COG-632 : IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer

7/22/2019 COG-632 : IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer

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Cog CertsCOG 132Qs & Ans - V0l 2 - 08.2009

Total Qs & Ans: 71

Test: COG-132: IBM Cognos 8 Metadata ModelDeveloper

http://www.cogcerts.webs.com/

email to: [email protected]


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COG-132: IBM Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer

A Cognos Certification Study Guide for IBM Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer

EXAM INFORMATION:

VER: 12.08.09Exam Number COG - 132Exam Title Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer

Number of Questions: 53Format multiple choices single responsePassing score: 71%

Time allowed in minutes: 60Registration http://www.prometric.com/Cognos

The Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of theCognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, anda detailed review of product documentation.

Common Data Struc tures and Traps (16%)a. Identify Common Data Structuresb. Identify different data traps

Framework Manager Basics (16%)a. Identify the different model types that can be published from Framework Managerb. Define the purpose of Framework Managerc. Create a projectd. Identify recommendations for preparing metadata

Predictable Results (16%)a. Identify recommendations to achieve predictable resultsb. Describe why and how to implement a time dimensionc. Identify techniques for creating intuitive business views

Security (9%)

a. Describe the Cognos 8 security environmentb. Describe how to implement security on models and packages

Project Management and Maintenance (5%)a. Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager projectsb. Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager packages

Query Subject Types (9%)a. Identify different query subject types and uses

Generated SQL and Complex Queries (18%)a. Identify SQL Generation in Complex Queriesb. Identify aggregated result sets for multi-fact queries

c. Identify aggregations in Report Studio SQL

Optimization and Tuning (5%)a. Describe the performance impact of queries

Advanced Techniques (7%)a. Describe how to leverage user defined functionsb. Describe how to resolve a recursive relationshipc. Identify considerations for drill-through values and managing MUNs


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QUESTION 1

What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack a time

dimension?

A. Create relationships from date fields in one dimension to date fields in another dimension.

B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject.

C. Use the Time Dimension wizard to generate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships.

D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query subjects.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2

In Framework Manager, when using star schema groupings in the business view, conformed dimensions can be identified by

which one of the following?

A. Using a different query subject icon for display in the studios.

B. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio.

C. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager.

D. Using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

In Framework Manager, why is it recommended that modelers alter the default all-inclusive select statements of data source

query subjects as little as possible?

A. To generate the most efficient SQL at run time and simplify model maintenance.

B. To prevent the exclusion of columns from a table that may be required in future reports.

C. To prevent improperly constructed SQL and reduce issues with model documentation and readability.

D. To provide authors with access to all columns in a database table which reduces requests to the modeler.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Users want to compare Actual Revenue and Sales Target values by Month. Actual Revenue values are stored at the day grain

in the Orders Fact table. Sales Target values are stored at the month grain in the Sales Target Facttable. In Framework

Manager, which technique will best prevent Sales Target values from being double counted in Query Studio reports?


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A. Define both Month and Day determinant levels in the Time Dimension and Group By Day.

B. Define both Month and Day determinant levels in the Time Dimension and Group By Month.

C. Create separate star schema groupings for Orders Fact and Sales Target Fact, both at the month grain.

D. Set scope for Actual Revenue at the Day level and Sales Target at the Month level in the Dimension Map.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5

What is true of a Framework Manager model of an operational database lacking a time dimension?

A. Virtual star schema models require a time dimension for multi-fact queries.

B. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries.

C. Time-based rollups for multi-fact queries may be difficult to handle.

D. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries unless using a union.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6

What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack a timedimension?

A. Create relationships from date fields in one dimension to date fields in another dimension.

B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject.

C. Use the Time Dimension wizard to generate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships.

D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query subjects.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7

In Framework Manager, when using star schema groupings in the business view, conformed dimensions can be identified by

which one of the following?

A. Using a different query subject icon for display in the studios.

B. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio.

C. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager.

D. Using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8

If authors want to perform OLAP-style queries directly against a relational database, which Framework Manager modeling

technique will a modeler use?

A. Create regular and measure dimensions and set scope.

B. Create shortcuts to regular dimensions and fact query subjects.

C. Create star schema groupings for dimension and fact query subjects.

D. Create relationships between regular dimensions and measure dimensions.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9.

What does a relationship with a cardinality of 1..n to 1..n indicate?


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A. Optional cardinality

B. Many-to-many relationship

C. Determinants need to be specified

D. A filter is required to focus the record set

Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 8 security environment?

A. Cognos 8 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time

B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined

C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles

defined in the authentication providers

D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which

users are members), not individual users

Answer: C

QUESTION 11

The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following

Framework Manager objects?

A. Query items.

B. Data sources.

C. Relationships.

D. Parameter maps.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in Framework Manager?

A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.

B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework Manager project

is visible to everyone.

C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is Granted access to the

object. The result is that user has access to the object.

D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role(except the Everyone and All Authenticated Users groups),

implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13

What does a star schema database structure typically consist of?

A. De-normalized hierarchy of dimension tables and fact tables.

B. Normalized dimension tables and detailed fact tables.

C. Normalized dimension tables and summarized fact tables.

D. De-normalized dimension tables and fact tables.

Answer: D


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QUESTION 14

Which of the following is true of an OLAP data structure?

A. Comprised of normalized dimension and fact tables.

B. Organizes dimension tables into hierarchies and levels.

C. Allows "real time" analysis against disparate data sources.

D. Cardinality between tables is typically configured as inner joins.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15

In a transitive relationship scenario, what problems exist when reporting from the tables below?

A. The Order table must be included in each query.

B. The Order Detail table has conflicting cardinalities.

C. Outer joins are generated when querying from Customer.

D. There is more than one possible path between the tables.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16

The illustration below represents which of the following data traps?

A. Bridge

B. Connection

C. Parallel relationship

D. Many-to-many relationship

Answer: C


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QUESTION 17

What question should a data modeler answer before accepting this proposed operational data structure?

A. Should all three tables be consolidated into one?

B. Should the cardinalities between the tables be reversed?

C. Are Branch and Employee dimension tables or fact tables?

D. Is there a direct relationship between Branch and Employee?

Answer: D

QUESTION 18

Which of the following is true regarding the operational data structure illustrated below?

A. It illustrates a parallel relationship.B. It should be consolidated into one table.

C. It should be examined for a connection trap.

D. The cardinality between the tables should be reversed.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19

Which of the following objects in the Framework Manager environment acts as a container and provides A unique name for

objects?

A. Model

B. Query Item

C. Namespace

D. Query Subject

Answer: C

QUESTION 20

To create a report in Report Studio, a report author accesses which object?

A. A report specification.

B. A development model from Framework Manager.


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C. The runtime version of a Framework Manager model.

D. A file that contains query subjects externalized from Framework Manager.

Answer: C

QUESTION 21

Where can connection information for data sources listed in the Framework Manager Metadata Wizard Be edited?

A. Cognos Connection.

B. Framework Manager Metadata Wizard.

C. Content store resource in Cognos Configuration.

D. Data Sources folder in the Framework Manager Project Viewer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22

When importing metadata into Framework Manager from a relational database, which of the following can be controlled by

the modeler performing the import?

A. Defining multiple connections to the data source.

B. Specifying the usage property for generated query items.

C. Converting inner joins in the database to outer joins in the model.

D. Generating relationships based on existing primary and foreign key relationships in the database.

Answer: D

QUESTION 23

In Framework Manager, which of the following statements is correct when working with a multi-lingual project?

A. The design language can be changed at any point.

B. A project language cannot be deleted once defined in Framework Manager.

C. A language must be added to the project before it can be published with a package.

D. By default, a package created in a model with several languages, only contains the design language.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24

Which of the following are proven practices for organizing the objects in a project?

A. When importing metadata from more than one data source, include all imported objects in the root namespace.

B. When importing metadata from more than one data source, create a separate folder for the imported objects from

each data source.C. When importing metadata from more than one data source, create a separate namespace for the Imported objects

from each data source.

D. When importing metadata from more than one data source, do not override the relationships defined between the

data sources at the time of import.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25

When a modeler imports metadata into Framework Manager, the Usage property for a non-indexed, numeric query item is

set to which of the following?


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A. Fact

B. Attribute

C. Identifier

D. Unknown

Answer: A

QUESTION 26

After metadata is imported into Framework Manager or a new query subject is created, it is recommended To first verify which

one of the following property settings?

A. Usage

B. Format

C. Data Type

D. Semi-Aggregate

Answer: A

QUESTION 27

Which of the following is true for 0..n cardinality?

A. The cardinality is optional and a union will be performed.B. The cardinality is optional and an inner join will be performed.

C. The cardinality is optional and an outer join will be performed.

D. The cardinality is unknown and an inner join will be performed.

Answer: C

QUESTION 28

Which of the following is a common technique used in Framework Manager to dynamically control Queries at runtime?

A. Use a macro in a SQL expression, calculation or filter.

B. Alter default SQL statements to select specific columns.

C. Change the data source connection before publishing the model.

D. Create an environment session parameter and then reference it in a macro.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29

A user-defined function imported into Framework Manager can be viewed and used in which of the

Following locations?

A. Viewed in the Explorer and used in the expression editor.

B. Viewed in the ProjectViewer and used in the expression editor.

C. Viewed in the Explorer and used in the SQL of a model query subject.

D. Viewed in the Diagram and used in the SQL of a datasource query subject.

Answer: A

QUESTION 30

In Framework Manager, what are the minimum requirements to implement a stored procedure that expects arguments?

A. Import the stored procedure and then add it as a model calculation.

B. Import the stored procedure provides values that satisfy the procedure's arguments, retrieve a projection list and then

publish it as part of a package.

C. Import the stored procedure, use it to create a calculation in the expression editor and then publish the calculation as part of

a package.

D. Import the stored procedure, set the type to Data Modification, provide values that satisfy the procedure's arguments,

retrieve a projection list and then publish it as part of a package.

Answer: B


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QUESTION 31

A recursive relationship exists between SALES_STAFF_CODE and MANAGER_CODE in the SALES_STAFF data source query

subject. This query subject is provided in a model to report authors.

Using this query subject alone, report authors cannot create a report that includes management staff and the sales staff that

report to them. How can the existing recursive relationship in the model be modified to provide this ability to report authors?

A. Import a query subject that does not contain a recursive relationship.

B. Create a star schema grouping that contains the SALES_STAFF data source query subject and a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF

data source query subject.

C. Create a model query subject with the appropriate relationship to the existing SALES_STAFF data source query subject and

make both available to report authors.

D. Create a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF data source query subject, and report authors will use it instead of the underlying

query subject to create the required report.

Answer: C

QUESTION 32

In Framework Manager, it is recommended to model operational metadata as a virtual star schema for which one of the

following reasons?

A. Provides stability to the underlying data structure.

B. Creates an easy-to-read data dictionary for end users.

C. Ensures inner joins between data source query subjects.

D. Helps to remove ambiguity and provide predictable results.

Answer: D

QUESTION 33

To ensure a query subject is recognized as a fact by the Cognos 8 query engine in all query scenarios, the query subject requires

which cardinality rule?

A. One instance of attached cardinality must be 1..1.

B. One instance of attached cardinality must be 0..1.

C. All instances of attached cardinality must be either 1..n or 0..n.

D. All instances of attached cardinality must be either 1..1 or 0..n.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34

Blind Spots in Framework Manager refer to which one of the following?

A. A query item has its Is Hidden property set to true.

B. A query subject is hidden from the final business view.

C. A required relationship is missing between two query subjects.

D. A relationship path is missed by omitting a query subject from a query.

Answer: D

QUESTION 35

In Framework Manager, role-playing dimension query subjects are used to resolve which reporting trap?

A. Unwanted query splits (full outer joins).

B. One query subject with several relationships.C. Multiple ambiguous joins between two query subjects.

D. Queries that reference two facts with no conformed dimension.

Answer: C

QUESTION 36

Users want to compare Actual Revenue and Sales Target values by Month. Actual Revenue values are stored at the day grain in

the Orders Fact table. Sales Target values are stored at the month grain in the Sales Target Facttable. In Framework Manager,

which technique will best prevent Sales Target values from being double counted in Query Studio reports?

A. Define both Month and Day determinant levels in the Time Dimension and Group By Day.


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B. Define both Month and Day determinant levels in the Time Dimension and Group By Month.

C. Create separate star schema groupings for Orders Fact and Sales Target Fact, both at the month grain.

D. Set scope for Actual Revenue at the Day level and Sales Target at the Month level in the Dimension Map.

Answer: B

QUESTION 37

In Framework Manager, why is it recommended that modelers alter the default all-inclusive select statements of data source

query subjects as little as possible?

A. To generate the most efficient SQL at run time and simplify model maintenance.

B. To prevent the exclusion of columns from a table that may be required in future reports.

C. To prevent improperly constructed SQL and reduce issues with model documentation and readability.

D. To provide authors with access to all columns in a database table which reduces requests to the modeler.

Answer: A

QUESTION 38

The generated Cognos SQL below contains which one of the following joins?

select Return_Reason_Dimension.REASON_DESCRIPTION_EN as REASON_DESCRIPTION_EN,

Returned_Items_Fact.RETURN_QUANTITY as RETURN_QUANTITY

from go_data_warehouse.GOSLDW.dbo.RETURN_REASON_DIMENSION Return_Reason_Dimension

join

go_data_warehouse.GOSLDW.dbo RETURNED_ITEMS_FACTReturned_Items_Fact on(Return_Reason_Dimension.RETURN_REASON_KEY=

Returned_Items_Fact.RETURN_REASON_KEY)

A. Inner join on RETURN_REASON_KEY.

B. Outer join onRETURN_REASON_KEY.

C. Left inner join on RETURN_REASON_KEY.

D. Left outer join on RETURN_REASON_KEY.

Answer: A

QUESTION 39

Although modelers can use model query subjects to create entire business views, it is recommended to use them to do which of

the following?

A. Resolve conflicting keys and indexes and generate minimized SQL.

B. Combine facts and dimensions for intuitive ad hoc business views.

C. Resolve reporting traps and simplify snowflake tables through consolidation.

D. Recreate data source query subjects that are candidates for the final business view.

Answer: C

QUESTION 40.

A contiguous result set uses only what type of dimension?

A. Regular dimension

B. Irregular dimension

C. Conformed dimension

D. Non-conformed dimensionAnswer: C

QUESTION 41

Which of the following is true of the generated native SQL below?

select

"RETURNED_ITEM"."RETURN_QUANTITY"AS"RETURN_QUANTITY",

"RETURN_REASON"."REASON_DESCRIPTION_EN" AS

"REASON_DESCRIPTION_EN"

from

(select "RETURNED_ITEM"."RETURN_REASON_CODE",


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"RETURNED_ITEM"."RETURN_QUANTITY" from"GOSL"."dbo"."RETURNED_ITEM",

"GOSL"."dbo"."ORDER_HEADER"

"ORDER_HEADER", "GOSL"."dbo"."ORDER_DETAILS"

"ORDER_DETAILS"

where

"RETURNED_ITEM"."ORDER_DETAIL_CODE"=

"ORDER_DETAILS"."ORDER_DETAIL_CODE" and"ORDER_HEADER"."ORDER_NUMBER"=

"ORDER_DETAILS"."ORDER_NUMBER") "RETURNED_ITEM"

inner join"GOSL"."dbo"."RETURN_REASON" "RETURN_REASON" on

"RETURN_REASON"."RETURN_REASON_CODE"=

"RETURNED_ITEM"."RETURN_REASON_CODE"

A. The derived table is executed independently, using Pass-Through SQL, and then processed locally.

B. The derived table is used to retrieve one data set, in order to fulfill the join condition of another data set.

C. The parent select statement uses an inner join to directly match columns from physical tables in the database.

D. The outer projection list will return more columns than listed, due to extra columns retrieved in the derived table.

Answer: B

QUESTION 42

In order to create complex joins in Framework Manager, a modeler can use which of the following techniques?

A. Open the Relationship Definition dialog, and then edit the join expression as required.

B. Select the relationship, and then from the Actions menu, select "Merge in New Query Subject".

C. Open the Relationship Expression dialog, and then change both cardinality settings to 0..n or 0..1.D. Right-click a relationship in the Object diagram or Context Explorer, and then select "Create Compound Join".

Answer: A

QUESTION 43

Which of the following components does a basic Cognos 8 stitch query consist of?

A. SC() function, full outer join, multiple queries that each query exclusive information.

B. SC() function, full outer join, multiple queries that query some of the same information.

C. Coalesce function, full outer join, multiple queries that each query exclusive information.

D. Coalesce function, full outer join, multiple queries that query some of the same information.

Answer: D

QUESTION 44

Which column is most likely a non-conformed or non-shared dimension from the SQL below?

select

coalesce(D2.DAY_DATE,D3.DAY_DATE) as DAY_DATE,

coalesce(D2.ORDER_METHOD,D3.ORDER_METHOD) as

ORDER_METHOD,

D3.REASON_DESCRIPTION as REASON_DESCRIPTION,

D2.SALE_TOTAL as SALE_TOTAL,

D3.RETURN_QUANTITY as RETURN_QUANTITYfrom

...............................

A. D2.DAY_DATE

B. D2.ORDER_METHODC. D3.RETURN_QUANTITY

D. D3.REASON_DESCRIPTION

Answer: D

QUESTION 45

In Framework Manager, if a modeler tests the Month from Time Dimension and SALE_TOTAL from Sales

Fact and applies Auto Sum, which of the following is a modeler most likely to see?

A. An XMIN on Month.

B. An XSUM on Month.


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C. An XMIN on SALE_TOTAL.

D. An XSUM on SALE_TOTAL.

Answer: D

QUESTION 46

An author createda query to compare Actual Revenue and Sales Target values by products and sales staff. The query generated

the SQL below (only a portion is shown). Which of the following reporting traps does this SQLillustrate?

select

coalesce(D2.PRODUCT_NAME,D3.PRODUCT_NAME) as

PRODUCT_NAME,

D2.LAST_NAME as LAST_NAME,

D3.Actual_Revenue as Actual_Revenue,

D2.Sales_Target as Sales_Target

from

................................

A. Bridge

B. Blind spot

C. Connection

D. Parallel relationship

Answer: B

QUESTION 47

Which of the following join types does the generated SQL below illustrate?

select

Manager.Manager as Manager,

Product.Product as Productfrom

datasource_name.database_name.schema.Manager Manager

datasource_name.database_name.schema.Product Product

A. Inner join

B. Union join

C. Outer join

D. Cross join

Answer: D

QUESTION 48

The Cognos 8 report below contains two conformed dimensions, Time Dimension and Product Dimension, and one non-

conformed dimension, Order Method. Which of the following best describes the results?

A. Cross join

B. Multi-fact split

C. Correlated list

D. Contiguous result set

Answer: C

QUESTION 49


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In Cognos 8, which of the following is true of multi-fact result sets?

A. Only correlated result sets can have repeating fact values.

B. Only contiguous result sets can have repeating fact values.

C. Both contiguous and correlated lists can have repeating fact values.

D. Both contiguous and correlated lists cannot have repeating fact values.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50

In Framework Manager, which of the following is a correct technique for model segmentation?

A. Segment a project at the level of an individual query subject.

B. Define the repository type and path to the repository in Cognos Connection.

C. Consolidate segmented and linked metadata in a project in to a single project by publishing a package to a network location.

D. Copy all segmented model files in to one common folder before using Framework Manger's model merge feature.

Answer: C

QUESTION 51

In Framework Manager, which of the following is a correct technique for maintaining packages?

A. Edit the contents of a package by including or excluding model objects such as namespaces, folders, and query subjects.

B. Publish packages to the network as well as to the content store in order to maintain model Versioning and prevent report

errors.

C. Perform an impact analysis on a package to identify the impact of changing the cardinality of a relationship between twoquery subjects included in the package.

D. When publishing packages, use file system version control so that reports created based on one version of a model will

always run against that same version of the model regardless of how many times the package is published.

Answer: A

QUESTION 52

An author creates a Report Studio report that contains Month, Product Line and Revenue. Revenue has a footer to show the

overall total. What will the author see in the generated Cognos SQL for the Revenue footer column?

A. XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue

B. XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue2

C.C. XSUM(XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line)

inTime_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue

D. XSUM(XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line)

atTime_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue1

Answer: D

QUESTION 53

When running an interactive HTML report, which of the following aggregation methods is used by default?

A. Unspecified

B. Running

C. Unknown

D. Extended

Answer: B

QUESTION 54

In Framework Manager, which of the following will have a negative impact on query performance?

A. Enable the Allow Enhanced Model Portability governor.

B. Set the Cross-product joins and Outer Joins governors to Deny.

C. Add filters and calculations to model query subjects rather than data source query subjects.

D. Ensure that, where required, queries are executed against materialized views which contain only Aggregated data rather than

base tables that contain all the data.

Answer: A


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QUESTION 55

In Framework Manager, which of the following will have a positive impact on query performance without intervention from an

author?

A. Create stand-alone filters.

B. Add performance indicators to functions.

C. Configure data sources in a model to use the same connection to the same database instance.

D. For a query item having an integer data type, set the Display Item Reference property to display an integer value.

Answer: C

QUESTION 56

In Framework Manager, if a modeler changes the business key for a level in a regular dimension, which

of the following may change?

A. Level MUN

B. Level identifier

C. Member MUNs

D. Member aliases

Answer: C

QUESTION 57In the image below, if basic signon is enabled in Access Manager, what immediately happens when the modeler selects the

check box "include Access Manager user classes in the model"?

A. The modeler needs to enter a database signon.

B. The modeler needs to log on and specify the user class.

C. The modeler only views data if a user class view has been set up.

D. The modeler is automatically logged on with their Access Manager credentials.

Answer: B

QUESTION 58

Which of the following is a required step if an author wants to access the data in a PowerCube in Report Studio?

A. Enable drill-through on the cube.

B. Create an iqd through Impromptu.

C. Publish the cube in Framework Manager.

D. Create an iqd through Framework Manager.

Answer: C

QUESTION 59

Which of the statements is true about a user accessing the data ina secured PowerCube through Cognos 8?

A. The user must be logged into Transformer.

B. The user must be logged into Access Manager Administration.

C. The user must be logged into the Series7 namespace in Cognos8.

D. The user must logon with administrative privileges in Cognos 8.

Answer: C

QUESTION 60

In Framework Manager, unwanted query splits (full outer joins) occur in which one of the following scenarios?

A. Multi-fact queries where determinants have not been specified.

B. Single fact queries where determinants have not been specified.

C. Conformed and non-conformed dimensions are mixed in one query.

D. Query subjects are incorrectly identified as facts in the context of a query.

Answer: D


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QUESTION 61

Which of the following is correct with respect to Framework Manager and making OLAP data sources available to report

authors?

A. Relationaldata sources cannot be combined with OLAP sources in the same package and published for use in the Cognos 8

studios.

B. To let report authors use multiple cubes simultaneously in the Cognos 8 studios, a modeler must create and publish a

separate package for each cube.

C. The dimensional structure of PowerCubes can be modified in Framework Manager but not third-party Cubes such as

Microsoft Analysis Services (MSAS).

D. When specifying the connection information during the import of a PowerCube, it is recommended to use a network path to

the cube when a distributed installation of the report servers has been implemented.

Answer: D

QUESTION 62

In Framework Manager, the following tasks are required to make a cube available to authors . In what order should these tasks

be performed?

1. Create a package.

2. Import metadata.

3. Publish a package.

4. Create a project.

A. 1,2,3,4B. 1,4,2,3

C. 4,2,1,3

D. 4,2,3,1

Answer: C

QUESTION 63

Which of the following is true about a Member Unique Name (MUN)?

A. MUNs must be numeric.

B. Relational data items have MUNs.

C. A MUN is used to locate a specific member.

D. A MUN is created by a modeler in Transformer.

Answer: C

QUESTION 64

When basic data source query subjects are modified in Framework Manager, it can cause which of the following outcomes?

A. The data source connection referenced in the data source query subject may need to be resolved.

B. The data source query subject may need to be converted to a model query subject to improve model maintenance.

C. The data source query subject may cause native SQL generation errors at run time when creating queries in the studios.

D. The data source query subject may be considered "complex" and require metadata requests from the database at run time.

Answer: D

QUESTION 65The database table below would typically be found in what data structure?


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A. Union

B. Normalized

C. Operational

D. Star schema

Answer: D

QUESTION 66

Answer: C

QUESTION 67

Answer: D

QUESTION 68

Answer: C

QUESTION 69

Answer: D


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Blog:http:/ / www.cogcerts.webs.comQUESTION 70

Answer: B

QUESTION 71Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 8 security environment?

A. Cognos 8 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time

B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined

C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in

the authentication providers

D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are

members), not individual users

Answer: C

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Documents

COG-632 : IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer