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DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS, ODISHA, ZONE-II
JEE MAIN & NEET QUESTIONS (CHEMISTRY)
SOLID STATE
1. Most of the crystals show good cleavage because their constituting particles are a.Weakly bonded together b.Strongly bonded together
c.Spherically symmetrical d.arranged in planes
2. Which is ferroelectric compound ?
a.BaTiO3b.K4[Fe(CN)6] c.Pb2O3 d.None of these
3. In the crystal of which of the following ionic compounds,the distance between the cations and
anions is the maximum.
a.LiF b.CsF c.CsI d.LiI
4. The coordination number of sodium in Na2O is
a.4 b.6 c.8 d.2
5. A compound formed by the element X and Y crystallizes in a cubic structure in which the X atoms are
t the corners of the cube and Y atoms at the face centres.The formula of the compound is
a.XY3 b.X3Y c. XY d.XY2
6. in a fcc lattice ,a unit cell is equally shared by how many faces?
a.2 b.4 c.6 d.8
7.The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halide generally due to
a.interstitial position b.F-centres c.Schottky defect d.Frenkel defect
8. Percentage of free space in bcc unit cell is
a.34% b.28% c.30% d.32%
9.Copper crystallises in a fcc lattice with unit edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom in pm is
a.157 b.181 c. 108 d.128
10.A solid compound XY has NaCl structure.If the radius of cation (X+) is 100 pm,the radius of anion(Y–)
will be
a. 275.1 pm b. 322.5 pm c. 241.5 pm d.165.7 pm
11.The numberof carbon atom in a unit cell of dimond is
a. 1 b. 4 c. 8 d.12
12.Which has hcp crystal structure?
a. NaCl b. CsCl c. Zn d. RbCl
13.A solution of CdBr2 in AgBr contains
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. Colour centre d.Frenkel as well as schottky defect
14.For an ionic crystal of general formula AX and the coordination number 6 , the radius ratio value will be
a.greater than 0.73 b.between 0.73 and 0.41 c.between 0.41 and 0.22 d.less than 0.22
15.To get n-type semiconductor,the impurity to be added to silicon should have the following number of
valence electrons?
a. 2 b. 5 c. 3 d. 1
16.How many unit cells are present in a cubic shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.0g?
a. 2.57 X 1021
b. 5.14 X1021
c. 1.28 X 1021
d. 1.71 X1021
17.The non stoichiometric compound Fe0.96O is formed when X% of Fe2+ ions are replaced by as many 2/3
Fe3+ ions.The value of X is
a.18 b. 12 c. 13 d. 6
18.Copper crystallises in fcc lattice with a unit cell edge length of 361 pm.The radius of Cu atom is
a. 108 pm b. 128pm c. 157pm d. 181pm
19.The crystal with metal deficiency defect is
a. NaCl b. FeO c. KCl d. ZnO
20.An example of covalent solid is
a. MgO b. Mg c. SiC d. CaF2
SOLUTION
1. A 5% solution of cane sugar (molar mass= 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X.The
molar mass of X is
a. 171.2 b. 68.4 c. 34.2 d. 136.2
2. Which has higher boiling point under 1 atm pressure?
a. 0.1MNaCl b. 0.1M sucrose c. 0.1M BaCl2 d. 0.1M glucose
3. An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186 0C (Kf = 1.86,Kb = 0.512).What is the elevation in boiling
point?
a. 0.186 b. 0.512 c. 0.86 d. 0.0512
4. The average osmotic pressure of blod is 7.8 bar at 37 0C .What is the concentration of aqueous KCl
solution that could be used in blood stream?
a. 0.16 Mol/L b.0.32 Mol/L c.0.60 Mol/L d.0.45 Mol/L
5. Which of the following colligative properties can provide molar mass of proteins,polymer or
colloids with greater precision?
a. Relative lowering in vapour pressure b. Elevation in boiling point c. Depression in freezing
point d. Osmotic pressure
6. The Van’t hoff factor for a solute that associates in solution is
a. 0 b. 1.0 c. less than 1 d.More than 1
7. Concentrated aquous sulphuric acid is 98% by mass and has a density of 1.80 g /ml .Volume of acid
required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is
a. 16.65ml b. 22.20ml c. 11.10ml d.5.55ml
8. An aqueous solution of KI is 1.0molal in KI.Which change will cause the vapour pressure ofthe
solution to increase
a. Addition of NaCl b. Addition of Na2SO4
c. Addition of 1.0 molal KI d. Addition of water
9. Negative deviation from Raoults law is observed in which of the following binary solution
a. ethanol and acetone b. Benzene and toluene c. acetone and chloroform d. Acetone
and carbon disulphide
10. The degree of ionisation of HF in 1.00m aq. Solution (freezing point of solution = –119.5 and
Kf = 1.86 k.kgmol-1is
a. 6% b. 12% c. 3% d. 9%
11.Which of the following depends on temperature?
a. Molality b. Molarity c. Mole fraction d. Mass percent
12.If molality of the dilute solution is doubled the value of molal depression constant will be
a. doubled b. Halved c. tripled d. Unchanged
13.The mole fraction of a solution is 0.2.The molality of the solution will be
a. 14.0 b. 3.2 c. 1.4 d.2.0
14.Which one of the following aq. Solutin will exhibit highest elevation in boiling point?
a. 0.01M urea b. 0.01M KNO3 c. 0.01M Na2SO4 d. 0.015M glucose
15.Molal freezing point of water is 1.86 0 C/m.Therefore the freezing point of 0.1m NaCl solution in water
is expected to be
a. – 1.86 0C b.– 0.186 0C c.– 0.372 0C d.+0.372 0C
ELECTROCHEMISTRY AND CHEMICAL KINETICS
1.How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes current so that the oxygen
released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane ? (Atomic weight of B=10.8 u)
(1) 6.4 hours (2) 0.8 hours
(3) 3.2 hours (4) 1.6 hours
2.At 5188 C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 Torr, was
1.00 Torr s−1 when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr s−1 when 33% had reacted. The order of the reaction is :
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 0
3. Given
E® [Cl2/Cl-] = 1.36 V E® [Cr3+/Cr] =0.74 V E® [Cr2O72-/Cr3+] = 1.33 V E® [MnO4
-/Mn2+] =1.51 V
Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is :
(1) Cr3+ (2) Cl−
(3) Cr (4) Mn2+
4.Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical pre-exponential factors. Activation energy of R1 exceeds that of R2 by 10 kJ
mol−1.If k1 and k2 are rate constants for reactions R1 and R2 respectively at 300 K, then ln(k2 /k1 ) is equal to :
(R=8.314 J mol−1K−1 )
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 12
5.The rate law for the reaction is given by the expression rate= k [A][B] Product If the concentration of B is increased
from 0.1 to 0.3 mole, keeping the value of A at 0.1 mole, the rate constant will be :
(1) k (2) k/3
(3) 3k (4) 9k
6. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen?
(1) +13.6 eV (2) 6.8 Ev
(3) 3.4 eV (4) +6.8 eV
7.The following reaction is performed at 298 K. 2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g). The standard free energy of formation of
NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K? (Kp = 1.6 1012)
(1) [R(298) × ln (1.6 1012)] 86600 (2) 86600 + [R(298) × ln (1.6 1012)]
(3) 86600 [ln(1.6 1012) /R(298)] (4) 0.5 [2 86,600 R(298) × ln (1.6 1012)]
8.The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction 2A B + C is 2494.2 J. At a given time, the
composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = 1 2 , [B] = 2 and [C] = 1 2 . The reaction proceeds in the : [R = 8.314 JK-
1mol-1, e = 2.718]
(1) forward direction because Q > Kc (2) reverse direction because Q > Kc
(3) forward direction because Q < Kc (4) reverse direction because Q < Kc
9.Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is :
(at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)
(1) 0 g (2) 63.5 g
(3) 2 g (4) 127 g
10.The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is:
(1) Cu (2) Cr
(3) Ag (4) Ca
11.Given below are the half -cell reactions :- Mn2+ + 2e– Mn; Eo = –1.18V 2(Mn3+ + e– Mn2+); Eo = +1.51 V.
The Eo for 3Mn2+ Mn + 2Mn3+ will be :
(1) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur (2) –0.33 V; the reaction will occur
(3) –2.69 V; the reaction will not occur (4) –2.69 V; the reaction will occur
12.Given :
E® [Cr3+/Cr] = −0.74 V E® [MnO4-/Mn2+] = 1.51 V
E® [Cr2O72-/Cr3+] = 1.33 V E® [Cl/Cl-] = 1.36 V
Based on the data given above, strongest oxidising agent will be :
(1) Cl− (2) Cr3+
(3) Mn2+ (4) MnO-4
13.The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation of such a reaction
will be :
(R = 8.314 JK−1 and log 2 = 0.301)
(1) 53.6 kJ mol−1 (2) 48.6 kJ mol−1
(3) 58.5 kJ mol−1 (4) 60.5 kJ mol−1
14.The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be :
(1) −2.55 eV (2) −5.1 eV
(3) −10.2 eV (4) +2.55 eV
15.The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/ Zn, Ni 2+/ Ni, and Fe 2+/ Fe are –0.76, –0.23 and –0.44 V respectively.
The reaction X + Y 2+ → X 2+ + Y will be spontaneous when :
(1) X = Ni, Y = Fe (2) X = Ni, Y = Zn
(3) X = Fe, Y = Zn (4) X = Zn, Y = Ni
16.For a first order reaction, (A) → products, the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes.
The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M is :
(1) 1.73 x 10 –5 M/ min (2) 3.47 x 10 –4 M/min
(3) 3.47 x 10 –5 M/min (4) 1.73 x 10 –4 M/min
17.The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if :
(1) p H( ) 2 = 1 atm and [H+] =1.0 M (2) p (H2 ) =2 atm and [H+] =1.0 M
(3) p H( ) 2 = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M (4) p H( 2 ) =1 atm and [H+]= 2.0 M
18.The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+/Ni, and Fe2+/Fe are –0.76, –0.23 and –0.44 V respectively. The
reaction X + Y2+ → X2++ Y will be spontaneous when :
(1) X = Ni, Y = Fe (2) X = Ni, Y = Zn
(3) X = Fe, Y = Zn (4) X = Zn, Y = Ni
19.For a first order reaction, (A) → products, the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes.
The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M is :
(1) 1.73 x 10–5 M/ min (2) 3.47 x 10–4 M/min
(3) 3.47 x 10–5 M/min (4) 1.73 x 10–4 M/min
20.The time for half life period of a certain reaction A → products is 1 hour. When the initial concentration of the
reactant ‘A’, is 2.0 mol L–1 , how much time does it take for its concentration to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1 if it is
a zero order reaction ?
(1) 4 h (2) 0.5 h
(3) 0.25 h (4) 1 h
21.Consider the reaction : Cl2(aq) + H2S(aq) → S(s) + 2H + (aq) + 2Cl– (aq) The rate equation for this reaction is rate =
k [Cl2] [H2S] Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation ?
(A) Cl2 + H2 → H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow) Cl+ + HS– → H+ + Cl– + S (fast)
(B) H2S ⇔ H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium) Cl2 + HS– → 2Cl– + H+ + S (slow)
(1) B only (2) Both A and B
(3) Neither A nor B (4) A only
22.The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows : 2/3 Al2O3 → 4/3 Al + O2, ∆rG = + 966 kJ
mol–1 The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at least
(1) 4.5 V (2) 3.0 V
(3) 2.5 V (4) 5.0 V
23.The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the completion of 99%
of the chemical reaction will be (log 2=0.301) :
(1) 230.3 minutes (2) 23.03 minutes
(3) 46.06 minutes (4) 460.6 minutes
24.Given : E®[Fe3+ / Fe]=- 0.036V, E®[Fe2+ / Fe]=-0.439V. The value of standard electrode potential for the change
Fe3+[aq]+e- → Fe2+
[aq] :
(1) -0.072 V (2) 0.385 V
(3) 0.770 V (4) -0.270V
25.The activation energy of a reaction at a given temperature is found to be 2.303 RT J mol–1. The ratio of rate
constant to the Arrhenius factor is:
(1)0.1 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.001 (4) 0.02
26.Radioactivity of a sample (z = 22) decreases 90% after 10 years. What will be the half-life of the sample :
(1)5 YEARS (2) 2 YEARS
(3) 3 YEARS (4) 10 YEARS
27.Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is
(1) 2k/a (2) a/2k
(3) a/k (4) ak
28.Which of these changes with time for a first-order reaction? A. Rate of reaction B. Rate constant C. Half-life (1) A only (2) C only
(3) A and B only (4)B and C only
29.The time for half life period of a certain reaction A → Products is 1 h. When the initial concentration of the
reactant 'A' is 2.0 mol L–1, how much time does it take for its concentration to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1, if it
is a zero order reaction?
(1) 0.25 h (2) 1 h
(3) 4 h (4) 0.5 h
30.The time taken for 10% completion of a first order reaction is 20 min. Then, for 19% completion, the reaction
will take
(1) 40 mins (2) 60 mins
(3) 30 mins (4) 50 mins
31.The rate equation for a reaction: A → B is r = K [A]°. If the initial concentration of the reactant is a mol dm–3,
the half life period of the reaction is
(1) K/a (2) a/K
(3) 2a/K (4) a/2K
32.The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions for A2 + B2 2AB are 180 kJ mol–1 and 200 kJ mol–1respectively. The presence of a catalyst lowers the activation energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy change of the reaction (A2 + B2 → 2AB) in the presence of catalyst will be:(in kJ mol–
1) (1) 120 (2) 280
(3) 20 (4) 300
***************************************************************
1.Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 2XY is given below : {AIPMT 2017}
(i) X2 X + X (fast)
(ii) (ii) X + Y2 XY + Y (slow)
(iii) (iii) X + Y XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be
(1) 2 (2) 0
(3) 1.5 (4) 1
Answer (3)
2.In the electrochemical cell Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the
concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the
following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2? (Given, RT F = 0.059) {AIPMT 2017}
(1) E1 < E2 (2) E1 > E2
(3) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 (4) E1 = E2
Answer (2)
3.A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10–2 second–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the
reactant to reduce to 5 g? {AIPMT 2016}
(1) 138.6 second (2) 346.5 second
(3) 693.0 second (4) 238.6 second
Answer (1)
4.The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :
{AIPMT 2016}
(1) 10–12 atm (2) 10–10 atm
(3) 10–4 atm (4) 10–14 atm
Answer (4)
5.The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol l–1 s–1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l–1 s–1 at 20 seconds after initiation of
the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is : {AIPMT 2015}
(1) 34.1 s (2) 44.1 s
(3) 54.1 s (4) 24.1 s
Answer (4)
6.The rate constant of the reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10–3 mole per second. If the concentration of A is 5 M, then
concentration of B after 20 minutes is: {AIPMT 2015}
(1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M
(3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M
Answer(2)
7.What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20ºC to 35ºC ?
(R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1) {AIPMT 2015}
(1) 342 kJ mol–1 (2) 269 kJ mol–1
(3) 34.7 kJ mol–1 (4) 15.1 kJ mol–1
Answer(3)
8.At 25ºC molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 and at
infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at
the same concentration and temperature is – {AIPMT 2013}
(1) 2.080 % (2) 20.800 %
(3) 4.008 % (4) 40.800 %
Answer(3)
9.A button cell used in watches functions as following Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) 2Ag(s) + Zn2+ (aq) + 2OH– (aq)
If half cell potentials are Zn2+ (aq) + 2e– → Zn(s) ; Eº = –0.76 V ,Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) + 2e– → 2Ag(s) + 2OH– (aq), Eº = 0.34 V
The cell potential will be : {AIPMT 2013}
(1) 1.10 V (2) 0.42 V
(3) 0.84 V (4) 1.34 V
Answer(1)
10.A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing
hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be ?
{AIPMT 2013}
(1) 0.059 V (2) 0.59 V
(3) 0.118 V (4) 1.18 V
Answer(2)
11.A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has – {AIPMT 2013}
(1) ∆S = 0 (2) ∆G = 0
(3) ∆H = 0 (4) ∆H = ∆G = ∆S = 0
Answer(3)
12.The Gibbs' energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500ºC is as follows: 3/2 Al2O3→ 4/3 Al + O2; ∆rG = + 960 kJ
mol–1. The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at 500ºC is at least :
{AIPMT 2012}
(1) 3.0 V (2) 2.5 V
(3) 5.0 V (4) 4.5 V
Answer(2)
13.Molar conductivities(Λºm ) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1
respectively. Λºm for CH3COOH will be: {AIPMT 2012}
(1) 180.5 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 290.8 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 425.5 S cm2 mol–1
Answer(3)
14.Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below :
F2(g) + 2e– → 2F– (aq) ; Eº = + 2.85 V
Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl– (aq); Eº = + 1.36 V
Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br– (aq) ; Eº = + 1.06 V
I2(g) + e– → 2I– (aq) ; Eº = + 0.53 V
The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are : {AIPMT 2012}
(1) Br2 and Cl– (2) Cl2 and Br–
(3) Cl2and I2 (4) F2 and I–
Answer(4)
15.The electrode potentials for Cu2+(aq) + e– → Cu+ (aq) and Cu+ (aq) + e– → Cu(s) are + 0.15 V and + 0.50 V
respectively. The value of Eº (Cu /Cu2+)will be : {AIPMT 2011}
(1) 0.150 V (2) 0.500 V
(3) 0.325 V (4) 0.650 V
Answer(3)
16.Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/ Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two
couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be : {AIPMT 2011}
(1) + 1.83 V (2) + 1.19 V
(3) + 0.89 V (4) + 0.18 V
Answer(2)
17.If the Eºcell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships
for the values of ∆Gº and Keq ? {AIPMT 2011}
(1) ∆Gº> 0; Keq< 1 (2) ∆Gº> 0; Keq> 1
(3) ∆Gº< 0; Keq> 1 (4) ∆Gº< 0; Keq< 1
Answer(1)
18.Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, + 0.5 V and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing
power of these metals will be : {AIPMT 2011}
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Y > Z > X
(3) Y > X > Z (4) Z > X > Y
Answer(4)
19.For the reaction,N2O5(g) 2NO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.25 ×
10-3 mol L-1 s-1. The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as: {AIPMT 2010}
(1) 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1 and 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
(2) 1.25 × 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 3.125 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
(3) 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1 and 3.125 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
(4) 1.25 × 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
Answer(2)
20. For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is H (both of these in kJ/mol).
Minimum value of Ea will be: {AIPMT 2010}
(1) less than H (2) equal to H
(3) more than H (4) equal to zero
Answer(3)
21. For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be + 0.46 V at 25°C.
The value of standard Gibbs energy Gº will be (F = 96500 C mol-1) {AIPMT 2010}
(1) - 89.0 kJ (2) - 89.0 J
(3) - 44.5 kJ (4) - 98.0 kJ
Answer(1)
22. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3 , if d[NH3]/dt = 2×10-4 mol L-1 s -1 , the value of – d[H2]/ dt would be:
{AIPMT 2009}
(1) 4×10-4 mol L-1 s -1 (2) 6×10-4 mol L-1 s -1
(3) 1×10-4 mol L-1 s -1 (4) 3×10-4 mol L-1 s -1
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
SECTION -A (Single Correct Answer Type)
Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The Tyndall effect is observed only when following conditions are satisfied : [MAIN 2017] (a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used. (b) The diameter of the dispersed particles is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light used (c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are almost similar in magnitude. (d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.
(A) (b) and (d) (B) (a) and (C) (3) (b) and (c) (D) (a) and (d) ANS: (A) (b) and (d)
2. For a linear plot of log(x/m) verses log p in a Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following statement is correct? (k and n are constant)[MAIN 2016] (a) 1/n appears as the intercept (b) Only 1/n appears as slope (c) Log (1/n ) appears as intercept (d) Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term ANS: (b) Only 1/n appears as slope
3. Methylene blue,from its aqueous solution is adsorbed on activated charcoal at 250C ,for this process, the
correct statement is[ADV 2013] (a) The adsorption acquires requires activation at 250C. (b) The adsorption is accompanied by the decrease in enthalpy. (c) The adsorption increases with increase of temperature. (d) The adsorption is irreversible
ANS: (b)The adsorption is accompanied by the decrease in enthalpy. 4. The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions Na+, Al3+ and Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide sol increasing in the
order [2013 Main] (a) Al3+< Ba2+< Na+ (b) Na+< Ba 2+< Al 3+ (c) Ba 2+< Na+< Al 3+ (d) Al 3+< Na+< Ba 2+ ANS: (b)Na+< Ba 2+< Al 3+
5. Among the electrolytes Na2SO4,CaCl2 ,Al2(SO4)3 and NH4Cl the most effective coagulating agent for Sb2S3 sol is (a) Na2SO4 [2009,1M] (b) CaCl2 (c) Al2(SO4)3 (d) NH4Cl ANS: (c) Al2(SO4)3
6. Lyophilic soi are [2005,1M] (a) Irreversible sols (b) Prepared from inorganic compounds (c) Coagulated by adding electrolytes. (d) Self-stabilising ANS: (d) Self-stabilising
7. Spontaneous adsorption of a gas on solid surface is an exothermic process, because [2004,1M] (a) increases for the system (b) increases for gas (c) decreases for gas (d) decreases for gas ANS: (c) decreases for gas
8. Rate of physisorption increases with [2003,1M]
(a) Decrease in temperature (b) Increase in temperature (c) Decrease in pressure (d) Decrease in surface area ANS: (a) Decrease in temperature
9. Fog is a colloidal solution of NEET,2016 Phaes-1] (a) Solid in gas (b) Gas in gas (c) Liquid in gas (d) Gas in liquid ANS: (c) Liquid in gas
10. Which one of the following statements is not correct? [NEET,2017} (a) The value of equilibrium constant changed in the presence of catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium (b) Enzymes catalyse mainly the bio-chemical reactions (c) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzymes. (d) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction. ANS:(a)The value of equilibrium constant changed in the presence of catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium
11. Which one is not correctly matched? [kerala,PMT,2015] (a) Lyophobic colloid—metal sulphide sol (b) Multimolecular colloid—gold sol (c) Lyophilic colloid—sulphur sol (d) Macromolecular colloid—cellulose ANS: (c) Lyophilic colloid—sulphur sol
12. As the size of gold particle increase , the colour of the solution varies as:[APEAMCET,MEDICAL,2015] (a) (b) (c) (d) ANS:
13. in petrochemical industries:: alcohols are directly converted to gasoline by passing over heated (a) platinum (b) ZSM-5 (c) Iron (d) Nickel ANS:(b)ZSM-5
14. Alum helps in purifying water: (a) Neutralizing the charge on mud particles (b) Coagulation of mud particle (c) Sedimentation of mud particles (d) All are correct ANS:(a)Neutralizing the charge on mud particles
15. Aqueous solution of raw sugar(generally brown) when passedover beds of animal charcoal becames (a) Red (b) blue (c) Pink (d) Colourless ANS: (d)colourless
SECTION-B(Multiple ANSWER)
(Multiple Correct Answers Type) This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four
choices (a) , (b) , (c) and (d) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
16. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are) [IIT JEE 2011] (a) Adsorption is always exothermic.
(b) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temerpature. (c) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing temperature. (d) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher energy of activation. ANS:(a), (b), (d)
17. Choose the correct reason(s) for the stability of the lyophobic colloidal particles.
(a) Preferential adsorption of ions on their surface from the solution
(b) Preferential adsorption of solvent on their surface from the solution
(c) Attraction between different particles having opposite charges on their surface
(d) Potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges around the
colloidal particles
ANS: (a), (d)
18. Reactions of zeolite catalyst depends upon:
(a) Pores
(b) Apertures
(c) Size of cavity
(d) Pressure ANS:(a), (b), (d)
19. Methods of preparing colloidal sol are: (a) Hydrolysis (b) Coagulation (c) Peptisation (d) Dispersion ANS:(a), (c), (d)
20. Select the correct statement among the following: (a) Milk a is an emulsion of fat in water (b) An emulsifier stabilizes emulsion (c) Emulsifier forms a thin layer around the droplets of dispersed phase (d) Milks is an emulsion of protein in warer ANS:(a), (b), (c)
21. Which of the following statements are true? (a) Flocculation value is inversely proportional to the coagulating power. (b) Colloidal silicon is protective colloid. (c) Alum is used for cleaning muddy water. (d) Gelatin is added to ice cream to act as emulsifer ANS:(a), (c), (d)
22. 1 mol of [ AgI] Ag + sol is coagulated by: (a) 1mol of KI (b) 500ml of 1M K2SO4 (c) 1L of 1M KI (d) None of these ANS:(a), (b), (c)
23. Which of the following are examples of aerosols? (a) Whipped cream (b) Cloud (c) Fog (d) Starch solution ANS:(a), (c)
24. The correct statement(s) about surface properties is (are) [ JEE advance,2017]
(a) The critical temperature of ethane and nitrogen are 563K and 126K respectively. The adsorption of ethane will be more than that of nitrogen on the same amount of activated charcoal at a given temperature.
(b) Cloud in emulsion types of colloid in which liquid is dispersed phase and gas is dispersion medium. (c) Adsorption accompanied by decrease in enthalpy and decrease in entropy of the system. (d) Brownian movement of colloidal particles does not depend on the size of the particles but depends on
viscosity of the solution. ANS:(a), (c)
25. Which of the following are enzymes catalysts? (a) Glucose (b) Amylase (c) Trypsin (d) Nuclease ANS:(b), (c), (d)
SECTION-C (COMPREHENSION LINKED MCQs]
COMPREHENSION-1
There are certain substances which behave as normal strong electrolytes at low concentration but at higher
concentration they behave as colloidal solutions due to formation of aggregated particles. Such colloids are
called associated colloids and the aggregated particles are called micelles. Soaps and detergents are the
examples of associated colloids. The formation of micelles takes place above certain concentration called
critical micellization concentration (CMC) and a characteristic temperature.
Answer the following: 1. Micelles are
(a) Emulsion cum gels (b) Associated colloids (c) Adsorbed catalysts (d) Ideal solutions ANS:(b)Associated colloids
2. Select the incorrect statement(s). (a) Surface active agents like soaps and synthetic detergents are called micelles. (b) Soaps are emulsifying agents. (c) C17H35 (hydrocarbon part) and –COO–(carboxylate) part of stearic ion (C17H35COO--) both are
hydrophobic. (d) All the above statements are incorrect. ANS:(c)C17H35 (hydrocarbon part) and –COO–(carboxylate) part of stearic ion (C17H35COO--) both are hydrophobic.
3. Which part of the soap (RCOO-) dissolves grease and forms micelle? (a) R part (called tail of the anion) (b) –COO – part (called head of the anion) (c) Both (a)and (b) (d) None of the above. ANS:(c)Both (a)and (b)
4. What type of molecules form micelles? (a) Non-polar molecules (b) Polar molecules (c) Surfactant molecules (d) Salt of weak acid and weak base ANS:(c)Surfactant molecules
5. Micelles are formed only: (a) Below the CMC and the Kraft temperature
(b) Above the CMC and below the Kraft temperature (c) Above the CMC and above the Kraft temperature (d) Below the CMC and above the Kraft temperature ANS: (c)Above the CMC and above the Kraft temperature
6. Above CMC, the surfactant molecules undergo: (a) Dissociation (b) Aggregation (c) Micelle formation (d) Both (b) and (c) ANS:(d)Both (b) and (c)
7. Micelles are used in (a) Detergents (b) Magnetic separation (c) Electrolytic refining of metals (d) All the above ANS :(a)Detergents
COMPREHENSION-2 The colloidal solution of two immiscible liquids in which one of the liquid acts as a dispersed phase and the other as dispersion medium is called emulsion. Milk is an example of emulsion in which fats globules are dispersed in water. Emulsions resemble lyophobic sols in some properties. Emulsion are of two types i.e. O/W and W/O types emulsions, identified by dilution test, conductivity test, and dye test. Choose the correct answer: 1. The conductivity test is positive for:
(a) O/W (b) W/O (c) Both (a)and (b) (d) None of these ANS:(a)O/W
2. Which property is observed in an emulsion? (a) Tyndall effect (b) Brownian motion (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these ANS:(c)Both (a) and (b)
3. In milk, which acts as an emulsifier? (a) Gelatin (b) Albumin (c) Casein (d) None of these ANS:(c)Casein
----------*********---------
GENERAL PRINCIPLE AND PROCESS OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS
SECTION -A (Single Correct Answer Type)
Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and magnetite, respectively, are [IIT JEE 2011]
a) II, III in haematite and III in magnetite
b) II, III in haematite and II in magnetite
c) II in haematite and II, III in magnetite
d) III in haematite and II, III in magnetite ANS: d)
2. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the extraction of Al, which of the following statements is false? a) CO and CO2 are produced in this process
b) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity
c) Al3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al
d) Na3 AlF6 serves as the electrolyte ANS: (d)
3. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth flotation method? [JEE MAIN 2016]
a) Malachite
b) Magnetite c) Siderite d) Galena
ANS: d)
4. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salt is[2014,MAIN]
a) Ag
b) Ca
c) Cu
d) Cr
ANS: b) 5. Sulphide ores are common for the metals [2013,Adv]
a) Ag , Cu and Pb
b) Ag , Cu and Sn
c) Ag, Mg and Pb
d) Al , Cu and Pb
ANS: a) 6. In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing and reducing agents used are
a) O2 and CO respectively
b) O2 and Zn dust respectively
c) HNO3 and Zn respectively
d) HNO3 and CO respectively
ANS: b) 7. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
(a) Electrolytic reduction
(b) Roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(c) Roasting followed by reduction with another metal
(d) Roasting followed by self-reduction. ANS: b)
8. Which ore contains both iron and copper? (a) Cuprite (b) Chalcocite (c) Chalcopyrite (d) Malachite
ANS: c)
9. In the process of extraction of gold, roasted gold ore + CN- +H2O → [X] + HO
[X] + Zn [Y] + Au Identify the complex [X]and [Y] . a) X = [Au(CN)2 ]- , Y = [Zn(CN)4
]-2 b) X = [Au(CN)4 ]-3 , Y = [Zn(CN)4
]-2 c) X = [Au(CN)2 ]- , Y = [Zn(CN)6
]-4 d) X = [Au(CN)4 ]- , Y = [Zn(CN)4
]-2 ANS: a)
10. Which of the following process is used for extractive metallurgy of magnesium? a) Fused salt electrolysis b) Self-reduction c) Aqueous solution electrolysis d) Thermite reduction
ANS: a) 11. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is
a) Cu2O + FeS b) FeSiO3 c) CuFeS2 d) Cu2S + FeO
ANS: b) 12. The chemical process in the production of steel from haematite ore involve
a) Reduction b) Oxidation c) Reduction followed by oxidation d) Oxidation followed by reduction
ANS: a) 13. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small amount in the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution b) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 c) A mixture of Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 d) A molten mixture of AlO(OH) and Al(OH)3
ANS: c) 14. Hydrogen gas will not reduce
a) Heated cupric oxide b) Heated ferric oxide c) Heated stannic oxide d) Heated aluminium oxide
ANS: d) 15. In the alumino-thermit process, aluminium acts as
a) An oxidizing agent b) A flux c) A reducing agent d) A solder
ANS: c) 16. In metallurgy of Iron , when lime stone is added to the blast furnace,the calcium ion ends up in
a) Slag b) Gangue c) Metallic calcium d) Calcium carbonate
ANS: d) 17. The process of zone refining is used to in the purification of
a) Al b) Ge c) Cu
d) Ag e) ANS: b)
18. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN- ion. Silver is later recovered by a) Distillation b) Zone refining c) Displacement d) Liquation
ANS: c) 19. Purification of alumina by electrolytic refining is known as
a) Hall’s process b) Froth flotation process c) Baeyer’s process d) Hoope’s process
ANS: d) 20. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List-I(Ore) list-II(Metal) i) Dolomite (I) Copper ii) Chalcopyrite II) Lead iii) Pyrolusite (III) magnesium iv) Galena (IV) Manganese Code: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) a) III I IV II b) III II I IV c) I II III IV d) IV III II I
ANS: a)
SECTION-B(Multiple ANSWER)
(Multiple Correct Answers Type) This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four
choices (a) , (b) , (c) and (d) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
1. Extraction of metal from the ore cassiterite involves [IIT JEE 2011] a) carbon reduction of an oxide ore b) self-reduction of a sulphide ore c) removal of copper impurity d) removal of iron impurity
ANS: a)and d)
2. The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of [IIT JEE 2013 Advanced]
a) Tin from SnO2 b) iron from Fe2O3
c) Aluminium from Al2O3 d) magnesium from MgCO3 . CaCO3
Ans:.c) and d)
3. Extraction of copper from copper pyrite (CuFeS2) involves[2016,Adv]
a) Crushing followed by concentration of ore by froth-flotation
b) Removal of iron slag
c) Self reduction step to produce ‘blister copper’ following evolution of SO2.
d) Refining of ‘blister copper’ by carbon reduction
e) ANS: a), b),d)
4. Copper is purified by electrolytic refining of blister copper. The correct statement (s) about this process is
/are [2015,Adv]
a) Impure copper strip used as cathode
b) Acidified aqueous CuSO4 is used as electrolyte
c) Pure Cu deposits as cathode
d) Impurities settle as anode-mud
ANS: b),c) , d)
5. The carbon –based reduction method is not used for the extraction of[2013,Adv]
a) Tin from SnO2
b) Iron from Fe2O3
c) Aluminium from Al2O3
d) Magnesium from MgCO3.CaCO3
ANS: c),d)
6. Extraction of metal from the ore cassiterite involves [2011]
a) Carbon reduction of an oxide ore
b) Self-reduction of an sulphide ore
c) Removal of copper impurity
d) Removal of iron impurity
ANS: a),d)
7. Addition of high proportions of magnesium makes steel useful in making rails[1998]
a) Gives hardness to steel
b) Helps the formation of oxides of iron
c) Can remove oxygen and sulphur
d) Can show highest oxidation state of +7
ANS: a), c)
8. In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added to
a) Lower the melting point of alumina
b) Increase the electrical conductivity
c) Minimize the anode effect
d) Remove impurities from alumina
ANS: a),b)
9. Carbon reduction method is commercially employed for commercially extraction of
a) Haematite
b) Cassiterite
c) Iron pyrites
d) Corundum
ANS: a), b)
10. Of the following, the metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts are
a) Ag
b) Mg
c) Cu
d) Al
ANS: b) , d)
SECTION-C (COMPREHENSION LINKED MCQs]
COMPREHENSION-1
Copper is the most noble of the first row transition metals and occurs in small deposits in several countries.
Ores of copper include chalcanthite (CuSO4. 5H2O),atacamite (Cu2Cl(OH)3), cuprite (Cu2O), copper glance
(Cu2S) and malachite(Cu2(OH)2CO3). However , 80% of the world copper production comes from chalcopyrite
(CuFeS2), the extraction of copper from chalcopyrite involves the partial roasting, removal of iron and self-
reduction.[2010]
Answer the following 1. Partial roasting of chalcopyrite produces
a) Cu2S and FeO b) Cu2O and FeO c) CuS and Fe2O3 d) Cu2O and Fe2O3 ANS: b)
2. Iron is removed from chalcopyrite as a) FeO b) FeS c) Fe2O3 d) FeSiO3 ANS: d)
3. In self-reduction, the reducing species is a) S b) O2- c) S2- d) SO2 ANS: c)
SECTION-D (ASSERTION-REASON TYPE)
Following two questions have ascertion followed by the reason. Answer them according to the following
options.
a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
1. Assertion: In smelting process, the roasted ore is heated with powder coke in presence of a flux.
Reason: Oxides are reduced to metal by carbon or CO and impurities are removed as slag.
ANS:a)
2. Assertion: Magnesium can be prepared by electrolysis of aqueous MgCl2.
Reason: The reduction potential of Mg 2+ is much smaller than that of H+
P-BLOCK ELEMENTS
Q1.The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute NaOH are:
a)Cl- and ClO
- b) Cl
- and ClO2
- c)ClO
- and ClO3
- d) ClO2
- and ClO3
-
Q2Which of the following solution will turn violet when a drop of lime juice is added to it?.
a)A solution of NaI b)A solution mixture of of NaI and KI c) A solution mixture of KI and NaIO3. d) A
solution mixture of KIO3 and NaIO3
Q3.Which of the following noble gases has an unusual property of diffusing through the the materials such
as rubber, glass and plastic?
a)He b) Ne c) Ar d)Kr.
Q4.The acid in which O-O bonding is present in:
a)H2S2O3 b)H2S2O6 c) H2S2O8 d) H2S4O6.
Q5.The pair in which the phosphorus atoms has a formal oxidation state of +3
is: a) orthophosphorus acid and pyrophosphorus acid.
b)pyrophosphorus acid and hypophosphoric acid.
c)orthophosphorus acid and hypophosphoric acid
d)pyrophosphorus acid and pyrophosphoric acid.
Q6.The reaction of Zinc with dilute and conc.nitric acid respectively produce :
a) N2O and NO2 b) NO2and NO c)NO and N2O d) NO2and N2O
Q7.Which among the following is most reactive?
a)I2 b) ICl c) Cl2 d)Br2
q8.If Cl2 is passed through hot aqueousNaOH the products formed have Cl in different oxidation
states.These are indicated as:
a)-1 and +1. b)-1 and +5. c) +1 and +5 . d) -1 and +3.
Q9.Which has maximum boiling point?
a)Kr b)Xe c)He d) Ne.
Q10.Which of the following properties is not shown by NO?
a)it is diamagnetic in the gaseous state
b)it is a neutral oxide
c)it combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide.
d)its bond order is 2.5
Q11.The hybridisation of orbtals of N atom in NO3- ,NO2+ and NH4+ ions are respectively a)sp ,sp2,sp3
b)sp2 ,sp,sp3 c)sp ,sp3,sp2 d) sp2,sp3 sp
Q12.What is the number of valency electrons in iodine monochloride.
a)12 b) 14 c) 16 d)18.
Q13The interhalogen compounds having dimeric structure is :
a)ClF3 b)BrF3 c)IF3 d)ICl3
Q14. Which of the following noble gases has the highest positive electron gain enthalpy.?
a)He b) Kr c)Ar d) Ne e)Xe
Q15.Excess of PCl5 reacts with conc.H2SO4 giving:
a)chlorosulphonic acid.b)Sulphurous acid c)Sulphuryl chloride d)Thionyl chloride.
Q16.The molecule having smallest bond angle is
a)NCl3 b)AsCl3 c) SbCl3 d)PCl3
Q17.Sulphuryl chloride reacts with phosphorus(P4)to give:
a) PCl5 ,SO2 b) POCl3 ,SOCl2 c) PCl5,SO2,S2Cl2 d) POCl3, SO2,S2Cl2
Q18.The species in which N atom is in a state of sp hybridisation is:
a)NO2+ b) NO2
- c) NO3
- d) NO2
Q19. In which of the following oxides of nitrogen the oxidation state of nitrogen is the lowest
a)Nitric oxide b)Nitrous oxide c)Nitrogen dioxide d) Nitrogen trioxide
Q20.Among the following oxoacids ,the correct decreasing order of acidic strength is a)HClO2>
HClO4>HClO3 > HClO b)HClO> HClO2> HClO3> HClO4
c)HClO4>HClO >HClO2> HClO3 d) HClO4> HClO3 >HClO2> HClO
Q21.Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect?
a)S2 molecule is paramagnetic.
B)The vapour at 200 0c consist mostly of S8rings.
c)At 600 0c ,the gs mostly consists of S2 mmolecules.
d)The oxidation states of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.
Q22. Which of the following statements ?
a)The stability of hydrides increasesfrom NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the periodic table.
b)Nitrogen can not form pπ- dπ bond.
c)Single N—N bond is weaker than P—P bond.
d)N2O4 has two resonating structure.
Q23.P4O10 is an anhydride of
a)H3PO2 b) H3PO3c) H3PO4d) H4P2O7
Q24.Which of the following contain P—O—P bond?
a)Hypophosphurous acid b) pyrophosphuiric acid
c) phosphurous acid d) orthophosphuric acid
Q25. Which of the following statements regarding ozone is incorrect?
a) Ozone molecule is angular in shape.
b) Ozone molecule is hybrid of two contributing structure.
c)O—O bond length in ozone is identical with that of molecular oxygen.
d)Ozone is used as germicide and disinfectant for the purification of air.
Q26.Number of sigma bond in P4O10 is
a)6 b)7 c)16 d) 17
Q27.Which of the following factor is is the most important in making fluorine as a strong oxidising agent?
a)Hydration enthalpy b)Ionisation enthalpy c)Electron gain enthalpy d)Bond dissociation enthalpy.
Q28.The number of hydrogen atom attached to phosphorus atom in hypophosphorus acid is
a)Zero b) two c) one d)three
Q29.In which of the following molecules all the bonds are not equal?
a)SF4 b)SiF4 c)XeF4 d) BF4-
Q30.The decreasing order of bond angle from NH3(107) to SbH3(91.3)down the group 15 elements is due
to :
a)increasing bond pair bondpair repulsion. b)increasing p-orbital character on sp3 orbital c) decreasing
bond pair lonepair repulsion d) decreasing electronegativity.
Q31.P4O6 reacts with water to give
a)H3PO3 b)H4P2O7 c) HPO3 d) H3PO4
Q32. What may be expected to happen when phosphine gas is mixed with chlorine gas?
a)PCl3 and HCl are formed and the mixture warm up.
b) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture cooled down
c). PH3 and Cl2 are formed and the mixture warm up.
d)The mixture only cooled down.
Q33.The correct order of thermal stability of hydrogen halides(H—X) is
a)HI>HBr>HCl>HF b) HF>HCl>HBr>HI c) H Cl<HF<HBr<HI D) HI>HCl>HF>HBr
Q34.When the rain is accompanied by thunderstorm,the collected rain water will have the PH value
a)slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there.
b)uninfluenced by the occurrence of thunderstorm.
c)which depends upon the amount of dust in air.
d)slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm.
Q35.Which one of the following has highest proton affinity.
a)H2S b)NH3 c) PH3 d) .H2O
Q36 .N2O (laughing gas )finds use in the following expect
a)as a propellent in whipped icecream. b)as an anaesthetic
C) for the preparation of N3H. d) as a fuel for rocket.
Q37 . In P4 tetrahedral molecule :
a)each P atom is joined to four Pb) each P atom is joined to three P
c)each P atom is joined to two P d)P4 does not exists.
Q38.Which one is amphoteric oxide.
a)Na2O b) SO2 c) B2O3 d) ZnO
Q39.In case of nitrogen NCl3 is possible but not NCl5,while in case of phosphorus PCl3 as well as PCl5 is
possible .it is due to
a)availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N.
b)lower electronegativity of P than N
c)lower tendency of hydrogen bond formation in P than N.
d)occurrence of P in solid state while N in gaseous state at room temperature.
Q40.In XeF2,XeF4,XeF6 the number of lone pairs are respectively
a)2,3,1 b) 1,2,3 c)4,1,2, d)3,2,1
Q41.Oryhophosphoric acid on heating gives
a)metaphosphoric acid. b) phosphine c) phosphorus pentoxide d) phosphorus acid.
Q42.Which oxide does not act as reducing agent.
a)NO b) NO2 c)N2O d) N2O5
Q43.Solubility of iodine in water may be increased by adding
a)potassium iodide b) chloroform c)carbon disulphide d) sodium thiosulphate
Q44.Oxidation of hydrogen halide(H—X)affords a method for the industrial preparation of all halogen(X2)
except
a)fluorine b) chlorine c)bromine d)iodine.
Q45.Conc.HCl when kept in an open air sometimes produce a cloud of white fumes.The explanation for it is
that:
a)oxygen of air reacts with emitted HCl gas to form a cloud of chlorine gas.
b)strong affinity of HCl gas for moisture in air results forming of droplets of liquid solution which appears
like a cloud smoke.
c)due to strong affinity for water ,conc. HCl pulls the moisture in air towards itself .This moisture
forms droplets of water and hence the cloud.
d)Conc.hydrochloric acid emits strong smelling HCl gas all the time.
Q46.Which of the following reaction depicts the oxidising behaviour of H2SO4.
a)2HI+H2SO4--I2 +SO2+2H2O
b)Ca(OH)2+H2SO4--CaSO4+2H2O
c)NaCL+H2SO4--NaHSO4+HCl
d)2PCl3+H2SO4-POCl3+HCl+SO2Cl2
Q47.Which of the following statement is true.
a)H3PO3 is a stronger acid than H2SO3.
B)In aq.medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl.
c)HClO4 is a weaker acid than HClO3.
D)HNO3is a stronger acid than HNO2.
Q48.Which products are expected to be formed from the dispropertionation reaction of hypochlorous acid.?
a)HClO3 and Cl2O b) HClO2and HClO4 c)HCl and Cl2O d) ) HClandHClO2
Q49.Which of the following reaction of xenon compounds is not feasible.
a)XeO3 +6HF---XeF6+3H2O
b)3XeF3+6H2O--2Xe +XeO3+12HF +3/2 O2
c)2XeF2 +2H2O--2Xe+ 4HF +O2
d)XeF6+rBf--Rb[XeF7]
Q50. HNO3+P2O5--A+B
A is an oxoacid of phosphorus B is an oxide of nitrogen.A and B are respectively
a)H3PO4,N2O3 b) HPO3,N2O3 c)HPO3,N2O5 d) H3PO3,N2O5
Q51.Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacids as one of its compounds .The anhydride of that
oxoacid is
a)Cl2O b) Cl2O7 c) ClO2 d) Cl2O5
Q52.The order of oxidation states of phosphorus atom in the oxoacids is
a)H3PO4>H3PO2>H3PO3>H4P2O6 b) H3PO4>H4P2O6>H3PO3>H3PO2 c)H3PO2>H3PO3> H4P2O6>H3PO3 d)
H3PO3>H3PO2>H3PO4>H4P2O6
Q53.Conc.nitric acid upon long standing turn yellowish brown due to the formation of
a)NO b)NO2 c)N2O D)N2O4
Q53.t he percentage p –charecter in the orbitals forming p-p bond in P4 molecule is : a)25 b) 33 c)50 d)
75
Q54.Ammonia can be dried by
a)conc.H2SO4 b) P4O10 c)CaO d)Anhydrous CaCl2
Q55.The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO3)2is
a)+3 b)+2 c)+1 d)-1
Q55.There is no S—S bond in a)S2O42-
b)S2O52-
c)S2O32-
d)S2O72-
Q56.Which act as an oxidising as well as reducing agent?
a)SO2 b) MnO2 c) Al2O3 d) CrO3
Q57.The halogen which is is most easily reduced is
a)F2 b) Cl2 c)Br2 d) I2
Q58.The correct order of acidic strength is :
a)Cl2O7>SO2>P4O10 )b)CO2>N2O5>SO3 c)Na2 O>MgO>Al2O3 d)K2O>CaO>MgO
Q59.Charge distribution in iodine monochloride is best represented by
a)I+Cl
- b)I
+5Cl
-5 c)I
-Cl
+ d)I
5-Cl
5+
Q60.The total number lone pairs in XeOF4 is
a) 0 b)1 c)2 d)3
d and f- BLOCK ELEMENTS
Q1.The atomic number of cerium is 58.The correct electronic configuration of Ce3+
ion is
a) [Xe] 4f1) b)[Kr] 4f
1 c)[Xe] 4f
13 d)[Kr] 4d
1
Q2.The colour ofKMnO4 is due to
a)LM charge transfer transition b)σ σ* transition
c) ML charge transfer transition d)d—d transition
Q3.Which of the following statement is incorrect for KMnO4.
a)it is an oxidising agent b)it is used as a bleaching agent in textile industry
c) it is used as an antiseptic.d)it is a dark purple coloured amorphous solid.
Q 4.Upon heating potassium permanganate, which of the folling compound is not obtained?
a)MnO b) K2MnO4 c) O2 d)MnO2
Q5.d-block elements form complex due to
a)large size and high nuclear charge b) small size and low nuclear charge
c} small size and high nuclear charge d)none of these.
Q6.The correct order ofE0 M
2+/M values with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn,Fe, and
Co is
a)Cr>Mn>Fe>Co b)Mn>Cr>Fe>Co c)Cr>Fe>Mn>Co d)Fe>Mn>Cr>Co
Q7.In the context of lanthanoids, which of the following statement is not correct?
a)There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series.
b)All members exhibit+3 oxidation states c)Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is
not easy.d)Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of the compounds in the +4 state for all the
members in the series.
Q8.The bonds present in the structure of dichromate ion are :
a)four equivalent Cr—Obonds only. B)six equivalent Cr—O bondsand one O-O bond
c)six equivalent Cr—O bondsand one Cr-Crbond d)sixequivalent Cr—O bondsand one Cr-O-Cr bond.
Q9.The outer electronic configuration of Gd(Atomic number is 64)is
a)4f3 5d
5 6s
2 b)4f
8 5d
06s
2 c)4f
4 5d
4 6s2 d)4f
7 5d
1 6s
2
Q10.Sodium salt of an organic acid” X”produces effervescences with conc.H2SO4.X reacts with the
acidified aq.CaCl2solution to give a white precipitate which decolourise acidic solution of KMnO4.X is:
a)CH3COONa b) Na2C2O4 c) C6H5COONa d) HCOONa
Q11.When MnO2 is fused with KOH ANDkno3 ,A COLOURED COMPOUND IS FORMED.Choose the
right compound with appropriate colour.
a)K2MnO4,green b)KMnO4,purple c)Mn2O3,brown d)MnO2,black
Q12.The bivalent metal ion having maximum paramagnetic behaviouramong the first row transition series is
a)Mn2+
b)Cr2+
c)Sc2+
d)Cu2+
Q13.In which of the following,d-d transition involves absorption in the ultraviolet region.
a)[Cu(H2O)4]2+
b) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
c)[ Co(NH3)6]3+
d)[Co(CN)6]3-
Q14.Highest oxidation state shown by any transition element is
a)+6 b)+5 c)+8 d)+7
Q15.Which of the following statement regarding lanthnoid is false.
a)All lanthanoids are solid at room temperature.
b)Their usual oxidation state is +3.c)They can be separated from one another by ion-exchange method.
D)Their ionic radii increases with increase in atomic number.
Q16.The correct basicity order of the following lanthnoid ion is
a)La3+
>Lu3+
>Ce3+
>Eu3+ b)Ce
3+>Lu
3+>La
3+>Eu
3+ c)Lu
3+>Ce
3+>Eu
3+>La
3+
d)La3+
>Ce3+
>Eu3+
>Lu3+
Q17.Identify the case where there is change in oxidation number
a)acidified solution of Cro42-
b)SO2 gas is bubbled through an acidic solution of Cr2O72-
C)alkaline
solution of Cr2O72-
d)aq. solution ofCrO2Cl2 in NaOH .
Q18.Which is not true in describing the catalytic property of transition metal.
a)The ability to adopt the multiple oxidation states.
b)The ability to form bond between reactant molecules and atoms of the surface of the catalyst’
c)Increasing the concentration of reactant at the surface of the catalyst.
d)Strengthening the bonds in the reactant molecules.
Q19.Which one of these is not known.
a)CuCl2 b)CuI2 c) CuF2 d) CuBr2
Q20.Select the coloured compounds among the following.
a)TiCl4 b)CrCl3 c)ZnCl2 d)CuCl.
Q21.In a neutral or faintly alkaline medium.thiosulphate ion is quanitatively oxidised by KMnO4 to
a)SO32-
b)SO42-
c)SO2 d)S2O82-
Q22.The radius of La3+
(atomic no.=57) is 1.06A0. Which one of the following given values will be closest
to the radius of Lu3+ (atomic no.=71)?
a)1.40 A0 b)1.06 A
0 c)o.85 A
0 d)1.60 A
0
q23.What would happen if a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid.
a)Cr2O72-
and OH- are formed
b)CrO42-
is reduced to Cr3+
c) CrO42-
is reduced to +7 oxidation state of Cr
d) Cr2+
and Cr2O72 are formed
Q23.The oxidation states of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction obetween KI and acidified
potassium dichromate solution is
a)+4 b)+6 c)+2 d) +3
Q24.The spin-spin agnetic moment in units of Bohr magneton of Ni2+
ion in aq. solution is
a)2.84 b)4.9 c) zero d) 1.73
q25.Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a)4f and 5f orbitals are equallushielded.
b)d-block element shows irregular and erratic chemical propertiesamong themselves.
c)La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals
d)The chemistry of various lanthanoids is quite similar.
Q26.The product of I- with MnO4-in alkaline mediumis
a)IO3- b)I2 C)IO
- D)IO4-
Q27.Which of the following combination will produce H2 gas.
a)Fe metal and conc.HNO3 b) Cu metal and conc.HNO3
c)Au metal and NaCN(aq.)in presence of air d)Zn metal and NaOH(aq.)
Q28Cosider the complex ions P,Q,R.P=[FeF6]3-
Q=[V(H2O)6]2+
.R=Fe(H2O)6]2+
the correct order of their spin only magnetic momentvalue in B.M is
a)R<Q<P . b)Q<R<P. c)R<P<Q d)Q<P<R
Q29.Colour of the light absorbed by aq.CuSO4 is
a)orange red b)bluish green c)yellow d)violet
Q30.The complex showing spin only magnetic moment of 2.82B.M is
a)Ni(CO)4 b)[ Ni(Cl)4]2-
c)[Ni(PPh3)4] d) [ Ni(Cl)4]2-
Q31.Passing H2S gas intoof a mixture Mn2+
,Ni2+
,Cu2+
and Hg2+
ions in an acidified aq.solution
precipitates
a)CuS and HgS b)MnS and CuS C) MnS and NiS d) NiS and HgS.
Q32.The ore which contain bothCu and Fe is
a)Cuprite b)chalcocite c)chalcopyrite d)malachite
Q33.When KMnO4 act as an oxidising agent and ultimately forms MnO42-
.MnO2 ,Mn2O3,Mn2+
then the
number of electron transferred in each case respectively is
a)4,3,1,5, b)1,5,3,7 c)1,3,4,5 d)3,5,7,1
Q34.On adding NaOH solution to the aq. solution of K2Cr2O7 the colour of the solution changes from :
a)orange to yellow b)yellow to orange c)orange to red d)yellow to pink
Q35.The most common oxidation states of lanhanoid is
a)+1,+2 b)+2,+4 c)+2 d)+2,+3,+4
Q36.Which one of the following leave behind a metal on strong heating.
a)copper nitrate b)Magnesium nitrate. C)silver nitrate d)Ferric nitrate
Q37.Which is the correct order of ionic size.(Atomio no. ofCe,Sn,Yb,Lu are 58,50.70,71respectively)
a)Ce>Sn.Yb>Lu b)Sn>Ce.>Lu>Yb c)Lu>Yb>Sn>Ce d)Sn>Yb>Ce>Lu
Q38.Which of the following may expected to have the highest second ionisation enthalpy
a)Cr b)Mn d)Fe d)V
Q39. Which of the following have the highest E0 M
2+/M value?
a)Co b)Cr c)Mn d)Fe
Q40. Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated
against it?
a) Sc<Ti<Cr<Mn (no. of oxidation states)
b)V2+
<Cr2+
<Mn2+
Fe2+
(paramagnetic behaviour)
c)Ni2+
<Co2+
<Fe2+
<Mn2 (ionic size0
d)Co3+
<Fe3+
<Cr3+
<Sc3+
(stability in aq.solution)
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
01. Write the coordination number & oxidizing state of Pt in [Pt(en)2 Cl2]
02. Write the formula of Iron(III) henacyanoferrate (II)
03. What type of isomerism is shown by [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 ?
04. Write the hybridization of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]4 –
, [Ni(CO)4].
05. Why low spin tetrahedral complexes are rarely observed ?
06. What will be correct order for wavelength of absorption in the visible
region in [Ni(NO2)6]4 –
. [Ni(NH3)6] 2+
, [Ni(H2O)6]2+
07. What is the hybridization of [Cu(NH3)4]2+
& write its shape ?
08. A 0.01 m CoCl3.4NH3 gives depression of freezing point of 0.0372.
Find out the formula of the complex.
09. Draw the structure of optical isomers of [Cr(OH)3 ]3 –
, [PbCl2-(CO)2]2+
10. (CoF6)3 –
forms outer complexes while [Co(CN)6]3 –
forms inner orbital
complex.
11. [CuCl4]2 –
exist but [CuI4]2 –
does not.
12. CuSO45H2O is blue in colour while CuSO4 is colourless.
13. Write the formula of
a) Pentaammine Chlorido Cobalt (III)
b) Lithium tetrahydroaluminate (III)
14. Write the IUPAC name of
a) [Cr(NH3)(NCS)][ZnCl4]
b) [Ag(NH3)2] [Au(CN)2]
15. Write the IUPAC name of
K3[Fe(C2O4)3], [Co (en)2Cl2]SO4
16. [NiCl4]2 –
is paramagnetic while Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic.
17. Why the magnetic moment of [Fe(H2O)6]3+
is 5.92 BM but that of
[Fe(CN)6]3 –
is 1.73 BM ?
18. What is meant by crystal field splitting energy ? Write the electronic
configuration of d4 in terms t2g& eg in octahedral field when 0> P,
0< P.
19. a) Describe the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
b) Draw the structure of Mn2(CO)10.
20. Explain why
a) Nickel does not form low spin octahedral complexes.
b) Co2+
is easily oxidized to Co3+
is presence of strong ligand.
c) CO is stronger ligand than NH3.
21. For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2]Cl2, identify
a) Oxidation state of Iron & coordination number of Iron.
b) The hybrid orbitals & shape of complex.
c) Magnetic behavior of complex.
d) Geometrical isomers
e) Name of the complex.
Halo alkanes & Haloarenes
01 Out of Clorobenzene & benzyle chloride , which one gets easily
hydrolysed by of NaOH & why ?
02 Why can arylhalids not be prepared by Phenol with HCl in presence of
ZnCl2 ?
03 RMg X + R1OH
04 How do polar Solvents help in SN1 mechanism?
05 Haloarence are less reactive than haloalkanes. Explain.
06 Which of the following will react faster in SN1 reaction with OH
- ion?
CH3 CH2 Cl or C6H5CH2Cl
07 Why is H2SO4 not used during the reaction of alcohol with KI ?
08 Write the structure of 1 – Bromo – 4- sec – butyl – 2 – methyl
benzene.
09 Ahydrocarbon C5H12 gives only one mono chlorinated product –
Identyfy the hydrocarbon.
10 Write the structure of 2- ( 2 – Chlorophenyle ) 1 – iodoethane.
11 Which compound in each pairs will react faster in SN2reaction.
a) CH3Br or CH3I b) (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl
12 Convert
a) Benzene to Aniline
b) Benzene to Diphenyl
13 The traetment of alkyl Chloride with aq. KOH gives alcohol but with
Alc.KOH gives alkene. Explain.
14 Write the structures & names of the compounds formed when C7H8 is
treated with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3.
15 Name the alkene which gives 1 – Chloro – 1 – Methyl Cyclohenane by
its reaction with HCl. Write the reactions involved.
16 Write a chemical test to distinguish between
a) Chlorobenzene & Benzyl Chloride
b) Chloroform & Carbon tetrachloride
17 Write the product
a) 1 – Methyl Cyclohenence reacts with HI
b) CH3CH2Br + Ag CN
18 Give one example of each
a) Allylichalide b) Benzylic holide
19 Arrange the following in order of increasing boiling points.
a) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane
b) 1 – Chloropropane, 2 – Chloropropane, 1 – Chlorobutane
20 Convert the following
a) But – 1 – ene to n-butyliodide
b) Tert-butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
21 Explain. why ?
a) Dipolemoment of Chlorobenzene is lower that of Cyclohexyl
Cloride.
b) Grignard’s reagent should be prepared under anhydrous
conditions.
c) Allyl Chloride is more reactive than n-propyl Chloride towards
SN1 reaction.
d) Haloarene undergoes electrophilic reaction slowly.
e) P-nitroChlorobenzene is more reactive than Chlorobenzene
towards aq. NaOH.
JEE MAIN AND NEET
01. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ? (en =
ethylenediamine)
a) [Zn (en) (NH3)2]2+
b) [Co(en)3]3+
c) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+
d) [Zn(en)2]2+
02. How many EDTA (ethylenediamminetetra acetic acid) molecules are
required to make an Octahedral complex with a Ca2+
ion ?
a) Six b) Three c) One d) Two
03. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘E’ in
the complex [E(en)2C2O4)]NO2 (where (en) is ethylenediamine) are
respectively.
a) 6 and 2 b) 4 and 2 c) 4 and 3 d) 6 and 3
04. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at no 27), will
the magnitude of 0 be the highest ?
a) [ Co(CN)6]3 –
b) [ Co(C2O4)3]3 –
c) [ Co(H2O)6]3 +
d) [ Co(NH3)6]3 +
05. Among the ligans NH3, en, CN and CO the correct order of their
increasing field strength is
a) NH3< en < CN –
< CO b) CN –
< NH3< CO < en
c) en < CN –
< NH3< CO d) CO < NH3< en < CN –
06. The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiCl4]2 –
is
a) 5.46 BM b) 2.82 BM c) 1.41 BM d) 1.82 BM
07. Which of the following facts about the complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is
wrong ?
a) The complex is paramagnetic
b) The complex is an outer orbital complex.
c) The complex gives white precipitate
d) The complex involves d2sp
3 hybridisation and octahedral in shape.
08. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibts
paramagnetic behaviour ?
a) [Co(NH3)6]3+
b) [N2(NH3)6]2+
c) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
d) [Cr (NH3)6]3+
09. The complex which has no ‘d’ electrons in the central metal atom is
a) [MnO4] –
b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
c) [Fe(CN)6]3 –
d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
10. NiCl2 in the presence of dimethylglyoxime (DMG) gives a complex
which precipates in the presence of NH4OH, giving a bright red
colour.
a) Draw its structure and show H – bonding
b) Give oxidation state of Ni and its hybridisation
c) Predict whether it is paramagentic or diamagnetic.
11. Among the following metal carbonyls, th C – O bond order is lowest
in :
a) [Mn(CO)6] –
b) [Fe(CO)5] c) [Cr(CO)6] d) [V(CO)6]Cl
12. The ionisation isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is
a) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(O2 N)]Cl2 b) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] (NO2)
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl d) [Cr(H2O)3Cl2(NO2)]H2O
13. The complex showing a spin only magentic moment of 2.82 B.M. is
a) Ni(CO)4 b) [NiCl4]2-
c) Ni(PPh3)4 d) [Ni(CN)4]2 –
14. Total number of geometrical isomers for the complex
[RhCl(CO)(PPh3)(NH3)] is __________
15. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex
[Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is
a) Tetra aquadiamine Cobalt (III) Chloride
b) Tetra aquadiammine Cobalt (III) Chloride
c) Diaminetetraquacobalt (III)Chloride
d) Diamminetetraquacobalt (III)Chloride
16. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit
optical isomerism ?
a) [Co(en)3]3+
b) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
c) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] d) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+
17. Which of the following compounds is not coloured yellow ?
a) Zn2[Fe(CN)6] b) K3 [Co(NO2)6]
c) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10] d) BaCrO4
18. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for suqare planar
[Pt(Cl)(py (CN2)(NH2OH)+ is (Py = Pyridine)]
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
19. Which molecule / ion among the following cannot act as a ligand in
complex compounds ?
a) CH4 b) CN –
c) Br –
d) CO
20. When concentrated HCl is added to an aqueous solution of CoCl2, its
colour changes from reddish pink to deep blue. Which complex ion
gives blue colour in this reaction ?
a) [CoCl4]2 –
b) [CoCl6]3 –
c) [CoCl6]3 –
d) [Co(H2O)6 ]2+
HALOALKANE & HALOARENE
01. On mixing an alkane with Chlorine in presence of UV light forms only
one monochloroalkane. The alkane is
a) Isopantane b) Pentane c) Propane d) Neopentane
02. 2-Methylbutane reacts with Br2 in presence of sunlight gives _________
03. Tertiary alkyl halides are inert to SN2 reaction due to
a) Insolubility b) Greater +I effect
c) Instability d) Steric hindrance
04. Alkyl halides reacts with dialkyl copper gives
a) Alkene b) Alkyl copperhalide c) Alkane d) None
05. Which isomerism is shown by 2,3-Dichlorobutane
a) Geometrical b) Optical c) Structural d) Diastereomerism
06. Elimination of HBr from 2-Bromobutane gives
a) Equimolar mixture of 1 & 2-Butane
b) Predominantly But – 2 – ene
c) Predominantly But – 1 – ene
d) Predominantly But – 2 – yne
07. F
The IUPAC name of is ______________
Br
08. Ch3Br + Nu –
→ CH3 – Nu + Br –
Nu –
→ PhO –
, AcO –
, OH – , CH3O
–
The decreasing order of rate of reaction with above nucleophiles is
___________
09. The correct structure of the major product formed in the reaction
CH2 – Cl
NaCN
Br
10. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives
predominantly
a) Benzoyl Chloride b) Benzyl Chloride
c) O & P – Chlorotoluene d) m - Chlorotoluene
11. The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1 –
trichloroethane with silver powder is
a) Ethyne b) Ethene c) But-2-yne d) But-2-ene
12. How many Chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of
2-methyl butane ?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
13. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is suitable by
a) Finkelstein b) Swart’s reaction
c) Sand-meyer d) Wurtz reaction
14.
COOH
The absolute configuration of H OH is
H Cl
CH3
a) 2R 3S b) 2S 3R c) 2S 3S d) 2R 3R
15. Which of the following on heating with aq.KOH produce acetaldehyde ?
a) CH3COCl b) CH3CH2Cl c) CH3CHCl2 d) None
16. The organic compoind which shows complete stereochemical inversion
during SN2 reaction is
a) CH3Cl b) C2H5Cl c) (CH3)3CCl d) (CH3)2CHCl
17. The compound formed on heating Chlorobenzene with chloral in
presence of Conc. H2SO4 is
a) Freon b) DDT c) Gammaxene d) Hexachlorpethane
18. CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN → CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr is faster in
a) Water b) Ethanol c) Methanol d) Dimethyl Formamide
19. In SN1 reaction on chiral centre, there is
a) Inversion is more than retention leading to partial vacemisation
b) 100% retention c) 100% inversion d) 100% racemisation
20. Which of the following undergoes exclusively by SN1mechanism ?
a) Ethyl Chloride b) Isopropyl Chloride
c) Chlorobenzene d) Benzyl Chloride
ALCOHOLS, PHEOLS AND ETHERS
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound : CH3 CH CH2 O CH2 CH3 |
CH3
2. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound : C6H5 CH2 CH CH3 |
OH
3. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound : CH3 O CH2 CH CH3 |
OH
4. Give the equation of reaction for the preparation of phenol from cumene. 5. Write the chemical equation for the preparation of phenol from benzene using
oleum and sodium hydroxide. 6. Phenyl methyl ether reacts with HI to give phenol and methyl iodide and not
iodobenzene and methyl alcohol. Why? 7. Why is the preparation of ether by acid catalysed dehydration of secondary alcohol
not a suitable method? 8. How can you convert Anisole to phenol? 9. Write the equation involved in the reaction-Williamsons Ether Synthesis. 10. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound :
2 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Explain the mechanism of dehydration steps of ethanol :- H+
CH3CH2OH CH2 = CH2 + H2O 443 K
2. Write the mechanism of the following reaction : Conc. H2SO4
2CH3CH2OH –––––––––– CH3CH2– O – CH2– CH3
413
3. How will you convert
a) Propene to Propan-1-ol?
b) Enthanal to Propan-2-ol?
4. Explain
a) Alcohols are more soluble in water than the hydrocarbons of comparable masses
b) Ortho-Nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol.
5. How will you convert?
a) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol.
b) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
6. Give one chemical test to distinguish between
a) Phenol and Benzoic Acid
b) 1-propanol and 2-propanol
7. How will you convert?
a)Propan-2-ol to propanone.
b)Phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol
8. Write the main product(s) in each of the following reactions :
(i) B2H6
(i) CH3 – CH = CH2
(ii) 3H2O2/OH
(i) aq. NaOH
(ii) C6H5 – OH
(ii) CO2, H+
9. Write the chemical equations involved in the following reactions :
(i) Kolbe’s reaction
(ii)Friedal - Crafts acetylation of anisole
10. How do you convert :
(i)Phenol to toluene
(ii)Formaldehyde to Ethanol 11. (a) Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 1-Methylcyclohexanol. (b) You are given benzene, conc.H2SO4, NaOH and dil.HCl. Write the preparation of phenol using these reagents. 12. Draw the structures of any two isomeric alcohols (other than 1o alcohols) having molecular formula C5H12O and give their IUPAC names. 13. How will you convert : (i) ethanol to propan-2-ol (ii) phenol to acetophenone 14. Write the chemical equation to illustrate Reimer-Tiemann reaction . 15. Give the chemical test to distinguish between OH OH (i) and
CH2OH
(ii) CH3 CH CH3 and
OH
3 MARK QUESTIONS
1. a)Write the mechanism of the following reaction : HBr CH3CH2OH CH3CH2Br + H2O (b) Write the equation involved in Reimer-Tiemann reaction 2. Give reasons for the following :
(i) p-nitrophenol is more acidic than p-methylphenol. (ii) Bond length of C – O bond in phenol is shorter than that in methanol. (iii) (CH3)3C – Br on reaction with sodium methoxide (NaOCH3) gives alkene as the main product and not an ether. 3. Give reasons for the following : (i) Phenol is more acidic than methanol. (ii) The C – O – H bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle . (iii) (CH3)3C – O – CH3 on reaction with HI gives (CH3)3C – I and CH3 – OH as the main products and not (CH3)3C – OH and CH3 – I. 4. How do you convert the following : (i) Aniline to phenol (ii) Prop-1-ene to Propan-1-ol (iii) Anisole to 2-methoxytoluene 5. What happens when (i) ethanol is treated with Cu at 573 K, (ii) phenol is treated with CH3COCl / anhydrous AlCl3, (iii) ethyl chloride is treated with NaOCH3 ? Write chemical equations in support of your answer. 6.Give reasons for the following : (a) p-nitrophenol is more acidic than o-nitrophenol. (b) Bond angle C – O – C in ethers is slightly higher than the tetrahedral angle . (c) (CH3)3C – Br on reaction with NaOCH3 gives an alkene instead of an ether. 7. Carry out the following conversions : i) Phenol to benzoquinone. ii) Propanone to 2-Methylpropan-2-ol. iii) Propene to propan-2-ol. 8. Explain the following behaviours: (i) Alcohols are more soluble in water than the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. (ii) Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol. (iii) Cumene is a better starting material for the preparation of phenol. 9. Explain the mechanism of (i)acid catalysed hydration of an alkene to form corresponding alcohol. (ii) acid catalysed hydration of an alcohol to form alkene 10. Explain the following a)Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. b) Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than orto-methoxy phenol. c) Boiling point of ethanol is higher than methoxy methane. 11. The following is not an appropriate reaction for the preparation of tert.-butyl ethyl ether: C2H5ONa + (CH3)3C Cl (CH3)3C OC2H5
(i) What would be the major product of the given reaction?
(ii) Write a suitable reaction for the preparation of tert.-butyl ethyl ether, specifying the names of reagents used. Justify your answer in both cases. 12. Give reason for the following a) Protonation of phenol is difficult whereas ethanol easily undergoes protonation. b) Boiling point of ethanol higher than that of diethyl ether. c) Anisol on reaction with HI gives phenol and CH3I as main products and not iodobenzene CH3OH.
13.Write the final product (s) in each of the following reactions :
(a)
(b)
(i)CHCl3 + aq.NaOH
(c )C6H5OH (ii) H+
14. Draw the structures and name the product formed if the following alcohols are oxidised .
Assume that excess of oxidising agent is used.
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(ii) 2-butanol
(iii) 2methyl-1-propanol
15. How would you obtain the following
(i) Benzoquinone from phenol
(ii) 2-methyl propan-2-ol from methyl magnesium bromide
(iii) Propan-2-ol from propene
16. Name the reagents which are used in the following conversions
(i) Primary alcohol to an aldehyde
(ii) Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol
(iii) Phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol
17. (i) Explain the mechanism of Addition of Grignard’s reagent to the carbonyl group of
compound forming an adduct followed by hydrolysis .
(ii) Write Kolbe’s reaction with an example.
18. (i) Name the reagents and write the chemical equation for the preparation of the
following compounds by Williamson’s synthesis.
(a) Ethoxy benzene (b) 2-methyl -2-methoxypropane
5 MARK QUESTIONS
1. a) Write the products in each of the following reactions. PCC (i) CH2 = CH CH2OH Zn dust (ii) OH
Anhyd.AlCl3 (iii) CH3O + CH3COCl b) Write the mechanism of the following reaction
Conc.H2SO4/423K
2CH3CH2OH
2. a)Write equations for the following reactions :
(i)Bromine in CS2 with phenol
(ii)Treating phenol with chloroform in presence aq. NaOH
(iii) Anisol reacts with HI
b) Distinguish between
(i) Ethanol and diethyl ether
(ii) Propanol and t-butyl alcohol
3. a) Write the product(s) in each of the following reactions :
(i)
(ii)
b)Write the chemical equations involved in the following reactions : (i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (ii) Friedal-Crafts alkylation of anisole.
4. (a) What happens when :
(i) Phenol reacts with conc.HNO3.
(ii) Salicylic acid reacts with (CH3CO)2O/H+.
(iii) Ethyl chloride reacts with NaOCH3.
(b) Distinguish between :
(i) Ethanol and Phenol
(ii) Propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol
5. (a) Write the formula of reagents used in the following reactions :
(i) Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol
(ii) Hydroboration of propene and then oxidation to propanol.
(b) Arrange the following compound groups in the increasing order of their property
indicated :
(i) p-nitrophenol, ethanol, phenol (acidic character)
(ii) Propanol, Propane, Propanal (boiling point)
(c) Write the mechanism (using curved arrow notation) of the following reaction :
CH3CH2OH
CH3 – CH2 – OH2CH3 – CH2 – O– CH2 – CH3 + H2O
H 6. (a)Write the product(s) in the following reactions : OH COOH (i) (CH3CO)2O
CH3 | HI
(ii) CH3 –CH– O – CH2 – CH3 ? + ? PCC
(iii) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – OH ? (b) Account for the following:
(i) The boiling point of ethers are lower than isomeric alcohols .
(ii) Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohols is not a
suitable method.
JEE , NEET AND OTHER COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
1. Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2diol from trans isomer.
a) Aluminium isopropoxide b) Acetone c) Ozone d) MnO2
2. Which one is the most acidic compound ?
OH OH
(a) (b)
NO2
OH OH
(c) NO2 NO2 (d)
NO2 CH3
3. The major product in the following reaction is
KOH(aq)
CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH2OH
(a) CH3 -CH =CH-CH2OH (b) CH2=CH-CH2-CH2-OH
(c) CH3-CH-CH2 (d) CH3-CH-CH2-CH2-OH
O - CH2 OH
4.The best reagent to convert Pent-3-en-2-ol into pent -3-en-2-one is
(a) acidic permanganate (b) acidic dichromate
(c) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid (d) pyridine chlorochromate
5.Acid catalysed hydration of alkene except ethene leads to the formation of
(a) Primary alcohol (b) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohol (d)mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohol
6.Among the following, the one that gives positive iodoform test upon reaction with I2 and NaOH is
(a) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 (b) C6H5CH2CH2OH
(c) H3C – CH – CH2 – OH (d) PhCH(OH)CH3
CH3
7.Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
(a) A mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br (b) a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
(c) A mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br (d) a mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br
8.In the following sequence of reactions:
(P + I2) Mg HCHO H2O
CH3CH2OH A B C D
Ether
The compound D is
(a) Propanal (b) Butanal
(c) n- Butyl alcohol (d) n-propyal alcohol
9. The major product of interaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide is
(a) benzoic acid (b) salicylaldehyde
(c) salicylic acid (d) phthalic acid
10 Phenol is heated with a mixture of KBr and KBrO3. The major product obtained in the reaction is
(a) 2-Bromophenol (b) 3-bromo phenol
(c) 4-Bromo phenol (d) 2,4,6- Tribromophenol
11.Phenol reacts with which of the following reagents to give salicylaldehyde
(a) CHCl3 + NaOH (b) SiO2 + NaOH
(c) CHBr3 + KBrO3 (d) KClO + HClO4
12.Which of the following reagent can be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
(a) Tollen’s Reagent (b) Molisch reagent
(c) Neutral FeCl3 (d) Aqueous NaOH
13.Aspirin is known as
(a) acetyl salicylic acid (b)Phenyl salicylate
(c) Acetyl salicyalate (d) Methyl salicylic acid
14.Which of the following compounds is formed by the reaction between phenol and benzene
diazonium chloride.
(a) Azobenzene (b) Aniline
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) p-hydroxyazobenzene
15.Which of the following will not dissolve in sodiumbicarbonate ?
(a) 2,4,6 Trinitrophenol (b) Benzoic acid
(c) o-nitrophenol (d) p-nitrophenol
16.Among the following compounds that can be dehydrated most easily is :
CH3
(a) CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3
OH
(b) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH3
OH
(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
(d) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3
OH
17.Among the following the one that gives positive iodoform test upon reaction with I2 and NaOH is
(a) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 (b) C6H5CH2CH2OH
(c) CH3 CH CH2 OH (d) PhCH(OH)CH3
CH3
18. The main product of the following reaction is
Conc. H2SO4
C6H5CH(OH)CH(CH3)2
H5C6 H
(a) C C
H CH(CH3)2
C6H5CH2 CH3
(b) C C
H CH3
H5C6 CH(CH3)2
(c) C C
H H
C6H5CH2
(d) C CH2
H3C
19. Which is the product of the following reaction ?
CH3
CH3
H+
Heat
OH
CH3
(a) CH3 (b)
H3C CH3
CH3 H3C
(c) (d)
CH3 H3C
20. O-Nitro phenol is less soluble in water than p- and m-Nitrophenol because
(a)o-Nitro phenol is more steam volatile than m-and p-isomers.
(b) o-Nitro phenol shows intramolecular H-bonding.
(c) o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular H-bonding.
(d) Melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower than those of m- and p-isomer.
21. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from phenol by
(a) Schotten-Baumann Reaction
(b) Kolbe’s Reaction
(c) Perkin reaction
(d) Reimer- Tiemann Reaction
22. An unknown alcohol is treated with Lucas reagent to determine whether the alcohol is primary ,
secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol react fastest and by what mechanism ?
(a) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
(b) Secondary alcohol by SN1
(c) Tertiary alcohol by SN2
(d) Secondary alcohol by SN2
23.Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of acidity
OH OH OH OH
Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) IV ˃ III ˃ I ˃ II (b) II ˃ IV ˃ I ˃ III
(c) I ˃ II ˃ III ˃ IV (d) III ˃ I ˃ II ˃ IV
24. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under pressure at 1250C yields a product which on
acetylation produces C.
ONa
1250C H+
+ CO2 B C
5 atm Ac2O
The major product C would be :
OCOCH3 OH
COOH COCH3
(a) (b)
COCH3
OH OCOCH3
COOCH3
(c) (d)
COCH3
25.For which of the following molecules μ = 0 ?
Cl CN OH SH
Cl CN OH SH
(a) Only I (b) I and II (c) Only III (d) III and IV
Unit-XII
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
[1-Mark Questions]
1. Write the structure of pent-2enal.
2. What is Tollen’s reagent ? Write one usefulness of this reagent.
3. Complete the following reaction and give the names of the major products ;
C6H5CONH2 + HONO
4. What happens when ethanoyl chloride is subjected to Rosenmun dreduction ?
5. What happens when benzoic acid is treated with conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 ?
Give chemical equation.
6. Write structures of the products of the following reaction :
(C6H5CH2)2Cd + 2CH3COCl
7. What happens when methanol reacts with CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis ?Give chemical equation.
8. Give chemical test to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid.
9. Illustrate Decarboxylation reaction with an example.
10. Illustrate the following reaction :
Cross aldol condensation.
[2-Mark Questions]
1. Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Propanal to propanone
(ii) Benzaldehyde to bezoic acid.
2. Complete the following reaction and give the names of major products :
Dil. NaOH
(i) CH3CHO
Conc. NaOH
(ii) HCHO
Δ
3. Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structure than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a
stronger acid than phenol. Why ?
4. Explain :
(a) There are two -NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However only one such group is involved in the formation
of semicarbazones.
(b) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrins in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethyl-cyclohexanone does not.
5. How will you account for the following :
(a) Chloroacetic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid
(b) Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than ethanoic acid
6. Explain the mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group of an aldehyde or a ketone.
7. Write the equations involved in the following reactions :
(a) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(b) Etard reaction
8. Predict the structures of the products formed when benzaldehyde is treated with
(a) Conc. HaOH
(b) HNO3/H2SO4 (at 273-383 K)
9. Write the name and the structures of the products formed in the following reactions ;
(a) Reaction of C2H5MgBr with 2-butanone followed by acid hydrolysis
(b) Reaction of thionyl chloride with benzoic acid.
10. Give reason for the following :
(a) Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in tnenucleophilic reactions.
(b) Most aromatic acids are solids but acids of acetic acid groups are mostly liquids.
[3-Mark Questions]
1. How will you convert :
(i) Acetophenone to ethylbenzene
(ii) Acetamide to m-nitrobenzoic acid
(iii) Benzoic acid to 3-bromobenzoic acid
2. Illustrate :
(i) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(ii) Clemmensen reduction
(iii) Etard’s reaction
3. An aliphatic compound ‘A’ with a molecular formula C3H6O reacts with phenylhydrazine to give compound
‘B’ . Reaction of ‘A’ with I2 in alkaline medium on warming, gives a yellow precipitate ‘C’. Identify the
compounds A, B and C.
4. What happens when :
(i) An aqueous solution of sodium acetate is electrolysed ?
(ii) Calcium acetate is dry distilled ?
(iii) Sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime ?
5. Identify A, B and C in the following sequence 0f reactions
COOH heat strong
+ NH3 A B C
COOH heating
6. What is meant by the following terms ? Give an example in each case.
(a) Oxime
(b) Imine
(c) Acetal
7. Write the structures of the main products when acetone reacts with the following reagents
(a) Zn-Hg/conc. HCl
(b) H2N-NHCONH2/H+
(c) CH3MgBr and then H3O+
8. Give reasons for the following :
(a) There are two –NH2 groups in semicarbazide, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazide.
(b) Benzaldehyde reduces Tollen’s reagent but not the Fehlingh’s or Benedict’s solution.
(c) CH3CHO is more reactive than CH3COCH3 Towards reaction with HCN.
9. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order their property as indicated :
(i) Acetaldehyde, acetone, di-tert-butyl metyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN)
(ii) CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH, (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH2COOH (acid strength)
(iii) Benzoic acid, 4-nitrobenzoic acid, 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-methoxy benzoic acid (acid strength)
10. Describe the following conversions in not more than two steps :
(a) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal
(b) Benzoic acid to m-nitrobenzyl alcohol
(c) Propanone to propene
[5-Mark Questions]
1. (a) How would you account for the following :
(i) Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones towards nucleophiles.
(ii) The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than that of the corresponding acids.
(iii) The aldehydes and ketones undergo a number of addition reactions.
(b)Give chemical tests to distinguish between : (i)
Acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde
(ii) Propanone and Propanol
2. (a) Identify A, B and C in the following sequence of reactions :
(i)C2H5MgCl conc. H2SO4 HBr + Preoxide
CH3CHO A B C
(ii)H2O
(b)Predict the structure of the products formed when benzaldehyde is treated with
(i) Conc. NaOH
(ii) HNO3 / H2SO4 (at 273-383 K)
3. (i) Account for the following :
(a) Cl-CH2COOH is a stronger acid than CH3COOH
(b) Carboxylic acids do not give reactions of carbonyl group
(ii)Write the chemical equations to illustrate the following name reactions.
(a) Rossenmund reduction
(b) Cannnizzaro’s reaction
(iii) Out of CH3CH2‒CO‒CH2‒CH3 and CH3‒CH2‒CO‒CH3,which gives iodoform test ?
4. (i) Write the products formed when CH3CHO reacts with the following reagents :
(a) HCN
(b) H2N‒OH
(c) CH3CHO in the presence of dilute NaOH
(iii) Give simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(a) Benzoic acid and phenol
(b) Propanal and propanone
5. Identify A, B, C, D, E in the following sequence of reactions :
Cl2NaOH C6H5COCl C6H6/AlCl3
A CHCl3 B C D + E
Unit-XIII
Amines
[1-Mark Questions]
1. Why is alkyl amine more basic than ammonia ?
2. Arrange the following compound in an increasing order of basic strengths in their aqueous solutions :
NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N
3. Give a chemical test to distinguish between aniline and N-methylaniline.
4. State the reaction taking place when :
Bromine water is added to the aqueous solution of aniline.
5. How is aniline obtained from benzoic acid ?
6. What is Hinsbergreagent ?
7. Why is benzene diazonium chloride not stored and used immediately after its preparation ?
8. Why is aniline soluble in aqueous HCl ?
9. Which of the two is more basic and why ?
CH3NH2 or NH3
10. Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of their solubility in water.
C6H5NH2,( C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2
[2-Mark Questions]
1. Identify A and B in each of the following processes :
NaCN reduction
(i) CH3CH2Cl A B
Ni/H2
NaNO2/HCl C6H5NH2
(ii) C6H5NH2 A B
OH-
2. Give reasons :
(i) Aniline does not undergo Friedal Craft reaction ?
(ii) Why primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction.
3. Complete the following reactions :
(i) C6H5NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH (alc)
(ii) C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O
4. Illustrate :
(i) Sandmeyers reaction
(ii) Coupling reaction
5. Explain the reaction of aniline with mixture of concentrated nitric and sulphuric acid.
6. (i) Aniline is a weaker base than cyclohexyl amine.
(ii)It is difficult to prepare pure amines by ammonolysis of alkyl halides.
7. Give a chemical test to distinguish between
(i)methyl amine and dimethylamine
(ii)aniline and N-methylaniline
8. Write equation for
(i) Gabriel phthalimide reaction
(ii) Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction
9. Give reason
(i) The presence of base is needed in the ammonolysis of alkyl halides.
(ii) Amides are more acidic than amines.
10. How will you convert the following :
(i) Aniline toChlorobenzene
(ii) Ethanoic acid to methanamine.
[3-Mark Questions]
1. What happens when (write reactions only)
(i) Nitropropane is treated with LiAlH4.
(ii) Ethyl isocyanide undergoes hydrolysis
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in basic medium
2. Complete the following reactions :
(i) C6H5N2Cl + CH3COCl
(ii) C2H5NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl
(iii) C2H5NH2 + HNO2
3. Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following compounds in the following pairs :
(i) Methylamine and dimethylamine
(ii) Aniline and benzylamine
(iii) Ethylamine and aniline
4. Write short notes on :
(i) Carbylamine reaction
(ii) Diazotisation
(iii) Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction
5. State reasons for the following :
(i) Amines are less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses .
(ii) Primary amines has higher boiling point than tertiary amines .
(iii) Ethylamine is soluble in water, whereas aniline is not.
6. Explain why
(i) Silver Chloride dissolves in aqueous methy amine solution
(ii) Tertiary amine do not undergo acylation reaction
(iii) Aniline readily reacts with bromine to give 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
7. What happens when (write reactions only)
(i) Nitropropane is treated with LiAlH4
(ii) Ethyl isocyanide undergoes hydrolysis
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in basic medium
8. Give the structures of A, B, C in the following reactions :
KCN LiAlH4 HNO2
CH3Br A B C
273 K
9. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on
heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structure and IUPAC
names of compounds A, B, C.
10. Describe the method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Also write chemical
equations of the reaction involved.
[ 5-mark questions]
1. (i) Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride reacts with the
following reagents :
(a) H3PO2 + H2O
(b) CuCN/KCN
(c) H2O
(ii)Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character in an aqueous
solution :
C2H5NH2,(C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
(iii)Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.
C6H5 NH2 and C6H5NHCH3
2. (i) Write the structures of main products when aniline reacts with the following reagents :
(a) Br2 water (b) HCl (c) (CH3CO)2O/pyridine
(ii) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point :
C2H5NH2, C2H5OH, (C2H5)3N
(iii) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pair of compounds :
(CH3)2NH and (CH3)3N
3. (i) Illustrate the following reactions giving suitable example in each case :
(a) Ammonolysis (b) Coupling reaction (c) Acetylation of amines
(ii) Describe Hinsberg method for identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Also, write the chemical equations of the rections involved.
4. (i) Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride (C6H5N2+Cl-) reacts
with the following reagents :
(a) HBF4/Δ (b) Cu/HBr
(ii) Write the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions :
Sn/HCL NaNO2+HCl H2O
(a) C6H5NO2 A B C
273 K Δ
KCN LiAlH4 HNO2
(b) CH3Cl A B C
273K
5.An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C7H7ON undergoes a series of reactions as
shown below. Write the structures of A, B, C, D and E in the following reactions :
Br2 + KOH NaNO2+HCl CH3CH2OH
( C7H7ON)A C6H5NH2 B C
273 K
CHCl3+ NaOH KI
D E
Unit-XIV
( Bio Molecules )
[1-Mark Questions]
1. What is meant by reducing sugar ?
2. What type of bonding occurs in β-pleated structure of protein ?
3. Name the protein present in milk. What type of protein is it ?
4. Why must vitamin c be supplied regularly in diet ?
5. Name two essential amino acids.
6. Under what conditions glucose is converted to gluconic and saccharicacid ?
7. Name the deficiency diseases resulting from lack of vitamin A and E in the diet.
8. What is glycosidiclinkage ?
9. Why is cellulose not digested in human body ?
10. Where does the water present in the egg go bafter boiling the egg ?
[2-Mark Questions]
1. Name the bases present in RNA. Which one of these is not present in DNA ?
2. Name two water soluble vitamins, their sources ands the diseases caused due to their deficiency in diet.
3. Answer the following :
(i) What type of linkage is responsible for the primary structure of proteins ?
(ii) Name the location where protein synthesis occurs in our body.
4. Give resons for the following statements :
(i) Amino acids are amphoteric in nature.
(ii) Amino acids have comparatively higher melting points than the corresponding haloacids.
5. What is meant by denaturation of proteins ?
6. Explain what is meant by the following :
(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Pyranose structure of glucose
7. Name the products of hydrolysis of
(i) Sucrose and
(ii) Lactose
8. Write the main structural difference between DNA and RNA.
9. What are essential and non-essential amino acids ? Give one example of each type.
10. Mention the type of linkage responsible for the formation of the following :
(i) Primary structure of proteins
(ii) Cross-lining of polypeptide chains
(iii) α-helix formation
(iv) β-sheet structure
[3-Mark Questions]
1. Define the following giving one example of each :
(i) Zwitter ion
(ii) Glycosidic linkage
2. What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents ?
(i) HI
(ii) Bromine water
(iii) HNO3
3. Name the major classes of carbohydrates and give an example of each of these classes.
4. Define the following terms :
(i) Co-enzymes
(ii) Mutation in biomolecules
(iii) Nucleotides
5. Answer the following questions :
(i) How are proteins related to amino acids ?
(ii) How are oligopeptides different from polypeptides ?
(iii) When is a protein said to be denatured ?
6. Define the following as related to proteins :
(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Primary structure
(iii) Denaturation
7. (i) Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness ?
(ii) Name the base that is found in nucleotide of RNA only.
(iii) Glucose on reaction with HI gives n-hexane. What does it suggest about the structure of glucose ?
8. (i) Write the structural difference between starch and cellulose.
(ii)what type of linkage is present in nucleic acid ?
(iii)Give one example each for fibrous Protein and Globular Protein.
9. (i) Write the name of two monosaccharides obtained on hydrolysis of lactose sugar.
(ii)Why vitamin C can not be stored in our body ?
(ii)What is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide ?
10. Name two water soluble vitamins, their sources and diseases caused by their deficiency in diet.
For JEE and NEET
1.Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism? A Lactic acid
B Tartaric acid C Maleic acid D α-amino acid 2.CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by:
AFehlingsolution BBenedict test CTollen's reagent test D Iodoform Test 3.The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid(D) is
A A > B > C > D B B > D > C > A C B >A > D> C D B > C> A> D 4.Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bond A Reimer-Tieman reaction
B Friedel Crafts acylation
C Wurtz reaction
D Cannizzaro reaction
5.One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having molecular mass of 44u. The alkene is: A .Propene B .2-butene C . 1- butene D. None 6.One mole of an organic compound 'A' with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two
moles of HI to form X and Y. When 'Y' is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers
the iodoform test. The compound 'A'∠
A Propan-1-ol B Propan-2-ol
C ethoxyethane
D methoxyethane
CHO | 7.The IUPAC name ofCH3- CH-CH(Br)-CH3
A .2-methyl-3-bromohexanal B. 2-methyl-3-bromobutanal C. 3-bromo-2-methylbutanal D .3-bromo-2-methylpentanal 8.The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is _____.
A nucleophilic attack, transfer of H- and transfer of H+
B electrophilic attack by OH-,transfer of H
+ and transfer of H
-
C transfer of H-, transfer of H+
D transfer of H+, nucleophilicattack and transfer of H-
9.The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits A geometrical isomerism
B optical isomerism C both optical and geometricalisomerism D neither optical nor geometricalisomerism 10.Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using
A hydrazine
B Tollen's reagent
C sodium hydroxide solution
D 2,4-DNP
11.In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound 'B'
CH3CH = CHCH3
The compound B is A CH3COCH3
B CH3CH2CHO
C CH3CHO
D CH3CH2COCH3
12.The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is
A Benzyl alcohol B Benzoic acid C Acetophenone D Benzophenone 13.Which of the following is correct?
AAny aldehyde givessecondary alcohol onreduction B Reaction of vegetable oil withH2SO4 gives glycerin
C C2H5OH, iodine with NaOHgives iodoform
D Sucrose on reaction withNaCl give invert sugar 14.A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives
A .benzyl alcohol and sodiumformate B .sodium benzoate and methylalcohol C. sodium benzoate and sodiumformate D. benzyl alcohol and methylalcohol
15.Which of the following has most acidic hydrogen?
A. 3-Hexanone
B. 2, 4-Hexanedione
C. 2, 5-Hexanedione
D. 2,3Hexanedione
Important Question For JEE & NEET
Chapter-AMINES
1.
(Major Product) The major product (B) is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. Consider the following sequence of reactions:
(B) is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. The major product (X) of the reaction is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. Which of the following compounds does not liberate N2 on treatment with HNO2 ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. The product formed in the reaction is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. The major product (B) formed in the reaction sequence is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. An organic compound (A) on reduction gives compound (B) which on reaction with CHCl3 and NaOH form (C).
The compound (C) on catalytic reduction gives N-methylaniline. The compound (A) is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. The major end product (B) of the reaction :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. Which one among the following is expected to form a secondary alcohol on treatment with HNO2?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. The end product (B) of the reaction sequence :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. The product of above reaction is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. The major product (X) of the reaction is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. The major product of the reaction is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
NITROGEN CONTAINING COMPOUNDS
1. Melting points are normally the highest for
(a) Tertiary amides (b) Secondary amides (c) Primary amides (d) Amines 2. Amines behave as
(a) Lewis acids (b) Lewis bases (c) Aprotic acids (d) Amphoteric compounds 3. Which of the following compound gives dye test
(a) Aniline (b) Methylamine (c) Diphenylamine (d) Ethylamine 4. In hydrolysis of aniline, the reagent used is
(a) Dil. HCl (b) Acetyl chloride (c) CH3OH (d) None of these 5. A nitrogen containing organic compound on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH, evolved very
unpleasant smelling vapour. The compound could be (a) N, N-dimethyl amine (b) Nitrobenzene (c) Aniline (d)Benzamide
6. The reaction between a primary amine, chloroform and few drops of
alcoholic KOH is known as
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction (c) Wurtz's reaction (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
7. Nitrolim is
(a) CaC2 N2 (b) CaCN2 C (c) Ca(CN)2 C NH4CN 8. Phenyl isocyanides are prepared from which of the following reaction
(a) Rosenmund's reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) ReimerTiemann reaction (d) Wurtz reaction
9. On strong heating, ammonium acetate gives
(a) Acetamide (b) Methyl cyanide
10. Aniline is separated from a mixture by
(a) Fractional crystallization
(c) Vacuum distillation
11 Molecular formula of chloropicrin is
(a) CHCl3NO2 (b) CCl3NO3 (c) CCl2 NO2 (d) CCl3NO2
12. In amines, the hybridisation state of N is
(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp
3
13. Foul smelling compound formed, during carbyl amine reaction is:
(a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde (c) Alkyl isocyanide (d) Carboxylic acid
14. The end product of the reaction ethyl amine
HNO2
A
PCl5
B
KCN
C is
(a) Ethyl amine (b) Diethyl amine (c) Propane nitrite (d) Triethyl amine
Nitro,Amine and Azo Compounds
1.When primary amine reacts with chloroform in etharioicKOH then the product is
1) anisocyanide 2) an aldehyde
3) a cyanide 4) an alcohol
2.The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toludine forms
3. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3. CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH
is(2003)
1 (CH3 )2 NH < NH3< CH3NH2
2 NH3< CH,NH2< (CH3 )2 NH
3)CH3NH2< (CH3 )2 NH < NH3
4)CH3NH2< NH3< (CH3)2 NH
4. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates
1)propanoic acid and ammonium salt .
2)ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
3)methylamine salt and ethanoic acid
4)ethylamine salt and methanoic acid
5. The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for the
estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The excess of
acid required 20 mL of 0.5M sodium hydroxide solution hydroxide solutio for
complete
neutralization. The organic compound is 1)acetamide 2) thiourea
3) urea 4) benzamide
6.Which of the following is the strongest base?
7.Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of
amines ?
1. Hinsberg method 2) Hofmann method 3) Wurtz reaction 4) Curtius
reaction
8.Amongst the following the most basic compound is
1) benzylamine 2) aniline
3) acetanilide 4) p-nitroaniline
9.An organic compound having molecular mass 60 is found to contain C=20%, H=6.67% and
=46.67% while rest is oxygen. On heating it gives NH3 alongwith a solid residue. The solid residue
give violet colour with alkaline copper sulphate solution. The compound is
1) CH3NCO 2) CH3 CONH2
3. (NH2)2CO 4) CH3CH2CONH2
10 Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesized in the laboratory
1)by heating phenol with HF and KF
2)from aniline by diazotisation followed by heating the diazonium salt with HBF4
3)by direct \uorination of benzene with F2 gas
4)by reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution
11. CH3CH2NH2+CHCl3+3KOH –>(A)+(B) + 3H20 In the chemical reaction, the compound (A)
and (B) are respectively
1)C2H5CN and 3KCl
2)CH3CH2CONH2 and 3KCl
3)C2H5NC and K2 C03
4)C2H5NC and 3KCl
12.Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution ? (2007)
1) Trimethylamine 2) Aniline
3) Dimethylamine 4) Methylamine
13.Tolueneis nitrated and the resulting product ‘ is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid.
he product so obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprotis bromide. The reaction mixture
so formed contains
1)mixture of o – and p-bromotoluences
2)mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes
3)mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines
4)mixture of o-and m-bromotoluenes
14.In the chemical reactions, the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are
15.A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with CH3COC/ to get a compound * with
molecular mass 390. The number of amino groups present per molecule of the former compound is
1) 2 2) 5 3) 4 4)6
16.On heating an aliphatic primary amine with chloroform and ethanolic potassium
hydroxide, the organic compound formed is
1) an alkyl isocyanide 2) an alkanol
3) an alkanediol 4) an alkyl cyanide
17. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the
smallest pKbvale ?
1)C6H5NH2 2) (CH3)2NH
3) CH3NH2 4) (CH ) N
3 3
BIOMOLECULES
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Ammino acids show amphoteric behaviour. Why ?
2. What are bio catalyst give an example .
3. What are enzymes ?
4. Define a peptide linkage.
5. Write the name of linkage joining two amino acids.
6. What type of bonding helps in stabilizing α-helix structure of proteins ?
7. What are the different types of RNA molecules which perform different functions ?
8. Name the deficiency diseases resulting from lack of vitamin A and E in the diet ?
9. What is the biological effect of denaturation of proteins ?
10. How are hormones and vitamins different in respect of their source and functions ?
11. The deficiency of which vitamin causes the disease pernicious anaemia ?
12. Define zwitter ion.
13. What are polypeptides ?
14. Sketch the Zwitterion form of α-amino acetic acid.
15. Why is cellulose not a source of nourishment to the human body ?
2 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Answer the following questions
(i) Why are vitamin –B and vitamin-C essential for us ?
(ii)What is the difference between nucleoside and nucleotide ?
2. Write the structural and functional difference between DNA and RNA.
3. Write the main structural difference between DNA and RNA. Of the two bases thymine and uracil
, which one is present in DNA.
4. Write the main structural difference between DNA and RNA. Out of the four bases name those
which are common to both RNA and DNA.
5. Describe what do you understand by primary and secondary structure of proteins?
6. Name the bases present in RNA .which one of them is not present in DNA ?
7. What are vitamins ? Deficiency of which vitamins cause convulsions and pernicious anaemia ?
8. What is meant by denaturation of proteins ?
9. Name the four bases present in DNA. Which of these is not present in RNA.
10. Name two fat soluble vitamins, their sources and the disease caused due to their deficiency in
diet.
11. Name two water soluble vitamins, their sources and diseases caused due to their deficiency in
diet .
12. What are essential and non essential amino acids ? Give one example of each type.
13. Mention the type of linkages responsible for the formation of the following
(i) Primary and secondary proteins
(ii) Cross linking of poly peptide chains
(iii)α-helix formation
(iv) β-sheet structure.
14. How are vitamins classified ? Mention the chief sources of vitamin A and C.
15. List any four vitamins, mention the chief sources and function of two of them.
3 MARK QUESTIONS
1. (i) Name the common types of secondary structure of proteins and give one point of difference. (ii) Give one structural difference between amylose and amylopectin
2. (i)Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets? (ii) Name the base that is found in nucleotide of RNA only. (iii) Glucose on reaction with acetic acid gives glucose pentaacetate. What does it suggest about the structure of glucose?
3. How are vitamins classified ? Name the vitamin responsible for coagulation of blood .
4. (i) What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins.
(ii) Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins?
5. (i) What is the structural difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide ?
(ii) The two strands of DNA are not identical but complementary ? Explain.
6. Amino acids may be acidic, alkaline or neutral. How does this happen ? What are the essential and
non-essential amino acids ? Name one of each type.
7. (a) A non reducing disaccharide ‘A’ on hydrolysis with dilute acid gives an equimolar mixture of D -
(+)-glucose and D-(-)-Fructose.
HCl
A + H2O C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
[α]D= +66.50 +52.50 -92.40
Identify A. What is the mixture of D-(+)- glucose and D-(-)-Fructose known as? Name the linkage that
holds the two units in the disaccharide.
(b) amino acids have relatively higher melting points than the corresponding halo acids. Explain.
8. Define the following with one example each.
(a)Polysaccharides
(b) Denatured proteins
(c) Essential amino acids
9. (a)Write the product when D-glucose reacts with conc. HNO3.
(b)Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour .why ?
(c) Write the difference between α-helix and β-pleated structure of proteins.
10. (a) What type of linkage is present in disaccharides ? (b) Write one source and deficiency disease of vitamin B12.
(c) Write the difference between DNA and RNA
JEE , NEET AND OTHER COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
1. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives:
(i) 1- Hexane (ii) Hexanoic acid (iii) 6-iodohexanal (iv) n- Hexane
2. The absolute configuration of
CO2H
H OH
H Cl
CH3
Is
( i) (2R,3S) (ii) (2R,3R) (iii) (2S,3S ) (iv) (2R,3R)
3. Thiol group is present in
(i) Cytosine (ii) Cystine (iii) Cysteine (iv) Methionine
4. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble
(i) Vitamin D (ii) Vitamin C (iii) vitamin E (iv) Vitamin K
5. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?
(i) Cytosine (ii)Thymine (iii) Adenine (iv) Quinoline
6. Thymine is
(i) 5-methyluracil (ii) 4-methyluracil (iii) 3-methyluracil (iv) 1-methyluracil
7. Methyl α-D-glucoside and methyl-β-D-glucoside are pairs of
(i) epimers (ii) anomers (iii) enantiomers (iv) diastereomers
8. During the process of digestion , the proteins present in the food material are hydrolysed to
amino acids . The two enzymes involved in the process are
Enzyme Enzyme
Proteins Polypeptides Amino acids
(i) invertase and zymase (ii) amylase and maltose
(iii) diastose and lipase (iv) pepsin and tripsin
9. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for synthesis of protein is
(i) ribose (ii) gene (iii) nucleoside (iv) nucleotide
10. The functional groups present in typical carbohydrates are
(i) –OH and –COOH (ii) –CHO and –COOH
(iii) C=O and –OH (iv) –OH and –CHO
11. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and
DNA
(i) 1st (ii) 2nd (iii) 3rd (iv) 4th
12. Biuret test is not given by
(i) proteins (ii) carbohydrates (iii)polypeptides (iv) urea
13. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding (+) lactose
(i) On hydrolysis (+) lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose
(ii) (+) lactose is a β-glucoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a
molecule of D(+)galactose.
(iii) (+) lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
(iv) (+)lactose ,C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups.
14. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?
(i) Vitamin B complex (ii) Vitamin D (iii) Vitamin E (iv) Vitamin K
15. Which of the statements about “Denaturation” given below are correct .
(1) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of proteins.
(2) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strands of DNA into single strand.
(3) Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted .
(i) 2 and 3 (ii) 1 and 3 (iii) 1 and 2 (iv) 1,2 and 3
16. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about enzyme catalysis ?
(i) Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
(ii) Enzyme action is specific
(iii) Enzymes are denatured by ultraviolet rays and high temperature.
(iv) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature.
17. Which of the following statement is not correct
(i) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body
(ii) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg white
(iii) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.
(iv) Denaturation makes the proteins more active .
18. Which of the following is non-reducing sugar ?
(i) Glucose (ii) Sucrose (iii)Maltose (iv) Lactose
19. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below
CHO CHO
H OH HO H
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
CHO CHO
HO H H OH
HO H HO H
CH2OH CH2OH
(i) D-erythrose , D-threose, L-erythrose , L-threose
(ii) L-erythrose, L-threose , L-erythrose, D-threose
(iii) D-threose , D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythreose
(iv) L-erythreose .L-threose, D-erythreose ,D-threose
20. The structure of D-(+)-glucose is
CHO
H OH
HO H
H OH
H OH
CH2OH
The structure of L-(-)-glucose is
CHO CHO
H OH H OH
HO H HO H
H OH H OH
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
(A) (B)
(i) Stractur (A) (ii) Structure (B)
(iii) Both (A) an (B) s(iv) Neither (A) nor ( B)
CH-15 POLYMERS
Questions carrying 1 mark.
1.Define a homopolymer.
2.What are copolymers? Give an example of a copolymer.
3. Define addition polymer.Give an example.
4. What is condensation polymer?Give an example.
5. What are elastomers?Give an example.
6.Arrange the following in increasing order of tensile strength:
Nylon-6, Buna-S, Polythene.
7. What is a plasticizer?
8.Name a polymer used for non –stick kitchen wares. What is the monomer of that polymer?
9. Give one example for each of the following.
a) A synthetic polymer which is an amide b)A synthetic polymer which is an ester.
10 . Name the monomer of PVC.
Questions carrying 2 marks
1. What is the difference between Nylon-6 and Nylon-6, 6?
2. What is the role of benzoyl peroxide in addition polymerization of alkenes? Explain its mode of action with help
of an example.
3. Polymers are always macromolecules but macromolecules are not polymers. Explain.
4. Draw the structures of monomers of
i) PVC ii) Teflon
5. Give the chemical equation for formation of i) Buna-S ii) Terylene
6. Differentiate between thermo plastics and thermosetting plastics.
7. Discuss the synthesis of Bakelite .Why is Bakelite a thermo setting polymer?
8. What is the difference between elastomers and fibres .Illustrate with an example of each.
9. What is PHBP? Write its monomers .
10. Can nucleic acids proteins and starch be considered as step growth polymers explain your answer.
Questions carrying 3 marks.
1. Write the names and structures of monomers of the following polymers.
i) Nylon-6 ii) Dacron iii) Neoprene
2. How will you prepare polymer PAN? Give its chemical reaction .Write any two uses of it.
3. a) Write the monomer and preparation of Buna-N rubber.
b) Give two differences between addition and condensation polymerization.
4. Give two important uses of each of the following.
a) Bakelite b) Nylon-6 c) Buna-S
5. a) Write any two differences between step growth polymerization and chain growth polymerization.
b) What are biodegradable polymers?
6. What is vulcanization of rubber? What is the role of Sulphur in vulcanization of rubber?
7. a) Why are cross links required in rubber?
b) Why does cis-polyisoprene possess elastic properties?
8. What is the structural difference between HDP and LDP? How does the structure account for different behavior
and nature, hence the use of polymer?
9. Write the equations for preparation of the followings
a) Buna-S b) Nylon 66 iii) Buna-N
10. Classify the polymers on the basis of their structure.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Formation of which of the following polymers involves hydrolysis reaction?
(a) Nylon 6, (b) Terylene (c) Nylon 6 (d) Bakelite
2. Which polymers occur naturally?
a) Starch and Nylon b) Starch and cellulose
c) Proteins and Nylon d) Proteins and PVC
3. Which of the following polymers of glucose is stored by animals?
a) Cellulose b) Amylose
c) Amylopectin d) Glycogen
4. The monomer of Buna-S rubber is
a) Vinyl chloride and Sulphur b) Butadiene
c) Styrene and Butadiene d) Isoprene and butadiene
5. The polymer of prop-2-enenitrile is called
a) Saran b) Orlon
c) Dacron d) Teflon
6. Glyptal polymer is obtained from glycerol by reacting it with
a) Malonic acid b) Pthalic acid
c) Maleic acid d) Acetic acid
7. Which of the following polymer is prepared from caprolactam
a) Nylon-6,6 b) Nylon 6,10
c) Nylon-6 d) Nylon 1,1
8. Polymer used in bullet proof glass is
a) PMMA b) Lexan
c) Nomex d)Kevlar
9. Nylon is an example pf
a) Polyamide b) Polythene
c) Polyester d) Polysaccharide
10. Which of the following polymers are thermoplastic
a) Teflon b) Natural rubber
c) Neoprene d) Polysterene
11. Which of the following monomers form biodegradable polymer ?
a) 3- Hydroxy butanoic acid +3- hydroxyl pentanoic acid
b Glycine + Є-aminocaproic acid
c) Ethylene glycon + Pthalic acid
d) Caprolactam
12. Which one of the following is used to make nonstick cookware?
a) PVC b) Polysterene c) Poly ethylene terephthalate d) polytetrafluoroethylene
13. Inwhichofthefollowingpolymersethyleneglycolisoneofthemonomer units?
a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
isapolymerhavingmonomerunits .
a) b) c) d)
15. Whichofthefollowingpolymerisbiodegradable?
a) b)
c) (d)
16. Whichofthefollowingpolymercanbeformedbyusingthefollowingmonomer unit?
(a) Nylon6,6 (b) Nylon2–nylon6 (c) Melaminepolymer (d) Nylon-6.
17. Whichofthefollowingpolymerscanhavestrongintermolecularforces?
(a) Nylon (b) Polystyrene (c) Rubber (d) Polyesters
18. Which of the following is a chain growth polymer ?
a) Starch b) Nucleic acid c) Polystyrene d)Protein
19. Identify the incorrect statement .
a) Bakelite and urea-formaldehyde resins are elastomers.
b) Polyamides like nylon 6, nylon 6 ,6 are examples of fibers’ .
c) Polystyrene ,polyvinyl and polythene are thermoplastic polymers.
d) Thermoplastic polymers have intermolecular forces between elastomers and fibres .
20. Natural rubber has
a) Alternate cis- and trans-configuration.
b) Randomcis- and trans-configuration
c) All cis-configuration
d) All trans-configuration
CH-16 CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
Questions carrying 1 mark
1.What is an antibiotic
2. What are antacids?
3. What is antihistamines?
4. What is pathogen?
5. Why is bithional added to soap?
6. Which alkaloid is used for the malaria?
7. What is allosteric site?
8. Define histamine with example.
9. What are sulpha drugs?
10. How does aspirin act as an analgesic?
Questions carrying 2 marks
1. What are broad spectrum antibiotic? Name one such substance .
2. What are detergents? Why are detergents preferred over soaps?
3.What do you mean by food preservative? Give name of any two preservatives.
4.Sleeping pills are recommended to patient suffering from sleeplessness but it is not advisable to
take them without consulting the doctor. Why?
5.What is the role of antioxidants in our living systems? Name one familiar anti oxidants.
6. Write the side effects of aspirin.
7. Name the substance which act as both
a) Analgesic and antipyretic
b) Antiseptic and disinfectant
8.What Is an alkaloid? Name two alkaloids which are used as analgesics .
9. a) What problem arises in using alitame as artificial sweetner? b) Why is use of aspartame is limited to cold
foods and drinks ?
10.What is tincture iodine? What is its use?
Questions carrying 3 marks
1. What are the following substances? Give one example of each of them.
a) Tranquilizer
b) Food preservative
c) Synthetic detergent.
2. Write the therapeutic action of the following drugs in our body
a) Analgesics b) antibiotics c) Antihistamines
3. a) Name an anionic and cationic detergent.
b) Explain the cleansing action of soap.
4. Give one example of each of the following
a) A non-narotic analgesics
b) an artificial sweetner
c) A food preservative chemical
5. a) Which one of the following is a food preservative ?
Equanil, Morphine, Sodium benzoate
b) Which class of drug is used in sleeping pills?
c) Give the name of any one neurotransmitter.
6. a) Why do drugs cause side effects?
b) What are invert soaps?
7. a) Define the term chemotherapy?
b) Low level noradrenalin is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure
this problem?
8. Why are cimetidine and ranitidine better antacids than sodium hydrogen carbonate or magnesium?
or aluminium hydroxide
9. a) Why is it safer to use soap from environmental point of view ?
b) What type of forces are involved in binding of substrate to the active site of enzyme ?
10. What are the functions performed by histamine in the body?
Multiple choice questions
1. Use of chemicals for the treatment of disease is called
a) Homotherapy b) Chemotherapy c) Naturopapthy d) Physiotherapy
2. Which set has different class of compounds ?
a) Tranquilizers, Equanil, heroin,valium b) antseptic, bithional,dettol, boric acid
c) Analgesics,naproxen,morphine,aspirin
d) Bactericidal,penicillin,amyloglycisides ofloxacin
3. Which of the followings can possibly be used as analgesics without causing addiction and modification
a) Morphine b) N-acetyl –para –aminophenol
c) Diazepam d) Tetrahydrocatenol
4. 0.2 % solution of phenol is
a) Antiseptic b) Disnfectant c) Antibiotic d) Antiallergic
5.Which one of the following is employed as tranquilizer
a) Naproxen b) Tetracycline c) Chloropheninamine d) Equanil
6.Dettol is a mixture of
a) Terpineol and bithional
b) Chloroxylenol and bithional
c) Chloroxylenol and Terpineol
d) Phenol and iodine
7. A broad spectrum antibiotic is
a) Penicillin b) Streptomycin c) Tetracycline d) Chloramphenicol
8. Which is pain relieving drug?
a) Antipyretic b) Analgesic c) Antibiotic d) Antiseptic
9. Aspirin is
a) Acetyl salicylic acid b)2- Methoxy benzoic acid c) Acetyl oxalic acid d) Methyl benzoic acid 10.Which
of the following is not true?
a) Ampicillin is not a natural antibiotic
b) Vancomycin is a broad spectrum antibiotic
c) Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic
d) Prontosil is not converted into sulphanilamide in the body.
10.Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation of which type of detergents?
a) Cationic detergents b) Anionic detergents c) Non-ionic detergents d) Soaps
11. Which of the following are not used as food preservative?
a) Table salt b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate c) Sodium metabisulphite d) Benzoic acid
12. Dettol is used as
a) disinfectant b)Antiseptic c) Analgesics d)Anti-allergic
13.Aspirin is an
a) Antipyretic b)Antibiotic c) Antiseptic d)None of these
14.Tincture iodine is
a) Aqueous solution of I2 b) Solution of I2 in aqueous KI c) Alcoholic solution of I2 d) aqueous solution KI
15.Which one of the following is not used as filler in laundry soaps?
a) Sodium silicate b) Glycerol c) Borax d) Sodium carbonate
16. Progestogens and oestogens are used as
a) antacids b)Antifertility drugs c) Antimicrobials d) Antibiotics
16. Benadryl is use as
a) disinfectant b)Antiseptic c)Analgesics d)Antihistamine
17. Terfenadine is commonly used as an
a) Tranquilizer b)Antihistamine c)Antibiotics d) Antifertility drugs
18.Barbituric acid is used as
a) Antipyretic b)Antiseptic c)Tranquilizer d)Analgesics
19.The cationic detergent that is used in hair conditioner is
a) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
b) Sodium lauryl sulphate
c) sodium stearyl sulphate
d) Tetramethyl ammonium chloride
20. Match the chemicals in column –I with their uses in the column-II
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
A. Sodium perborate I.disinfectant
B. Chlorine II.Antiseptic
C. Bithional III. Milk bleaching agent
D. Potassium stearate IV. Soap
a) A=I, B=II C=III D =IV b) A= II, B=III ,C=IV ,D=I
c) A=III , B= I ,C= II , D=IV d) A= IV , B=I ,C=II ,D= III
