Entrance preparation model questions prepared by SaraswatiShrestha

Medical surgical nursing

1. A nursing diagnosis represents the:a. represent the proposed plan of careb. client’s health problems c. assessment of client’s datad. actual nursing diagnosis

2. When a physically ill client is being overtly verbally hostile, the most appropriate nursing response would be a:a. verbal defense of the staff’s actionsb. reasonable exploration of the situationc. silent acceptance of the client’s behavior d. complete physical withdrawal from the client

3. The family of a client who is terminally ill is likely to require more emotional nursing care than the client when the client reaches the stage of:a. angerb. denialc. depressiond. acceptance

4. W reaching the point of acceptance in the stages of dying, a client’s behavior may reflect: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. apathyb. euphoriac. detachment d. emotionalism

5. The effectiveness of nurse- client communication is best validated by: (MN entrance 2008-IOM)a. client feedback b. medical assessmentc. health team conferenced. client physiological adaptation

6. Example of intentional tort include: (MN entrance 2011- IOM) a. malpractice and assaultb. malpractice and negligencec. false imprisonment and battery d. negligence and invasion of privacy

7. Elderly people have a high incident of hip fracture because of:

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a. carelessnessb. fragility of bone c. sedentary existence d. rheumatoid diseases

8. When formulating the nursing care plans for elderly clients, the nurse should include special measures to accommodate for aged- related sensory losses such as:a. difficulty in swallowing b. increased sensitivity to heatc. diminished sensation of pain d. heightened response to stimuli

9. The two body systems that interact with the bicarbonate buffer system to preserve the normal body fluid PH of 7.4 are the:a. skeletal and nervous systemb. circulatory and urinary systemc. respiratory and urinary system d. respiratory and endocrine system

10. The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is:(MN entrance 2008, 2011-IOM)a. sodiumb. calciumc. chlorided. potassium

11. The principal electrolyte of extracellular fluid is:a. sodium b. potassiumc. calciumd. magnesium

12. The nurse understands that a client with albuminuria has edema cause by a:a. fall in tissue hydrostatic pressure b. raised in plasma hydrostatic pressure c. fall in plasma colloid oncotic pressure d. raise in tissue colloid oncotic pressure

13. The nurse must assess the client with gastric lavage or prolonged vomiting for : ( MN 2010/11 entrance –IOM)a. alkalosis b. acidosisc. loss of oxygen from the blood d. loss of osmotic pressure of the blood

14. The ratio between the acid and base of the body fluid is :

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a. 20:1b. 1:20 c. 2:20d. 1:10

15. The chief extracellular buffer system is :a. protein buffer systemb. phosphate buffer system c. bicarbonate buffer system d. renal system

16. The nurse must assess the client with prolonged diarrhea for :a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosisc. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis

17. The health care provider must assess the client with chronic pneumonia for :a. metabolic acidosisb. metabolic alkalosisc. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis

18. The health care provider must assess the client with chronic fever for :a. metabolic acidosisb. metabolic alkalosisc. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis

19. Before giving a client digoxin, the nurse should assess the :a. apical heart rate b. radial pulse in both armsc. radial pulse on left side d. difference between apical and radial pulses

20. Evaluation of the effectiveness of nitroglycerine SL is based on :a. relief of anginal pain b. improved cardiac output c. a decrease in blood pressure d.

21. The drug the nurse should expect the physician to order if symptoms of warfarin overdose are observed would be :a. heparin b. vitamin K

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c. protamine sulfate d. iron-dextran

22. Which of the following vitamin is synthesized in bowl:a. vitamin Ab. vitamin Cc. vitamin Ed. vitamin K

23. Pyridoxine is given prophylactically to prevent neurotoxicity in a patient receiving :a. isoniazid b. ethambutolc. rifampicind. streptomycin

24. Which of the following has been identified as a potential risk factor for development of cancer of colon:a. high fiber diet b. long term use of laxatives c. history of smoking d. history of inflammatory bowel disease

25. When admitting a client with fractured extremity , the nurse should focused assessment on firstly :a. the area proximal to the fracture site b. the actual fracture site c. the opposite extremity d. the area distal to the fracture

26. One of the responsibilities of a nurse towards a patient with water seal drainage is to:a. observe for sputum characteristics b. monitor base line vitalsc. observe for fluctuation of fluid d. select appropriate chest tube

27. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is given with isoniazid (INH) because it:a. enhances tuberculostatic effect of isoniazid b. improves the immunologic response of the clientc. provides the vitamin when isoniazid is interfering with natural vitamin synthesis d. accelerates destructions of remaining organisms after inhibition of their

reproduction by isoniazid 28. The receptors for the regulation of the body water through detection of osmotic

pressure are located in the:a. blood

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b. hypothalamus c. kidney tubulesd. neurohypophysis

29. A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride. With respect to human blood cells, this solution is:a. isotonic b. isomericc. hypotonic d. hypertonic

30. The nurse is aware that the fluid deficit can most accurately be assessed by:a. a change in a body weight b. the presence of dry skinc. a decrease in blood pressured. an altered general appearance

31. The ammonia is excreted by the kidney to help maintain :a. osmotic pressure of the blood b. acid base balance of the body c. low bacterial levels in the urine d. normal red blood cell production

32. The coronary care unit nurse draws an arterial blood sample to assess a client for acidosis. A normal PH for arterial blood is: (MN entrance 2008-IOM)a. 7.0b. 7.30c. 7.42 d. 7.50

33. A client is to have gastric gavage. In which position should the nurse place the client when the gavage tube is being inserted? a. Supine position b. mid-fowler’s positionc. high –fowler’s position d. trendelenburg position

34. The nurse must assess a client experiencing excessive production of anti-diuretic hormone for :a. polyuriab. dehydration c. hyponatremia d. hyperglycemia

35. Under production of thyroxin produces:

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a. myxedema b. acromegaly c. grave’s disease d. cushing syndrome

36. The nurse suspects hypokalemia is present when a client has:a. edema, bounding pulse, confusionb. spasm, diarrhea, irregular pulse ratec. apathy, weakness, abdominal distention d. a sunken eye ball, kussumaulbreathing, thirst

37. Infection with group A beta hemolytic streptococci is associated with: (MN entrance 2008-IOM)a. rheumatic fever b. hepatitis type Ac. spinal meningitisd. rheumatoid arthritis

38. Precaution should be taken to the patient with renal calculus is:a. antibiotics must not be givenb. never irrigate the catheter of the patient without order c. never give fruit juicesd. given calcium tablets to prevent reoccurrences

39. To control hyperkalemia and advancing uremia, most patients in acute renal failure requires:a. bladder irrigationb. stomach wash c. dialysis d. normal saline IV

40. Peptic ulcer is most common in a person with blood group:a. Ab. Bc. ABd. O

41. The following organ act as a “Blood Bank” is:a. kidneyb. heartc. spleen d. liver

42. The commonest type of heart disease in Nepal is: (MN entrance 2010-IOM)a. rheumatic fever

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b. hypertensionc. mitral stenosisd. angina

43. The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertension client with urethral colic and hematuria is to decrease in following clinical indicator: a. weightb. pain c. hematuriad. hypertension

44. to understand the diabetes insipidus, the nurse must be aware that an antidiuretic substance important for maintaining fluid balance is released by the: a. adrenal cortexb. adrenal medullac. anterior pituitary d. posterior pituitary

45. The major group of cell depleted in AIDS is:a. T- helper lymphocytes b. T- suppressor lymphocytesc. B- lymphocytesd. Macrophages

46. The hormone that tends to decrease calcium concentration in the blood is: a. calcitonin b. aldosteronec. thyroid gland d. parathyroid gland

47. After a brain attack a client remains unresponsive to sensory stimulation. The nurse understand general sensation such as heat, cold pain , and touch are registered in the :a. frontal lobeb. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe d. temporal lobe

48. The nurse in the coronary care unit (CCU) should observe for one of the more common complications of myocardial infraction , which is : (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. hypokalemiab. anaphylactic shock c. cardiac dysrhythmia d. cardiac enlargement

49. The pathology report states that a client’s urinary calculus is composed of uric acid.

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Which should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?a. eggsb. fruitsc. organ meats and extracts d. raw vegetables50. When an intestinal obstruction is suspected a client has nasogastric tube inserted and

attached to suction. critical assessment of this client includes observation for:a. edemab. belching c. dehydration d. excessive salivation

51. A client with acute renal failure complains of tingling of the fingers and toes and muscle twitching .this is caused by: (MN entrance 2011-IOM) a. acidosisb. calcium depletion c. potassium retention d. sodium chloride depletion

52. The purpose of peritoneal dialysis is to:a. reestablish kidney function b. clean the peritoneal membrane c. provide fluid for intracellular d. remove toxins and metabolic wastes

53. The secondary disability in skeletal system is : ( MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. Wasting muscle b. Contracture c. amputationd. pressure sore

54. When teaching a female client with recurrent urinary tract infection ,the nurse states that women are most susceptible because of:a. inadequate fluid intake b. poor hygienic practices c. the length of urethra d. continuity of mucus membrane

55. When assessing the urine of a client with a urinary tract infection, each specimen of urine should be assessed for : a. clarity b. viscosity c. specific gravity

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d. sugar and acetone56. The gland that regulates the rate of oxygenation in all over the body is the:

a. adrenal glandb. thyroid gland c. pituitary gland d. pancreas

57. The kidney dialysis machine primarily makes use of : a. osmosisb. ultra-filtration(dialysis) c. filtrationd. diffusion

58. Postural changes immediately after spinal anesthesia may result in hypotension because there is :a. dilation of capacitance vessels b. decrease response of baroreceptorsc. decrease strength of cardiac contractiond. interruption of cardiac accelerator pathway

59. When a client is receiving anticoagulants the nursing care should include observation for:a. nauseab. epistaxis c. headache d. chest pain

60. A client is scheduled for colonoscopy and physician order or tap water enema. In which position should the nurse place the client?a. sam’s position b. back –lying positionc. knee-chest positiond. mid-fowler’s position

61. When taking an admission history of a client with right ventricular heart failure, the nurse would expect to the client to complain of :a. dyspnea, edema, fatigue b. weakness ,palpitation, nauseac. fatigue, vertigo, headached. a feeling of distress when breathing

62. The assessment of a client that would be most indicative diabetes insipidus is:a. increased blood glucose b. low urinary specific gravity

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c. elevation of blood pressured. decreased serum osmolarity

63. Following a hypophysectomy the nurse specifically should observe the client for signs of:a. urinary retention b. respiratory distressc. bleeding in the suture line d. increased intracranial pressure

64. The most appropriate diet for a client with grave’s diseases would be:a. softb. high calorie c. low sodiumd. high roughages

65. As a result of low levels of T3 and T4 the nurse should expect the client to exhibit:a. irritabilityb. tachycardiac. cold intolerance d. profuse diaphoresis

66. The initial treatment of diabetic acidosis will include administrations of:a. IV fluids b. potassiumc. NPH insulin d. sodium polystyrene sulfonate

67. A client with untreated with type 1 diabetes mellitus may lapse into a coma because of acidosis is directly caused by an increased concentration in the serum of:a. ketones b. glucosec. lactic acidd. Glutamic acid

68. Diabetic acidosis is precipitated by:a. breakdown of fat stores for energy b. ingestion of too many highly acidic foodsc. excessive secretion of endogenous insulind. increased concentrations of cholesterol in the extracellular compartment

69. In Meniere’s disease, the main symptom is: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. high grade feverb. nystagmus c. chronic coughd. vision loss

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70. What is the main nursing intervention of acute crisis situation? (MN entrance 2011 IOM)a. strengthening the ego centrismb. tell him/her false as much as possiblec. help the person in crisis with everyday tasks d. discourage him/her to face the crisis

71. Fragments of cells in the bloodstream that break down on exposure to injured tissue and begin the chain reaction leading to a blood clot are known as:a. platelets b. leukocytesc. erythrocytesd. red blood cells

72. The nurse understands that thromboplastin, which initiates the clotting process, is found in:a. bileb. plasmac. platelets d. erythrocytes

73. Vitamin K is essential for normal blood clotting because it promotes:a. platelet aggregationb. ionization of blood calcium c. fibrinogen formation by the liverd. prothrombin formation by the liver

74. The main side effect of long term using corticosteroids are except(MN entrance 2011-IOM) a. central edema b. white straie on abdomen c. …..d. ……….

75. In panic condition which coping mechanisms technique is the best? (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. meditation b. biogenic muscle relaxationc. bio feedback trainingd. development of rational philosophy of life

76. Pain intensity is high in superficial burn because : (MN entrance 2011 IOM)a. sensory nerve endings is present in superficial layer b. motor nerve endings is present in superficial layer

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c. both motor and sensory nerve endings are present in superficial layere. more motor and less sensory nerve endings are present in superficial layer

77. Antibodies are produced by:a. eosinophilb. plasma cells c. erythrocytesd. lymphocytes

78. when administering the method of oxygen administration to be used for a specific client, the major concern is:a. level of activityb. facial anatomyc. pathologic condition d. age and mental capacity

79. The position in which a client with dyspnea should be placed in the:a. supine positionb. orthopnea position c. sim’s positiond. trendelenburg position

80. Which clinical indicator should be the nurse expects the client with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis to experience?a. double vision b. resting tremorsc. flaccid paralysisd. mental retardation

81. The nurse should observe a client with Addison’s diseases closely for sign of infectious complication because there is a disturbances in :a. metabolic processb. respiratory functionc. electrolytic balancesd. inflammatory effects

82. Ketone bodies appear in the blood and urine when fats are being oxidized in great amount. This condition is associated with:a. starvation b. alcoholismc. bone healingd. positive nitrogen balance

83. The most common cause of diabetics ketoacidosis is caused by:a. emotional stress

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b. presence of infection c. increase insulin dose d. inadequate food intake

84. The type of insulin that is use for the emergency treatment for ketoacidosis:a. regular insulin b. Insulin zink suspensionc. Isophane insulin suspensiond. Insulin zink suspension extended

85. When caring for client who is HIV positive , a primary responsibility of the nurse is to explain how the client can prevent :a. AIDSb. social isolation c. other infections d. kaposi’s sarcoma

86. Hypoventilation such as emphysema , pneumonia may cause : (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosisc. metabolic acidosisd. metabolic alkalosis

87. The increased tendency towards coronary and cerebral thrombosis seem individual with polycythemia vera is attributable to the :

a. increased the viscosity b. fragility of the cellsc. elevated blood pressure d. immaturity of red blood cells88. As a result of a serious automobile accident, a client is admitted with multiple traumas

including a ruptured spleen.Asplenectomy is performed because:a. the spleen is a highly vascular organ b. it is anatomically adjacent to the diaphragmc. the spleen is the largest lymphoid organ in the body d. rupture of the spleen can cause disease of the river

89. In the postoperative period following a splenectomy, the nurse especially should observe the client for:a. shock and infectionb. intestinal obstruction and bleedingc. hemorrhage and abdominal distention d. peritonitis and pulmonary complications

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90. A client is in a state of uncompensated acidosis. The nurse would expect the arterial blood ph to be approximately:a. 6.9b. 7.2 c. 7.45d. 7.48

91. Acromegaly is produced by an over production of:a. testosteroneb. growth hormone c. thyroid hormoned. thyroid stimulating hormone

92. The reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate( in the kidney tubule), the flow of water between the intracellular and interstitial compartments, and the exchange of fluid between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces are caused by:a. dialysisb. osmosis c. diffusiond. active transport

93. A client has undergone a supra pubic prostectomy. The nurse can expect the client to return from the post anesthesia care unit with which type of tube?a. cystostomy b. nasogastricc. nephrostomyd. ureterostomy

94. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a brain injury as a result of an automobile collision. The nurse understands the injury isw more likely to cause death if it involves the:a. ponsb. medulla c. midbraind. thalamus

95. The nurse is aware that ascites can be related to:a. portal hypertensionb. kidney malfunctionc. diminished plasma protein d. decreased the production of potassium

96. The nurse explains to a client that it is not advisable to take bicarbonate os soda regularly. This statement is based on knowledge that bicarbonate of soda can acuse:

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a. gastric distensionb. metabolic alkalosis c. chronic constipationd. cardiac dysrthythmias

97. Following a head injury a client develops a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Normally secretion of ADH causes:a. serum osmolarity increase to increase b. urine concentration to decreasec. glomerular filtration to decreased. tubular reabsorption of water to increase

98. Hypotension associated with addison’s disease involves a disturbance in the production of:a. estrogenb. androgensc. glucocorticoidsd. mineralocorticoids

99. Increased blood concentration of cortisol (hydrocortisone):a. tends to accelerate wound healingb. impairs glucogenesis in the liverc. decrease the anterior pituitary secretion of ACTH d. makes the body less able to resist stress successfully

100. When caring for an anxious, fearful client, the nurse would identify which of the following as an indication of sympathetic nervous system control?a. dry skinb. skin pallor c. constrictions of pupils d. pulse rate of 60beats/minute

101. AIDS is caused by:a. single stranded RNA virus b. double stranded RNA virusc. single stranded DNA virusd. double stranded DNA virus

102. Client is receiving Coumadin. The test that would be most specific for calculating the daily dosage of this anticoagulant would be the:a. INR b. clotting time c. bleeding timed. sedimentation rate

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103. The nurse suspects a client is in cardiogenic shock. The nurse understands that this type of shock is:a. an irreversible phenomenonb. a failure of the circulatory pump c. usually a fleeting reaction to tissue injuryd. generally caused by decreased blood volume

104. The nurse would prioritize care and provide treatment first for a client with:a. head injuriesb. a fractured femurc. ventricular fibrillation d. a penetrating abdominal wound

105. The nurse realizes that a pacemaker is used in some clients to serve the function normally performed by the:a. AV nodeb. SA node c. bundle of Hisd. accelerator nerves to the heart

106. When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a coronary care unit, the first person reaching the client should:a. administer the oxygenb. defibrillate the client c. initiate the cardiopulmonary resuscitationd. administer the sodium bicarbonate intravenously

107. A 55 year client is admitted with the diagnosis of possible myocardial infraction. The physician orders enzyme studies for the client. The nurse knows the first enzyme to change in the presence of a myocardial infraction is:a. ALTb. ASTc. total LDHd. troponin T

108. When caring for a client with an impaired immune system. The nurse recognizes that the blood protein involved is:a. albuminb. globulin c. thrombind. hemoglobin

109. the osteoarthritis patient has demonstrated the lump gate during walking is due to:(MN entrance 2011 IOM)

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a. stiffness of hip b. ………….c. …………..d. …………..

110. The nurse recognizes that digitalis preparation promotes diuresis, should evaluate the clients for a depletion of:a. sodiumb. calciumc. potassium d. phosphate

111. The nurse administer the serum albumin to a client to assess in:a. clotting of bloodb. formation of red blood cells c. activation of WBCd. development of oncotic pressure

112. In general, the higher the RBC counts:a. the higher the blood phb. lower the hematocritc. the greater the blood viscosity d. the less its contributes the immunity

113. with an oxygen debt, muscle shows:a. low levels of ATP b. high levels of calciumc. high levels of glycogend. low levels of lactic acid

114. A client is admitted with suspected atelectasis. When assessing the individual, the nurse would expect:a. slow deep respirationb. diminished breath sounds c. a dry, unproductive coughd. a normal oral temperature

115. To monitor for the complications of emphysema after the insertion of chest tubes, the nurse should:a. asses for the presence of a barrel- shaped chestb. auscultate the breath sounds for crackles and rhonchic. palpate around the chest tube insertion sites for crepitus d. compare the length of inspiration with the length of expiration

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116. After a thoracotomy and right lower lobe lobectomy the nurse can most accurately detect atelectasis during the client’s postoperative period by the presence of:a. bilateral crackles and lethargyb. increased heart rate and cyanosisc. decreased breath sounds and fever d. a cough and splinting of the affected side

117. A client with degenerative joint disease asks the nurse, “my doctor mentioned something about synovial fluid and joint. What is that?” What is the nurse’s best response? The synovial fluid of the joints minimizes:a. efficiencyb. work out putc. friction of the joints d. velocity of the joints

118. A client with cushing syndrome may manifest the signs of diabetes mellitus because:a. the cortical hormones created too rapid weight lossb. excessive ACTH secretion will damage pancreatic tissuec. a negative nitrogen balance resulted from the tissue catabolismd. the excessive glucocorticoids secreted by the adrenal gland caused excessive tissue

catabolism and gluconeogenesis119. A client had surgery for a perforated appendix with localize peritonitis. In which

position should the nurse place this client?a. sim’s positionb. trendelenburg’s positionc. semi fowler’s position d. dorsal recumbent position

120. A cluster of cells with same function is known as:a. ganglia b. tractc. nucleid. center

121. Acetylcholine is the neuro transmitter, which for has:a. excitatory effect b. inhibitory effectc. both inhibitory and excitatory effectd. more excitatory and low inhibitory effect

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122. when the patient’s neck is flexed, flexion of hip and knees is the sign of meningeal irritation known as:a. brudzinski ’s sign b. kerning’s signc. nuchal rigidityd. stiff neck

123. Earliest sign of increased ICP is:a. change in the level of consciousness, restlessness, confusionb. change in the level of the restlessness, hypertensionc. change in the level of the consciousness, bradycardia, hypertensiond. headache, restlessness, confusion

124. A client who has acromegaly and diabetes mellitus has a hypophysectomy. The nurse recognizes that further teaching about the hypophysectomy is necessary when the client states, I know I will:a. be sterile for the rest of lifeb. requires larger doses of insulin I did preoperatively c. have to take thyroxine (or a similar preparation) for the rest of my lifed. have to take cortisone (or a similar preparation) for the rest my life

125. When taking the blood pressure of a client who has had a thyroidectomy , the nurse notices that the client is pale and has spasms of the hand and notifies the physician. While awaiting the physician’s order, the nurse should prepare for the replacement of:a. calcium b. magnesiumc. bicarbonated. potassium chloride

126. oral hypoglycemic agents may be used for clients with:a. ketosisb. obesityc. type1 diabetesd. some insulin production

127. In an emergency the rapid adjustments made by the body are associated with the increased activity of the:a. thyroid glandb. adrenal gland c. pituitary clientd. pancreas gland

128. the nurse understands that the cause of Cushing’s syndrome is most commonly:

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a. pituitary hypoplasiab. insufficient ACTH productionc. hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex d. deprivation of adrenocortical hormones

129. Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids are secreted by the:a. gonadsb. pancreasc. adrenal gland d. anterior pituitary

130. An accidental removal of parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy would cause:a. myxedemab. tetany and death c. hypovolemic shockd. adrenocortical stimulation

131. The two inter balanced regulatory agent that control overall balance calcium balance in the body are :a. Phosphorous & ACTHb. Vitamin A & thyroid gland c. ascorbic acid & growth hormoned. vitamin D & parathyroid hormone

132. When assessing for complications of hyperparathyroidism, the nurse should monitor the client for:

a. tetanyb. siezuresc. grave’s diseased. bone destruction 133. Best position for assessing the characteristics of the prostate gland is:

a. semi fowler position b. fowler’s position c. supine positiond. modified standing position

134. Which sequence about the MASLOW’s hierarchy of human needs is correct:a. physiological, safety/security, self-esteem, love and belonging, self-actualizationb. physiological , safety/security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self-actualization c. self-esteem, self-actualization,love and belonging,safety/security,physiologicald. physiological, safety/security, self-esteem, self-actualization ,love and belonging

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135. In prolonged exposure of earth crust ,portion may (suffering from) get following disease:a. asbestosisb. tuberculosisc. silicosis d. mesothelioma

136. When receiving an enema, the client should be placed in the : (MN entrance 2008-IOM)a. sim’s position b. back lying positionc. knee-chest positiond. mid fowlers position

137. The movement of solvent from its lower concentration to its higher concentration through semi permeable membrane is: a. osmosis b. diffusion c. actives transport d. perfusion

138. The arteriole which bring blood to the glomerular capsule is :a. afferent arteriole b. glomerulusc. efferent arteriole d. renal artery

139. The disease associated with decreased dopamine levels due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantial nigra in the basal ganglia is :a. myasthenia gravisb. gullianbaree syndrome c. parkinson’s disease d. multiple selerosis

140. When formulating nursing care plans for older adults, the nurse should include special measure to accommodate for age related sensory losses such as:a. difficulty in swallowing b. increase sensitivity to heatc. diminished sensation of pain d. heightened response to stimuli

141. After a mastectomy, the nurse should position the client ‘s arm on the affected side:a. in adduction supported by sandbags

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b. in adduction surrounded by sandbagsc. on pillows with the hand higher than the arm d. with the arm lower than the level of the heart

142. The assessment that is most indicative of SLE is :a. bufferfly rashes b. firm skin c. fixed two tissue d. muscle mass degeneration e. an inflammation of small arties

143. A skin graft that is taken from another portion of client’s one day is known as :a. an allow graft b. an auto graft c. a homo graftd. a hetero graft

144. To best evaluate fluid loss due to burns, the nurse should monitor the:a. BUNb. blood Phc. hematocrit d. sedimentation rate

145. The purpose of peritoneal dialysis is to:a. reestablish kidney functionb. clean the peritoneal membranec. provide fluid for intracellular spaced. remove toxin and metabolic waste

146. Rehabilitation of a client with an amputation should begin :a. before surgery b. during convalescent phasec. on discharge from hospitald. when it is time for a prosthesis

147. A client with dysphagia may experience difficulty in:(MN entrance 2008-IOM)a. writingb. focusingc. swallowing d. understanding

148. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure who has just been told by the physician that hemodialysis is necessary. The nurse understands that the reason why hemodialysis is necessary because the client now has:a. Ascites

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b. acidosisc. hypertensiond. hyperkalemia

149. Before giving the NG tube feeding , the nurse should:(MN entrance 2011 IOM) a. ………..b. aspirated the abdominal; contentc. check the aspirated fluid that blue litmus paper change to red litmus paper d. check the aspirated fluid that red litmus paper change to blue litmus paper

150. For glomerulonephritis case’s the best method to measure the fluid retention is by: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. weight the baby at the same time b. intake and output chartingc. ……………….d. ……………..

151. For the right hip fracture case which is the best position? (MN entrance 20011-IOM)a. right hip abducted with pillow b. left hip abducted with pillowc. right hip adducted with pillowd. left hip adducted with pillow

152. strict vegetarian diet results in the deficiency of:a. vitamin B1b. vitamin B complex c. biotind. vitamin D

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Social science

1. Which of the following food comes under the hot food?a. mango b. cucumberc. buffalo meetd. sheep meet

2. Father of sociology is:a. Emile Durkeheimb. August Comte c. E. Pavlovd. Sigmud Fred

3. The folkways which are considered by the group to be essential for its essential for its welfare and existence are called: (MN entrance 2011- IOM)a. normsb. mores c. folk waysd. cultural lag

4. The things, which religion or custom regards as forbidden among a group or societies known as: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. beliefb. taboo c. valued. customs

5. Illness is a:a. physiological conceptb. psychological concept c. sociological conceptd. psychosocial concept

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6. Sickness is a:a. sociological concept b. psychological conceptc. physiological conceptd. psychosocial concept

7. Ascribed status is given to an individual by:a. his/her effortb. his/her capacityc. his/her personalityd. his/her family and society

8. Achieved status is given to an individual by:a. his/her ageb. his/her familyc. his/her societyd. his/her effort and competition

9. The smallest unit of culture is:a. cultural lagb. cultural trait c. cultural shockd. ethno culture

10. The expected pattern of behavior, group shared expectation is known as:a. moresb. beliefc. norms d. tradition

11. Doing pray for god is: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. belief b. habitc. traditiond. value

12. It is a belief upon which a man acts by preference:a. beliefb. value c. satisfactiond. habit

13. The repeated action and observed by others is: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. traditionb. habit

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c. valued. custom

14. Which disease is said to be caused by Sitalaama:a. small pox b. typhoidc. jaundiced. leprosy

15. The Newar ceremony ‘Yihee’ is related to:a. marriage b. menarcheyc. birthd. pasni

16. Illness believed to be caused by witches is interpreted in terms of:a. naturalistic causeb. personalistic cause c. biological caused. cultural cause

17. The student of medical anthropology should understand illness according to:a. sign of illnessb. symptom of illness c. psychological context of the illnessd. sociocultural context of illness

18. behavior pattern of everyday life, which unconsciously arises with in a group is known as:a. traditionb. customsc. folkways d. taboo

19. rules formally enacted by a political authority and is backed by the [power of the state is:a. normsb. moresc. folkwaysd. law

20. when conjunctions of two cultures occurs causing cultural growth and they are intimately related to each other rather than identified by its own process is:a. cultural diffusion

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b. acculturation c. assimilationd. enculturation

21. when one culture becomes so intimate with other culture as it loses its individuality is:a. assimilation b. acculturationc. accumulationd. ethnocentrism

22. the experience gained which is accumulated and passed on one generation to its successive generations through social heritage is:a. tradition b. customc. accumulation d. enculturation

23. when a growing child learns to confirm to his/her own cultural traditions is:a. ethnocentrismb. enculturation c. assimilationd. accumulation

24. it is the belief that one’s own culture is superior to all others and using it as preference to one’s own self or group or relatives is:a. ethnocentrism b. assimilation c. traditiond. custom

25. it is a practice which is handed down from generation to generation without any change in their picture is:a. habitb. custom c. tradition d. norms

26. the pattern of behavior shared by some or all members of the society is:a. customs b. traditionc. habitd. mores

27. in the ritual practice associated with healing, who make much use of liquor: (MPH entrance 2008 IOM)

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a. Dhamib. Jhankri c. Fedanwad. Guvaju

28. Dhami is a person who: (MN entrance 2008 IOM)a. evokes the mastors or kuldevta b. sacrifies the animalc. use of liquord. generally put on white gown

29. Fedangwa is a priest of:a. Limbu community b. Rai communityc. Newar communityd. Brahmin community

30. Guvaju is a traditional healer in which of the following community?a. Limbu communityb. Rai communityc. Newar community d. Tamang community

31. Socially accepted behavior which are important in times of festivals and religious celebration is:a. rituals b. customsc. traditionsd. habit

32. a combination of treating and blowing mantras is:a. indigenous practiceb. jharphuk c. modern medicined. lagu spirits

33. which is not the indigenous practitioners:a. brahmin priestb. astrologersc. baidhyasd. physician

34. the fever is caused by following cause in tradition belief in Nepalese societies:a. sour food b. hot food

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c. hot waterd. sweet food

35. Satvik food is:a. non vegetarianb. strictly vegetarian c. neither vegetarian nor non vegetariand. partially vegetarian

36. the food which is believed to generate goodness, joy and inspire all novel virtue and action is:a. rajasa foodsb. tamasi foodsc. satavik foods d. tamasi and rajasa foods

37. those foods are believed to produce egoism, selfishness, violence, jealousy and ambition are:a. rajasa foods b. satavik foodsc. cold foods and hot foodsd. satavik foods and tamasi foods

38. Bijuwa is a priest of:a. Gurungb. Newarc. Magard. Rai

39. Lama is a priest of:a. Gurung b. Newarc. Magard. Rai

40. Gaijatra is festival of:a. memory of dearest personb. memory of dead person c. memory of colleaguesd. memory of god

41. Losar is festival of:a. Gurung’s new year b. Newar’s new year

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c. Magar’s new yeard. Rai’s new yeare.

42. Oedipal complex means:a. feeling of hate towards the father and love toward the mother by son b. feeling of love towards the father and hate towards the mother by sonc. feeling of hate towards the father and love towards the mother by daughterd. feeling of love toward the father and hate towards the mother by daughter

43. Electra complex means:a. feeling of hate towards the father and love towards the mother by sonb. feeling of hate towards the father and love towards the mother by daughterc. feeling of hate toward the mother and love towards the father by daughter d. feeling of love towards the father and hate towards the mother by son

44. Attitude is:a. objective datab. subjective data c. both objective and subjective datad. neither subjective nor objective data

45. anthropology studies:a. human kind and his behavior b. culture and ethnicityc. human societyd. both human and society

46. in Nepalese culture, during postnatal period green vegetables like sag is considered as:a. hot foods b. cold foods c. normal foodsd. nutritious foods

47. sudeni is also known as Ajima in:a. Limbu communityb. Magar communityc. Newar community d. Rai community

48. An individual is permitted to have only one spouse is:a. monogamy b. polygamyc. polygynyd. polyandry

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49. an individual is permitted to have more than one spouse is:a. monogamyb. polygamy c. polygynyd. polyandry

50. when a man marries two or more sisters is:a. monogamyb. polygamyc. soronal polygyny d. fraternal polyandry

51. when a woman marries two or more brothers is:a. monogamyb. polygamyc. soronal polygynyd. fraternal polyandry

52. permition of marriage among the members of in/ defined group only is:a. endogamy b. polygamyc. polyandryd. polygyny

53. the practice of marriage of one man to two or more women is:a. endogamyb. polygamyc. polyandryd. polygyny

54. the practice of marriage of one woman to two or more men is:a. endogamyb. polygamyc. polyandry d. polygyny

55. a pattern of behavior that are tradition and are strongly baked community by reward and punishment is:a. mores b. traditionc. folkwaysd. customs

56. society is defined as:a. a group of people bound by rules

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b. an association with regulated membershipc. an association patterned on norms of interactiond. a group of people only

57. in a social group, a social act which is considered natural and right is referred to as:a. taboob. ritualc. custom d. tradition

Health economics

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1. all following are the factor of production except:a. landb. labourc. capitald. input output

2. all costs and benefits of a health programme are valued in money term ina. cost benefit analysisb. cost utility analysis c. cost effectiveness analysisd. cost consequences analysis

3. all are the problems of health economics except: (MN entrance 2010 IOM)a. what to produce?b. how to produce?c. for whom to produce?d. when to produce?

4. The ability to pay and willing to pay is:a. demand b. supplyc. cost d. cost benefit

5. all are the vital process of demand except:a. productionb. distributionc. consumptiond. verification

6. the sum of fixed cost and variable cost is:a. total cost b. fixed costc. variable costd. average cost

7. the amount of expenditure made on factor of production to produce goods and services are:a. cost b. utilityc. elasticityd. equilibrium

8. the cost incurred changes by production of one additional output is: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)

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a. variable costb. fixed costc. marginal cost d. average cost

9. the cost incurred during production process instilled in fixed items is:a. fixed cost b. variable costc. marginal costd. average cost

10. the cost which directly varies to the number of output:a. fixed costb. variable cost c. marginal costd. average cost

11. the total cost divided by total number of activity is:a. fixed costb. variable costc. marginal costd. average cost

12. the value of alternatives or other opportunity which have been forgone in order to achieve a particular thing is:a. fixed costb. variable costc. marginal costd. opportunity cost

13. if the other things are constant, the main factor that affect the demand is:a. price b. fashionc. populationd. preference

14. demand varies inversely with price, not necessarily proportionately is called:a. law of demandb. law of supplyc. income demand d. price demand

15. the willing and ability to sell by producer is:a. demandb. supply

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c. incomed. price

16. monitoring value of all final goods and services produced in domestic tertiary as a country in a year is: (MN entrance 2011- IOM)a. GDP (gross domestic product)b. GNP (gross national product)c. NI(national income)d. NNP (national net national product

17. Monitoring value of all final goods and services produced by the domestically owned factor of production during a year is: (MN entrance 2008-IOM)a. GDP (gross domestic product)b. GNP (gross national product) c. NI(national income)d. NNP (national net national product

18. The sum of individually income in a country with in a year is:a. GDP (gross domestic product)b. GNP (gross national product)c. NI(national income) d. NNP (national net national product

19. An average income of an individual in a country during a year is:a. GDP (gross domestic product)b. GNP (gross national product)c. NI(national income)d. Per capita income

20. Which of the following cost is incurred when even the production is zero:a. fixed cost b. variable costc. marginal costd. total cost

21. which of the following cost is increase as output is increase: a. fixed costb. variable cost c. marginal costd. total cost

22. population theory is discovered by: (MN entrance 2011 –IOM)a. Malthus

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b. Bar Bara Wottonc. Alfred Marshald. Adam Smith

23. The maximum satisfaction and advantages from production is (MN entrance 2011-IOM)a. utilityb. benefitc. equilibriumd. elasticity

24. micro economics is also called:a. price theory b. income theoryc. demand theoryd. supply theory

25. macro economics is also known as:a. price theoryb. income theoryc. demand theoryd. supply theory

26. the unit of payment of free for service is:a. each item of service use b. per person registeredc. unit of time workedd. both per person registered and unit of time worked

27. the unit of payment of salary is:a. each item of service useb. per person registeredc. unit of time worked d. both per person registered and unit of time worked

28.Which the sign and symptom is not present in meningitis? (MN entrance 2011- IOM)a. irritabilityb. bulging of fontanelsc. increased intra cranial pressured. high pitched cry

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