. Why?
Ans: A river delta is a landform that is formed at the mouth of a river from the deposition of the
sediment carried by the river as the flow leaves the mouth of the river. There is no formation of deltas by
rivers of the Western Ghats because the slope of Western Ghats is sharp, whereas the margin of the plain
along its side is narrow. Due to this, the rivers at Western Ghats cannot deposit sediments at their mouth
and thus they can not create deltas.
Q23 (a) Do you agree that there is a growing trend of opening new sugar mills in the Southern states
of India? Discuss with justification.
Ans:During the current session o f 2013-14, a decline in the production of sugar in Southern India is
expected. The major reason of this decline is the drought in Maharashtra and poor rains in Tamil Nadu. The
plantation area of sugarcane in North Indian states has increased during the current session.
During the last few years, a trend of opening new sugar mills has grown in the southern states of India.
The reason behind this trend is the better quality of sugarcane grown in Southern India than that o f North
India, along with the long crush season of sugarcane. After 2000, ten new sugar mills were es tablished in
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Tamil Nadu.
Q23 (b) Analyse the factors for highly decentralized cotton textile industry in India. Ans: 60% of the
Indian textile Industry is cotton based. The cotton textile industry has been a traditional industry in India for
centuries based on countrywide cottage and small scale industries. This industry is highly decentralized in
India and the country has been one of the major producers of cotton cloths for centuries.
Production of cotton and demand for cotton textiles in India is countrywide. Mostly every center of cotton
textile industry has its own fea tures and identification of its products. Adequate labour supply at relatively
competitive wages at regional level, presence of integrated concept to consumer, efficient local
entrepreneurial class etc. are some of the factors for the decentralization of the cotton textile industry.
Presently, small scale producers, scattered at different centers o f the country, are the largest contributors in
the cotton textile industry.
Q24. With growing scarcity of fossil fuels, the atomic energy is gaining more and more significance in
India. Discuss the availability of raw material required for the generation of atomic energy in India and
in the world.
Ans: Uranium and Thorium are the main raw materials used for the generation o f atomic energy. India is
operating prototype rea ctors based on Thorium. Major producer countries o f Uranium are Canada, United
States, Russia, South Africa, Namibia, Niger, Brazil, Kazakhstan, Australia, France etc. Uranium reserves are
found in a number of states o f India such as Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka (Gogi), Maharashtra
(Mogarra), Rajasthan (Umra, Rohil), Uttar Pradesh (Naktu), Uttarakhand (Pokharitunji) etc,
India is the larges t producer of Thorium in the world. Deposits of Monazite (source o f Thorium) are found in
India in many states such as Kerala Andhra Pradesh, Odisha , Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Gujarat, Rajasthan
etc. Other countries that produce Thorium are United States, Canada, Brazil, South Africa, Malaysia,
Australia etc.
Q25. It is said that India has substantial reserves of shale oil and gas, which can feed the needs of the
country for a quarter of the century. However, tapping of the resources doesnt appear to be high on
the agenda. Critically discuss the availability and the issues involved.
Ans: The US Energy Information Administration estimates Indias total reserve recoverable shale ga s at 96
trillion cubic feet. In India, shale depos its are found a cross the Gangetic plain, Assam, Rajasthan and many
coastal areas. India has recently approved the policy that allows exploration and exploitation of
unconventional shale gasand oil on licenses that have already been awa rded for conventional efforts.
The policy will allow companies to apply for shale gas and oil rights in their petroleum exploration license
and pe troleum mining lease . Companies will be permitted three assessment phases, each with a maximum
period of 3 years. Royalties and taxes for exploration done under this policy would be the same as for
conventional production in a particular area.
The environmental risks associated with the exploration and exploitation of shale gasand oil also have to
be solved. The risks may include gas or dissolved minerals moving through other rocks into aquifers, leaks
from production wells into neighbouring rock formations and aquifers, leaks of gas to the a tmosphere, spills
of fluids that come to the surface from storage tanks or lagoons. All these risks can be controlled through
proper des ign and management of the drilling and extraction site.
SOLUTION GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER II
Q1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result
healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed
to the anti-defection law, which was legislated but with a different intention?
Ans: Virtually in every parliamentary democracy, it is crucial how each legislator votes on a particular bill.
The vote of a legislator is supposed to be representative of his/her constituency.
However, Indian MPs have often sw itched their allegiance at the time of any major vote without keeping in
mind the constituencys views or the party manifesto. To prevent such defections/ horse-trading, major
parties got togethe r to amend the Constitution to this effect, not once but twice.
The present provisions in the Constitution now disqualify legislators who switch allegiances and require
them to vote as per the instructions of the party whip. It no longer matters what an individual legislator or
his/her constituency thinks. It only matters what the party leadership requires him/her to think while voting.
In address ing the horse-trading problem, anti-defection law has diminished the role o f individual legislators
and impacted various quarters of our democracy.
As individuals, many MPs argue tha t the grip of the anti-defection law needs to be relaxed, that debates
should be placed outside its purview. Analysts correctly stated that as duly elected representa tives of the
people, they retain the right to vote as they see fit, that law-making is Parliaments domain. It is an
enlightened argument that, however, militates against the s tifling of poss ible dissent or disagreement
among individual MPs by the party whip.
Q2. Discuss Section 66A of IT Act with reference to its alleged violation of Article 19 of the
Constitution.
Ans: It is alleged that Section 66A curbs freedom of speech and expression and violates Articles 14, 19 and
21 of the Constitution. Section 66A (a) refers to the sending o f any information through a communication
service that is grossly offensive or has menacing character. The meaning of the term grossly offensive in
Section 66A (a) is crucial and remains undefined in India. Section 66A should not be considered a
reasonable restriction within the meaning of Article 19 of the Constitution.
Section 66A (b) is even more problematic than Section 66A (a) because it makes an o ffence of send ingthrough a computer resource or communication device any information which he knows to be false, but for
the purpose of causing annoyance, inconvenience, danger, obs truction, insult, injury, criminal intimidation,
enmity, hatred or ill will, persistently by making use of such computer resource or a communication device.
It is alleged that it cannot be a legitimate legislative objective to restrict freedom of speech in order to
prevent annoyance or inconvenience. Causing insult or ill will or enmity could be a criminal offence if it
amounts to de famation but can not be construed as a reasonable restriction within the meaning of Article
19 of the Constitution.
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Q3. Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas are perceived by the `Nagas as a
threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371A of the
Indian Constitution.
Ans: The Centre and Nagaland government had landed in a constitutional row over the state's right to
independently exploit its natural resources.
The Centre objected to the issuance of Nagaland Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulations by the state
government saying that the state, under the Constitution, could not regulate mining of na tural wealth
under the ground as this was a Central subject. It argued tha t Article 371A only gives the sta te, the right
against implementing Central Acts in certain areas and not to make new laws or regulations on these
subjects.
The state government, however insisted that Article 371A makes it clear that no Act of Parliament in respect
of Naga customary laws, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to
customary law, ownership and transfer of land and its resources sha ll apply to the state o f Nagaland unlessthe Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a reso lution so decides.
Legally Article 371A of the constitution provides the state negative power as in the right to reject a
Parliamentary Act in any o f the areas mentioned in the provision. However it does not provide the s tate
government the positive power to legislate or regulate aspects of the areas that may fall under Central
control.
Q4. The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament in amending the
Constitution. Discuss critically.
Ans: Supreme Court has been designated as the h ighest court of the country and the guardian of the
constitution.
The constitution confers a duty on the Supreme Court (SC) to protect the bas ic meaning and ideas
enshrined in the constitution of India. And SC being the highes t level of judiciary becomes the real guard
behind this responsibility.
There has been a conflict between the Supreme Court and Parliament, where Parliament wants to exercise
discretionary use o f power to amend the constitution while the Supreme Court wants to restrict that power.This has led to the laying down of various doctrines o r rules in regards to checking the validity/legality of an
amendment, the most famous among them is the Doctrine of Basic structure as laid down by the Supreme
Court in the case of Kesavananda Bharati case.
Q5. Many State Governments further bifurcate geographical administrative areas like Districts and
Talukas for better governance. In light of the above, can it also be justified that more number of
smaller States would bring in effective governance at State level? Discuss.
Ans: State Governments further bifurcate geographical administrative areas like Districts and Talukas for
better governance. This is more related to administrative convenience. But division of s tates has w ider
implications on socio-economic and political development of the s tate. A new state has to build the entire
basic infrastructure which a state should have.
Both large and small states will continue to be badly governed until there is effective devolution of funds ,
functions and functionaries to local authorities, that is, elected panchayats in villages and urban local bodies
in cities.
Arguments in favour of smaller statesFactual analysis shows the development and efficiency argument does wo rk in favour of the new states
when compared with the parent states . During the tenth five-year plan period, Chhattisgarh averaged 9.2
percent growth annually compared w ith 4.3 percent by Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand averaged 11.1 per cent
annually compared w ith 4.7 percent by Bihar, and Uttarakhand achieved 8.8 per cent growth annually
compared with 4.6 percent by Uttar Pradesh.
Comparatively smaller but compact geographical entities tend to ensure that there is better democratic
governance, as there is greater awareness among the policy makers about the local needs.
Smaller states provide gains for the electorates in terms of better representation of the ir preferences in the
composition of the government. In a patronage-based democracy like in India, the amount of the trans fer of
state resources or largesse, a constituency or region gets depends crucially on whether the local
representative belongs to the ruling party.
Arguments against smaller states
Many fear the rise of regional and linguistic fanaticism as threats to national unity and integrity.
Smaller states are often viewed as be ing much more vulnerable to the pressures o f the corporations and
multi-nationals due to their small scale economies and the greed o f the new ly emergent regional elite.
Q6. Constitutional mechanisms to resolve the inter-state water disputes have failed to address and
solve the problems. Is the failure due to structural or process inadequacy or both? Discuss.
Ans: Interstate water disputes in India often prolong over long periods and tend to recur. The Cauvery
dispute tribunal was constituted in 1990 and the final award was given in 2007, after 17 years. The 2nd
Krishna water d ispute tribunal, constituted in 2004, gave its final award recently in December 2010. These
long delays are partly due to elaborate judicial proceedings and deliberations. The random nature of politics
reshapes the nature and extent of a dispute and contributes to its frequent recurrence. Discourses of policy
and governance reforms usually do not account for this contingent nature o f politics. The frequent
recurrence and long deliberations produce various kinds o f insecurities and impact people's livelihoods.
Indeed, the interstate water disputes in India have been on rise in recent years. Two other disputes under
consideration are the Mullaperiyar (between Kerala and Tamil Nadu) and the Bhabli (between Maharashtra
and Andhra Pradesh). These disputes caused concerns about their potential impact over State-State
relations in India, with greater implications to the federal integrity of the nation-state.
Adjudication by tribunals between s tates has remained inert to the se multi-actor driven multi-scalar politics.
The multiplicity of actors and processes constantly rework the dynamics of interstate water disputes, which
in turn affect the emergence and recurrence of disputes.
Q7. Discuss the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission which have been a departure from
the previous commissions for strengthening the local government finances.
Ans: The recommendations o f the 13th Finance Commission which have been a depa rture from the previous
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commissions for strengthening the local government finances are:
Article 280 (3) (bb) & (c) of the Constitution should be amended such that the words on the basis of the
recommendations of the Finance Commission of the State are changed to after taking into consideration
the recommendations of the Finance Commission of the State.
Article 243(I) of the Constitution should be amended to include the phrase or earlier after the words every
fifth year.
The states should appropriately allocate a portion of their share of the general bas ic grant and general
performance grant, to the special areas in proportion to the population of these areas. This allocation w ill
be in addition to the special area bas ic grant and special area performance grant recommended by Finance
Commission.
State Governments should appropriately strengthen the ir local fund audit departments through capacity
building as w ell as personne l augmentation.The State Governments should incentivize revenue collection by local bodies through methods such as
mandating some or all local taxes as ob ligatory at non-zero rates o f levy.
To buttress the accounting system, the finance accounts should include a separate statement indicating
head-wise details of actual expenditures under the same heads as used in the budget for both Panchayati
Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
The Government of India and the State Governments should issue executive instructions so that their
respective departments pay appropriate service charges to local bodies.
Given the increasing income of State Governments from royalties, they should share a portion of this income
with those local bodies in whose jurisdiction such income arises.
State Governments should ensure that the recommendations of State Finance Commissions (SFCs) are
implemented without delay and that the Action Taken Report (ATR) is promptly placed before the legislature.
Bodies similar to the SFC should be set up in states which are not covered by Part IX of the Constitution.
Local bodies should consider implementing the identified best practices.
A portion of the grants provided by Finance Commission to urban local bodies should be used to revamp the
fire services within their jurisdiction.Local Bodies should be associated w ith city planning functions w herever other development authorities a re
mandated this function. These authorities should also share their revenues w ith local bodies.
The development plans for civilian areas w ithin the cantonment areas (excluding areas under the a ctive
control of the forces) should be brought before the district planning committees.
Q8. The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in
overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory
agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.
Ans: Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission suggested that financial sector regulators such as
SEBI and IRDA should be merged into a Unified Financial Agency (UFA). The Unified Financial Authority should
aim to implement the consumer protection provisions and micro-prudential provisions for the entire financial
system which can bring clarity in the minds of the investors.
At present, in India, there is a confusing situation with regulators utilizing many instruments such as
regulations, guidelines, circulars, letters, notices and pres s release s which at times create confusion in the
minds o f investors.In the coming 25 to 30 years, Indian GDP is estimated to become eight times larger than the present level
and is likely to be bigger than the United States GDP as o f today. So the need of the day is to create an
institution that will stand the test o f time.
It is proposed to create another institution called FRA (Financial Redress Agency) which will be implementing
this financial regulatory architecture. It will set up a nationwide machinery to become a one-stop shop
where consumers can file complaints against all financial firms.
Q9. The concept of Mid-Day Meal (MDM) scheme is almost a century old in India with early beginnings
in Madras Presidency in pre-independent India. The scheme has again been given impetus in most
states in the last two decades. Critically examine its twin objectives, latest mandates and success.
Ans: The roots o f the programme can be traced back to Pre-Independence era when a Mid Day Meal
Programme was introduced by British administration for disadvantaged children in Madras Municipal
Corporation in 1925.
The primary objective of the scheme is to provide hot cooked meal to children of primary and upper primary
classes and the other ob jectives are improving nutritional status of children, encouraging poor children
belonging to disadvantaged sections to attend school more regularly and help them concentrate on
classroom activities, thereby increasing the enrollment, retention and attendance rates.
While the scheme mandates to provide for a hot cooked meal to ensure an energy content of 450 calories
and 12 grams of prote ins for children studying in primary classes and 700 calories o f energy and 20 grams
of proteins a t the upper primary level, the Ministry of Human Resource Development has confirmed that 95
per cent of meal samples prepared by NGOs in Delhi did not meet nutritional s tandards in 2010-12. Similar
trends can be seen in other states.
Despite the success of the program, child hunger as a problem persists in India. According to current
statistics, 42.5% of the children under 5 are underweight. The problem of malnutrition, anaemia, deficiency
in vitamin A and iodine is very common among children in India.
Q10. Pressure group politics is sometimes seen as the informal face of politics. With regard to the
above, assess the structure and functioning of pressure groups in India.
Ans: Pressure groups are the interes t groups which work to secure certain interest by influencing the public
policy. They are non-aligned with any political party and work as indirect yet powerful group to influence the
decision.There is no formal structure of pressure groups but the re are certain types of pressure groups like business
groups, trade unions, professiona l associations which do have some formal structure. On other hand, there
are anomic groups which are a response to an immediate issue or concern like riots, demonstrations,
assassinations etc. and are more or less spontaneous in nature. In such groups, there is practically no
formal structure. So the structure of pressure groups varies from situation to s ituation.
Pressure group is the public body acting behind the political party (outside political party). Pressure group
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act is indirect as well as intermittent. They try to influence and pressurize the government to get their
demand fulfilled. They do not intervene directly. Pressure groups pressurize executive and legislature to
achieve its aim. They use both conventional and non-conventional means to demonstrate their demands.
They work for self interest; they emerge and dissolve as per the need of certain groups.
Q11. The legitimacy and accountability of Self Help Groups (SHGs) and their patrons, the micro-finance
outfits, need systematic assessment and scrutiny for the sustained success of the concept. Discuss.
Ans: A self-help group (SHG) is a village-based financial intermediary usually composed of local women or
men. Members make small regular savings contributions over a few months until there is enough capital in
the group to begin lending. Funds may then be lent back to the members or to o thers in the village for any
purpose. In India, many SHGs are 'linked' to banks for the delivery of microcredit.
But there a re controversies in recovering pa tterns of micro-finance institutions (MFIs)and they are charging
exorbitant interest rates which are directly impacting the poor. So, systematic assessment and scrutiny areneeded in case of MFIs. Recent regulations passed by RBI MFIs must be adhered to.
First, the borrowers in the Microfinance sector represent a particularly vulnerable section of society. They
lack individual bargaining powe r, have inadequate financial literacy and live in an environment w hich is
fragile and exposed to external shocks which they are ill-equipped to absorb. They can, therefore, be easily
exploited. Therefore, MFIs need to be more cautious in its approach.
Q12. The Central Government frequently complains on the poor performance of the State Governments
in eradicating suffering of the vulnerable sections of the society. Restructuring of Centrally sponsored
schemes across sectors for ameliorating the cause of vulnerable sections of population, aims at
providing flexibility, in better implementation, to the States. Critically evaluate.
Ans: Restructuring of Centrally sponsored schemes a ims at following steps to be taken by central
government to ensure better implementation at the s tate level:
After taking into account the available technology and infrastructure for e lectronic flow of information and
funds, especially under the NeGP and putting in place a new Chart of Accounts, the scheme should be
implemented in a time bound manner.
There should be provisions of untied funds in case o f centrally sponsored schemes.
A robust financial information system needs to be created in the government in a time bound manner. This
system should make the rea l time data on government expend iture at all levels, accessible to the public,
The Controller General of Accounts, in consultation w ith the C&AG, should lay down the principles for
implementing the system of flow o f sanctions or approvals from the Union Ministries or Departments, to the
implementing agencies in the States, to facilitate release of fund at the time o f payment.
But the lack of implementation of the above steps is one o f the biggest hindrances in not being able to
realize the stated goals.
Q13. Electronic cash transfer system for the welfare schemes is an ambitious project to minimize
corruption, eliminate wastage and facilitate reforms. Comment.
Ans: In electronic cash transfers, the money is directly transferred into bank accounts of beneficiaries. LPG
and kerosene subs idies, pension payments, scholarships, employment guarantee scheme payments as w ell
as benefits under other government welfare programmes w ill be made directly to bene ficiaries under the
electronic cash transfer scheme. It helps in minimizing corruption, eliminate wastage and facilitate reforms.It can help the government reach out to identified beneficiaries and can plug leakages. Like in case of PDS
scheme, some ration shop owners divert subsidized PDS grains or kerosene to open market and make fast
money. Such leakages can be stopped by the implementation of the e lectronic cash transfer scheme. The
scheme will also enhance efficiency of welfare schemes. Moreover, electronic cash transfers also helps in
furthering the process of e -governance.
The Government spends a huge amount of Rs.3, 25,000 crore annually on subsidies and the new scheme is
intended to check corruption and pilferage of subs idised items including diesel, LPG and leakages in other
schemes like MNREGA, pension and scholarships. Also by plugging leakages, the total burden of subs idies
can be reduced in the long run.
Q14. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing
connectivity. Comment.
Ans: Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas (PURA) is a strategy for rural development in India. This
concept was given by former president Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. PURA propose s that urban infrastructure and
services be provided in rural hubs to create economic opportunities outside of cities. It aims a t connecting
rural hubs with urban areas. There are mainly three types of connectivity to be achieved.
Connectivity:
Physical connectivity by providing roads
Electronic connectivity by providing communication network
Knowledge connectivity by establishing professional and technical institutions
Q15. Identify the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) that are related to health. Discuss the success
of the actions taken by the Government for achieving the same.
Ans: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) related to health are:-
To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
To reduce child mortality rates
To improve maternal health
To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases
To ensure environmental sustainabilityBroadly, government is not likely to achieve the targets set by MDGs in reducing child mortality rates and
maternal mortality rates. Poverty rates are reducing though ta rgets set by MDGs are hard to achieve by
2015. For environment sus tainability, National Action Plan on Climate Change was started which includes
National Solar Mission, National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, National Mission on Sustainable
Habitat National Wa ter Mission, National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, National Mission
for a Green India, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture and National Mission on Strategic Knowledge
for Climate Change. The government has taken various steps in this regard but still there is long way to go
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to a chieve environmental sustainability.
Q16. Though Citizens charters have been formulated by many public service delivery organizations,
there is no corresponding improvement in the level of citizens satisfaction and quality of services being
provided. Analyze.
Ans:
Many states and public service delivery organizations have enacted their own grievance redressal laws. The
mechanism provided for grievance redressal results in multiplicity of work and organizations.
Absence of lokpal/lokayukta or any related e ffective institution makes the exercise less meaningful.
Many of these Citizens charters do not describe the sharing of responsibility in many cases.
Under various state service acts, the commissioners may be removed without judicial inquiry, which makes it
susceptible to misuse.No or very less help of NGOs is be ing taken in collecting feedback of citizens s atisfaction. There are further
no improvements regarding grievances.
Many of these Citizens charters a re exclusively for citizens.
Q17. A national Lokpal, however strong it may be, cannot resolve the problems of immorality in public
affairs. Discuss.
Ans: Corruption or immorality in public affairs is recognized a s the single biggest prob lem faced by the
country today. Corruption has serious adverse effects on the society and the economy and it corrodes the
moral fiber of the people. Corruption is a symbol of something gone wrong in the management of the state.
But a national Lokpal, however s trong it may be, cannot resolve the prob lems of immorality in public affairs.
The mechanism to enforce accountability in the pub lic affairs need not be the same for everybody. The exact
judicial powe rs of Lokpal are rather unclear in comparison w ith its investigative powers.
The critics hence express concern that, without judicial review, Lokpal could potentially become an extra-
constitutional body with investigative and judicial powers whose decisions cannot be reviewed in regular
courts. It has been drafted on the presumption that an act of corruption w ill be committed only by a
Government Servant. This is evident from the partial inclusion of business entities and the total exclusion of
NGOs, media and other similar categories o f institutions from the Lokpals ambit. Proposed Lokpa l in India
recommends a maximum punishment of life imprisonment for corrupt public servants, while the punishment
for a Lokpal member found guilty of corruption is just dismissal, removal or reduction in rank.
Q18. The proposed withdrawal of International Security Assistance Force (ISAF) from Afghanistan in
2014 is fraught with major security implications for the countries of the region. Examine in light of the
fact that India is faced with a plethora of challenges and needs to safeguard its own strategic interests.
Ans: As Western combat troops prepare to leave the Afghanistan, some ISAF members and Asian regiona l
players are stepping up their roles to achieve previously strived for goals of a stable, peaceful and se lf-
reliant Afghanistan and maintain or gain influence in the region. There are major security implications and
challenges faced by India to safeguard its own strategic interests.
India does not want revival of extremist Taliban.
Indias energy interests in Iran, Turkmenistan can be protected only with a stable and democratic
Afghanistan.Friendly Afghanistan can a lso help in containing Pakistan.
India seeks to expand its economic presence in Afghanistan as the international coalition fighting the
Taliban w ithdraws combat forces through 2014. Especially, it wants to improve transpo rt connectivity and
economic collaboration with countries in Central and South Asia.
The Indian government is investing more than US$100 million in the expans ion of the Chabahar port in
south-eastern Iran which will serve as a hub for the transportation of transit goods .
Q19. What do you understand by The String of Pearls? How does it impact India? Briefly outline the
steps taken by India to counter this.
Ans: The String o f Pearls refers to the network o f Chinese military and commercial facilities, and the
relationships along its s ea lines o f communication, which extend from the Chinese mainland to Port Sudan.
Exercise Malabar is a multilateral naval e xercise involving the United States, India, Japan, Australia, and
Singapore. India's 'Look East' policy with the south-east Asian countries is also considered as a broad
strategy to counter the String of Pearls. As the current chair of ASEAN, Vietnam had also invited India to the
ASEAN+8 defence ministers meeting.
The newly evolving India-South Korea partnership is be ing seen as a vital component of India's game plan
to counter China's increasing footprint in the Indian subcontinent.
Q20. Economic ties between India and Japan while growing in the recent years are still far below their
potential. Elucidate the policy constraints which are inhibiting this growth.
Ans: Japan is currently Indias third largest source of foreign direct investment. Japan has assisted India in
infrastructure development projects such as the Delhi Metro Rail Project. Both sides are discussing the
Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor Project and Dedicated Freight Corridor Projects on the Mumbai-Delhi and
the Delhi-Howrah routes. The Japanese government has also expressed interest to help establish a
Chennai-Bangalore Industrial corridor and a Dedicated Freight project in the south, connecting the cities of
Bangalore and Chennai. Moreover, the bilateral trade a t $18 billion between the two countries is not very
impressive and leaves much to be desired especially when the bilateral trade between India and China has
crossed $70 billion.
Both countries stand to gain from their strategic partnership but there a re still some unreso lved issues in
India-Japan relations. There is considerable scope for increased Japanese investment in India as it is muchbelow its potential. Japanese companies have been conse rvative while dealing with India.
Q21. The protests in Shahbag Square in Dhaka in Bangladesh reveal a fundamental split in society
between the nationalists and Islamic forces. What is its significance for India?
Ans: The 2013 Shahbag protes ts, associated with a central neighbourhood of Dhaka, later spread to other
parts of Bangladesh as people demanded capital punishment for Abdul Quader Mollah who had been
sentenced to life imprisonment and for o thers convicted of war crimes by the International Crimes Tribunal.
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On that day, the International Crimes Tribunal had sentenced Abdul Quader Mollah to life in prison a fter he
was convicted on five of six counts o f war crimes. Later, demands included banning the Bangladesh Jamaat-
e-Islami party from politics and a boycott of institutions supporting (or affiliated w ith) the party.
Finally in September 2013, Bangladesh Supreme Court found Abdul Quader Molla guilty of murders and
other war crimes and ordered his execution, converting his life sentence to death s entence.
Q22. Discuss the political developments in Maldives in the last two years. Should they be of any cause
of concern to India?
Ans: The Maldives political crisis began as a series of peaceful protests that broke out in the Maldives in May
2011. They continued, eventually escalating into the resignation of Pres ident Mohamed Nasheed in disputed
circumstances in February 2012.
Nasheed stated the next day that he was forced out of office at gunpoint, while Waheeds (the next
President) supporters maintained that the transfer of power was voluntary and constitutional. AfterNasheed and his supporters continued to protest for Waheed's removal from office, he agreed to call a snap
election.
Presidential elections were held in the Maldives unde r a two-round system. The resu lt of the initial vote held
was annulled by the Supreme Court and the election was re-run in November. As no candidate achieved
majority support, a run-off election was held.
In the run-off elections between Mohamed Nasheed and Abdullah Yaamin, who was a conservative
candidate related to former autocratic ruler Maumoon Abdul Gayoom, Yaamin was e lected as the new
president of the Maldives.
India always maintained that it will not interfere in the internal affairs of another country. India wants
democracy to be propagated among its neighbours so that it can take on the path of stability, progress and
development.
India, which sees the Maldives as part of its sphere o f influence and has a very strong strategic interest in
the island nation, is sure to be relieved after the e lections. Political uncertainty has been a matter of
concern in this crucial archipelago. India does not want the island nation to become a bastion of po litical
Islam and religious extremism. India is also wary of growing Chinese interests in the island nation.
Q23. In respect of India Sri Lanka relations, discuss how domestic factors influence foreign policy.
Ans:
Political leaders of almost all hues in Tamil Nadu have called for a boycott of the Commonwealth Heads of
Government Meeting (CHOGM). The issue of Sri Lankan Tamils played a role in Tamil politics as seen in the
state elections. Tamil politics consider the Centres response to Sri Lankas wa r crimes and human rights
aberrations as inadequate and ineffective. The developments in Tamil Nadu seem to have influenced Indias
vote aga inst Sri Lanka in the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR).
The Northern Provincial Council election was held due to Indias sustained engagement w ith Sri Lanka. But
Indias relationship w ith its island ne ighbour goes beyond the geo-strategy and Tamil minority question.
Geo-strategically, India wields a huge influence over the Sri Lanka. With China whittling away Indias
strategic sphere of influence in the South Asian neighbourhood, India has to consider not only its national
interest but also the regional interest while taking decisions that a ffect its neighbours. And in Sri Lanka,
China is emerging as a direct challenge to Indian presence. In fact, China effectively used the aftermath of
the Eelam war to emerge as one of the two big investors and a id-givers in Sri Lanka, the other being India.
Q24. What is meant by Gujral doctrine? Does it have any relevance today? Discuss.
Ans: The Gujral Doctrine is a set o f five principles to guide the conduct of foreign relations with Indias
immediate neighbours, notab ly Pakistan, as spelt out by Gujral.
1. With neighbours like Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives and Sri Lanka, India does not ask for
reciprocity but gives all that it can in good faith and trust.
2. No South Asian country will allow its territory to be used against the interest of another country of the
region.
3. None will interfere in the internal affairs of another.
4. All South Asian countries must respect each others territorial integrity and sovereignty.
5. They will settle all their disputes through peaceful bilateral negotiations.
In the context of the changed international environment in post-cold war world, Gujral Doctrine became a
new and important principle o f India's foreign po licy.
Sharing of Ganga Water with Bangladesh: It is in pursuance o f this policy that India concluded an
agreement with Bangladesh in late 1996, on sharing of Ganga waters. This agreement enabled Bangladesh
to draw s lightly more water, in the lean season, than even the 1977 Agreement had provided.
Gujral doctrine helps in strengthening Track-II diplomacy by focusing on increasing People to Peop le Contact
with Pakistan, Confidence Building Measures so as to bu ild confidence and seek friendly resolution of a ll
disputes.
Q25. The World Bank and the IMF, collectively known as the Bretton Woods Institutions, are the two
inter-governmental pillars supporting the structure of the worlds economic and financial order.
Superficially, the World Bank and the IMF exhibit many common characteristics, yet their role,
functions and mandate are distinctly different. Elucidate.
Ans: The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to developing countries for
development programs. The World Bank's official goal is reduction of poverty. It aims to promote foreign
investment and international trade and the facilitation of capital investment.
The World Bank comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
For the poorest developing countries in the world, the bank's assistance plans are based on poverty
reduction strategies; by combining a cross-section of local groups w ith an extensive analysis of the
country's financial and economic situation, the World Bank develops a strategy pertaining uniquely to thecountry in question. The government then identifies the country's priorities and targets for the reduction of
poverty, and the World Bank aligns its aid efforts correspond ingly.
The IMF's stated goal was to assist in the reconstruction of the world's international payment system post
World War II. The organization's stated objectives a re to promote international economic co-operation,
international trade, employment and exchange rate s tability, including by making financial resources
available to member countries to meet balance o f payments needs .
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However, many of the new roles of the IMF are inconsistent w ith the original mandate. The fund's function
as lender of short-term finance was meant to fix balance of payments problems, but has expanded so much
that the IMF can now be seen as an aid agency. Specifically the Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility
(PRGF), the former Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF), allows the IMF to essentially subsidize
interest rates for the poorest member countries.
SOLUTION GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER III
1. With a consideration towards the strategy of inclusive growth, the new Companies Bill, 2013 hasindirectly made CSR a mandatory ob ligation. Discuss the challenges expected in its implementation in right
earnest. Also discuss othe r provisions in the Bill and their implications.
Ans. The new Companies Bill has made it mandatory for profit making companies to spend on activities
related to the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). With the new legislation, India would possibly become
the first country to have the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spending through a statutory provision.
Following a re the key highlights o f the Bill:
Around 193 recommendations have been included in the Companies Bill by the Parliamentary Standing
Committee and with the passing of this Bill, the Companies Act of 1956 will be replaced.
The proposed legislation would ensure se tting up of special courts for speedy trials, stronger steps for
transparent corporate governance practices and that corporate misdoings be curbed.
The new law would require companies that meet certain set o f criteria, to spend a t least two percent of
their average profits in the last three years towards the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities. But
only companies reporting Rs 5 crore or more profits in the last three yea rs have to spend on the CSR
activities.At least 2% of the average net profit of the company made during three previous financial years must be
spent on the CSR activities.
Challenges:
The Indian Merchants Chamber (IMC) has raised concerns about specific clauses in the new Companies Bill
2013. The (negative) repercussions o f certain provisions of the bill must be considered. For instance, the
definition and role of independent directors is raising concerns w ithin the corporate sector. A sense o f
wariness and unease has crept in with the new code of accountability laid out in the Bill. Another bone of
contention is related to the Corporate Social Respons ibility (CSR).
2. What were the reasons for the introduction of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM)
Act, 2013? Discuss critically its salient features and their effectiveness.
Ans.The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 was enacted w ith a view to
provide a legislative framework for reduction of deficit, and thereby debt, of the Government to sustainable
levels over a medium term so as to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management and long term
macro-economic stability. The FRBM framework provided a medium term perspective to fiscal management.
The FRBM framework requires the Government to reduce the deficits to a prescribed target in a prescribed
time following a laid out fiscal consolidation roadmap. It requires Government to place a medium terms fiscal
framework laying dow n the projected fiscal aggregates to meet the fiscal targets as prescribed in Act/Rules.
It also mandates the Government to spell out the strategy that it decides to adopt to meet the projects
fiscal plan.
Salient features: The Bill is also likely to reaffirm the medium-term fiscal targets that were proposed in
Budget 2011-12. While in 2011-12 fiscal deficit was projected at 4.6 per cent o f the GDP, it was planned
that it will be brought down to 4.1 per cent in 2012-13 and then to 3.5 per cent in 2013-14. Likewise,
revenue de ficit was expected to be cut to 3.4 per cent in 2011-12, and then to 2.7 per cent in the
subsequent fiscal and finally to 2.1 per cent in 2013-14.
3. What is the meaning of the term tax expenditure? Taking housing sector as an example, discuss
how it influences the budgetary policies of the government.
Ans. Tax Expenditure under the Central Tax System:
The main objective of any tax system is to raise revenues necessary to fund government expenditures. The
amount of revenue raised is dete rmined to a large extent by tax bases and tax rates. It is also a function of
a range of measures - special tax rates, exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals and credits - that affect
the level and distribution of tax. These measures a re sometimes called "tax preferences". They have an
impact on government revenue (i.e. they have a cost) and reflect the policy choices of the Government.
Section 80-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for deduction in respect of profits derived from
development of infrastructure facilities, SEZs and Industrial Parks, gene ration of pow er, and providing
telecommunication services. Similarly, section 80-IB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for deduction in
respect of profits derived from housing projects, production o f mineral oil, development of scientific research,
integrated business of handling, storage and transportation of food grains, and industries set up in
backward areas. The revenue foregone on account of these tax benefits has been estimated separately by
adopting the proportionate assignment method described above. The same method has been adopted for
estimating revenue foregone on account of section 80-I C.
4. Food Security Bill is expected to eliminate hunger and malnutrition in India. Critically discuss various
apprehensions in its effective implementation along with the concerns it has generated in WTO.
Ans:The Indian National Food Security Act, 2013 or Right to Food Act was enacted into law on September
12, 2013. This law a ims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately two thirds of India's 1.2 billion
people. Under the provisions of the bill, beneficiaries a re to be able to purchase 5 kilograms of cereals per
month for every eligible pe rson a t the following prices:
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Rice at INR 3 per kg, wheat at INR 2 per kg, coarse grains (millet) at INR 1 per kg.
Pregnant women, lactating mothers, and certain categories of children are eligible for free meals da ily. The
bill has been highly controversial. It was introduced into India's parliament in December 2012, promulgated
as a presidential ordinance in July 2013, and enacted into law in August 2013.
Criticism: Food prices are still elevated and the food security bill will