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1. Hydrographic survey deals with the
mapping of _______.
A. Large water bodies
B. Canal system
C. Colour movement
D. None of these
Ans. A.
hydrographic Survey deals with any body
of still or running water such as a lake,
harbor, stream or river. Hydrographic
surveys are used to define shore line and
under water features. Also used for
construction of sea works.
2. If the smallest division of a Vernier is
longer than the smallest division of its
primary scale, the Vernier is known as
_______.
A. Direct Vernier
B. Double Vernier
C. Simple Vernier
D. Retrograde Vernier
Ans. D.
Retrograde verniers are found on some
devices, including surveying instruments.
A retrograde vernier is similar to the direct
vernier, except its graduations are at a
slightly larger spacing. In direct vernier it
has N no. of graduation but in retrograde
Vernier it has N+1 no. of graduations.
Both Direct and retrograde verniers are
read in the same manner.
3. A wellconditioned triangle has angles
not less than ______ and more than
respectively.
A. 10°, 90° B. 20°,120°
C. 90°, 120° D. None of these
Ans. C.
a well-conditional triangle is one in which
all angle is greater than 30 & less than
120. It is used to calculate the area of
field in construction work.
4. Compensating errors in chaining are
_______.
A. Proportional to the length of the line
B. Proportional to the square root of the
length of the line
C. Inversely proportional to the square
root of the length of the line
D. Inversely proportional to the length of
the line
Ans. B.
compensating errors may be positive or
negative depends on the least square
method. In this method the most probable
error is,
Es = +.6745√∑v2/n-1
Where, v is the difference b/w the
observation & the mean value of the set of
observation.
5. If a chain is found too short on testing,
it can be adjusted by ______.
A. Straightening the links
B. Inserting additional circular rings
C. Flattening the circular rings
D. Any of the options
Ans. D.
if a chain is too short on testing then it
can be adjusted by,
1) Inserting a big circular ring b/w the
links of the chain.
2) Straightening the links of the chain.
3) Smoothening or levelling of the circular
rings.
6. Permissible limits of error in chaining
for measurement on rough or hilly ground
is ______.
A. 1 : 2000 B. 1 : 1000
C. 1 : 500 D. 1 : 250
Ans. D.
chaining in hilly area can be done by using
indirect method or ranging rod method.
During the chaining permissible error will
be there.
These error have limits of 1 :250 (for hilly
area only).
7. During chaining along a straight line,
the leader of the survey party has three
arrows and while follower has five arrows,
the distance of the follower from the
starting point will be ______.
A. Three chains B. Four chains
C. Five chains D. None of these
Ans. C.
in a chain surveying, leader or instructor &
follower is there.
Follower holds the zero end of the chain &
the leader fixes up an arrows at the end of
a one chain length. Follower marks an
arrows at end of one chain length (20m &
links are of 20 cm.). so, if follower has five
arrows then the distance of follower from
starting point to the end of chain is five
arrows.
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8. Invar tapes are made of an alloy of
_______.
A. Nickle and steel
B. Copper and steel
C. Tin and steel
D. Aluminium and steel
Ans. A.
Invar, also known generically as FeNi36
(64FeNi in the US), is a nickel–iron alloy.
It has low thermal coefficient of expansion
& used in surveying.
9. Chainage is the distance measured
_______.
A. Along a chain line
B. Perpendicular to a chain line
C. Perpendicular to a tie line
D. None of these
Ans. A.
By extension, chainage (running
distance) is the distance along a curved or
straight survey line or chain line from a
fixed commencing point, as given by an
odometer.
It is also known as base line of the curve.
10. In chain survey execution, the first
step taken is ______.
A. Reference sketches
B. Marking stations
C. Running survey line
D. Reconnaissance
Ans. D.
The preliminary inspection of the area to
be surveyed is called reconnaissance. The
surveyor inspects the area to be surveyed,
survey or prepares index sketch or key
plan. Walk the whole area and thoroughly
examine the ground, note the position of
boundaries, road, and river etc., various
difficulties to chain lines, select stations,
and prepare neat sketches called index
sketches or key plan.
11. A soil has liquid limit of 60%, plastic
limit of 35%, shrinkage limit of 20% and it
has a natural moisture content of 50%.
What is the liquidity index of the soil?
A. 0.4 B. 0.6
C. 1.5 D. 1.3
Ans. B.
liquidity index, IL = (WN-WP)/(WL-WP)
Where, WL, Wp & WN= liquid limit, plastic
limit & moisture content.
So, IL = (50-35)/(60-35) = .6
12. The effective stress strength
parameters of a soil are c = 10 kPa and φ
= 30, then shear strength on a plane
within the saturated soil mass at a point
where total normal stress is 300 kPa and
pore water pressure is 150 kPa, will be
______.
A. 90.5 kPa B. 96.6 kPa
C. 101.5 kPa D. 105.5 kPa
Ans. B.
given, σ=300kpa, u=150kpa, c=10kpa &
ф=30
σ’ = σ-u = 300-150 = 150kpa
from equation,
τf = c + σ tan ф = 10 +150 tan 30 =
96.6kpa
where τf = shear strength
13. If the pores of a soil are completely
full of air only, the soil is said to be
________.
A. wet soil
B. fully saturated soil
C. dry soil
D. partly saturated soil
Ans. C.
if pores of a soil are full of air only, then it
means only air voids are present in soil. &
no water voids in the soil are present. So
this type of soil is known as dry soil. If
water voids are present in any case, then
it can be partially saturated or fully
saturated soil.
14. A soil sample has void ratio of 0.5 and
its porosity will be close to _______.
A. 50% B. 66%
C. 100% D. 33%
Ans. D.
by the relation,
n = e/(1+e)
where, n = porosity of soil sample & e =
void ratio
so, n = .5/(1+.5) ×100 = 33%
15. Gradually varied flow is ______.
A. Steady uniformed flow
B. Steady nonuniform flow
C. Unsteady uniform flow
D. Unsteady nonuniform flow
Ans. B.
Gradually Varied Flow is defined as
steady non-uniform flow in a channel in
which there are gradual changes in the
water depth. In this case we see the little
change in the depth of water.
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16. Bluff body surface _______.
A. Is smooth so that friction can be
neglected
B. Coincides with streamlines
C. Does not coincide with streamlines
D. Perpendicular to streamlines
Ans. C.
streamline is the straight lines parallel to x
axis & streamline body looks like a fish.
Where as a bluff body looks like a brick, a
cylinder or an airfoil at large angles of
attack. Both are different from each
other& not coincide with each ether.
17. Centre of pressure on an inclined
plane is ________.
A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
D. At metacentre
Ans. C.
as shown in figure. The center of pressure
is at hc distance from the free surface &
centroid is at h distance from the free
surface. So, on an inclined plane the
center of pressure is below the centroid.
18. Separation of flow occurs when
pressure gradient ______.
A. Tends to approach zero
B. Becomes negative
C. Changes abruptly
D. Reduces to a value when vapour
formation starts
Ans. C.
Flow separation occurs when the
boundary layer travels far enough against
an adverse pressure gradient that the
speed of the boundary layer relative to the
object falls almost to zero. the fluid flow
becomes detached from the surface of the
object. Means when speed of boundary
layer falls almost to zero then pressure
changes suddenly.
19. A one dimensional flow is one which
________.
A. Is uniform
B. Is steady uniform
C. Takes place in straight lines
D. Involves zero transverse components of
flow
Ans. D.
as shown in figure. Flow through a circular
pipe, in this case
It is readily seen that velocity at any
location depends just on the radial
distance from the centreline and is
independent of distance, x or of the
angular position θ. This represents a
typical one-dimensional flow.
20. A body floats in stable equilibrium
________.
A. When its metacentric height is zero
B. When metacentre is above centre of
gravity
C. When its centre of gravity is below its
centre of buoyancy
D. None of these
Ans. B.
as shown in figure. For stable equilibrium
metacentric height should be above the
center of gravity & center of gravity
should be above the centre of buoyancy.
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21. The depth of water below the spillway
and after hydraulic jump are 1 m and 6 m
respectively. The head loss will be ____.
A. 1.74 m B. 6 m
C. 1.7 m D. None of these
Ans. D.
head loss, hL = (d2-d1)3/4d1d2
So, hL = (6-1)3/4.6.1 = 5.21 m.
22. At the centre line of a pipe flowing
under pressure where the velocity
gradient is zero, the shear stress will be
________.
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Zero
D. Could be any value
Ans. C.
by the relation,
τ= μ du/dy
where, τ is shear stress & du is velocity
distribution.
So, if du=0 then τ will be 0.
23. For a gauge pressure of A of - 10.89
kPa, what is the specific gravity of the
gauge liquid B in the figure below?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. None of these
Ans. A.
from the equation,
s1gh1+s2gh2 = s3gh3
where s1, s2 & s3 are the specific gravity.
1.6×9.8×2.743 + 1×(3.429-3.048)×9.8 =
s3×9.8×3.048
So, s3 = 1.02
24. When the adhesion between molecules
of a fluid is greater than adhesion between
fluid and the glass, then the free level of
fluid in glass tube dipped in the glass
vessel will be ______.
A. Same as the surface of the fluid
B. Lower than the surface of the fluid
C. Higher than the surface of the fluid
D. Dependent on atmospheric pressure
Ans. D.
adhesion b/w molecules of a fluid depends
on the
1) Contact angle b/w fluid & glass.
2) Atmospheric pressure
In case of capillary rise, if atmospheric
pressure is more, then the rise will be less
& if less atmospheric pressure, then rise
will be more.
25. Canal normally used for diversion of
flood water of a river is ______.
A. Feeder canal B. Inundation canal
C. Ridge canal D. Contour canal
Ans. B.
Inundation canal are long canals taken
off from large rivers. They receive water
when the river is high enough and
especially when in flood.
Where, contour canal follows the contour
line on the field & ridged canal is the type
of watershed canal also.
26. Intensity of irrigation ________.
A. Is the percentage of culturable
commanded area proposed to be irrigated
annually
B. Is always more than 100 %
C. Is the percentage that could be ideally
irrigated
D. All the options are correct
Ans. A.
Intensity of irrigation is defined as the
percentage of the irrigation proposed to
be irrigated annually. Usually the areas
irrigated during each crop season (Rabi,
Kharif, etc) is expressed as a percentage
of the CCA which represents the intensity
of irrigation for the crop season.
27. The shift of the transition curve of
radius 300 m and length 48 m is _______.
A. 0.32 m B. 0.42 m
C. 0.52 m D. 0.62 m
Ans. A.
shift of transition curve,
S = L2/24R = 482/24×300
= .32 m.
28. The commutative speed distribution
curve is usually adopted for geometric
design of highway. The percentile speed
adopted for geometric design is ______.
A. 85th percentile speed
B. 90th percentile speed
C. 98th percentile speed
D. 99.9th percentile speed
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Ans. C.
we design the highway for approximate
60kmph speed & as shown in figure for
this speed the percentile speed will be
98th.
29. Maximum allowable shear stress in a
section is 100 kg/cm2. If bar is subjected
to tensile force of 5000 kg and if the
section is square shaped, what will be
dimension of sides of the squares?
A. 10 cm B. 5 cm
C. 12 cm D. √12 cm
Ans. B.
assume side of square = a
tensile stress of the section = 5000/a2
& max. allowable stress = ½ (tensile
stress)
So, 100 = 1/2×5000/a2
a = 5 cm.
30. A brittle material of 4 sq. m cross
section carries an axial tensile load of 20
tonnes. What will be the maximum shear
stress in the block?
A. 1250 kg/cm2 B. 1000 kg/cm2
C. 500 kg/cm2 D. None of these
Ans. D.
tensile stress = tensile load/area
= 20000/4 = 5000
So, max. shear stress = ½ (tensile stress)
= 1/2×5000 = 2500 kg/cm2
31. A torsion member is fabricated from
two concentric thin tubes. At the ends, the
tubes are welded to rigid discs so that
both the tubes are twisted as a unit. The
radius of the outer tube is 2r and that of
the inner tube is r. If the shear stresses
developed in the outer tube is 'τ', then the
shear stress in the inner tube will be
______.
A. τ B. 0.25 τ
C. 0.75 τ D. 0.5 τ
Ans. D.
from the torsional equation
T is directly proportional to r
So, T1/T2 = r1/r2
T1/T = r/2r = .5
So, T1 = .5T
32. The maximum bending stress in an I
beam occurs at the _______.
A. Neutral axis
B. Outermost fiber
C. Joint of wedge and flange
D. Section where shear stress is maximum
Ans. B.
by the equation,
M/I = σ/y
In I section the outermost fibre have large
area. & less moment of inertia.
So, max. bending stress occurs at the
outermost fibre.
33. A support is said to be nonyielding if
______.
A. It can take any amount of reaction
B. It is frictionless
C. It holds the beam firmly
D. The beam has zero slope at the support
Ans. D.
in case of fixed support, the beam has
zero slope at the support. & max. at end if
fixed at one end only.
Fixed support is also known as non-
yielding support.
34. A rectangular bar has been subjected
to torsion. The maximum shear stress will
occur _______.
A. At the centre
B. At the corner
C. At the middle of longer side
D. Along the diagonal
Ans. C.
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as shown in figure the max. shear stress
occurs a the centre of reactangular beam
Having depth is d.
35. Which of the following sections will be
best in torsion?
A. Solid circular B. Hollow circular
C. Triangular D. Rectangular
Ans. B.
from the equation,
T/J = σ/r
T is directly proportional to J.
Where J is polar moment of inertia & it is
more in case of hollow circular section
Than solid.
36. If a close coiled helical spring absorbs
30 Nmm of energy while extending by
5mm, its stiffness will be _____.
A. 2 N/mm B. 4 N/mm
C. 6 N/mm D. 10 N/mm
Ans. C.
stiffness = load/deflection
= 30/5 = 6 N/mm.
37. The core of a circular section short
column of diameter d is a concentric
circular area having a diameter ______.
A. d/4 B. d/3
C. d/2 D. d/8
Ans. A.
core of a circular section short colomn =
∏d2/64
Circular area of diameter d’ = ∏d’2/4
So, for concentric d’ = d/4
38. The maximum shear stress occurs on
the outermost fibres of a circular shaft
under torsion. In a close coiled helical
spring, the maximum shear stress occurs
on the _______.
A. Outermost fibers
B. Fibers at mean diameter
C. Innermost fibers
D. None of these
Ans. C.
by the relation
Max. shear stress = 32T/∏d3
Where d is the diameter of the coil which
is less from diameter of the circle D
So, if d will be less then shear stress will
be more.
39. A closedcoil helical spring is subjected
to a torque about its axis. The spring wire
would experience a _______.
A. Bending stress
B. Direct tensile stress of uniform intensity
at its cross section
C. Direct shear stress
D. Torsional shearing stress
Ans. A.
in case of helical spring if any torque load
is subjected to spring.
Then wire experiences bending stress
Bending stress = 32T/∏d3
Where T is torsion of the spring.
40. Two beam of equal crosssectional
area are subject to equal bending
moment. If one beam has square
crosssection and the other has circular
section, then ______.
A. both beams will be equally strong
B. circular section beam will be stronger
C. square section beam will be stronger
D. the strength of the beam will depend
on the nature of aiding
Ans. B.
from the bending equation,
M/I = σ/y
So, σ is inversely proportional to I.
If I will be less then beam will be stronger.
& here I will be less for circular section
41. Strength of concrete show an increase
with ______.
A. Decrease in rate of loading
B. Increase in rate of loading
C. Unaffected by rate of loading
D. Depends on application of load
Ans. B.
strength of concrete = (load at the
failure)/(area of the specimen of the
concrete)
So, if we increase the rate of loading
gradually then it’s strength also will
increase.
42. If the slump of concrete mix is 60 mm
its workability is ______.
A. Low B. Medium
C. High D. Very high
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Ans. B.
43. Segregation is responsible for ______.
A. Honey comb concrete
B. Porous layers in concrete
C. Sand streaks in concrete
D. All the options are correct
Ans. D.
When concrete beaks into the part then
some types of structure of concrete is
formed due to segregation like,
Honey comb concrete, porous concrete, &
sand streaks.
44. The durability of concrete is affected
by ______.
A. Cider B. Vinegar
C. Alcohol D. Both cider & vinegar
Ans. D.
both the cider & vinegar is alcoholic
beverage.
If we mix these two in mixing of concrete,
then it decreases the strength of concrete
& durability of concrete.
45. Slump test is a measure of ______.
A. Tensile strength
B. Compressive strength
C. Impact value
D. Consistency
Ans. D.
The concrete slump test measures the
consistency of fresh concrete before it
sets. It is performed to check the
workability of freshly made concrete, and
therefore the ease with which concrete
flows. It can also be used as an indicator
of an improperly mixed batch.
46. Shrinkage of concrete is directly
proportional to ______.
A. Cement content
B. Sand content
C. Aggregate content
D. Temperature of water
Ans. A.
shrinkage of concrete is directly
proportional to the volume of the paste of
w/c ratio.
If volume reduces then strength of
concrete increases.
So, the shrinkage of concrete depends on
w/c ratio.
47. Approximate value of shrinkage strain
in concrete is ______.
A. 0.03
B. 0.003
C. 0.0003
D. 0.00003
Ans. C.
as per IS 456:2000,
The approximate value of the total
shrinkage strain for design may be taken
as 0.0003.
48. Which one of the following properties
of a plastic concrete is modified by the
airentraining agents?
A. workability
B. segregation
C. bleeding
D. All option are correct
Ans. D.
if we add the air entraining agent to the
concrete or if we add the, Al (aluminium)
powder to the concrete, then air bubble is
formed which increases the workability of
concrete & decreases the segregation (it
seperate coarse particle from the water) &
bleeding (it seperate water from the
coarse particle) in concrete.
49. A concrete in which dry coarse
aggregate are first packed to have the
least voids and then the cement sand
mortar is injected under pressure to fill all
the voids, resulting in a very dense
concrete, is known as ______.
A. Prepacket concrete
B. Vacuum concrete
C. No fines concrete
D. Aerate concrete
Ans. D.
if a concrete has voids then we can fill
these voids by injected the cement sand
mortar. This process is known as aerate
concrete. It is used in floor construction &
in fire proofing because it have good fire
resistivity.
50. For protection from frost, concrete
should be _______.
A. Dense
B. Free from cracks
C. Adhesion between mortar and
aggregate should be perfect
D. All the options are correct
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Ans. A.
when frosting occurs on the concrete then
seepage in concrete starts.
Which decreases the strength of the
concrete. So that’s why for protection
Concrete should be dense.
51. In order to have segregation in
concrete dropping height should not be
less than ______.
A. 25 cm B. 50 cm
C. 100 cm D. 250 cm
Ans. B.
as per IS code; for segregation in concrete
dropping height should not be less than 50
cm. if dropping height is greater than 50,
then coarse particle will be separate from
water. which causes segregation in
concrete. & if less than 50 then no
segregation will be there in concrete.
52. The main object of compaction of
concrete is ______.
A. To eliminate air holes
B. To achieve maximum density
C. To get intimate contact between the
concrete and embedded material
D. All the options are correct
Ans. D.
the main purpose of the compaction is to
increase the density & remove he air voids
from the concrete. & after doing
compaction we get a strong bond between
concrete & embedded material because of
after compaction the molecules of
concrete becomes too close to each other.
53. Steam curing is not used with ______.
A. Ordinary Portland cement
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. High alumina cement
D. All the options are correct
Ans. B.
Steam curing is a process for hardening
concrete, cement, and mortar that
involves exposure to warm steam. It can
not used with rapid hardening cement
because it is time taking process. So, if we
use hard cement then bond b/w cement &
brick will be week.
54. For a satisfactory workable concrete
with a constant W.C. ratio increase in
aggregatecement ratio
A. Increases the strength of concrete
B. Decreases the strength of concrete
C. No effect on the strength of concrete
D. None of these
Ans. A.
as we know, the strength of concrete
depends on,
W/c ratio, aggregate-cement ratio etc.
So, if aggregate-cement ratio increases.
The strength of concrete will also increase.
55. Addition of sugar in concrete results in
_______.
A. Increase in setting time by about 1hr
B. Increase in setting time by about 4 hr
C. Decrease in setting time by about 1 hr
D. Decrease in setting time by about 4 hr
Ans. A.
when sugar is added to the concrete then
it makes a chemical reaction with cement
56. The aggregate impact value of the
aggregate used in _______.
A. Building concrete is less than 45
B. Road pavement concrete is less than 30
C. Runway concrete is less than 30
D. All the options are correct
Ans. D.
In building there is no restriction of
concrete, so we use 40mm or larger size
aggregate impact value. & for road
pavement & runway it should be less than
30.
57. The development of strength of
cement and its fineness are _______.
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Not related
D. Randomly related
Ans. C.
development of strength of cement
depends on the porosity which is the w/c
ratio. So if w/c ratio increases it’s porosity
increases & strength decreases &
Fineness, or particle size of portland
cement affects hydration rate and thus
the rate of strength gain. The smaller the
particle size, the greater the surface area-
to-volume ratio, and thus, the more area
available for water-cement interaction per
unit volume.
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58. Flash set of ordinary Portland cement
paste is ______.
A. Premature hardening
B. Surface hardening only
C. Hardening without development of heat
of hydration
D. All the options are correct
Ans. A.
hardening refers to the gain of strength of
a set of cement paste.
Premature is done for ordinary Portland
cement & process of hardening of cement
Continues for a period more than one
year.
59. The limits of percentage 'p' of the
longitudinal reinforcement in a column is
given by _______.
A. 0.15 % to 2 % B. 0.8 % to 4 %
C. 0.8 % to 6 % D. 0.8 % to 8 %
Ans. C.
according to IS 456-800
The max percentage of reinforcement in a
column is 6%.
& for longitudinal it lies b/w .8 to 6%
60. The bond strength between steel
reinforcement and concrete is affected by
_____.
A) Steel properties
B) Concrete properties
C) Shrinkage of concrete
The correct answer is
A. A and B B. B and C
C. A and C D. A, B and C
Ans. D.
factors affecting bond strength b/w steel
reinforcement & concrete
1) Grade of concrete
2) Properties of concrete
3) Properties of steel, commonly mild steel
is used.
61. The side face reinforcement, if
required in a Tbeam will be ______.
A. 0.1 % of the web area
B. 0.15 % of the web area
C. 0.02 % to 0.3 % of the web area
depending upon the breadth of the web
D. Half of the longitudinal reinforcement
Ans. A.
Side face reinforcement in the web of the
beam is provided when the depth of the
web in a beam exceeds 750 mm. (0.1% of
the web area and shall be distributed
equally on two faces at a spacing not
exceeding 300 mm or web thickness
whichever is less).
62. Limit state of serviceability of
prestressed concrete sections should
satisfy ______.
A. Cracking, deflection and maximum
compression
B. Cracking only
C. Deflection and cracking
D. Deflection and maximum compression
Ans. A.
limit state of survicibility-
1) Cracking or flexure check. (which
depends on % of reinforcement)
2) Deflection check. ((l/d)provided should be
less than (l/d)max)
3) Maximum compression check. (which
depend on factored load)
63. Shear span is defined as the zone
where ______.
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
Ans. C.
as shown in the figure (b). The shear force
is costant from A to load 0.5kN so this
zone is called shear span of beam.
64. A reinforced cantilever beam of span 4
m has a crosssection of 150x500 mm. If
checked for lateral stability and deflection,
the beam will ______.
A. Fail in deflection only
B. Fail in lateral stability only
C. Fail in both deflection and lateral
stability
D. Satisfy the requirements of deflection
and lateral stability
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Ans. C.
lateral stability-
For cantilever beam, span≤25b (it should
be satisfy)
4m≤25×150≤3.75 so, it will be fail.
For deflection-
For cantilever beam (l/d)basic=20
Here, (l/d)provided should be less than
(l/d)max.
So, it will also fail.(not satisfying the
condition)
65. The final deflection due to all loads
including the effects of temperature, creep
and shrinkage and measured from ascast
level of supports of floors, roofs and all
other horizontal members should not
exceed _____.
A. Span/350 B. Span/300
C. Span/250 D. Span/200
Ans. C.
max. deflection in a beam should not
exceed, length of the span/250
So, for 5m span deflection should not
exeed 20mm.
66. The main reinforcement of a RC slab
consists of 10 mm bars at 10 cm spacing.
If it is desired to replace 10 mm bars by
12 mm bars, then the spacing of 12 mm
bars should be ______.
A. 12cm B. 14cm
C. 14.40 cm D. 16 cm
Ans. C.
spacing of reinforcement is directly
proportional to the area of reinforcement.
So, s1/s2 = d12/d2
2
10/s2 = 102/122
So, s2 = 14.4 cm.
67. According to Whitney's theory, the
maximum depth of concrete stress block
in a balanced RCC beam section of depth
'd' is ______.
A. 0.3 d B. 0.43 d
C. 0.5 d D. 0.53 d
Ans. D.
for balanced R.C.C beam
If we use mild steel then for fy=250
Xu,max/d = .53
Xu,max = .53d
68. If the loading on a simply supported
prestressed concrete beam is uniformly
distributed, the centroid of tendons should
be preferably ______.
A. A straight profile along the centroidal
axis
B. A straight profile along with the lower
kern
C. A parabolic profile with convexity
downward
D. A circular profile with convexity upward
Ans. C.
as shown in figure. The centroid of tendon
in case of pre-stressed concrete
Look like as a parabolic profile with
convexity downward.
69. If 'b' is the width of the plate and 'd' is
the diameter of the rivet, then the
efficiency of a riveted joint having
diamond riveting is given by ______.
A. (bd)/b B. (bd)/d
C. (b2d)/b D. (b2d)/d
Ans. B.
efficiency of a joint = (strength of
joint)/(strength of solid plate)
So, ղ = An/Ag (other values are constant
in this case)
ղ = (b-d).t/(b.t) = (b-d)/b
where t is the thickness of the plate
70. If a rolled steel flat designated as 55
I.S.F. 12 mm is used as lacing, then
minimum radius of gyration will be
______.
A. 3 mm B. 6 mm
C. 3.46 mm D. 3.8 mm
Ans. C.
radius of gyration, r =
√1/12(55×123)/(55×12)
r= √12 = 3.46 mm.
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71. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar
with the longitudinal axis of the column
should preferably be between _______.
A. 10° to 30° B. 30° to 80°
C. 40° to 70° D. 20° to 70°
Ans. C.
lacing bar shall be inclined at 400 to 700 to
axis of built up member or longitudinal
axis of the member.
72. The effective length of battened
column is increased by _____.
A. 10% B. 7%
C. 12% D. 25%
Ans. A.
The actual length L of the compression
member should be taken as the length
from centre-to-centre of intersection of
supporting members or the cantilevered
length in the case of free standing struts.
& the effective length increased by 10%
for battened columns.
73. The buckling load in a steel column is
_______.
A. Related to length
B. Directly proportional to the slenderness
ratio
C. Inversely proportional to the
slenderness ratio
D. Non linearity of the slenderness ratio
Ans. A.
the buckling load,
P = ∏2EI/L2
p is inversely proportional to the square of
the length L
so, p is related to length.
74. And angle section can be used as
purlin when slope of the roof truss is
_______.
A. Between 40° and 70°
B. Less than 30°
C. Greater than 30°
D. Less than 45°
Ans. B.
75. For unstiffened flange of a beam in
flexural compression, the maximum
allowable outstand is equal to ______.
A. 20 t B. 16 t
C. 32 t D. 14 t
Ans. B.
for un-stiffed flange
The max. allowable outstand = least of
16t or 200mm. whichever is less.
76. The problem of lateral buckling can
arise only in those steel beams which have
______.
A. moment of inertia about the bending
axis larger than the other
B. moment of inertia about the bending
axis smaller than the other
C. fully supported compression flange
D. None of these
Ans. B.
from the relation,
P = ∏2EI/L2
So the buckling is depend on moment of
inertia about the bending axis.
Lateral buckling occur when the moment
of inertia about the bending axis will be
smaller than other.
77. In a truss girder of a bridge, a
diagonal consists of mild steel flat 400 ISF
and carries a pull of 800 kN. If the gross
diameter of the rivets is 26mm, then the
number of rivets required in the splice is
______.
A. 6 B. 7
C. 8 D. 9
Ans. D.
strength of the one rivet = 2.5kb.d.t.fu/ymo
Where ymo is factor of safety
Kb is least of ( P/3d0)-.25, e/3d0, 10.
Whichever is less.
Kb = .523 & for 400 ISF t = 8mm.
So, strength of one rivet =
2.5×.523×26×8×400/1.25 = 87.027 kN
No of rivets = 800/87.027 = 9.1
78. Consider the following factors
A) Large number of loading cycles
B) Large variations in stress
C) Large stress concentrations
Those associated with fatigue failure would
include ________.
A. A and B B. A and C
C. B and C D. A, B and C
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Ans. D.
in case of loading, the fatigue condition
will occur when load is applied zero-to-
max-to-zero & when varying load or
stresses acting on member.
In case of stress, the fatigue condition will
occur when any tensile stress is acting on
a member & then released suddenly.
79. The device used for the easy
separation of dry dust of 10 to 100 μm
size is ______.
A. cyclone
B. gravity settling chamber
C. bag filter
D. scrubber
Ans. A.
cyclonic seperation is a method of
removing particulates from an air, gas or
liquid stream, without the use of filters,
through vortexseparation. When removing
particulate matter from liquids, a
hydrocyclone is used; while from gas, a
gas cyclone is used.
80. The velocity of exit waste gases should
be a minimum of ____ of wind speed to
prevent down draught.
A. 1
2 B.
11
2
C. 1
22
D. 1
32
Ans. C.
the velocity of exit, ve should be the min.
of 2.5 of wind speed to prevent down
draught. It can be see in rocket in which,
Ve = me√yRTe
Where y is specific heat ratio.
81. In stone masonry, the stones are
placed in position such that the natural
bedding plane is ______.
A. normal to the direction of pressure they
carry
B. parallel to the direction of pressure they
carry
C. at 45° to the direction of pressure they
carry
D. at 60° to the direction of pressure they
carry
Ans. A.
In stone masonry, the stones are placed
normal to the loading or direction of
pressure. ( the neutral bedding plane of
masonry is normal to the loading).
82. Slate and marble stone belong to ___.
A. igneous rocks
B. metamorphic rocks
C. sedimentary rocks
D. foliated rocks
Ans. B.
metamorphic rock- these are the
secondary rocks formed by
metamorphosis due to intense heat &
pressure below the earth’s crust. There
rocks have foliated structure & the
principal types are quartzite, slate, marble
& gneisses.
83. Find the one which is not used in
quarrying?
A. gun powder B. gun cotton
C. marble powder D. dynamite
Ans. C.
A quarry is the same thing as an open-pit
mine from which minerals are extracted.
The only non-trivial difference between
the two is that open-pit mines that
produce building materials and dimension
stone are commonly referred to as
quarries. It include the underground
quarrying for stone also. So we can not
use the marble powder.
84. Hollow bricks are generally used with
the purpose of ______.
A. reducing the cost of construction
B. providing insulation against heat
C. increasing the bearing area
D. ornamental look
Ans. B.
The air present in the hollow area of these
bricks make them thermal insulators.
They keep the interiors cool in summer
and warm in winter especially the 'clay
hollow bricks'. They also provide more
sound insulation as compared to solid
bricks.
85. The lime which has the property of
setting in water is known as ______.
A. fat lime B. Hydraulic lime
C. hydrated lime D. quick lime
Ans. B.
hydraulic lime has a property of setting &
hardening under water is made out of it. It
contains small quantities of silica &
alumina or iron oxide which are in
chemical combination with calcium oxide
content.
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86. Bullet proof glass is made of thick
glass sheet and a sandwiched layer of
_______.
A. steel
B. stainless steel
C. high strength plastic
D. chromium plate
Ans. C.
bullet proof glass is made from
composition of two or more glasses
In which one is plastic & another is soft. In
this the plastic part of the glass
Has high strength which causes
protection. This glass expand from ¾ inch
to 5/2 inch.
87. If the rocks are formed due to
alteration of original structure under heat
and excessive pressure, then they are
known as ______.
A. igneous B. sedimentary
C. volcanic D. metamorphic
Ans. D.
metamorphic rock- these are the
secondary rocks formed by
metamorphosis due to intense heat &
pressure below the earth’s crust. These
rocks have foliated structure & the
principal types are quartzite, slate, marble
& gneisses.
88. The shape of the brick gets deformed
due to rain water falling on hot brick. This
defect is known as ______.
A. chuffs B. bloating
C. nodules D. lamination
Ans. A.
if rain water fall on a hot brick then it gets
deformed & becomes defective
So this type of defect is called chuffs.
89. The operation of removal of impurities
of clay adhering to iron ore is known as
______.
A. calcination B. purification
C. dressing D. refining
Ans. C.
removal of impurities or dust & unwanted
material from the clay
Adhering to iron ore like ferric oxide
(Fe3O4) is known as dressing of clay
90. The specific surface expressed in
square cm gm of a good Portland cement
should not be less than ______.
A. 1750 B. 2000
C. 2250 D. 2500
Ans. C.
good port-land cement is fairly high C3S
content for good early strength
development. The area for C3S content
should be greater than 2250 cm2/gm.
91. A document containing detailed
description of all the items of work (but
their quantities are not mentioned)
together with their current rates is called
______.
A. tender
B. schedule of rates
C. analysis of rate
D. abstract estimate
Ans. B.
containing detailed description of all the
items with their current rates
For ex. Cement, sand, labour cost, & in a
contract setting out of the staff
& plant hire rates with current.
92. The number of bricks required per
cubic metre of brick masonry is ______.
A. 480 B. 500
C. 520 D. 540
Ans. B.
the construction done with bricks bonded
together with the help of a mortar is
termed as brick masonry. 1 cubic meter
contains 500 bricks.
The Standard size of the 1st class brick is
190mm x 90mm x.
90mm and motor joint should be 10mm
thick.
93. In the centre line method of working
out volumes, for cross walls, what
deductions must be made from the centre
line length at each junction?
A. twice the breadth
B. half the breadth
C. 1.5 breadth
D. None of these
Ans. B.
This method is suitable for walls of similar
cross sections. Here the total centre line
length is multiplied by breadth and depth
of respective item to get the total quantity
at a time. When cross walls or partitions
or verandah walls join with main wall, the
centre line length gets reduced by half of
breadth for each junction.
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94. The volume of the cement required for
10 m3 of brickwork in 1: 6 cement mortar
is approximately equal to ______.
A. 3/7 m3 B. 3/6 m3
C. 3/4 m3 D. 3/5 m3
Ans. A.
total volume of concrete = 1+6 = 7 m3
Volume of cement = (10-7)/7 = 3/7 m3
95. The explosive for blasting is usually
expressed in terms of ________.
A. explosive power
B. volume of earthwork that can be
blasted
C. kilograms
D. None of these
Ans. C.
amount of explosive for blasting is
measured in terms of weight per unit
volume or in kg/m3 or kg/cm3.
96. Whenever colour washing on Asbestos
Cement corrugated sheets is done, in the
estimation the plane area of the sheets is
increased by ______.
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%
Ans. D.
when colour washing on asbestos cement
sheets is done then the plane area of the
sheets increased by 20%.
After colour washing, area = area +
(20/100).
97. Which department looks after the
execution and maintenance of water
supply and sanitary works?
A. public works department
B. social welfare department
C. public health department
D. None of these
Ans. C.
when the execution & maintenance of
water supply & sanitary works is done
Then after that remaining work is done by
the public health department.
98. The life of teakwood doors and
windows is usually taken to be ______.
A. 80 year B. 60 year
C. 40 year D. 20 year
Ans. C.
teak wood doors & windows has great
properties to withstand extreme climatic
conditions & it is free from knots &
shakes. It’s durability is high usually taken
as 40 years.
99. The quantity cement concrete damp-
proofing course is measured in terms of
______.
A. m B. m2
C. m3 D. lumpsum
Ans. B.
in damp proofing course these types of
materials are used:
Stones, slates, cement concrete, blocks,
terracotta blocks, dense cement concrete,
asbestos cement concrete sheets etc. the
cement concrete measured with the unit
of m2.
100. The unit weight of R.C.C. (in kg/m3)
is ______.
A. 1200 B. 1800
C. 2400 D. 3000
Ans. C.
unit weight of concrete, according to USCS
(united states customary systems) is 2400
kg/m3 or 23.60 kN/m3. & it defines the
hoe heavy a normal reinforced concrete is.
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