d 3 c 1 Exam Study Guide Student

Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise

1. Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27? a. 0.0.0.32 b. 0.0.0.63 c. 0.0.63.255 d. 0.0.0.31

This item references 8.2.1 ACL Wildcard Mask Purpose and Structure 2. Refer to the exhibit. The new

security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?

a. access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

b. access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www access-list 165 permit ip any any

c. access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

d. access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any access-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs

3. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts from 172.19.123.0 are not allowed access to 192.0.2.0 but should be able to

access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic outbound on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security? a. access-list 142 deny ip 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 142 permit ip any any b. access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 56 permit any c. access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0

0.0.0.0access-list 61 permit any

d. access-list 87 deny 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255access-list 87 permit any This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of traffic that is entering the

network from the ISP. The administrator clears the counters. After a few minutes, the administrator again checks the access-list table. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? a. A small amount of HTTP traffic

is an indication that the web server was not configured correctly. b. A larger amount of POP3 traffic, compared with SMTP traffic, indicates that there are more POP3 e-mail

clients than SMTP clients in the enterprise. c. A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be an indication of a DoS

attack. d. A larger amount of e-mail traffic, compared with web traffic, is an indication that attackers mainly

targeted the e-mail server. This item references 8.3.3 Configuring Numbered Standard ACLs

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network

administrator needs to add the command deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log to R3. After adding the command, the administrator verifies the change using the show access-list command. What sequence number does the new entry have?

a. 0 b. 10, and all other items are shifted down to the next sequence number c. 50 d. 60 This item references 8.3.5 Configuring Named ACLs

6. A security administrator wants to secure password exchanges on the vty lines on all routers in the

enterprise. What option should be implemented to ensure that passwords are not sent in clear text across the public network?

a. Use Telnet with an authentication server to ensure effective authentication. b. Apply an access list on the router interfaces to allow only authorized computers. c. Apply an access list on the vty line to allow only authorized computers. d. Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines.

This item references 8.3.6 Configure Router VTY Access 7. What is the best option an administrator can choose to ensure that ICMP DoS attacks from the outside are

contained as much as possible, without restricting connectivity tests initiated from the inside out? a. Create an access list that permits only echo reply and destination unreachable packets from the

outside. b. Create an access list that denies all TCP traffic coming from the outside. c. Permit TCP traffic from only known external sources. d. Create an access list with the established keyword at the end of the line.

This item references 8.4.2 Configuring ACLs to Support Established Traffic

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8. Traffic from the 64.104.48.0 to 64.104.63.255 range must be denied access to the network. What wildcard mask would the network administrator configure in the access list to cover this range?

a. 0.0.15.255 b. 0.0.47.255 c. 0.0.63.255 d. 255.255.240.0

This item references 8.2.2 Analyzing the Effects of the Wildcard Mask 9. A network administrator enters the following commands on router RTB.

RTB(config)# access-list 4 deny 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.15 RTB(config)# access-list 4 permit any RTB(config)# interface serial 0/0/0 RTB(config-if)# ip access-group 4 in

Which addresses are blocked from entering RTB? a. 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.31 b. 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31 c. 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.32 d. 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.32

This item references 8.2.2 Analyzing the Effects of the Wildcard Mask

10. Why are inbound ACLs more efficient for the router than outbound ACLs? a. Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required. b. Inbound ACL operation requires less network bandwidth than outbound. c. Inbound ACLs permit or deny packets to LANs, which are typically more efficient than WANs. d. Inbound ACLs are applied to Ethernet interfaces, while outbound ACLs are applied to slower serial interfaces.

This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs 11. Refer to the exhibit. The network

administrator of a company needs to configure the router RTA to allow its business partner (Partner A) to access the web server located in the internal network. The web server is assigned a private IP address, and a static NAT is configured on the router for its public IP address. Finally, the administrator adds the ACL. However, Partner A is denied access to the web server. What is the cause of the problem? a. Port 80 should be specified in the ACL. b. The public IP address of the server, 209.165.201.5, should be specified as the destination. c. The ACL should be applied on the s0/0 outbound interface. d. The source address should be specified as 198.133.219.0 255.255.255.0 in the ACL.

This item references 8.4.3 Effects of NAT and PAT on ACL Placement 12. ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?

a. unstable network

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b. warning c. informational d. critical situation

This item references 8.5.1 Using Logging to Verify ACL Functionality 13. Refer to the exhibit. Company policy for the network that is shown indicates the following guidelines:

1) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network, except host 192.168.3.77, should be able to reach the 192.168.2.0/24 network.2) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network should be able to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. 3) All other traffic originating from the 192.168.3.0 network should be denied.

Which set of ACL statements meets the stated requirements when they are applied to the Fa0/0 interface of router R2 in the inbound direction?

a. access-list 101 deny ip any any access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

b. access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

c. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

d. access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip any any

e. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs, 8.3.4 Configuring Numbered Extended ACLs

14. Which ACL statement permits host 10.220.158.10 access to the web server 192.168.3.224?

a. access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.220.158.10 eq 80 host 192.168.3.224 b. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80 c. access-list 101 permit host 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80 d. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80

This item references 8.4.1 Configuring ACLs for Application and Port Filtering 15. Which two statements are true about standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)

a. Extended ACLs filter only on source addresses and must be placed near the destination address.

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b. Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination. c. Standard ACLs are used when filtering complex requirements, such as specific protocols. d. Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and are placed near the source address to reduce traffic

across the network. e. Properly designed ACLs have a negative impact on network availability and performance.

This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs

16. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the exhibited commands when an ACL named Managers already exists on the router? a. The new commands overwrite the current Managers ACL. b. The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL. c. The new commands are added to the beginning of the current Managers ACL. d. An error appears stating that the ACL already exists.

This item references 8.3.5 Configuring Named ACLs 17. What effect does the command reload in 30 have when entered into a router?

a. If a router process freezes, the router reloads automatically. b. If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where an ACL is applied, the router

reloads in 30 minutes. c. If a remote connection lasts for longer than 30 minutes, the router forces the remote user off. d. A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes.

This item references 8.5.3 ACL Best Practices 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two host addresses from the 172.16.31.64/27 subnet are able to telnet into the

router to make configuration changes? (Choose two.) a. 172.16.31.33 b. 172.16.31.64 c. 172.16.31.77 d. 172.16.31.92 e. 172.16.31.95 f. 172.16.31.96

This item references 8.3.6 Configure Router VTY Access 19. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.)

a. specifying source addresses for authentication b. specifying internal hosts for NAT c. identifying traffic for QoS d. reorganizing traffic into VLANs e. filtering VTP packets

This item references 8.1.2 Access Control Lists

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure an access list that will allow the management host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to be the only host to remotely access and configure

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router RTA. All vty and enable passwords are configured on the router. Which group of commands will accomplish this task?

a. Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any Router(config)# int s0/0Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in Router(config-if)# int fa0/0 Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in

b. Router(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet Router(config)# access-list 10 deny any Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)#access-group 10 in

c. Router(config)# access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25 Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# access-class 86 in

d. Router(config)# access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet Router(config)# access-list 125 deny ip any any Router(config)# int s0/0 Router(config-if)# ip access-group 125 in This item references, 8.3.3 Configuring Numbered Standard ACLs, 8.3.4 Configuring Numbered Extended ACLs, 8.3.6 Configure Router VTY Access

21. What are two possible uses of access control lists in an enterprise network? (Choose two.) a. limiting debug outputs b. reducing the processing load on routers c. allowing Layer 2 traffic to be filtered by a router d. controlling virtual terminal access to routers e. controlling the physical status of router interfaces

This item references 8.1.2 Access Control Lists

22. Refer to the exhibit. The access list has been applied inbound to interface S0/0/0 on R2. Which two traffic types will reach the server?(Choose two.)

a. IP traffic from host 10.1.1.20

b. web traffic from HostA c. IP traffic from host

192.168.1.1 d. UDP traffic from network

10.1.2.0 e. HTTP traffic from network

10.1.1.0 This item references 8.4.4 Analyzing Network ACLs and Placement

23. If the established keyword is appended to a line in an extended ACL, what will determine if packets are sent between the source and destination specified by the line?

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a. if authentication is enabled via CHAP b. if MD5 encryption algorithm is in effect c. if a TCP three-way handshake was successfully completed d. if HTML packets are specifically allowed within the ACL

This item references 8.4.2 Configuring ACLs to Support Established Traffic

1. Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP? a. to establish and terminate data links b. to provide authentication capabilities to PPP c. to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link d. to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP

2. What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard? a. 44 kb/s b. 64 kb/s c. 1.544 Mb/s d. 44.736 Mb/s

This item references 7.1.1 WAN Devices and Technology 3. In which two layers of the OSI model are key differences found between a LAN and a WAN. (Choose two.)

a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 e. Layer 6 f. Layer 7

This item references 7.1.2 WAN Standards 4. Which statement is true about the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol?

a. It supports authentication. b. It has a universally compatible frame format. c. It is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers. d. It does not support multiple protocols across

a single link. This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has a

connectivity problem between the serial interfaces of Merida and Vargas. What is the cause of the problem? a. Authentication is required on the serial link. b. The encapsulation is misconfigured. c. The IP addresses are on different subnets. d. The serial interface on Vargas is shutdown.

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e. The loopback interfaces on both routers are not configured. This item references 7.2.3 Configuring PPP

6. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the exhibited output?

a. LCP is in the process of negotiating a link. b. LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication

to complete. c. LCP negotiation has completed successfully, but

NCP negotiation is in progress. d. LCP and NCP negotiation is complete, and the

data link service is available to carry packets. This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP

7. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.) a. It is responsible for negotiating link establishment. b. It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP. c. It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters. d. It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer. e. It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link. f. It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.

This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP 8. Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?

a. Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand. b. The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits. c. There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier. d. The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive links for a specific Frame

Relay connection. This item references 7.3.2 Frame Relay Functionality

9. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

a. an address identifying a virtual circuit b. a logical address identifying the DCE device c. an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network d. a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch

This item references 7.3.2 Frame Relay Functionality 10. What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses

in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) a. ARP b. ICMP c. Proxy ARP d. Inverse ARP e. LMI status messages

This item references 7.3.2 Frame Relay Functionality 11. Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards to the OSI model?

(Choose three.) a. operates at all layers of the OSI model

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b. provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols c. can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces d. uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices e. uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression f. uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between devices

This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP 12. At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the user to the service

provider? a. demilitarized zone (DMZ) b. demarcation point c. local loop d. cloud This item references 7.1.1 WAN Devices and Technology

13. What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion? a. FECN b. BECN c. DE d. FCS This item references 7.3.2 Frame Relay Functionality

14. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output? a. R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP. b. The routers have different CHAP passwords configured. c. The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during negotiation. d. The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.

This item references 7.2.5 Configuring PAP and CHAP 15. Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

a. Multiple data streams share one common channel. b. Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices. c. Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis. d. Time slots go unused if a sender has nothing to transmit. e. Priority can be dedicated to one data source.

This item references 7.1.3 Accessing the WAN 16. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone

number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use? a. leased line b. point-to-point

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c. circuit switched d. packet switched

This item references 7.1.4 Packet and Circuit Switching

17. Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)? a. serves as data source and/or destination b. responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements c. physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers d. equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal

This item references 7.1.1 WAN Devices and Technology

18. Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which option for WAN connectivity? a. leased line b. cell switching c. packet switching d. circuit switching

This item references 7.1.4 Packet and Circuit Switching 19. Which field of a frame uses error detection mechanisms to verify that the frame is not damaged in transit?

a. FCS b. MTU c. flag d. control e. protocol

This item references 7.2.1 Ethernet and WAN Encapsulations 20. What occurs in the encapsulation process as a data packet moves from a LAN across a WAN?

a. The Layer 2 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology. b. The Layer 3 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology. c. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation change to a technology that is appropriate for the WAN. d. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation remain constant as the data packet travels throughout the network.

This item references 7.2.1 Ethernet and WAN Encapsulations 21. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring

R1 to connect to R2, which is a non-Cisco router. Which encapsulation method will need to be configured for communication to occur?

a. HDLC b. HSSI c. ISDN d. IPCP e. PPP

This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP 22. A company is implementing dialup services for remote workers to connect to the local network. The

company uses multiple Layer 3 protocols and requires authentication for security. Which protocol should be used for this remote access?

a. LMI b. PPP

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c. HDLC d. Frame Relay

This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP 23. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

a. compression b. authentication c. dynamic flow control d. network layer address for IP e. connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods

This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP 24. What statement best describes cell switching?

a. It uses a dedicated path between endpoints. b. It creates a permanent physical link between two points. c. It uses DLCIs to identify virtual circuits. d. It creates fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits.

This item references 7.1.4 Packet and Circuit Switching 1. What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information?

a. designated routers b. a backup designated router c. neighbor adjacencies d. an NBMA network topology e. links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies 2. If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by each router in the same OSPF

area? a. Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information. b. Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position within the network. c. The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by each router in the area as

needed. d. The link-state database in each router only contains information about adjacent routers and the status

of their links. This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies

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3. Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration, what is most likely the problem?

a. RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down. b. The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB. c. The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network. d. The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network statement.

This item references 6.2.1 Configuring Basic OSPF in a Single Area

4. What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vector protocols with regard to route calculation? a. Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add to them. Link-state

protocols independently calculate full routes. b. Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in their associated areas, and

distance vector protocols do not. c. When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all route computations.

Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning. d. Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations than link-state protocols

require. This item references 6.1.1 Link-State Protocol Operation

5. Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

a. All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when converged. b. Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL). c. Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table. d. Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs. e. Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the SPF algorithm.

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This item references 6.1.1 Link-State Protocol Operation; 6.1.2 OSPF Metrics and Convergence 6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator

would like only the 172.16.32.0 network advertised to Router1. Which OSPF network command accomplishes this? a. Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0

0.0.0.15 area 0 b. Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0

0.0.15.255 area 0 c. Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 d. Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

This item references 6.2.1 Configuring Basic OSPF in a Single Area 7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, and C are

part of the existing OSPF network. Router D has been added to the network. All routers are running OSPF and have the indicated priorities applied to the interface. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after router D is added to the existing network? a. An election is forced and router D wins

the DR election. b. The DR and BDR do not change until the

next election. c. An election is forced and the existing

BDR becomes the DR. d. The router with the highest router ID

becomes the new BDR. This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise8. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is entered into the router.

Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in addition to network 10.16.1.64/27? a. The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks. b. The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for 10.16.1.64/27. c. The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes. d. The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27 network.

This item references 6.3.4 Using Multiple Protocols in the Enterprise 9. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

a. Elections are always optional. b. Elections are required in all WAN networks. c. Elections are required in point-to-point networks. d. Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks. e. Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.

This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies 10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router will

be elected the DR and which will become the BDR? a. R1 will be DR and R2 will be BDR. b. R1 will be DR and R3 will be BDR. c. R2 will be DR and R1 will be BDR. d. R2 will be DR and R3 will be BDR. e. R3 will be DR and R2 will be BDR. f. R3 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.

This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies

11. Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections? a. A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added. b. The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR. c. The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0. d. The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default priority values are used.


12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the

purpose of the configuration commands added on router B? a. allows router A to form an

adjacency with router B b. provides a stable OSPF router

ID on router B

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c. provides a method of testing router traffic d. creates the OSPF adjacency table on router B

This item references 6.2.3 Tuning OSPF Parameters 13. Refer to the exhibit. When establishing adjacency

relationships, which IP address would router A use to send hello packets to router B? a. 10.11.0.1 b. 10.11.0.2 c. 10.11.0.255 d. 224.0.0.5 e. 255.255.255.255

This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies 14. Refer to the exhibit. What

statement describes the DR/BDR relationship of the HQ router? a. HQ is the DR. b. HQ is the BDR. c. HQ is a DROTHER. d. HQ is a member of an NBMA network.

This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies; 6.2.4 Verifying OSPF Operation

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement

configures the home router to allow all the interfaces to participate in OSPF? a. network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0 b. network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 c. network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0 d. network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 e. network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0 This item references 6.2.1 Configuring Basic OSPF in a Single Area

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which commands configure

router A for OSPF? a. router ospf 1

network 192.168.10.0 b. router ospf 1

network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

c. router ospf 1network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

d. router ospf 1network 192.168.10.0 area 0 This item references 6.2.2 Configuring OSPF Authentication

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise17. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol?

(Choose two.) a. The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table. b. Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database. c. Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected. d. After the initial LSA flooding, routers require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology. e. A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.

This item references 6.1.1 Link-State Protocol Operation; 6.1.2 OSPF Metrics and Convergence 18. What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the command

Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0? a. 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24 b. 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24 c. 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24 d. 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24 e. 192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

This item references 6.2.1 Configuring Basic OSPF in a Single Area 19. Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint environments? (Choose two.)

a. A DR is not elected. b. The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link. c. OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined. d. The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess. e. The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.


20. Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined? a. Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements. b. A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2. c. The default-information originate command is applied on R1. d. The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2.

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e. The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2. This item references 6.3.1 Configuring and Propagating a Default Route

21. Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become adjacent neighbors.

Although it appears that the two systems are communicating, neither of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What could be responsible for this situation?

a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.a.

R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet. b. The Process IDs on each router do not match. c. The timer intervals on the routers do not match. d. The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.

This item references 6.2.4 Verifying OSPF Operation 22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?

a. It is the OSPF cost metric. b. It is the OSPF administrative

distance. c. It is the value assigned by the

Dijkstra algorithm that designates the distance in hops to the network.

d. It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the metric. This item references 6.2.3 Tuning OSPF Parameters; 6.2.4 Verifying OSPF Operation

23. When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the hierarchical design approach

that is used in large OSPF networks? a. simpler configuration b. reduction of router processing requirements c. isolation of network instability

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d. less complex network planning This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies

24. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network has converged. If all

router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF view as lowest cost when moving frames from Host3 to Host1? a. R3 to R4 to R1 b. R3 to R1 c. R3 to R2 to R1 d. R3 to R5 to R2 to R1

This item references 6.1.2 OSPF Metrics and Convergence

1. Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?

a. DUAL b. IP c. PDM d. RTP e. TCP f. UDP

This item references 5.3.4 EIGRP Neighbors and Adjacencies 2. What does a router that is running RIP use to determine the best path to take when forwarding

data? a. the host portion of the network address b. the speed of network convergence c. the calculated metric for the destination network d. the number of broadcasts occurring on an interface e. the number of errors occurring on an interface

This item references 5.2.2 Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 3. What is the purpose of the network command when RIP is being configured as the routing

protocol? a. It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router. b. It restricts networks from being used for static routes. c. It identifies all of the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing

table. d. It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.

This item references 5.2.3 Configuring RIPv2 4. A network administrator issues the command show ip route and observes this line of output:

192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0

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What two pieces of information can be obtained from the output? (Choose two.) a. RIP is the routing protocol that is configured. b. This is a static route to network 192.168.3.0. c. The metric for this route is 2. d. The next periodic update is in 5 seconds. e. The autonomous system number is 120.

This item references 5.2.5 Verifying RIP 5. How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default?

a. every 30 seconds b. every 45 seconds c. every 60 seconds d. every 90 seconds

This item references 5.2.2 Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 6. What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)

a. EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm. b. EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key. c. EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key chain name. d. EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data exchanged between routers. e. EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates from this router are

protected; whereas a neighbor router can be without the authentication configuration and its updates are unprotected. This item references 5.4.1 Configuring EIGRP

7. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions

can be determined based on the exhibited commands? (Choose three.) a. A link-state routing protocol is used. b. A distance vector routing protocol is used. c. Routing information updates are broadcast every 30 seconds. d. Routing information updates are broadcast every 90 seconds. e. Hop count is the only metric used for route selection. f. Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are metrics that are used for route selection.

This item references 5.2.2 Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 8. What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?

a. 70 b. 90 c. 100 d. 110 e. 120 f. 255

This item references 5.3.2 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise 9. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

a. The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network. b. The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state. c. The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails. d. There is no activity on the route to that network. e. The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

This item references 5.3.4 EIGRP Neighbors and Adjacencies 10. What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised?

a. an increase in network load b. the use of variable length subnet masks c. the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router d. a variation in connection speeds on the links to a destination e. a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of a link

This item references 5.2.2 Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 11. What three statements are true about routers that are configured for EIGRP? (Choose three.)

a. They can support multiple routed protocols. b. They can support only link-state protocols. c. They send their entire topology tables to neighboring routers. d. They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes. e. They send routing updates to all other routers in the network. f. They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

This item references 5.3.2 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing problem. When the show ip route command is entered on RTR-1, only the serial link between RTR-2 and RTR-3 has been learned from the RIP routing protocol. What are two issues? (Choose two.)

a. RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol. b. RIPv1 does not support subnetting. c. The Ethernet networks on RTR-2 and RTR-3 were not entered correctly in the network

statements on these routers. d. RIPv1 does not support VLSM.

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e. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol. This item references 5.2.5 Verifying RIP

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network is configured with RIP routing. Which mechanism prevents R1

from sending an information update about network A to R3? a. poisoned reverse b. split horizon c. holddown timers d. TTL

This item references 5.2.4 Problems with RIP 14. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

a. by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers b. by comparing known routes to information received in updates c. by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers d. by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors e. by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

This item references 5.3.4 EIGRP Neighbors and Adjacencies 15. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

a. when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes b. when a router has more than three active interfaces c. when a network contains discontiguous network addresses d. when a router has less than five active interfaces e. when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

This item references 5.4.2 EIGRP Route Summarization

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output from the show ip protocols

command? a. RIPv2 is configured on this router. b. Auto summarization has been disabled.

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c. The next routing update is due in 17 seconds. d. 192.168.16.1 is the address configured on the local router.

This item references 1.1.1 Supporting the Business Enterprise; 5.2.5 Verifying RIP 17. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured, and automatic summarization has

been disabled on both routers. Which command applied on interface S0/0/0 of router A manually summarizes the networks in EIGRP advertisements to router B? a. ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224 b. ip summary-address eigrp 1

192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 c. ip summary-address 192.168.10.80

0.0.0.31 d. ip summary-address eigrp 1

192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 e. ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.64

255.255.255.224 This item references 5.4.2 EIGRP Route Summarization

18. Refer to exhibit. What two features are true of the exhibited topology? (Choose two.) a. introduces a single point of failure b. is required when no downtime is acceptable c. provides the maximum redundancy available d. provides redundancy to critical areas e. represents an extended star topology f. is used to meet uptime and reliability requirements

while limiting costs This item references 5.1.2 Enterprise Topologies

19. An enterprise network currently uses a star topology to connect the headquarters to four branch

offices. The network administrator wants to make one of the branch offices a centralized connection for three new local offices. What is the resulting topology?

a. full mesh b. partial mesh c. extended star d. topology remains a star

This item references 5.1.2 Enterprise Topologies 20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to

configure a default route on the border router. Which

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command correctly configures a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets? a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.59.5 b. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.59.6 c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1 d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s1/2/1

This item references 5.1.5 Default Routes 21. Refer to the

exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network? a. a child route

that is defined b. a parent route

that is defined and sourced from a physical interface c. a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path d. the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

This item references 5.4.2 EIGRP Route Summarization 22. Which two features of EIGRP are different from RIPv2? (Choose two.)

a. routing metric b. VLSM support c. routing updates d. classless routing e. MD5 authentication method

This item references 5.3.2 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) 23. What is the maximum distance in hops that a remote router can be and still be considered

reachable by RIP? a. 14 hops b. 15 hops c. 16 hops d. 17 hops

This item references 5.3.1 Limitations of RIP

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24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are configured with EIGRP and with default K values. What is the routing path for a packet from network A to reach network B?

a. R1, R2, R5 b. R1, R3, R5 c. R1, R2, R3, R5 d. R1, R2, R4, R5 e. R1, R3, R2, R5 f. R1, R3, R2, R4, R5

This item references5.3.5 EIGRP Metrics and Convergence 1. An employee called the help desk to report a laptop that could not access a web-based application on the

Internet. The help desk technician asked the employee to open a Windows command prompt and type the ipconfig /all command. Which problem-solving technique did the technician choose?

a. top-down b. bottom-up c. substitution d. divide-and-conquer

This item references 9.1.4 Troubleshooting Process 2. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug ppp negotiation command, which statement

is true? a. The line protocol of the

local router is now up. b. The hostname of the

local router is Goleta. c. The command ppp

authentication pap is configured on both routers.

d. The local router requested to terminate the session. This item references 9.4.1 Troubleshooting WAN Connectivity

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise3. Refer to the exhibit. A network

administrator has implemented subnetting using the network 192.168.25.0 and a /28 mask. Workstation 1 is not able to ping with Workstation 2. What is a possible cause for this lack of communication? a. Workstation 1 and Workstation 2 are

on the same subnet. b. The serial connections are using

addresses from the LAN subnets. c. All hosts in the network must be in

the same subnet to communicate. d. Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the RTA router LAN interface is on.

This item references 9.1.2 Monitoring and Proactive Maintenance 4.Refer to the exhibit. A

lab technician connects two routers together via a serial cable using the default interface configuration values. The interfaces are up; however, the technician is unable to ping between the two devices. What is the most likely problem?

a. The lab technician used the wrong cable to connect the serial ports. b. There is an IP mismatch between the serial ports. c. There is an encapsulation mismatch between the serial ports. d. No clock rate has been set on the DCE interface.

This item references 9.4.1 Troubleshooting WAN Connectivity 5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is doing

proactive network maintenance. The administrator pings 192.168.1.100 and compares the results to the baseline data. Based on the comparison of the two pings, what is one possibility? a. There is an ACL applied, making the destination

host unreachable. b. There is a malfunctioning NIC on the destination

host. c. The sending host is unable to access the network. d. There are congestion problems on the network.

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This item references 9.1.2 Monitoring and Proactive Maintenance

6. Refer to the exhibit. Host 192.168.1.14 is

unable to download email from 192.168.2.200. After reviewing the output of the show running-config command, what problem is discovered? a. Access to the SMTP server is denied. b. The destination host address in an ACL

statement is incorrect. c. The ACL is applied to the interface in the

wrong direction. d. The implicit deny any any is blocking all

access to email. This item references 9.5.2 ACL Configuration and Placement Issues

7.

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL is configured to prevent access by network 192.168.1.0 to network 192.168.2.0, but it is not working properly. What problem is discovered after observing the output of the show running-config command? a. The protocol type specified in the ACL should be TCP,

not IP. b. The source and destination addresses are reversed in

the statement. c. The ACL is applied to the wrong interface, but the right

direction. The ACL is applied to the wrong interface and the wrong direction.

d. The permit ip any any statement allows network 192.168.1.0 access. This item references 9.5.2 ACL Configuration and Placement Issues

8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the network

diagram and the output shown, which statement is true? a. The command was entered on router R1. b. The command was entered on router R2. c. The command was entered on router R3. d. The command could have been entered on

either R1 or R2. This item references 9.3.2 EIGRP Issues

9. Refer to the exhibit. ABC Company is using the

172.16.0.0/18 network. It is standard company practice to use the first 50 addresses for switches and servers and assign the last usable address to the router. The remaining addresses are assigned

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to the hosts. After assigning the addresses, the network technician tests connectivity from the host above and is not able to ping the router.What could be the problem? a. The router was assigned the broadcast address. b. The host is not in the same subnet as the switch

and router. c. The router interface is in the wrong subnet. d. The host was assigned a network address.

This item references9.1.1 Enterprise Network Requirements

10. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, why is VTP information unable to propagate the network? a. One of the two client mode switches must be reconfigured to Transparent mode. b. Each switch must be synchronized to the network time server. c. The VTP domain names are

different. d. VTP passwords must be set. e. The configuration revision

numbers are all the same. This item references 9.2.3 Troubleshooting VTP

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, to which IP network should the workstations in the Support department belong?

a. 192.168.1.0 b. 172.16.1.0 c. 172.16.3.0 d. 172.16.5.0

This item references 9.2.2 Troubleshooting VLAN Configuration Issues

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise12. Refer to the exhibit. Users are reporting that they cannot access the Internet. Routers R1 and R2 are

configured with RIP version 2 as shown. If R2 receives a packet with a destination address on the Internet, how is the packet routed? a. The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to network 10.1.1.0/24. b. The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to the Internet. c. The packet is routed to R1

and then forwarded out Fa0/0 on R1.

d. The packet will not be routed because R2 does not have a valid default route. This item 9.3.4 Route Redistribution Issues

13. Refer to the exhibit. The

network administrator is unable to ping from the console of router R3 to host 10.10.4.63. What is the problem? a. RIPv1 does not support

VLSM. b. Router R2 does not have

RIP correctly configured. c. Router R3 is missing a

network statement for network 10.0.0.0.

d. There is an addressing problem on the link between routers R2 and R3.

This item references 9.3.1 RIP Issues 14. What is important to consider

while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

a. The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number. b. The physical interface must have an IP address configured. c. The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet. d. The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

This item references 3.3.3 Identifying VLANs, 9.2.2 Troubleshooting VLAN Configuration Issues 15. A network at a large building failed, causing a severe disruption in business activities. The problem was

eventually detected and resolved by replacing a piece of failed network equipment. Investigation led to the conclusion that a network design problem was the main cause of the disruption. Loss of a single piece of equipment should not have been able to cause such a large problem. What two terms best describe this type of design weakness? (Choose two.)

a. bottleneck b. limited availability c. limited scalability

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d. large failure domain e. single point of failure f. limited staff capabilities

This item references 9.1.3 Troubleshooting and the Failure Domain 16. Which two statements describe when a network administrator should perform a network baseline? (Choose

two.) a. It should be done monthly as a minimum standard. b. It should be performed when all switch Cisco IOS versions are upgraded. c. It should be done when all network printers are upgraded to a new model. d. It should be done when the network is performing at normal activity levels. e. It should be done whenever an SLA has been signed with a new service provider.

This item references 9.1.2 Monitoring and Proactive Maintenance 17. Refer to the exhibit. A network

administrator is troubleshooting a problem. No users are able to access the 10.10.2.0/24 network, but are able to access all other networks. Assuming R3 is configured correctly and based on the output shown, what is most likely the problem? a. There is congestion on the

10.10.2.0 network. b. The EIGRP process number on

R2 is incorrect. c. The Fa0/0 interface on R2 is

shut down. d. The Fa0/0 interface on R2 has

an incorrect IP address or subnet mask. This item references 9.3.2 EIGRP Issues

18. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem? a. Subnetting is not supported by

RIPv1. b. One of the routers needs a clock

rate on the serial interface.

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c. The serial link between the two routers is unstable. d. VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

This item references 9.3.1 RIP Issues 19. The enterprise mail server software recently went through a minor update. A network administrator notices

an excessive amount of traffic between a database server and the newly updated mail server, compared to the baseline data. What is the first action the administrator should do to investigate the problem?

a. Wait to see if the recent update will stabilize after a while. b. Redo the baseline data to include the minor upgrade. c. Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic. d. Check for viruses and spyware on the database server.

This item references 9.1.2 Monitoring and Proactive Maintenance 20. Although all networks are reachable, the network administrator notices abnormal routing behavior after

configuring OSPF on each router. According to the partial output from the debug ip ospf events command, which statement is true about the contents of the routing table in RA? a. It will show

network 172.16.3.0 learned from RB.

b. It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RC.

c. It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.4/30.

d. It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.8/30. This item references 9.3.3 OSPF Issues

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21. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting the connectivity issue between RA and

RB. According to the partial configuration, what is the cause of the problem? a. password mismatch for PPP authentication b. username mismatch for PPP authentication c. encapsulation method mismatch for PPP authentication d. authentication method mismatch for PPP authentication

This item references 9.4.2 Troubleshooting WAN Authentication

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing.

Using the show vlan command, the administrator verifies that port Fast Ethernet 0/4 is the first available port in the default VLAN on SW2. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

a. Port 0/4 is not active. b. Port 0/4 must be a member of VLAN1. c. Port 0/4 is configured in access mode. d. Port 0/4 is configured as a trunk port.

This item references 9.2.2 Troubleshooting VLAN Configuration Issues

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise1. What device is responsible for moving packets to destination networks outside the local network?

a. router b. switch c. IPS device d. IDS device

This item references 2.3.1 Router Hardware 2. Which two items protect a corporate network against malicious attacks at the enterprise edge ? (Choose

two.) a. point of demarcation b. IP security (IPSec) c. Data Service Unit (DSU) d. intrusion prevention system (IPS) e. intrusion detection system (IDS)

This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network 3. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network devices from their

homes. Which two approaches allow this connectivity without increasing vulnerability to external attacks? (Choose two.) a. Configure a special link at the POP to allow external entry from the home computer. b. Set up VPN access between the home computer and the network. c. Install a cable modem in the home to link to the network. d. Configure ACLs on the edge routers that allow only authorized users to access management ports on

network devices. e. Configure a server in the DMZ with a special username and password to allow external access.

This item references 2.2.2 Security Considerations at the Enterprise Edge 4. A DoS attack crippled the daily operations of a large company for 8 hours. Which two options could be

implemented by the network administrator to possibly prevent such an attack in the future? (Choose two.) a. install security devices with IDS and IPS at the enterprise edge b. reset all user passwords every 30 days c. filter packets based on IP address, traffic pattern, and protocol d. deny external workers VPN access to internal resources e. ensure critical devices are physically secure and placed behind the demarc

This item references 2.2.2 Security Considerations at the Enterprise Edge 5. Which two pieces of information are documented in a logical topology map? (Choose two.)

a. physical cabling b. service level agreements c. IP addressing d. IDF location e. group usage information f. facility floor plans

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation 6. Which two situations require a network admin to use out-of-band mgmt to change a router config? Choose 2

a. Network links to the router are down. b. No Telnet password has been configured on the router. c. The administrator can only connect to the router using SSH.

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d. The network interfaces of the router are not configured with IP addresses. e. Company security policy requires that only HTTPS be used to connect to routers.

This item references 2.3.1 Router Hardware 7. Which type of network map shows the location of hosts, network devices, and media?

a. physical topology b. logical topology c. control plane d. business continuity

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation 8. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of company personnel,

where can a network administrator look? a. Business Continuity Plan b. Business Security Plan c. Network Maintenance Plan d. Service Level Agreement

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation 9. An investment company has multiple servers that hold mission critical data. They are worried that if

something happens to these servers, they will lose this valuable information. Which type of plan is needed for this company to help minimize loss in the event of a server crash?

a. business security b. business continuity c. network maintenance d. service level agreement

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation 10. A network manager wants to have processes in place to ensure that network upgrades do not affect

business operations. What will the network manager create for this purpose? a. business security plan b. business continuity plan c. service level agreement d. network maintenance plan

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation 11. Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)

a. maintenance time periods b. intrusion monitoring records c. offsite data storage procedures d. alternate IT processing locations e. problem resolution escalation steps

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation 12. A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a catastrophic disaster

prevents a company from performing daily business routines. Which portion of the network documentation is the administrator defining?

a. business security plan b. business continuity plan

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c. network solvency plan d. service level agreement e. network maintenance plan

This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation

13. Which two router parameters can be set from interface configuration mode? (Choose two.) a. IP address b. Telnet password c. hostname d. console password e. subnet mask f. enable secret password

This item references 2.3.3 Basic Router Configuration Using CLI 14. What information can an administrator learn using the show version command?

a. Cisco IOS filename b. configured routing protocol c. status of each interface d. IP addresses of all interfaces

This item references 2.3.2 Basic Router CLI Show Commands 15. A network administrator has just inserted a new WIC2T controller into the first available slot of an 1841

router. The administrator needs to configure the first serial interface of this new controller. Which interface should be used?

a. s0/0/0 b. s0/0/1 c. s1/1/0 d. s1/0/1 e. s0/1/1

This item references 2.3.1 Router Hardware 16. What is the maximum recommended cable length for Fast Ethernet over UTP?

a. 50 meters b. 75 meters c. 100 meters d. 150 meters

This item references 2.1.2 Network Operations Center (NOC) 17. What is the demarcation?

a. physical point where the ISP responsibility ends and the customer responsibility begins b. physical location where all server farm connections meet before being distributed into the Core c. point of entry for outside attacks and is often vulnerable d. point of entry for all Access Layer connections from the Distribution Layer devices

This item references 2.2.1 Service Delivery at the Point-of-Presence 18. A Cisco router needs to be configured from a remote location by the use of out-of-band management.

Which method should be used? a. Use Telnet or SSH and connect to an IP address of a FastEthernet port. b. Use HTTP to connect to an IP address on a FastEthernet port.

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c. Use dial up and a modem to connect to the auxiliary port. d. Use a terminal emulation program and connect to the console port.

This item references 2.3.1 Router Hardware

19. A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of commands enable Telnet access to the router?

a. Router(config)# enable password class

Router(config)# line con 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco

b. Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork

Router(config)# enable password cisco

c. Router(config)# line aux 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco

d. Router(config)# enable password class

Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config-line)# login

This item references 2.3.3 Basic Router Configuration Using CLI 20. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

a. between a client and a host b. between two local networks c. between a computer and a switch d. between an ISP and an Enterprise network

This item references 2.2.1 Service Delivery at the Point-of-Presence 21. Which two statements are true about a network operations center (NOC)? (Choose two.)

a. Most NOCs only have tower servers or desktop servers that provide high-speed storage capabilities for thousands of clients.

b. A NOC is typically used only to monitor and maintain the most critical network components. c. Because access is secured by firewalls, backup systems are not required in a NOC . d. Routers, high-speed switches, and servers are located within a NOC. e. High-speed and high-capacity data storage are important aspects of a NOC.

This item references 2.1.2 Network Operations Center (NOC) 22. Which three items would be found in a NOC? (Choose three.)

a. raised floors b. all wireless access points c. network monitoring station d. departmental printers e. customer workstations f. data storage devices

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This item references 2.1.2 Network Operations Center (NOC) 23. What two features are true of an IDF? (Choose two.)

a. referred to as a wiring closet b. located within the NOC c. contains access layer devices for user connectivity d. contains firewalls and content filtering devices e. alternately called an MDF

This item references 2.1.3 Telecommunication Room Design and Considerations Highlight correct answer in yellow.1. Which two statements are reasons why UDP is used for voice and video traffic instead of TCP? (Choose 2)

a. TCP requires all data packets to be delivered for the data to be usable. b. The acknowledgment process of TCP introduces delays that break the streams of data. c. UDP does not have mechanisms for retransmitting lost packets. d. UDP tolerates delays and compensates for them. e. TCP is a connectionless protocol that provides end-to-end reliability. f. UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.

This item references 1.2.3 Network Traffic Prioritization 2. Why is TCP the preferred Layer 4 protocol for transmitting data files?

a. TCP is more reliable than UDP because it requires lost packets to be retransmitted. b. TCP requires less processing by the source and destination hosts than UDP. c. UDP introduces delays that degrade the quality of the data applications. d. TCP ensures fast delivery because it does not require sequencing or acknowledgements.

This item references 1.2.3 Network Traffic Prioritization 3. Which two solutions would an enterprise IT department use to facilitate secure intranet access for remote

workers? (Choose two.) a. VPN b. NAT c. user authentication d. client firewall software e. packet sniffing

This item references 1.3.2 Virtual Private Networks 4. What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

a. remove the three-layer hierarchical model and use a flat network approach b. divide the network into functional components while still maintaining the concept of Core, Distribution,

and Access Layers c. provide services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single

component located in the access layer d. reduce overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and

e-commerce routers in the same layer This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network

5. In which functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture should IDS and IPS be located to detect and

prevent malicious activity from outside? a. enterprise campus b. WAN and Internet

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c. enterprise edge d. service provider edge

This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network 6. What is a benefit of having an extranet?

a. It provides web-like access to company information for employees only. b. It limits access to corporate information to secure VPN or remote access connections only. c. It allows customers and partners to access company information by connecting to a public web server. d. It allows suppliers and contractors to access confidential internal information using controlled external

connections. This item references 1.1.4 Intranets and Extranets 7. What does VoIP provide to telecommuters?

a. high-quality, live-video presentations b. real-time voice communications over the Internet c. ability to share desktop applications simultaneously d. secure, encrypted data transmissions through the Internet

This item references 1.3.1 Teleworking 8. Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for hosting internal servers?

a. enterprise campus b. enterprise edge c. service provider edge d. building distribution

This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network 9. Which task would typically only require services located at the access layer of the hierarchical design model?

a. connecting to the corporate web server to update sales figures b. using a VPN from home to send data to the main office servers c. printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer d. placing a VoIP call to a business associate in another country e. responding to an e-mail from a co-worker in another department

This item references 1.2.1 Traffic Flow Patterns 10. What are two important characteristics or functions of devices at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose two.)

a. providing Internet, telephone, and WAN services to the enterprise network b. providing a connection point for end-user devices to the enterprise network c. providing high-speed backbone connectivity with redundant connections d. providing intrusion detection and intrusion prevention to protect the network against malicious activity e. providing packet inspection to determine if incoming packets should be allowed on the enterprise

network This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network

11. The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters using the Cisco Enterprise

Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from and to the outside world. Where should the administrator deploy a firewall device?

a. server farm b. enterprise edge c. enterprise campus d. service provider edge

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This item references 2.2.2 Security Considerations at the Enterprise Edge 12. Which two measures help ensure that a hardware problem does not cause an outage in an enterprise LAN

that supports mission critical services? (Choose two.) a. providing failover capability b. installing redundant power supplies c. purchasing more bandwidth from the ISP d. enabling half-duplex connectivity to access layer devices e. installing routers that can handle a greater amount of throughput

This item references 1.1.1 Supporting the Business Enterprise

13. Which statement describes the difference between an enterprise WAN and an enterprise extranet? a. An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect local LANs, while an enterprise extranet is designed to

interconnect remote branch offices. b. An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect branch offices, while an enterprise extranet is designed to

give access to external business partners. c. An enterprise WAN is designed to provide remote access for its teleworkers, while an enterprise extranet

is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise. d. An enterprise WAN is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise, while an enterprise

extranet is designed to provide remote access to the enterprise network for teleworkers. This item references 1.1.3 Enterprise LANs and WAN, 1.1.4 Intranets and Extranets

14. What can be found at the enterprise edge?

a. Internet, VPN, and WAN modules b. Internet, PSTN, and WAN services c. server farms and network management d. campus infrastructure, including access layer devices

This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network 15. A remote user needs to access a networking device on the internal network of the company. The

transactions between the remote user and the device must be secure. Which protocol enables this to happen securely?

a. HTTP b. SSH c. Telnet d. FTP

This item references 1.3.2 Virtual Private Networks 16. A business consultant must use Internet websites to research a report on the e-business strategies of several

firms and then electronically deliver the report to a group of clients in cities throughout the world. Which two teleworker tools can the consultant use to accomplish this project? (Choose two.)

a. VoIP b. VPN c. HTTP d. Telnet e. email

This item references 1.3.1 Teleworking

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Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version 4.0)Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise17. How does a VPN work to support remote user productivity?

a. It uses SSL to encrypt remote user logins to the corporate intranet. b. It uses secure Telnet for remote user connections to internal network devices. c. It creates a virtual circuit that allows real-time communications between any two Internet endpoints. d. It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-secure networks.

This item references 1.3.2 Virtual Private Networks 18. What is the main purpose of the Access Layer in a hierarchically designed network?

a. performs routing and packet manipulation b. supplies redundancy and failover protection c. provides a high-speed, low-latency backbone d. serves as a network connection point for end-user devices

This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network 19. What type of traffic flow is always considered to be external?

a. file sharing traffic b. system updates c. company e-mail d. Internet bound traffic e. transaction processing

This item references 1.2.1 Traffic Flow Patterns 20. What are two benefits of controlling the flow of traffic in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

a. security b. smaller failure domains c. more reliable transaction processing d. bandwidth optimization e. local control of network services

This item references 1.2.1 Traffic Flow Patterns 21. What are two important guidelines when using packet sniffers to determine traffic flow patterns? Choose 2

a. Capture only traffic from a single application at a time. b. Perform the capture on several different network segments. c. Create a baseline capture during a low or non-utilization period. d. Relocate highly active servers before attempting the capture. e. Capture traffic during peak utilization times.

This item references 1.2.2 Applications and Traffic on an Enterprise Network 22. Which three items can be discovered by using a packet sniffer application? (Choose three.)

a. network transmission speed b. source IP address c. Ethernet frame type d. duplex operational status e. near-end crosstalk (NEXT) level f. TCP sequence number

This item references 1.2.2 Applications and Traffic on an Enterprise Network 23. What are two benefits to an employee of teleworking? (Choose two.)

a. reduced commuting costs b. reduced network complexity

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c. reduced need for support staff d. reduced need for expensive business attire e. reduced security risks to the network infrastructure

This item references 1.3.1 Teleworking 24. Which protocol and process could be implemented on a network to ensure that a telecommuter can attend

a training presentation via the use of VoIP and still experience uninterrupted data streams and quality conversations?

a. TCP and QoS b. UDP and QoS c. TCP and queuing d. UDP and VPN e. TCP and VPN

This item references 1.2.3 Network Traffic Prioritization

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