MOCK TEST 3 June 2007 1. Xylometazoline is classified as: A-alpha-adrenergic agonist/stimulant B-beta-adrenergic blocker C-beta-adrenergic agonist/stimulant D-alpha-adrenergic blocker E-alpha and beta adrenergic blocker Ans-A 2. Salbutamol is classified as: A-alpha-adrenergic agonist/stimulant B-beta-adrenergic blocker C-beta-adrenergic agonist/stimulant D-alpha-adrenergic blocker E-alpha and beta adrenergic blocker Ans-C 3. Calculate the amount of active ingredient needed to prepare 4 litres of 1-50 w/v solution.

a) 80 g b) 80 mL c) 10 g d) 10000 mg

Ans-A 4. Determine the amount of chemical needed to prepare 8 fl. oz. Of 4 % v/v solution.

a) 96 g b) 9.6 g c) 9.6 mL d) 4.8 g

Ans-C 5. Calculate the number of grams needed to prepare 5 kg of 1:10 ointment.

a) 0.5 b) 5, 000 c) 50 d) 500 e) 50, 000

Ans-D

6. A start dose of 0.5 g has been ordered for a patient. Her dose thereafter will be 250 mg tid. If each teaspoonful of the medication contains 250 mg, what quantity is required for the stat dose?

a) 0.01 mL b) 30 mL c) 2 mL d) 10 mL e) 20 mL

Ans-D 7. What quantity of 95% alcohol is needed to prepare 8L of 70% v/v alcohol?

a) 58.95 mL b) 589.5 mL c) 589.1 mL d) 5894. 7 mL

Ans-D 8. A patient calls to ask if her digoxin has changed color and shape. What would be the most

appropriate response?

a) tell the patient that an error has been made and refer her to the physician. b) Determine if the color and shape for the tablets dispensed have been changed by the

manufacturer and convey this information to the patient c) Obtain the patients name, prescription number and the color of the tablet and verify the

patient prescription. d) Explain that this is a serious matter and the medication should be brought back to the

pharmacy to be checked by the pharmacist Ans-C 9. A Standard of Practice of the profession of pharmacy is that the pharmacist take reasonable steps to enter into dialogue with the patient for Schedule II drugs and to document that dialogue occurred.

a) Do not dialogue with patient b) Dialogue with patient should not be documented c) Document the dialogue occurred d) Refer to physician e) Refuse to give schedule II drugs, because it require prescription

Ans-C 10. Garasone drops labeled as ophthalmic/otic cannot be given in?

a) ear

b) eye c) eye and ear d) Opthalmic e) Mouth

Ans-E 11. The Latin abbreviation hs means:

a) by mouth b) daily c) at bedtime d) left eye e) before meals

Ans-C 12. Lovastatin, pravastatin, simvastatin and fluvastatin are examples of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors which are used to treat:

a) hyercholesterolemia b) hyperglycemia c) hypothyroidism d) hypertension e) Paracythemia

Ans-A 13. The bodys primary site of drug metabolism is the:

a) Kidney b) Liver c) Small intestine d) Spleen e) Stomach

Ans-B 14. A physician in a unit dose hospital writes for Prednisone 15 mg tid. Each package contains 1 x 5 mg tablet. How many packages are needed per dose?

a) 9 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4.5

Ans-B 15. A physician in a unit dose hospital writes for Prednisone 15 mg tid. Each package contains 1 x 5 tablet. How many packages are needed per day?

a) 9 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4.5

Ans-A 16. Prescription reads: Prometrium 200 mg od days 11-25 x 6 months. Prometrium is available as 100 mg caps. What quantity should be dispensed to a cash-paying customer?

a) 168 caps b) 180 caps c) 360 caps d) 90 caps Answer: B

17. How many tablets should be dispensed, given the following order. Prednisone 5 mg Sig: ii tabs qid x 2 days; ii tabs tid for 2 days; ii tabs bid for 2 days; I tab tid for 2 days I tab bid x 2 days then stop?

a) 23 b) 28 c) 46 d) 48 e) 14 Answer: C

18. You are preparing a dose of heparin IV 25,000 units un 500mL dextrose 5%. The established procedures in your pharmacy for preparing this is to use heparin 10,000 units/mL. The only available strength is 10,000 units in 10 mL. What volume of the available strength should be required to prepare this order?

a) 10 mL b) 15 mL c) 120 mL d) 25 mL Answer: D

19. A telephone order for a reportable (straight) narcotic may be accepted by the pharmacist.

a) True b) False c) Either d) neither

Ans-B 20. At the end of March, Mr. Said requests a printout of his and Ms. Saids prescription records for the calendar year, so that he can prepare his income tax.

A- You can supply him with this information. B- You should refuse to give prescription records for the calendar year C- Get the authorization Ms Saids for her prescription records. D- Mr. Said authorization is sufficient to get this information E- None of the above

Ans-C 21. Rx: Amoxil suspension 250 mg/5mL; Sig: 250 mg tid for 7 days. What directions should be typed on a label?

a) Give one teaspoonful three times daily until finished b) Give one teaspoonful twice daily until finished c) Give one tablespoonful three times daily until finished d) Give on-half tablespoonful twice daily until finished. Answer: A

22. Codeine, oxycodone and meperidine are examples of which of the following drug categories?

a) antibiotics b) antihistamines c) NSAIDS d) Narcotics Answer: D

23. A common side effect of codeine is:

a) Diarrhea b) Constipation c) Coughing d) Thin secretion in bronchial airway Answer: B

24. What is meant by the term direct billing?

a) The patient pays the pharmacy only after he receives the cheque from his insurance company.

b) The patient has an account with the pharmacy and is billed at the end of every month for all prescriptions filled within that period.

c) The patient pays the pharmacy and then bills the insurance company. d) The pharmacy submits the claim to the insurance plan for the payment. Answer: D

25. What components of a prescription must be shown on the receipt?

a) cost of medication, professional fee, total b) cost of medication, time in filling the drug, professional fee, total c) cost of medication, dialogue fee, professional fee, total d) cost of medication, mark-up, professional fee, total

Answer: A 26. Following a large group of cigarette smokers for a period of 10 years to determine the occurrence of Asthma and COPD and various forms of lung cancer would be an example of: A-Cross sectional studies B-Prevalent study C-Cohort study D-Case control study E-Randomized clinical trials Ans-C 27. A patient receiving phenytoin begins to exhibit hematologic disorders and mild confusion. What vitamin deficiencies are associated with these symptoms in patients that take anticonvulsants?

a. Folic acid b. Cyanocobalamine c. Thiamine d. Riboflavin

Ans: A 28. The patient is 25 days old. For the purpose of dosing, should you dose as?

A-Neonate. B-Infant C-children D-Teenager E-Adolescent Ans-A

29. What should a patient do if s/he becomes hypoglycemic while taking Acarbose (Glycet)?

A-Take glucose tabs or gel may help. B- Juices usually may help C- Sugar, candy may help. D- Sugar candy is not helpful

Ans-A

30. What is kernicterus?

A. A neurologic syndrome where damaging bile pigments are deposited in the basal ganglia of the CNS.

B. Superficial yellowish spots, occurring especially on trunk in middle age, that slowly darken over the year

C. Thickening of the skin D. A progressive nutritional disease of the eye due to vitamin A deficiency

Ans: A 31. A patient tells you that the walls in his oral cavity feel swollen. What would you suggest? A- See physician on light of the fact that she may have stomatitis. B- Try chlorhexidine mouth rinse. C- Do mouth hygiene D- Wait and see E- None of the above Ans-A 32. The physician called your pharmacy and asked you to prepare him 10 g of 2.5% of benzocaine ointment. In stock you have 20% benzocaine ointment. How much benzocaine and ointment base will you need for this prescription? a) 1 g of benzocaine and 9 g of ointment base b) 1.20 g benzocaine and 8.75 g of ointment base c) 1.25 g of benzocaine and 8.6 g of ointment base d) 1.30 of benzocaine and 8.7 g of ointment base e) 1.35 of benzocaine and 8.6 g of ointment base Ans: C 33- Reason for using coating tablets include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) To mask the taste of the drug b) To mask the odor of the drug c) To improve the appearance of the drug d) To increase the drugs release rate e) To protect the drug from stomach acid Ans-D 34. Which decrease tension between solid and liquid? a) Solubilizing agent b) Wetting agent c) Hydrophilic agent d) Emulsifying agent e) Decreasing the particle size of the solid Ans-B

35. An agent with HLB value range of 14 -18 is known as: a) Antifoaming agent b) W/O emulsifying agent c) O/W emulsifying agent d) Wetting agent e) Solubilizing agent Ans-E 36. In preparing ZnSO4 suppositories using 200mg of its USP value. Refers that dispense value of ZnSO4 is 4 means that: a) ZnSO4 will displace 800mg of cocoa butter b) Cocoa butter displace 800mg of ZnSO4 c) Only 4mg of cocoa butter will be displaced d) 200mg of ZnSO4 will displace 50mg of cocoa butter Ans-D 37. Addition of mineral oil to a Sulphur ointment preparation is called: a) Levigation b) Milling c) Trituration d) Solubilization e) Emulsification Ans-A 38. Benzocaine as a local anesthetic in a TOPICAL preparation should be at least, not less than: a) 1% b) 3% c) 5% d) 10% e) 15% Ans-C 39. Correct statements regarding Papain may include: I- Proteolytic enzyme used in contact Lens to remove proteins II- Used as preservative in soft contact Lens III- Only available in the ophthalmic office a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct Ans-A

40. All of the following are examples of killed vaccines, EXCEPT: a) Influenza b) Hepatitis c) Chickenpox d) Typhoid IM e) Cholera Ans-C 41. Class of lymphokine protein with the ability to inhibit certain types of cancer cells and virus include: a) Interleukin b) Interferon c) Cytokine d) Toxin e) T cells Ans-B 42. In biotechnology, the process of combining segments of DNA from two different sources and form a new DNA is called: a) Xenotransplantation b) Radioimmunoassay c) Retrovirus d) Recombinant DNA e) Transplantation Ans-D 43. Aminoglycosides mechanism of action is protein synthesis inhibitor, which is similar to macrolides and tetracycline however, Aminoglycosides are: I-Orally inactive II-Unstable in stomach and acid sensitive III-Long half-life that is 36 48 hours A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-C 44. Which of the following population least likely to receive flu shots: A-elderly over 65 years B-A 23-year-old worker in long term care facility C-A 44 year old with asthma condition

D-A 25-year-old nurse working in elderly home E-A 30-year-old teacher in school Ans-E 45. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the a) Rate of blood flow to tissue b) Glomerular filtration rate c) Stomach emptying time d) Affinity of the drug for tissue e) Plasma protein binding of the drug Ans: A 46. You received a prescription for timolol 0.25% and sig: 1 gt od bid. Instructions on the label should read a) Instill 1 drop twice daily b) Instill 1 drop into the left ear twice daily c) Instill 1 drop into the right ear twice daily d) Instill 1 drop into the left eye twice daily e) Instill 1 drop into the right eye twice daily Ans: E 47. The activity of which of the following drugs is dependent and a p-phenyl-N-alkypiperidine moiety? I. Meperidine II. Morphine III. Fentanyl a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only E-All of the above Ans: C 48. Which of the following enzyme plays a major role in the synthesis of epinephrine? a) Tyrosine hydroxylase b) Sulfo transferase c) Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase

d) Phenylethanolamines N-methyl transferase e) Glutathione S-transferase Ans: D 49. Function/s of antibodies I. Act as an antigen receptor for t-cells II. Elimination of antigens III. Neutralization of toxins a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: E 50. A drug is used intravenously for 100 mg/dose, what is the equivalent oral dose if you know that the AUC oral/AUC iv is 1.5?

a) 100mg b) 120 mg c) 150 mg d) 200 mg e) 250 mg

Ans: C 51. 50% of drug A is excreted via the kidney tubules within 24 hours following its administration of sodium bicarbonate, the rate of elimination is reduced by 25% following the administration of probenecid. Correct statements include: I. The kidney excretes this drug by combination of glomerular filtration and

tubular secretion II. The drug is highly ionized in alkaline pH III. The drug is likely to be a weak acid a) I only b) III only c) I & II only

d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: E 52. A patient is treated by gentamicin through IV infusion every 12 hours. It was found that gentamicin is always below the desired level before the infusion ends by half an hour. This situation is best managed by a) Maintain the dose and decrease the interval b) Change the antibiotic regimen c) Increase the dose and decrease the interval d) Increase the dose and maintain the interval e) Decrease the dose and decrease the interval Ans: A 53. Generic product A has a greater AUC than generic product B, containing the same quantity of drug per dose, one can conclude: a) Product B is more bio-available than product A b) Product A is more bio-available than product B c) Product A has a shorter half-life than product B d) Product B has a shorter life than product A e) Product A is more readily excreted in the urine than product B Ans: B 54. The peak of the serum concentration versus time curve approximates the time when a) The maximum pharmacological effect occurs b) All of the drug has been absorbed from the GIT c) Absorption and elimination of the drug has equalized d) Saturation of metabolizing enzymes has occurred e) Renal elimination of the drug begins Ans: C 55. The intensity of the pharmacological action of a drug is not dependent on I. Concentration of the drug at receptor site II. Elimination of half-life of the drug III. Minimum toxic concentration of the drug in plasma a) I only b) III only

c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: D 56. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on the I. Total body clearance of the drug II. Percentage of drug bound to the plasma proteins III. Apparent volume of distribution and the desired drug concentration in the

plasma a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: B Tips: LD = Css x Vd 57. A mass of adipose tissue that develops at the injection site is usually due to the patients neglect in rotating the insulin site. This is known as a) Lipoatrophy b) Hypertrophic degenerative adiposity c) Lipohypertrophy d) Atrophic skin lesion e) Dermatitis Ans: C 58. Which type of water for injection contains a preservative? I. Sterile water for injection II. Distilled water III. Bacteriostatic water for injection

a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: B 59. The process of wetting and smoothing zinc oxide with mineral oil in preparation for incorporation into an ointment base is a) Trifurcation b) Levigation c) Milling d) Pulverization by intervention e) Trituration Ans: B 60. Alcohol is NOT suitable as a solvent for menthol or salicylic acid when preparing which of the following dosage forms? I. Lotions II. Ointments III. Suppositories a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: D 61. Ideal properties of drugs to be formulated into trans dermal delivery systems include I. High potency with a daily dose of 10 mg or less II. Lipophilicity III. Molecular weight of at least 2500 a) I only

b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: C 62. Which of the following is true of active transport systems? I. They do not consume energy II. They never become saturated III. They do not reach equilibrium a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: B 63. Which of the following pharmaceutical adjuvants is likely to cause asthma like reactions? a) Sodium bisulphate b) Benzyl alcohol c) Edetate d) Benzalkonium chloride e) Methyl paraben Ans: A 64. The HLB system is used to classify I. Drug solubility II. Droplet size of aerosols III. Surfactants a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: B 65. Polyvinyl alcohol is commonly used in pharmaceutical systems as a I. Viscosity builder II. Solvent

III. Preservative a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: A 66. Reducing a subdividing a substance by adding an easily removed solvent is a) Trituration b) Spatulation c) Levigation d) Pulverization by intervention e) Tumbling Ans: D 67. Which of the following statement/s is/are true? I. Binders promote granulation during wet granulation process II. Glidants reduce friction when the tablet is ejected form the die cavity III. Lubricants help to promote the flow of the tablet granulation during

manufacture a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: A 68. Capping is tablet-processing problem most likely due to a) Excessive moisture in the granulation b) Entrapment of air c) Tablet friability d) Degraded drug e) Tablet hardness Ans: B 69. Which manufacturing variables would be likely to affect the dissolution of a tablet in the body

I. The amount and type of binder added II. The amount and type of disintegrant added III. The force of compression used during tableting a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: E 70. The ingredients that may be used as suspending agents may include I. Hydrophilic colloids II. Clays III. Acacia a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: E 71. Which of the following is/are natural emulsifying agents? I. Pectin II. Gelatin III. Methyl cellulose a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: C

72. Ointments are typically used as I. Emollients II. Protective barriers III. Vehicles a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: E 73. All particles of a moderately coarse powder pass through a) #20 sieve b) #40 sieve c) #60 sieve d) #80 sieve e) #120 sieve Ans: B 74. Mechanisms that are thought to provide stable emulsification include the I. Formation of interfacial film II. Lowering of interfacial tension III. Presence of charge on the ions a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: E 75. The most acceptable propellant in an aerosol is a) compressed gas b) saturated hydrocarbon c) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs) d) Dimethyl ether e) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFAs)

Ans: E 76. Advantage/s of systemic drug administration by rectal suppositories include I. Avoidance of first pass effects II. Suitability when the oral route is not feasible III. Predictable drug release and absorption a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: C 77. Fat absorption occurs primarily in the a) Stomach b) Duodenum c) Terminal ileum d) Cecum e) Sigmoid colon Ans: B 78. Which of the following phrases is not true of leukotrienes? I. They are products of the cyclooxygenase pathway II. They increase vascular permeability III. They may induce bronchoconstriction a) I only b) III only c) I & II only d) II & III only e) All of the above Ans: A 79. Thromboxane A2 is a characteristic product of

a) Endothelial cells b) Mast cells and basophils c) Neutrophils d) Platelets e) Macrophages Ans: D 80. The relation of following antipsychotic drug structures are:

N

S

CH2CH2N(CH3)2Cl N

S

CH2CH2CH2N(CH3)2Cl

A-Analogs B-Homologs C-Bioisosters D-Isomers E-Epimers Ans-B Tips: the difference of CH2 in a side chain is homolog 81.What is meant by intrathecal injection? A. Injection in between the spine B. Injection underneath the tongue C. Injection on thigh D. Injection on bun Ans-A 82.Which provides 100% bioavailability A-Intramuscular B-Intravenous C-Extravenous D-Oral E-Parenteral Ans-B 83. How to use intranasal sprays or pumps. I. Hold your head in an upright position II. Close one nostril with one finger

III. With the mouth closed, insert the tip of the spray or pump into the open nostril. Sniff in through the nostril while quickly and firmly squeezing the spray container or activating the pump. A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct Ans-E 84.What is function of High Efficiency Particulate Air filter (HEPA) in laminar airflow hood? A.To remove particles B.To maintain temperature C.To maintain humidity D-To remove fine bacterial contaminants Ans-D Tips: HEPA filter that is used in laminar airflow hood size is 0.22mm 85. Hyperkalemia can be treated by the following resins: A-Kayexalate (cationic exchange resin) B-Potassium chloride wax tablets C-Sodium chloride salt D-Calcium chloride salts E-charcoal Ans-A Comments: Kayexalate is cationic exchange resin (sodium polystyrene sulfonate), used in treatment of hyperkalemia. 86. Nitroglycerines are classified as: I-Nitrates II-Nitrites III-Nitro group

A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above

Ans-A 90. The structure shown below produces its therapeutic effects by:

A- ACE inhibitors B- Blocking -receptors. C-Blocking receptors. D-Inhibiting the Na+/Cl- symporter. E-Stimulating insulin release. Ans-D 91. Which doesnt decrease in elderly: a) Water content b) Lean body mass c) Kidney function d) Glomerular filtration e) Serum creatinine Ans- E 92- Ileum, ischium and pubis are skeletal structure of: a) Hip bones b) Brain bones c) Shoulder bones d) Leg bones e) Arm bones Ans-A 93. Common causative agent of peptic ulcer and gastric complications in the stomach: a) Salmonela b) Shigella c) S. aureus d) H. pylori e) E. coli Ans-D 94. Protein denaturation may happen due to: a) Exposure to air

b) Vigorous Shaking c) Increase in temperature d) Chemical reagents e) All are correct Ans-E 95. False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include: a) Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver b) Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney c) Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver d) Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney e) Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight Ans-A 96. A 65-year-old female using alendronate for osteoporosis treatment. The most appropriate dose of Alendronate (Fosamax) dose: I. 70mg/week II. 10 mg/daily III. 50mg/week

a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only E-All of the above Ans-A 97. Drugs that should be taken with plenty of water? I. Alendronate II. Probenecid III. Sulfinpyrazone

a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only E-All of the above Ans-E Tips: Alendronate taking with plenty of water reduce the risk of esophageal ulcers. Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone Taking with plenty of water reduce the risk of kidney stone formation

98. Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity? a) Ibuprofen b) Acetaminophen c) Gold therapy d) Azathioprine e) Cyclophosphamide Ans-C 99. Drug of choice when treating hypertension in a diabetic patient may include: a) ACE inhibitors b) -Blockers c) Calcium Channel Blockers d) Digitalis e) Nitrates Ans-A 100. Digoxin is contra indicated in the treatment of: a) Myocardial infarction b) Coronary Heart Diseases c) CHF d) Arrhythmias e) Venous congestion Ans-A 101. Phenytoin is indicated the treatment of all of the following types of seizure EXCEPT: A-Grand mal B-Complex partial C-Simple partial D-Tonic clonic

A. E-Absence seizure (petit mal) Ans-E Tips: Grand mal Valproic acid Complex partial Carbamazepine Simple partial Carbamazepine Tonic-clonic Valproic acid Absence seizure Ethosuximide

Status epilepticus Diazepam 102. The safest lipid lowering drug that may be used in pregnancy include: a) Pravastatin b) Genfibrozil c) Cholestyramine d) Sinvastatin e) Clofibrate Ans-C 103. All the following diuretics may cause metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT: a) Hydroclorothiazide b) Acetozalamide c) Spirolactone d) Amiloride e) Triametrene Ans-A 104. Bupropion (Zyban) is a smoking deterrent and aids to stop smoking. The principle side effect is seizures; this should be carefully prescribed in the following condition patient. I-Anorexia nervosa II-Bulimia nervosa III-Depression a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct Ans-C 105. Drug of choice in treating NSAIDs-induced ulceration may include: a) Ranitidine b) Omeprazole c) Misoprostol d) Sulcrafate e) Aluminium hydroxide Ans-B 106. Active metabolite of sulfasalazine may include:

a) Acid salicylic acid b) Salicilyc acid c) Salicylates d) Aminosalicylate e) 5-Aminosalicylate Ans-E 107. Lipase inhibitor used to treat obesity may include: a) Diethylpropiom b) Orlistat (xenical) c) Benzphetamine d) Mazindol e) Phenylpropanolamine Ans-B 108. Which of the following is a wrong statement regarding lithium? a) Most effective psychiatric medication used to treat bipolar depression b) Interfere with trans membrane Na exchange c) Takes 2 to 3 weeks to start to show pharmacological effect d) Weight gain is a side effect of lithium therapy e) Blood levels should be closely monitored during treatment Ans-D?????? 109- All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT: a) Airway obstruction and inflammation b) Destructive changes in the alveolar walls c) Thickened smooth muscle of airway d) Mucosal edema e) Narrowed lumen of airway Ans-B 110.Which of the following test is used at home to determine if asthmatic patient should seek emergency care? A-Residual volume test B-Peak flow respiratory test (PEFR) C-Forced vital capacity D-Inhalation test E-Wheezing sounds

Ans-B 111.Which of the following action should be taken, when emergency hypertensive (160/120) patient visits your pharmacy: A-Dispense enalapril B-Provide nitroglycerine SL pills C-Refer to emergency in hospital D-Offer him seat and let him relax E-Offer him a Tylenol Ans-C 1112. What are the following correct statements about digoxin: I- +ve chronotropic effect II- +ve inotropic effect III-Cholinergic effect A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-D 113-Validity is? A-Measure of accuracy B-Measure of consistency C-Measure of reproducibility D-Measure of responsibility E-Measure of quality control Ans-A 114-What pharmacoeconomic study does not address both cost and consequences? A-Cost utility analysis B-Cost of illness analysis (COA) C-Cost minimization analysis (CMA) D-Quality Adjusted Life Year (QALY) E- Cost-effective analysis (CEA) Ans-B

115-A 28 year old female, currently using ACE inhibitors, she is planning to become pregnant. She wants to know if her drugs are safe to continue? What is the appropriate place to get this information? A-CPS B- FDA/Manufacturer Alert Index

C- Drug Index D-Drug Interaction Facts E-Mother risk program Ans-E 116-Meta-analysis is? A-Study design using quantitative methods to analyze data from two or more similar trials B-Trial design in which a placebo is administered to a control group of participants and the agent being tested is administered to the intervention group to evaluate if the investigational treatment is more effective in treating the disease/condition. C- A physical or emotional change that cannot be attributed to any property of a substance administered to a patient. D-Difference between two studies. E-None of the above Ans-A 117-Cochrane collaboration is? A-Evidenced based medicine database B-A Canadian pharmacy journal C-Collaboration of medical professionals D-A natural products database E-The group of people with same characteristics Ans-A 118-What are the therapeutic agents for the treatment of contact dermatitis? I-Oral antihistamine II-Topical steroids III- topical antibiotics A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-E 119-Cold sores are associated Herpes Simplex Virus-1 can be treated by? I-Petrolatum II-Benzocaine topical anesthetic for pain III-Hydrocortisone 0.5% cream A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-C

120-All of the following astringents, EXCEPT: A-Aluminum acetate B-Calamine lotion C-Zinc sulphate D-Zinc oxide E-Cortisone cream Ans-E 121-A 60-year-old female with hypertension has a dry, irritating, non-productive cough due to common cold. After 3 days her runny nose symptoms reduced, however, her cough bothering her. What is the appropriate recommendation for this patient? A-Dextromethorphan B-Xylometazoline topical C-Pseudoephridine D-Diphenhydramine E-Epinephrine Ans-A 122-A patient using tylenol # 3 for her post surgical pain. Which of the following laxative should be used to prevent constipation associated with codeine.

A- Psyllium B- Senna C- Lactulose D- Magnesium salts E- Mineral oil

Ans-B Tips: Opioid induced constipation (Codeine, Tylenol # 3) Treat Docusate sodium daily (for prevention) and Senna or bisacodyl PRN 123-A 70 year old female currently using Levodopa and carbidopa and anticancer treatment for breast cancer, what antinauseating require precaution? A-Dexamethasone B- Metoclopramide C-Ondansetron D-Diphenhydramine E-Diphenhydrinate Ans-B 124-A 66-year-old women currently using prescription drugs Atorvastatin, Captopril and Propranaolol for her cardiovascular disease. Recently she complains diarrhea, which drug can cause diarrhea complication? A-Atorvastatin B-Captopril C-Proprapanolol

D-Grapefruit juice E-Because of old age Ans-A 125-A 24 year old male taking ciprofloxacin for travelers diarrhea during his trip into mountains should counsel?

A- Take with food B- Use sun screens C- Take with or without food D- Avoid taking with milk products E- Contraindicated in under 19 year old patient Ans-B 126-A patient has medical history of seizure, what drug should not recommend for smoking cessation? A-Nicotine patch B-Nicotine gum C-Nicotine inhaler D-smoking cessation E-Bupropion Ans-E

127-Which of the following drug can be at bed time? A-Fluoxetine B-Furosemide C-Alendronate D-Amphetamine E-Amitriptyline Ans-E 128-A 45-year-old male diabetic patient blood pressure is 130/85, what action considered appropriate? A-Refer to emergency B-Refer to physician C-Uncontrolled diabetes D-uncontrolled hypertension E-It is normal blood pressure in 40 year of age patient Ans-B 129-Drug of choice for hypertension for a 60-year-old patient with type II diabetic mellitus? A-Captopril B-Propranolol C-Hydrochlorothiazide D-Amlodipine E-Methyldopa Ans-A

130-A patient using nitroglycerine patch should be counselled to use nitrate free period, to prevent? A-Nitrate reaction B-Nitrate resistance C-Nitrate overdose D-Nitrate addiction E-Nitrate tolerance Ans-E 131-Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following, EXCEPT. A-Bacterial or viral pneumonia B-Dry and hot weather C-Penicillin allergic reaction D-Emotional stress E-Withdrawal symptoms of asthma medications. Ans-B 132-Cushing syndrome is due to? A-Overdose of corticosteroids B-Deficiency of corticosteroids C-Overdose of thyroid hormone D-Deficiency of thyroid hormone E-Deficiency of insulin Ans-a 133-An obese patient, she does not drink alcohol, diagnosed with diabetes, what is the best initial treatment? A-Metformin B-Chlorpropamide C-Glyburide D-Ezetamibe E-Orlistat Ans-A 134-Contraceptive methods that protect STDs such as, gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia, AIDs? A-Oral contraceptive B-Condoms C-Contraceptive sponges D-Vaginal cream E-None of the above Ans-B 135-What antibiotics are effective against H. pylori infection? I-Penicillins II-Macrolides

III-Tetracyclins A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-E 136-Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is caused by? A-E. coli B-Gonorrhea C-S. aureus D-Chlamydea E-H.pylori Ans-C 137-St. Johnwart a natural product used as antidepressants, can effect on? A-CYP3A4 B-p-Glycoproteins C-Infections D-Multivitamins E-None of the above Ans-A 138-The average life of HIV patient without treatment after infection is? A-10 years B-5 years C-20 years D-1-2 years E-100 years Ans-D 139-What hormone gland secrete ACTH? A-Hypothalamus B-Pituitary gland C-Thyroid gland D-Pancreas E-Adrenal gland Ans-B 140-The latin abbreviation cc is directed as? A-At bedtime B-before meals C-after meals D-With meals E-With or without meals Ans-D

141-A patient using statins may have rare but serious side effect rhabdomylisis, this may be noticed by? A-Grapefruit juice B- darken urine C- Stomach upset D-diarrhea E-Constipation Ans-B 142-Friability is defined as: A-Ability of the tablet to withstand abrasion in packing, handling and shipping which is defined as loss in weight of tablet due to chipping or fragmentation in the form of fine particles. B- Measure the degree of force required to break a tablet and also indicates tensile strength of tablet. Hardness of tablet greatly effects dissolution and disintegration C- Measuring weight of tablet. D-The process of reducing the particle size E-Dissolving in small proportions. Ans-A 143- Tincture is?

A- Tinctures are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable materials or from chemical substances.

B- These substances that stop oozing, discharge or bleeding when applied to the skin or mucous membranes and work by coagulating protein.

C- Liquid preparations consisting of a solution of proxylin in a mixture of ether and alcohol.

D- Derived from animal or vegetable fats or petroleum products, use to soften or protect internal or external body surfaces.

E- Aqueous solutions, usually in concentrated forms intended for use, after dilution, for treatment of affections of oral cavity and throat.

Ans-A Tips: Tinctures are alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable materials or from chemical substances. -Astringents: are the substances that stop oozing, discharge or bleeding when applied to the skin or mucous membranes and work by coagulating protein. -Colloidon: are Liquid preparations consisting of a solution of proxylin in a mixture of ether and alcohol. - Emollients: Derived from animal or vegetable fats or petroleum products, use to soften or protect internal or external body surfaces.

- Gargles: Aqueous solutions, usually in concentrated forms intended for use, after dilution, for treatment of affections of oral cavity and throat.

144-Menieres Disease is (Menieres syndrome)? A-A disorder in which gross enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemia.

B-A disease of inner ear characterized by episodes of deafness, buzzing to the ears (Tinnitus) and vertigo. C-Drugs associated ototoxicity such as aminoglycosides gentamicin. D-Unknown disease of ears E-None of the above Ans-B Tips: Menieres Disease is (Menieres syndrome) is a disease of inner ear characterized by episodes of deafness, buzzing to the ears (Tinnitus) and vertigo.

- Menetriers disease: A disorder in which gross enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemia.

145-High HLB values associated with? A-O/w surfactant B-w/o surfactant C- A and B D-None of the above Ans-A 146-Example of anionic surfactant?

A-Sodium lauryl sulphate B-Tween C-Span D-B and C E-All of the above Ans-A 147-What are the factors that does not effect on resolution in HPLC? A-Type of solvent B-type of column C-Type of printer D-Type of silica gel E-Concentration of substance Ans-C 148-Pump is present in what type of chromatography? A-Thin layer chromatography (TLC) B-Paper chromatography C-High performance Liquid chromatography (HPLC) D-Column chromatography E-Mass spectrometry Ans-C 149: Which of the following statin should be taken with food or after food. I-Fluvastatin II-Lovastatin III-Atorvastatin

A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-C 150-Which of the following statin should avoid with grapefruit juice? I-Fluvastatin II-Lovastatin III-Atorvastatin A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above Ans-D\

C-Cohort studyC-I and II only

Ans: CAns: BSuppositories

Lipophilicity

Ans: CAns: AAns: BAns-DB-Potassium chloride wax tabletsAns- EAns-AAns-DAns-A

SulfinpyrazoneAns-A

C-Simple partialE-Absence seizure (petit mal)Ans-EComplex partial ( CarbamazepineAns-CAns-AIII-DepressionAns-CAns-BAns-EAns-BAns-D??????C-Forced vital capacityAns-BD-Offer him seat and let him relax

Ans-B