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For PRE-EXAM TRAINING

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S T A T E B A N K O F I N D I A

SelectionSelection ProcessProcess for Probationary Officers in for Probationary Officers in State Bank of India and its Associate BanksState Bank of India and its Associate Banks

PHASE I

(a) Written Examination (Objective Type)

(b) Written Examination (Descriptive Type)

PHASE II

Group Discussion and Personal Interview

SelectionSelection ProcessProcess forfor Probationary OfficersProbationary Officers

Phase I : Written ExaminationThis training is about

The written examination consists of Four Objective Type Tests & a Descriptive Test of English

The details of the same are given below :OBJECTIVE TESTS

Sr. No

Name of the Test No. of Questions Maximum Marks

Time

1 Reasoning ( High Level ) 50 50

Composite time of 120

Minutes

2 Data Analysis & Interpretation

50 50

3 General Awareness / Marketing / Computers

50 50

4 English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.)

50 50

200 200

DESCRIPTIVE TEST OF ENGLISH DESCRIPTIVE TEST OF ENGLISH

Time allotted : 60 minutes

Max Marks : 50

Questions may be based on the following :1.Essay Writing 2.Letter Writing 3.Precis Writing 4.Comprehension etc.

SelectionSelection ProcessProcess forfor Probationary OfficersProbationary Officers

Written Examination (Contd.)

SUGGESTED TIME TO ATTEMPT EACH TEST

Test of Reasoning (High Level) 35 MinutesTest of Data Analysis & Interpretation 30 Minutes Test of General Awareness / Marketing /Computers 25 Minutes Test of English Language 30 Minutes

Total 120 Minutes

Written Examination (Contd.)

HOW TO INDICATE/REVISE YOUR ANSWER

Q 101. 75 + 68 + 287 = ?

(1) 330 (2) 430 (3) 420 (4) 320 (5) None of these

If you need to change an answer you should completely erase the previous answer with an eraser and darken the correct oval. Do not leave any smudge.

Smudge left out in oval number 2 will also be read as intended answer in addition toanswer number 4. Hence you will not get any credit for this question even ifanswer number 4 is correct .

The answer to above question is (2), it has to be shown as follows :

101. 1 3 4 5

1 3 52

TEST OF REASONING (High Level)

This test generally has TWO types of Questions.1. Non-Verbal Reasoning : Questions presented in the form of diagram/figures.2. Verbal Reasoning :Verbal questions on analytical ability, problem solving,

critical thinking, etc.

Non-Verbal Reasoning

The questions and answers are presented in the form of figures containing symbols, signs, diagrams etc. They are generally of three types: (a) series (b) analogy & (c) classification

SERIES :- The sequential change in the subsequent problem figures over its precedingone. Basically, the change may be of one or more of the following types :

Addition Subtraction RotationMutation Substitution RearrangementShifting RegenerationCombination of two or more

Non-VerbalNon-Verbal ProblemsProblems - - SeriesSeries

There is a set of five problem figures and a set of five answer figures.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

1 2 3 4 5

The five problem figures go on changing from left to right by following a rule.

Applying that rule, what would be the next i.e. the sixth problem figure ?

One of the five answer figures represents THAT sixth figure.

THAT answer figure is the ‘Right Answer’.

Q.1.

Change in the problem figures by addition

1 2 3 4 5

Same element is added

Same element is added in different positions

1 2 3 4 5

Q.2.

Q.3.

For Q.Nos. 2 to 9 only the correct answer figure is shown in the first answer figure box for the sake of better understanding.

Change in the problem figures by subtraction

1 2 3 4 5

= x o @x o @ = = x o @ o @ = x x o @ =@ = x o

Rotation around y axis

Change in the problem figures by Rotation

Q.4.

Q.5.

1 2 3 4 5

Change in the problem figures by Rotation

Rotation in the clockwise direction

= ==

= =

1 2 3 4 5

=

Change in the problem figures by Mutation

1 2 3 4 5

Q.6.

Q.7.

Change in the problem figures by Substitution

1 2 3 4 5

Change in the problem figures by combination of the basic changes i.e. Regeneration

=

X O

= ?

=

? O

X

$ =

?

O

O $

=

O

$

@

1 2 3 4 5

= C

@ O

Rearrangement with substitution

Q.9.

Q.8.

Questions based on SERIES

Thus – while attempting series type of questions :

(i) Consider only one change at a time. Don’t go for all the changes in the problem figures simultaneously.

(ii) Follow the changes in one of the symbols /diagrams and eliminate from the answer figures, those which do not follow the rule of change.

To pinpoint the ‘correct’ answer figure, among the remaining answer figures, again refer to the changes in the other symbol(s).

(iii) Always choose the ‘best’ answer figure as right answer among the given five figures.

Questions based on ANALOGY

The problem figures are presented in two units. Look at the first unit of problem figures. The elements in the second figure are twice the number of elements in the first figure. Also, the elements in both the figures are same; i.e. ovals.

The third and fourth figures of the second unit should have the same relationship as the first and the second have. That is the fourth problem figure should have two triangles.

Answer figure ‘5’ has two triangles. Therefore, the answer is ‘5’.

ANALOGY – I :

Problem Figures

?

1 2 3 4 5

Answer Figures

Q.10.

Questions based on ANALOGY

In this type, the problem figure contains two elements in the form of figure/symbol/diagram, etc. These two are related to each other in some way. The answer figures have five such pairs of figure/diagram/symbol which are numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to select the pair that does NOT have the relationship similar to that in the original (problem) figure.

In the problem figure the right hand element has one side less than that of the left hand element.

Answer figures 1, 2, 4 and 5 have the right hand element with one side less than the left hand element. Only answer figure 3 does not have such relation between the right and the left hand elements. Hence the answer is ‘3’.

ANALOGY – II :

Problem Figures

1 2 3 4 5

Answer Figures

Q.11.

Questions based on CLASSIFICATION

In classification, the problem figures themselves are also the answer figures. Out of the five problem figures, 1,2,3,4 and 5 four are similar in a certain way; and hence form a group. The one figure is NOT like the other four and hence does not belong to the group.

The question is which one of the figures does not belong to the group of the remaining four ?

CLASSIFICATION – I

1 2 3 4 5

Problem-cum-Answer Figures

In the above classification question, the figure no.s, 1,2,3 and 5 have the usual T shape with the edges of the horizontal segment of T pointing towards the base of the T. Thus, they form a group having this similarity.

The problem figure no. 4 has the edges at both ends of the horizontal segments of T pointing away from the base of the T, thus does not fall in the group. Hence “4” is the answer.

Q.12.


CLASSIFICATION – I:

In the above question, the problem figures 2,3,4 & 5 have even number of lines and hence form a group. The problem figure 1 has 5 lines which is an odd number. Hence ‘1’ is the answer.

1 2 3 4 5


Q.13.


In this type of question five units of problem figure are given; each unit having two figures numbered I and II. Figure numbers I & II in 4 of the five units are related to each other in a similar way & hence these 4 problem units form a group. The figures I & II in the remaining (i.e. the fifth) unit do not have similar relationship and hence that unit becomes the answer figure.

In the above question, the figures I & II in the problem figure units 1,2,4 and 5 have the figure No. II formed by the anticlockwise rotation through 90° of the figures No.I. Hence they form a group. The problem figure unit no.3 has the IInd figure formed by the clockwise rotation of the figure I in that unit through 90°. Hence problem figure 3 is the right answer.

CLASSIFICATION – II : Relational Classification

Q.14.


1 2 3 4 5

I III III II I II I II

Verbal : Following Directions/Analogy/Classification etcVerbal : Following Directions/Analogy/Classification etc

Q15. Which is the third number to the left of the number which is exactly in the middle of the following sequence of numbers ?

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 2 4 6 8 9 7 5 3 1 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 (5) 3

Q16. Which of the following is related to ‘Profit’ in the same way as ‘Foam’ is related to ‘Lather’ ?

(1) Loss (2) Business (3) Gain (4) Wealth (5) Earn

Q17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?

(1) Relative (2) Brother (3) Sister (4) Nephew (5) Niece

Q18. In a certain code 130584 is written 485031. How is 27096 written in that code ? (1) 67092 (2) 60972 (3) 69702 (4) 60792 (5) 69072 Q19. Which of the following is related to ‘Loyalty’ in the same way as ‘First’ is related to

‘Last’ ? (1) Defiance (2) Honesty (3) Treachery (4) Virtue (5) Hostility

Verbal : (Contd.)Verbal : (Contd.)

Q20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?

(1) Coolie (2) Mason (3) Goldsmith (4) Carpenter (5) Blacksmith

Q21. In a row of children, Shibu is fifth from the left and Lakhya is sixth from the right. When they exchange positions, Shibu will be thirteenth from the left. What will be Lakhya’s position from the right ?(1) fourth (2) fifth (3) thirteenth (4) fourteenth (5) fifteenth

Q22. Pointing to the man, a woman said, ‘His mother is the only daughter-in-law of my ‘mother-in-law’. How was the man related to the woman ? (1) husband (2) son (3) husband’s brother

(4) brother (5) sister’s husband.

Q23. Word : Sentence :: Flower : ? (1) Garden (2) Fragrance (3) Bouquet (4) Garland (5) Petal

Q24. If ‘A’ is B’s brother, B is A’s ---- (1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Sister

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Verbal : Problem SolvingVerbal : Problem Solving

Q. 25-27. Read the information given below and answer the questions.Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on

each day from Monday to Saturday.

The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following(1) A must be on the previous day of the day on which E is staged

(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday (3) B must be on a day which follows the day on which F is staged. (4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B (5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule

Q25. The order of staging plays from Monday onwards is ----(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E (4) F A B E D C (5) None

Q26. Which of the following plays is on Monday ?(1) E (2) A (3) F (4) B (5) C

Q27. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ? (1) C & E (2) E & F (3) A & E (4) B & E (5) C & F

Verbal : Syllogistic ReasoningVerbal : Syllogistic Reasoning

Q 28-30. In each question below is given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly know facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows; give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows; give answer (3) if either I or II follows; give answer(4) if neither I or II follows; and give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

Q28. Statements : All pencils are bricks. All bricks are bottles.

Conclusions : I. Some bottles are pencils.

II. Some bottles are bricks.

Q29. Statements : All pencils are bricks. All bricks are bottles.

Conclusions : I. All pencils are bottles.

II. All bricks are pencils.

Q30. Statements : Some flowers are petals. Some petals are garlands.

Conclusions : I. Some flowers are garlands

II. No garland is a flower

Q 31-35. In making decisions about important questions it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. A ‘strong’ argument must be both important and directly related to the question. A ‘weak’ argument may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.

Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ and which is ‘weak’. Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong; give answer (2) if only argument II is strong; give answer (3) if either I or II is strong; give answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong and give answer (5) if both I and II are strong.

Q31. Should education up to graduation be made compulsory for all ?

Arguments : I. Yes, it is very desirable. II. No, what is the use ?

Q32. Should smoking be banned ?

Arguments : I. Yes, it has been proved to be a definite health hazard. II. No, what will tobacco growers do ?

Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ and which is ‘weak’. Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong; give answer (2) if only argument II is strong; give answer (3) if either I or II is strong; give answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong and give answer (5) if both I and II are strong.

Q33. Should cutting of trees be banned altogether ? Arguments : I. Yes, it is very much necessary to do so to restore ecological balance. II. No, a total ban would harm timber-based industries.

Q34. Should there be a uniform syllabus for all Universities in India ? Arguments : I. Yes, why not ? II. No, in a vast country like India, variation is

necessary to suit local needs.

Q35. Should India stop missile development ?

Arguments : I. Yes, the U.S.A. desires so. II. No, the nation must always remain up-to-date in its

defense preparedness.

Q 36-40. Below is given a passage followed by several inferences drawn from the facts stated in the passage. Examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Give answer(1) if you think the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given;

Give answer(2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;

Give answer (3) if you think the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false; Give answer(4) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the facts given;

Give answer(5) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

Now read the following passage and the inferences given below it and mark you answers on the answer sheet.

The caffeine in one’s morning coffee or tea may improve the complex reasoningability of extroverts but has the opposite effect on introverts. More than 700people were given caffeine equal to no more than three cups of coffee and thentested on word analogies, sentence completion and identification of antonyms.The researchers believe that the caffeine was beneficial to extroverts in themorning because they take longer to wake up. Introverts are more alert in themorning and become overstimulated by the drug which interferes with theirreasoning power.

Q36. Extroverts do not find caffeine beneficial in the evening.

Q37. Caffeine affects reasoning ability of tea/coffee addicts.

Q38. Caffeine has greater effect early in the morning.

Q39. The adverse effect on the reasoning power of introverts is not

due to caffeine. Q40. Complex reasoning ability is made up of only word

analogies, sentence completion and identification of antonyms.

Q 41-45. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and both the assumptions following it together and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer(1) if only assumption I is implicit; give answer(2) if only II is implicit; give answer(3) if either I or II is implicit; give answer(4) if neither I nor II is implicit and given answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.

Q41. Statement : Govt. has allowed unaided colleges to increase their fees. Assumptions : I. Unaided colleges are in financial difficulties. II. Aided colleges do not need to increase fees.

Q42. Statement : If you have the expertise, we have the job for you. Assumptions : I. You have the expertise. II. We need a person with expertise.

Q43. Statement : Buy Breezy – the fan with ten years’ guarantee. Assumptions : I. People are attracted by longer period of guarantee. II. People want to buy fans.

Give answer(1) if only assumption I is implicit; give answer(2) if only II is implicit; give answer(3) if either I or II is implicit; give answer(4) if neither I nor II is implicit and given answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.

Q44. Statement : The economic condition continues to be critical even after a good harvest season. Assumptions : I. The economic condition was not critical before the harvest season. II. The economic condition can never improve without a good harvest season.

Q45. Statement : Opening a dispensary in Golap is wasteful. Assumptions : I. Inhabitants of Golap never need medical help. II. There is an adequate number of dispensaries in Golap

already.

Q 46-50. In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows; Give answer(1) if only conclusion I follows; give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows; give answer(3) if either I or II follows; give answer(4) if neither I nor II follows and give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

Q46. Statement : Just about everyone in America has been on a diet at one time or another and millions of them have learnt that the weight they lose is all too easily regained. Still despite their frustration, few question the wisdom of dieting.

Conclusions : I. Americans should stop dieting. II. Americans do not learn from experience.

Q47. Statement : Of the nine mountaineers caught in the snowstorm, eight managed to return to the base camp. Mangal has not yet returned after four

days.

Conclusions : I. Mangal got killed in the storm. II. Mangal has survived in the storm.

Give answer(1) if only conclusion I follows; give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows; give answer(3) if either I or II follows; give answer(4) if neither I nor II follows and give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

Q48. Statement : The average number of persons per household is 5 in urban areas whereas it is 7 in rural areas. The national average is 6. Conclusions : I. The population per unit area in the rural areas is higher than in the urban areas. II. More persons live in the same household in the rural areas as compared to urban areas.

Q49. Statement : Now you don’t need an import license to own a personal computer.

Conclusions : I. Personal Computers are now manufactured indigenously. II. Personal Computers are now freely permitted to be imported.

Q50. Statement : A study of central finance reveals a near boom in revenues. However, this has been of little avail owing to soaring and mostly non-productive expenditures. In the event, there has been a high dose of deficit financing, leading to

marked rise in prices. Large financial outlays year after year have had little impact on unemployment or levels of living. Conclusions : I. A boom in revenues leads to rise in prices. II. Large financial outlays should be avoided.

Verbal : Data SufficiencyVerbal : Data Sufficiency

Q51-55.Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II

given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and ---

Give answer (1) – if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) – if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) – if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) – if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) – if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q51. How many sisters does Seeta have ?

I. Her parents have four surviving children.

II. She has twice as many brothers as sisters.


Q52. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?

I. The month begins on Tuesday.

II. The month ends on Wednesday.

Q53. If A takes 16 days to count the books in a Library, how long would B take to count them ?

I. A counts twice as fast as B.

II. There are 10,000 books in a Library.







Q54. What will be the total age of A and B eight years from now ?

I. A is 20 years old today.

II. B is older than A.

Q55. In a test, students received grades A’s, B’s, C’s, D’s or E’s. If 20% of them received A’s or B’s and 60% received C’s or D’s how many students received E’s ?

I. 50 students received A’s or B’s

II. There were in all 250 students in the class.






DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION TABLE - ITABLE - I

Q 56-60. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it:- Number of five types of cars produced and rejected (for defects) by a Company over the 6 year

period (in thousands)

Car

Year

A B C D EProduced Rejected Produced Rejected Produced Rejected Produced Rejected Produced Rejected

1997 20 2 50 3 15 0.5 80 5 60 4

1998 35 3 45 2 20 0.55 75 4 58 4

1999 15 0.5 40 2.5 17 0.75 58 2 62 3.5

2000 25 0.25 42 2.3 25 1.5 65 3 40 1.5

2001 30 1.5 48 2.5 30 2.0 68 3 45 2

2002 27 1.5 41 2.1 26 1.75 72 3.5 50 2.5Q 56. In the case of B type car in which year was the ratio of rejection to production the

highest among the given years ?(1) 1997 (2) 1998 (3) 1999 (4) 2001 (5) 2002

Q 60. In the year 1998 in the case of which of the following cars was the rejection below five percent ?(1) A (2) B or E (3) B and C (4) C and D (5) None of these

Q58. What was the difference in number of C type cars rejected between 1998 & 1999 ?

(1) 200 (2) 250 (3) 2000 (4) 2500 (5) None of these

Q 59. The acceptable E type cars in 1999 were what percent of that of 1998 ?(1) 8 (2) 106 (3) 110 (4) 5 (5) None of these

Q 57. In the case of E type car in which year was the ratio of rejection to production the lowest among the given years ?

(1) 1998 (2) 1999 (3) 2000 (4) 2001 (5) 2002

Q61. Which year shows 25% increase in the total number of candidates selected over that in the immediate preceding year ?

(1) 2002 (2) 2001 (3) 2000 (4) 1999 (5) None of these

NO. OF CANDIDATES (GIRLS AND BOYS) SELECTED AS POs DURING FIVE-YEAR PERIOD

240

450400

600550

300

600

400 400

275

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

1998 1999 2000 2001 2002

NO

.OF

CA

ND

IDA

TES

NO. OF GIRLS

NO. OF BOYS

NO. OF GIRLS 240 450 400 600 550

NO. OF BOYS 300 600 400 400 275

1 2 3 4 5

GRAPH - IQ.61-65.

Q63. What is the annual average number of boys selected during the given period ?

(1) 448 (2) 395 (3) 843 (4) 385 (5) None of these

Q65. Which pair of years has the proportion of boys to girls as 1:2 and 2:3 respectively?

(1) 2001&2002 (2) 1999&2000 (3) 2000&2001 (4) 1998&1999 (5) None of these

Q64. Which year shows the highest proportion of girls in relation to boys selected ?

(1) 1998 (2) 1999 (3) 2000 (4) 2001 (5) None of these

Q62. Which of the given years shows that the girls selected were 100% of the boys selected during the same year ?

(1) 2002 (2) 2001 (3) 2000 (4) 1999 (5) 1998

Q67. The law graduates are approximately what percent of the total of Management and Law graduates together ?

(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 5 (5) 4

62350

78490

112360

16280

48560

12000ARTS

COMMERCE

SCIENCE

ENGINEERING

MANAGEMENT

LAW

GRAPH - IIQ. 66-70.

No of graduates of different disciplines

Q66. The percentage of graduates of which two disciplines together equals (approximately) to the percentage of arts graduates ?

(a) Engineering and Commerce (b) Commerce and Law (c) Law and Management

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) a and also b (5) b and also c

Q70. The engineering graduates form approximately what percent of the science graduates?

(1) 70-72% (2) 30-32% (3) 14-15% (4) 7-8% (5) 12-13%

Q69. The proportion of the total numbers of arts, commerce and science graduates together to that of the total number of other three discipline graduates is ------

(1) 2:5 (2) 5:2 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:5 (5) None of these

Q68. If 75% of the law graduates who had their first basic degree in Arts discipline are added to the number of Arts graduates, what will be the approximate percentage of these arts graduates in relation to the total number of candidates ?

(1) 15 (2) 19 (3) 22 (4) 25 (5) 30

Q71-75 Study the following table and answer the questions given below it :-

Monthly Earnings (In Rs) of 5 workers

MonthWorker

January February March April May June

A 740 850 560 800 460 700

B 690 790 760 800 850 900

C 620 780 800 910 940 1000

D 780 1040 980 1060 980 1200

E 860 900 880 1000 970 1000

TOTAL 3690 4360 3980 4570 4200 4800

TABLE - II

Q.71. In the month of March the earnings of which worker was approximately equal to the

average earnings of five workers in that month ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Q.72. In which of the following months was the difference between the highest and the lowest earning by any worker maximum ? (1)February (2) March (3) April (4)May (5) June

Q.73. In the month of April the earnings of worker E was approximately what percent of the worker C? (1) 110 (2) 90 (3) 85 (4) 95 (5) 10

Q.74. In which month did the earning of worker A show the highest percentage increase over that in the preceding month ? (1) February (2) march (3) April (4) May (5)June

Q.75. Which worker’s earnings are increasing every month ? (1) E (2)D (3) C (4) B (5) None

Test of English LanguageTest of English Language( Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.)( Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.)

Spotting error Fill in the blanks Sentence correction Suppressed-words passage Comprehension of passage Rearrangement of sentences Mis-spelt/inappropriate word

Spotting ErrorSpotting Error

Read the sentence to identify error Wrong tense Wrong sequence of tenses Subject-verb disagreement Wrong sequence of words Wrong use of adverb/adjective

Spotting Error (Contd. )Spotting Error (Contd. )

Q77. He could not succeed only/ after toiling/ very hard over a / long period of time. No error

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q 76 – 83. Each sentence is divided into four parts numbered as (1), (2), (3) & (4). One of them may have an error. The error, if any, may be only in one part. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. No Error. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q76. He was not/ able to vote/ in the coming election because/ he will not be 18 by that time. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q78. I was just going / to start my car / when I found that/ there is no petrol in it. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q81. In case you apologize/ for having / broke your promise, / I shall forgive you. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q80. This is one/ of the most remarkable stories/ that has ever / been told so far. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q79. Unless you don’t/ have a strong desire/ to attain success, you / won’t be able to gain it. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q82. How does he earn / money is more important / than how much / money he earns. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q83. Both of my children,/ a daughter and a son / always quarrel/ with one another. No error (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Sentence CorrectionSentence Correction

Q84-93. Which of the words/phrases (1), (2), (3) & (4) given below should replace word/ phrase underlined in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.

Q84. You are already as well acquainted with these affairs as I am. (1) known (2) as acquainted (3) settled (4) enlightened (5) No correction required

Q85. Unlike other people, I like him not because he is handsome but that he is virtuous.

(1) because his (2) because of his (3) because he is

(4) also (5) No correction required

Q86. Bad movies affect people living in today’s society more than they did in previous years.

(1) they had done (2) they did those (3) they had been done

(4) they would have done (5) No correction required

Sentence CorrectionSentence Correction

Q87. You may appoint whoever you think can do this job efficiently.(1)whomever you think (2)anybody you thought (3)anybody who thinks

(4)whomsoever you think (5) No correction required

Q88.The reason he has been so fat is because he never takes exercise. (1) that he has never taken (2) that he would never take (3) that he never takes (4) because he didn’t ever take any (5) No correction required

Q89. All over Russia, Indian films are more popular than those in any other country.

(1) in (2) that of (3) those of (4) that in (5) No correction required

Sentence CorrectionSentence CorrectionQ90. In which newspaper the Prime Minister’s speech appeared ? (1) did the Prime Minister’s speech appear?

(2) the Prime Minister’s speech was appeared ? (3) the Prime Minister’s speech did appear ? (4) had the Prime Minister’s speech appear ? (5) No correction required.

Q91. The weather was rather worse than I had expected. (1) worst than I had expected (2) the worst than I expected (3) worse than I expect (4) worse than I am expecting (5 ) No correction required

Q92. I like him not because he is handsome, but that he is virtuous. (1) because of (2) by virtue of (3) because (4) as long as (5) No correction required

Q93. Had you come in time, we would have included you in the team. (1) You had come (2) Had you been come (3) If you would come (4) Had you came (5) No correction required.

Fill In The BlanksFill In The Blanks

Q. 94-98 : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete it meaningfully.

Q94. Raja went on foot, but he ---------- have gone by bus to reach on time. (1) would (2) should (3) must (4) may (5) might

Q95. Can we say wealth makes people happy when we see a lot of---- people unhappy ? (1) virtuous (2) generous (3) poor (4) wicked (5) rich

Q96. The president will be provided---- all the facilities he is entitled to. (1) by (2) for (3) at (4) with (5) freely

Q97. The patient’s health improved------ the wrong diagnosis. (1) due to (2) because of (3) despite of (4) although (5) in spite of

Q98. The Banks should try to ---- their profitability. (1) magnify (2) enhance (3) improvement (4) intensify (5) increasing

Mis-spelt / Inappropriate wordsMis-spelt / Inappropriate words

Q 99-100.

Instructions : In the sentence below, four words which are printed in bold have been numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of them may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if there is any. The number of that word is the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) as the answer i.e. All correct.

Q99. He boasted that he would succed in the activity despite his lack of experience. All Correct

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q100. Due to exorbitant rise in prizes of essential commodities, people find it difficult to save.All correct.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Suppressed - Words PassageSuppressed - Words Passage

In the following passage there are blanks.They are serially numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each,FIVE words are suggested. One of these five words fits best in the blank to make the sentence complete in the CONTEXT OF THE WHOLE PASSAGE. Find out the appropriate words.

Q 101- 105.

Suppressed - Words Passage (Contd.)Suppressed - Words Passage (Contd.)

Women have (101) been held in high esteem in our country. During the Vedic era, they (102) important positions in social and religious (103). Without women, a

religious ceremony was (104) invalid. Our mythological and philosophical writings bear witness to the fact that the tradition of having high regard for women was long (105).

101. (1) never (2) seldom (3) hardly (4) perhaps (5) always.

102. (1) offered (2) occupied (3) protected (4) demanded (5) denied

103. (1) life (2) books (3) nature (4) minds (5) hymns

104. (1) made (2) never (3) considered (4) partly (5) performed

105. (1) awaited (2) withdrawn (3) maintained (4) discontinued (5) drawn

Comprehension of PassageComprehension of Passage

The focus of comprehension of passage is on assessing your ability to :-

1. Understand what is stated and what is implied

2. Analyse and apply information and concepts presented

3. Understand the logical relationship between the points and concepts

4. Draw inferences from the facts and statements

5. Apply the inferences to situations wherever required.

Passage (English) with QuestionsPassage (English) with Questions

Q 106-110. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

Since there are a large number of Voluntary Organizations in the country, which have taken up handicrafts as an income generating activity for poor women, a few voluntary agencies, conducting training programmes for imparting business skills to voluntary workers, may not be sufficient. It would be better if the Government looks into this aspect. The days when the Government of India did not pay much serious attention to voluntary agencies are over.

Q.106. What does the author expect the government to do ?

(1) To act as a voluntary organization

(2) To generate income for poor women

(3) To impart training to voluntary workers

(4) To pay much serious attention

(5) None of these

Q.107. It can be inferred that the Government of India has now --

(1) started taking reasonably good care of voluntary agencies

(2) stopped encouraging voluntary agencies

(3) increased rates of handicraft items to earn more income

(4) decided to pay less serious attention to uplift the poor

(5) None of these

Passage (English) with QuestionsPassage (English) with Questions

Q 106-110. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

Since there are a large number of Voluntary Organizations in the country, which have taken up handicrafts as an income generating activity for poor women, a few voluntary agencies, conducting training programmes for imparting business skills to voluntary workers, may not be sufficient. It would be better if the Government looks into this aspect. The days when the Government of India did not pay much serious attention to voluntary agencies are over.

Q.108. Which activities do the poor woman do to earn income ?

(1) Imparting training (2) Preparing handicraft items

(3) Developing business skills (4) Working as volunteers

(5) None of these

Q.109. Which of the following is OPPOSITE of the phrase “looks into” as used in the passage ?

(1) looks out (2) looks over (3) emphasis

(4) ignores (5) disengages

Q.110. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as “taken up” as used in the first

sentence ?

(1) accepted (2) encouraged (3) obtained

(4) earned (5) started

Rearrangement of SentencesRearrangement of Sentences

Q. 111-113. Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D, E in the proper sequence so as to

form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below:-

(A) Therefore large scale construction programme needs to be launched. (B) Construction has not kept pace with it and the shortage of accommodation has been accentuated. (C) But high cost of materials and labour makes housing an unprofitable proposition. (D) The census figures show that the population of our cities has increased immensely in the recent years. (E) This shortage must be overcome in a reasonably short time.

Q 111. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Q 112. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Q 113. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

General Awareness / Marketing / ComputersGeneral Awareness / Marketing / Computers

Q.114 Which on the following is the objective of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme ?

(1) It gives a guarantee of 100 days of wage employment in every district (2) It gives a guarantee of 100 days of wage employment in every

financial year to every rural household in select districts (3) It gives a guarantee of 200 days of wage employment in every

financial year to every rural household in select districts (4) It gives a guarantee of 100 days of wage employment in every

financial year to every rural household in backward districts (5) None of these

Q.115 Which of the following is the objective of the National programme of Mid-day Meals in school ?

(1) To improve the attendance of children in school (2) To improve nutrition among children (3) To enhance enrollment of children in schools (4) To enhance enrollment, retention and attendance , while improving nutrition

among children in rural areas only (5) To enhance enrollment, retention and attendance , while improving nutrition

among children

Q.116 The United States Patent Office has given a patent to a Texan Company for selling some varieties of ________

(1) Basmati Rice (2) Turmeric (3) Papaya (4) Neem (5 Grapes

Q.117 Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India ?

(1) Energy(2) Tourism(3) Service(4) Transport(5) Agriculture

Q.118 Which one of the following is the objective of new scheme “Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana ?

(1) For integrated development of rural areas (2) For integrated development of villages in backward districts (3) For integrated development of villages where the population of scheduled

caste is above 30 percent (4)For integrated development of villages where the population of scheduled caste

is above 50 percent (5)None of these

Q 119. For which of the following amounts of premium paid by buyers of life insurance policies, PAN is needed ?

(1) Rs.50,000 and above as per directive issued by IT department (2) Rs.50,000 and above as per directive issued by the Insurance Regulator (3) Rs. 1 Lac and above as per directive issued by IT department (4) Rs. 1 Lac and above as per directive issued by Insurance Regulator (5) None of these

Q.120. Which one of the following aspects are taken into account in a nationwide survey known as ‘labour budgeting’ ?

(1) The number of poor families in every village only (2) The prevailing wages, material cost in creating the projects only (3) The administration’s track record in executing the projects only (4) Only (1) & (2) (5) All (1), (2) & (3)

Q.121. Which one of the following is the target of the Government in bringing down the fiscal deficit ?

(1) 5.5 percent by 2010-11 and 4.5 percent by2011-2012 (2) 5.5 percent by 2010-11 and 5.0 percent by2011-2012 (3) 5.5 percent by 2010-11 and 4.0 percent by2011-2012 (4) 5.5 percent by 2010-11 and 2.75percent by2011-2012 (5) None of these

Q.122 Expand the term GST ? (1) Goods and Sales Tariff (2) Goods and Sales Tax (3) Goods and Services Tariff (4) Goods and Services Tax (5) None of these

Q.123 To raise money to combat the global economic slump, which one of the following decisions has been taken by IMF ?

(1) It has decided to allot more SDRs (2) It has decided to sell bonds to raise “crisis” funds (3) It has decided to borrow from the G-8 countries (4) It has decided to raise contributions by the member countries (5) None of these

Q.124 Which one of the following predictions has been made in Economic Survey about GDP growth ?

(1) GDP growth will be as high as 8.0 percent in 2009-2010 only (2) GDP growth will be as high as 7.5 percent in 2009-2010,if the global economy

turns up by Autumn (3) GDP growth will be as high as 8.5 percent in 2009-2010 only (4) GDP growth will be as high as 8.5 percent in 2009-2010 if the global economy

turns up by Autumn (5) None of these

Q.125 Expand the term IDR ?(1) International Depository Receipts (2) Indian Depository Receipts

(3) Institutional Depository Receipts (4) Institutional Deposit Receipts

(5) None of these

Q.128 If marketers believe customers prefer products that are widely available and inexpensive, then they are following the –

(1) selling concept (2) product concept (3) production concept (4) mass concept (5) None of these

Q.129 Which of the following promotion activities will help in boosting repurchase ? (1)In-pack coupon (2) Mailed coupon (3) Free trial (4) Percentage off on buying (5) None of these

Q.130 Demand is more inelastic in – (1) business markets (2) retail markets (3) goods markets (4) service markets (5) None of these

Q.131 Intermediaries between producers and companies are called – (1) channels (2) agents (3) sellers (4) marketers (5) None of these

Q.132 A ‘Call’ means – (1) profession (2) visiting people (3) shout out to people (4) visiting prospective customers (5) None of these

Q.133 Niche market means – (1) a Fish market (2) a New market (3) a Garment market (4) a Foreign market (5) None of these

Q.134 To make a notebook act as a desktop model, the notebook can be connected to a ______ which is connected to a monitor and other devices.

(1) bay (2) docking station (3) port (4) network (5) None of these Q.135 The ability to find an individual item in a file immediately _______ is used. (1) file allocation table (2) director (3) sequential access

(4) direct access (5) None of these

Q.136 The most important or powerful computer in a typical network is ________ (1) desktop (2) network client (3) network server (4) network station (5) None of these

Q.137 You can use the tab key to __________ (1) move a cursor across the screen (2) indent a paragraph

(3) move a cursor down the screen (4) only (1) and (2) (5) None of these

Q.138 What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste – (1) File (2) Tools (3) Special (4) Edit (5) None of these

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