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EFL University Entrance Examination
B.A (JMC)
Model Paper
Time: 2 hours Max. Marks: 100
Part A: Media Awareness
(20 marks)
Tick ( ) the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. 14th Edition of the Pravasi Bhartiya Divas Convention was held at:
(A) New Delhi
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Mumbai
2. The oldest English daily at present in our country is:
(A) Statesman
(B) Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) Times of India
3. ‘Subbing’ relates to :
(A) Editing a news
(B) Correction
(C) Rewriting
(D) All of the above
4. Narrow casting is :
(A) Local Programmes on TV
(B) Small Cubicle
(C) Short Headlines
(D) News on phone service
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5. Brand ambassador for ‘save the girl child campaign’ is :
(A) Sania Mirza
(B) Sunita Williams
(C) Rani Mukharjee
(D) Aishwarya Rai
6. Under which section of IPC the ‘defamation’ has been defined?
(A) 449
(B) 420
(C) 500
(D) 151
7. A ‘wire service’ is :
(A) A news agency
(B) Wire providing live radio programmes
(C) Another name of cable TV network
(D) None of the above
8. The puppetry is :
(A) A form of traditional media
(B) An art form
(C) performed to tell stories
(D) A form of entertainment
9. The only actress to bag the Filmfare Award for the best villain is :
(A) Rekha in ’Khiladiyon Ke Khiladi’
(B) Kajol in ’Gupt ’
(C) Nadira in ‘Dil Apna Preet Parayi
(D) None of these
10. Construction of a park by a Corporate is:
(A) Social work
(B) Public relation
(C) Advertisement
(D) None of these
11. How many sequential frames are there in a two-dimensional animation?
(A) 22 in a second
(B) 24 in a second
(C) 36 in a second
(D) 10 in a second
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12. Proposed Broadcating bill is supposed to put restrictions on :
(A) Private TV Channels
(B) Private Radio Channels
(C) Both
(D) None of the above
13. Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) is situated in :
(A) Pune
(B) Delhi
(C) Nasik
(D) Hyderabad
14. The much-discussed media event 'wardrobe malfunctioning' was related to :
(A) A beauty contest
(B) Slipping of a model's outfit during a fashion show
(C) Kissing episode of Rakhi Sawant
(D) None of these
15. What is 'sitcom'?
(A) City combination
(B) Situational Comedy
(C) A private TV channel
(D) None of these
16. Who raised the issue of pesticides in the bottled soft drinks?
(A) Sunita Narayan
(B) Medha Patker
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Anita Narayan
17. Subhash Chandra is the Chief Executive Officer of :
(A) Zee TV
(B) Sony Entertainment
(C) Star Plus
(D) Setmax
18. Author of the well-known book 'A Suitable Boy' is :
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Pritish Nandi
(C) Salman Rushdie
(D) Arundhati Roy
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19. Quiz master of the popular game-show 'Kaun Banega Crorepati' was :
(A) Neil O' Brien
(B) Derek O' Brien
(C) Siddharth Basu
(D) Siddharth Sharma
20. Which chocolate brand had the controversy of worms in the chocolate?
(A) Nestle
(B) Cadbury
(C) Parle
(D) AMUL
Part B: General Knowledge
(15 marks)
Tick ( ) the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
21. "A Passion For Dance" was written by:
(A) Rukmani Dev Arundale
(B) Dr. Padma Subramanyam
(C) Sonal Man Singh
(D) Yamini Krishnamurthy
22. Which is the International Dance?
(A) Romantic Dance
(B) Bibhu
(C) Odissi
(D) Chau
23. What was the earlier name of music director A.R. Rehman?
(A) Dev Kumar
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(B) Raj Kumar
(C) Dileep Kumar
(D) Manoj Kumar
24. K. S. Ranjit Singhji was:
(A) First Field Marshal
(B) First Indian test Cricketer
(C) First Bar-at-law
(D) First Air marshal
25. The first Indian awarded the Oscar for lifetime achievements in Cinema was:
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) Bhanu Athaiya
(D) Shivaji Ganeshan
26. First woman speaker of Loksabha was:
(A) Smt Margarate Alva
(B) Sorojini Naidu
(C) Meira Kumar
(D) Indira Gandhi
27. Who was the first woman president of the UN General Assembly?
(A) Aruna Asif Ali
(B) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Virginia Woolf
28. Which among the following countries has only music not words in its National Anthem:
(A) India
(B) Bahrain
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
29. Rouff is a folk dance. It has its origin in?
(A) Assam
(B) Mizoram
(C) Kashmir
(D) Himachal Pradesh
30. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by:
(A) Malaika Arora
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(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti
31. First Indian women Olympic Medal winner is:
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) M C Mary Kom
(C) Karnam Malleshwari
(D) Sakshi Malik
32. 'VAT' is imposed:
(A) Dierctly on consumer
(B) On first stage of production
(C) On all stages between production and sale
(D) On final stage of production
33. The national Institute for Rural Development (NIRD) is situated in:
(A) Shimal
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Dehradun
(D) New Delhi
34. Who created a new world record is scoring the fastest century in Test Cricket history in
February 2016?
(A) Steve Smith
(B) Chris Gayle
(C) Brendon McCullum
(D) Virat Kohli
35. Which of the following state has been declared as 'India’s first State to have adopted
organic farming?
(A) Tripura
(B) Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland
Part C: English Language
(25 marks)
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Directions (36-40): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
36. A drawing on transparent paper
(A) Red print
(B) Blue print
(C) Negative
(D) Transparency
37. A remedy for all diseases
(A) Stoic
(B) Marvel
(C) Panacea
(D) Recompense
38. One who is fond of fighting
(A) Bellicose
(B) Aggressive
(C) Belligerent
(D) Militant
39. In a state of tension or anxiety or suspense
(A) Off balance
(B) Depressed
(C) Diffused
(D) On Tenterhooks
40. To slap with a flat object
(A) Chop
(B) Hew
(C) Gnaw
(D) Swat
Directions (41-45): In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In
each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
41. (A) Klaptomania
(B) Klepptomania
(C) Kleptemania
(D) Kleptomania
42. (A) Schedulle
(B) Schedeule
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(C) Schdule
(D) Schedule
43. (A) Skillful
(B) Skillfull
(C) Skilfull
(D) Skilpull
44. (A) Judicious
(B) Cancious
(C) Dilicous
(D) Gracous
45. (A) Gaurantee
(B) Guarantee
(C) Garuntee
(D) Guaruntee
Directions (46-50): Each of the following main words in capital letters are followed by four
words. Select the word that is furthest (opposite) in meaning to the main word.
46. EXTRICATE
(A) Manifest
(B) Palpable
(C) Release
(D) Entangle
47. REPRESS
(A) Inhibit
(B) Liberate
(C) Curb
(D) Quell
48. ACQUITTED
(A) Freed
(B) Burdened
(C) Convicted
(D) Entrusted
49. SUBSERVIENT
(A) Aggressive
(B) Straightforward
(C) Dignified
(D) Supercilious
50. REMISS
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(A) Forgetful
(B) Watchful
(C) Dutiful
(D) Harmful
Directions (51-55)-: Each of the following questions containing main word in capital letters
followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the main word in
capital letters.
51. SALACITY
(A) Bliss
(B) Depression
(C) Indecency
(D) Recession
52. ECSTATIC
(A) Animated
(B) Bewildered
(C) Enraptured
(D) Illful
53. ADMONISH
(A) Punish
(B) Curse
(C) Dismiss
(D) Reprimand
54. BROWSE
(A) Heal
(B) Deceive
(C) Examine
(D) Strike
55. INFREQUENT
(A) Never
(B) Usual
(C) Rare
(D) Sometimes
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Directions (56-60): Four alternatives a, b, c and d are given under each sentence, you are
required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank/blanks in the sentence to
make it meaningful.
56. When I was a child, I ......to school everyday instead going by cycle.
(A) had walked
(B) walked
(C) have walked
(D) have been walking
57. Farida sings very well and ...... does salim.
(A) even
(B) too
(C) also
(D) so
58. The old Nature versus ...... debate regarding crime continues even today.
(A) man
(B) universe
(C) culture
(D) nurture
59. The Sun ...... at six this morning.
(A) raised
(B) rose
(C) arose
(D) aroused
60. That rule is applicable ...... every one.
(A) to
(B) for
(C) about
(D) with
Part D: Mental ability
(10 marks)
61. Look at this series: 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ... What number should come next?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
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(D) 50
62. Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ... What number should come next?
(A) 108
(B) 148
(C) 162
(D) 216
63. BRISTLE : BRUSH
(A) arm : leg
(B) stage : curtain
(C) recline : chair
(D) key : piano
64. RAIN : DRIZZLE
(A) swim :dive
(B) hop : shuffle
(C) juggle : bounce
(D) run : jog
65. South : North-West :: West : ?
(A) North
(B) South-West
(C) North-East
(D) East
66. Cloth : Mill :: Newspaper : ?
(A) Editor
(B) Reader
(C) Paper
(D) Press
67. 4 : 19 :: 7 : ?
(A) 52
(B) 49
(C) 28
(D) 68
68. 24 : 60 :: 120 : ?
(A) 160
(B) 220
(C) 300
(D) 108
69. 'Wax' is related to 'Grease' in the same way as 'Milk' is related to:
(A) Drink
(B) Ghee
(C) Protein
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(D) Curd
70. 'Smoke' is related to 'Pollution' in the same way as 'War' is related to:
(A) Victory
(B) Treaty
(C) Defeat
(D) Destruction
Part E: English comprehension passage
(10 marks)
A Close look at the facts relating to political interference in administration shows that it is not a
one-way process. There is often a nexus between power hungry and corrupt politicians and civil
servants with convenient principles. Many civil servants are only too anxious to oblige the
politicians, and then cash the obligation when they need some special favour. So the attitude of
self-righteousness adopted by the civil service is sometimes only a way of covering their own
flaws by blaming others.
Every now and then some retired civil servants come out with his memoirs, painting a glorious
picture of the heights of administrative efficiency reached during his reign. There is often the
suggestion that had there not been so much political interference, things would have been even
more fantastic. It is not unusual for the self styled hero to blame not only interfering politicians
but also fellow civil servants who are idiots or crooks, for his failures. This attitude of smug self-
satisfaction is, unfortunately, developed during the years of service. Self preservation rather than
service is encouraged by our whole system of rules and procedures.
The remedy has to be drastic and quickly effective. The over protection now granted to civil
servants must end. Today to remove an erring civil servant is just not possible. And the only
thing that the highest authority in the Government, both in the State and at the Centre, can do is
to transfer an official from one job to another. The rules for taking disciplinary action are so
complicated that, in the end, the defaulting civil servants gets away, and gets his full emoluments
even for the period of the disciplinary proceedings, thus making it a paid holiday for him.
The result is that the administration has become rule-oriented and not result-oriented. Action is
possible against the official who takes some interest in his work, but no action is ever taken
against a person who does not deliever the goods. If the country is to adopt a result-oriented
approach, it is necessary to link job performance with job retention.
71. The facts relating to the problem of political interference indicate that:
(A) honest bureaucrats are always being troubled by politicians.
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(B) politicians are often misled and trapped by civil servants.
(C) politicians and civil servants co-operate to gain mutual advantages.
(D) politicians and civil servants use interference as an excuse for victimising the
common man.
72. The attitude of self-righteousness adopted by the civil service, according to the writer:
(A) is not welcomed and supported by politicians.
(B) is dishonest and conceals the facts.
(C) is very difficult to maintain because of opposition.
(D) does not really help the public get fair treatment.
73. Civil servants who write their memoirs after retiring:
(A) claim that they would have achieved outstanding success if interference had not
come in the way.
(B) prove that constant political interference made it impossible for them to do anything
properly.
(C) complain that the credit for their achievements goes to dishonest politicians.
(D) prove that people of inferior quality in the civil service bring about interference.
74. The existing system of administration seems to encourage civil servants:
(A) to become self-styled heroes and boss over others.
(B) to present a glorious picture of the administration.
(C) to become self-centred and concerned mainly about their own gain.
(D) to become self-righteous and fight back against corrupt politicians.
75. The problem with the present set-up needing urgent action is:
(A) a lack of accountability on the part of civil servants.
(B) a lack of control over the power of politicians.
(C) a neglect of the ideals of self-righteousness.
(D) complicated rules and procedures that greatly reduce efficiency.
76. The main principle of the remedy proposed by the writer is, that:
(A) the politicians should be made accountable for all their decisions.
(B) the high level of protection enjoyed by civil servants should be reduced.
(C) the common man’s right to efficient and fair administration must be protected.
(D) rules should be simplified so that there is less scope for misuse.
77. According to existing procedures, if a civil servant is found to be unsuitable or dishonest:
(A) he can appeal to an authority like the Supreme Court.
(B) politicians with whom he has special links will interfere to help him.
(C) transfering him to another post is the usual action taken.
(D) a conflict between Central Government and State Government interests can arise.
78. The writer refers to a paid holiday to support his argument that:
(A) civil servants get a lot of extra benefits.
(B) disciplinary action is generally not quick or effective.
(C) lazy and inefficient bureaucrats seem to be on holiday even when on duty.
(D) special postings that favoured civil servants are necessary and wasteful.
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79. The expression linking job performance with job retention refers to a policy in which:
(A) selection to civil service jobs is on the basis of rigorous performance tests.
(B) selection to civil service jobs is on the basis of rigorous performance and not a
minister’s opinion is the basis of transfer or promotion.
(C) retention of good government servants by discouraging their going to private
companies.
(D) continuation in service will depend on satisfactory performance.
80. The expression deliver the goods means:
(A) show good job performance
(B) accept bribes or other illegal favours.
(C) make payments of black money as bribes.
(D) successfully defend oneself against a charge, in a disciplinary inquiry.
Part F: Computer Awareness
(20 marks)
81. The improvement of computer hardware theory is summarized by which law?
(A) Metcalf’s law
(B) Bill’s Law
(C) Grove’s law
(D) Moore’s First Law
82. The most widely used computer device is:
(A) Solid state disks
(B) External hard disk
(C) Internal hard disk
(D) Mouse
83. _______ are software which is used to do particular task.
(A) Operating system
(B) Program
(C) Data
(D) Software
84. Who is father of modern computers?
(A) Abraham Lincoln
(B) James Gosling
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) Gordon E. Moore
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85. How many generations of computers we have?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 4
86. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means
by which users can interact with the computer.
(A) The operating system
(B) The motherboard
(C) The platform
(D) Application software
87. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those
without this access is known as the:
(A) digital divide
(B) Internet divide
(C) cyberway divide
(D) Web divide
88. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
(A) Viruses
(B) Hackers
(C) Spam
(D) Identity theft.
89. The term 'Pentium' is related to:
(A) DVD
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Microprocessor
(D) Mouse
90. What does HTTP stands for?
(A) Head Tail Transfer Protocol
(B) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(C) Hypertext Transfer Plotter
(D) Hypertext Transfer Plot
91. ……….is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Allotting
(B) Crashing
(C) Formatting
(D) Tracking
92. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed
by the CPU?
(A) Internal memory
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(B) Mass memory
(C) Non-volatile memory
(D) PROM
93. What type of software creates a smaller file that is faster to transfer over the Internet?
(A) Compression
(B) Fragmentation
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Unzipped
94. Which of the following is used for close a tab on a browser?
(A) Ctrl + Y
(B) Ctrl + A
(C) Ctrl + W
(D) Ctrl + T
95. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Central Processing Unit of the
computer?
(A) Universal Serial Bus
(B) Uninterrupted Power Supply
(C) CU
(D) Both A & B
96. The first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was called?
(A) Abacus
(B) Analytical Engine
(C) Calculator
(D) Processor
97. Which of the following is an example of non volatile memory?
(A) VLSI
(B) ROM
(C) RAM
(D) LSI
98. CD–ROM is a kind of?
(A) Optical disk
(B) Magneto–Optical disk
(C) Magnetic disk
(D) None of these
99. A device that converts digital signals to analog signals is?
(A) A modem
(B) A packet
(C) A block
(D) Both (A) and (B)
100. What is the primary requisite of a good computer programmer?