______________________________________________________________________________

EXAMINATION FOR

THE MICHIGAN CERTIFICATE OF

PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH

ECPE

Practice Preliminary Tests (with KEY)

Volume 8

Prepared by Rodney A Coules

ANATOLIA COLLEGE Language & Testing Office

1

PRELIMINARY TEST FOR THE ECPE

INSTRUCTIONS AND EXAMPLES

This set of five practice tests has been produced to help candidates to familiarize themselves with the new format of the preliminary test to be introduced for the first time on 29 November, 2003. In the test there are 35 problems: 10 grammar problems, 10 multiple choice cloze problems, 10 vocabulary problems, and 5 questions about a reading passage. Candidates will have 30 minutes to answer all 35 problems. Below are examples of each of the different types of problems with the correct answer indicated with an asterisk (*).

GRAMMAR: Choose the word or phrase which best completes the conversation.

“What is that thing?” “That ____ a spider.”

a. to call b. for calling

c. be called *d. is called CLOZE: Read the passage, then select the word that best fills the blank in both grammar and meaning. Long ago roads were only trails for people a. way *b. road and animals to walk on, but today roads c. travel d. superhighway must be made for cars, trucks, and buses. The most modern ____ is often called a superhighway. VOCABULARY: Choose the word that most appropriately completes the sentence.

The first things we study in school are very _____. a. sturdy

b. shifty c. trusty *d. elementary READING : Read the passage, then answer the questions following it according to the information given in the passage.

While I was getting ready to go to town one morning last week, my wife handed me a little piece of red cloth and asked me if I would have time during the day to buy her two yards of cloth like that. The person telling the story is….

a. a married lady b. an unmarried lady * c. a married man d. an unmarried man

ANATOLIA COLLEGE LANGUAGE & TESTING OFFICE P. O. BOX 21021,

PYLEA 55510 THESSALONIKI Email: alto@anatolia.edu.gr

2

Practice Test 1

GRAMMAR

1. How could Jeff have done that?” “ _____ . Who knows what he was thinking?”

a. Never before! b. Beats me! c. Certainly not! d. I’ll eat my hat!

2. I like_____ immediately after a party.

a. to cleaning up b. my cleaning up c. that I clean up d. to clean up

3. Had George listened to his brother, he _____ into trouble with his teacher.

a. wouldn’t have gotten b. wouldn’t get c. wouldn’t have been d. hadn’t been

4. The boss recommended _____ for the position.

a. that Steve was applying b. Steve to apply c. Steve apply d. Steve is applying

5. A rather _____ smell was coming from our neighbor’s yard.

a. offender b. offence c. offensive d. offending

6. _____, he took the dog out for a walk. a. Soon George returned from school b. The minute George returned from school c. Soon George returned from school d. The minute George returning from school

7. Can anyone tell me _____ a shop selling oriental foods?

a. where I can find b. where can I find c. where will I find d. where is to be found

8. The information _____ along to the local authorities.

a. have been passed b. are being passed c. has been passed d. are to be passed

9. “Would you like to go out for a pizza this evening?” “Why don’t we _____ to the house?”

a. have delivered them a couple b. have them delivering a couple c. have them to deliver a couple d. have them deliver a couple

10. We have arranged to send the goods _____ the customer by courier.

a. at b. towards c. into d. to

3

CLOZE Camel racing, a favorite pastime in the

Middle East, has taken flack from human

rights (11) for the young boys imported to

jockey the humpbacked desert beasts.

Accordingly, the government of Qatar

announced right before year’s end that it was

banning (12) jockeys. Their replacements?

Why, robots, of course. Camel racers in Qatar

have (13) tested remote-controlled, titanium

robot jockeys (14) by an unnamed Swiss

company. Camel owners (15) jockey via

joystick from the sidelines as the animals

galumph around a kilometer-long (16). The

robots are apparently armed (17) whips, and

future models may include cameras to give

the controllers a jockey’s- (18) view. But

exactly how they work is being kept secret for

(19). “They won’t let me near the robot,” says

Chuck Thorpe, a member of the Robotics

Institute at Carnegie-Mellon University’s

Qatar campus. He (20) that remote control

might work well in camel races, which

require little maneuvering compared with

horse races.

This passage was taken from Scientific

American, March 2005.

(11) a. protectors b. advocates c. instigators d. defenders (12) a. children b. child c. childish d. childlike (13) a. accordingly b. inadvertently c. reportedly d. retrospectively (14) a. build b. building c. built d. builder (15) a. would b. should c. could d. ought (16) a. track b. lane c. route d. field (17) a. by b. for c. against d. with (18) a. sight b. eye c. scan d. high (19) a. keeps b. good c. now d. moment (20) a. specifies b. ascertains c. spectates d. speculates

4

VOCABULARY 21. Newspapers often _____ the truth.

a. extend b. distort c. expand d. distend

22. Mrs. Stevens had _____ about deciding to sell

her house. a. misconceptions b. misgivings c. misdemeanors d. misinterpretations

23. My sister _____ refused to listen to my

advice. a. resolutely b. feebly c. avidly d. staunchly

24. Residents complained about the _____ odor

from the factory. a. retentive b. selective c. impulsive d. vile

25. Nylon is a cheap _____ material.

a. expendable b. expandable c. durable d. edible

26. The company has _____ a new sales plan.

a. involved b. inculcated c. instigated d. adopted

27. Stray dogs are a(n) _____ in residential areas.

a. trait b. addict c. menace d. feature

28. I was woken up by someone _____ on a door.

a. pounding b. slamming c. pinching d. creaking

29. Most bamboo stems are_____.

a. vacant b. hollow c. void d. empty

30. Sand is to be found in _____ on most beaches.

a. scarcity b. entirety c. abundance d. coasts

5

READING COMPREHENSION

This passage was taken from Natural History,Vol.114, No.9, November 2005. How much can a bit of detective work glean from a few ancient bones? Sometimes, the answer is, a lot. For one thing, anthropologists can get a pretty good idea, from traces of various elements in the bones, what their original owners ate. An abundance of the isotope carbon-13 indicates a diet rich in plants that build sugar molecules out of compounds containing four rather than three carbon atoms – know as “C4” photosynthesis. The relative proportion of the nitrogen-15 isotope reflects the diet’s protein content. By analyzing the ratios of various isotopes, Ekaterina A. Pechenkina, an anthropologist at the City University of New York, and her collaborators inferred diets of peasant farmers – along with the diets of the farmers’ pigs and dogs – who lived in northern China’s Yellow River basin between 4,000 and 7,000 years ago. The investigators determined that the farmers cultivated and consumed a tremendous amount of millet, the region’s only C4 crop plant. And surprisingly, the animals ate even more of the grain: it comprised as much as 90 percent of their diets. That suggests the pigs not only dined on millet-bearing human refuse – stems and leaves, table scraps, and feces – but were also fed the grain directly. The dogs ate millet, too, and likely boosted their overall intake of it by hunting millet-eating mice. Grain-fed animals signal a well-off farming community that can afford to lose most of the grain’s calorific value by using it to fatten up animals. If the farmers didn’t regularly dine on pork, they may, at least, have raised the pigs for special occasions, such as ritual sacrifices or feasts.

31. The passage states that examination of ancient bones from the northern part of China’s Yellow River basin

a. will show what animals were domesticated by ancient populations.

b. would be more revealing if more bones were available.

c. has given scientists a good idea of how to trace various elements.

d. can provide information on the diets of ancient populations and the animals they domesticated.

32. The evidence indicates that populations in the northern part of China’s Yellow River basin

a. had little protein in their diet. b. relied heavily on a diet containing

particular sugar-producing plants. c. had an essentially protein-rich diet. d. kept the proportion of carbon-13 and nitrogen-15 isotopes in their diet constant.

33. Investigators have found that millet a. grew in great abundance in the wild. b. was grown by farmers in great

quantities. c. was the only crop grown in the region.

d. was grown only for animal consumption.

34. The dogs increased the amount of millet they consumed by

a. eating mice which had consumed millet. b. eating everything the pigs ate. c. hunting various animals in the wild. d. dining together with the pigs.

35. Researchers conclude that the ancient populations of the northern part of the Yellow River basin must have been prosperous because

a. they regularly dined on pork b. they millet in their diet. c. their used so much of their millet to fatten animals. d. they had pigs and dogs.

6

Practice Test 2

GRAMMAR

1. _____ you please keep the noise down! I’m trying to study!

a. Need b. May c. Ought d. Would

2. “I’ve lost my mobile phone, Mom.” “Isn’t it time _____ taking better care of your property?”

a. your starting b. you started c. you have to start d. you have started

3. _____ having a bad headache, I managed to complete the work I had to do.

a. Despite b. Since c. However d. Although

4. The new Sales Manager has a really _____ work background.

a. impressed b. impression c. impressive d. impressing

5. As long as _____ , you may make use of her office while she is away.

a. Pamela will not object b. Pamela is not going to object c. Pamela does not object d. Pamela would not object

6. I have never seen _____ of fish before. I wonder if it is edible?

a. a type b. one type c. the type d. this type

7. _____, she saw a sight that filled her with horror and disgust

a. Opening the door b. She opened the door c. Opened the door d. When the door she opened

8. _____, he would have informed me.

a. If Dave knew the news b. If Dave has known the news c. Had Dave known the news d. To have known Dave the news

9. Sarah blames _____ for everything that has happened.

a. to herself b. for yourself c. herself d. in herself

10. Nowhere in the world _____ clearer seas than in the Pacific.

a. you will find b. will you find c. you are to find d. you have to find

7

CLOZE Breeding cows for beef is often slow because

the qualities of a top-grade cut, marbling and

tenderness, are unknown until after a cow is (11).

That may change soon thanks (12) a newborn calf

born healthy to the first cow cloned from a beef

(13). The mother, KC, is named (14) the kidney

cell from which she was cloned. Her calf,

Sunshine, was born (15) in mid-December, lively

and fit at 72 pounds. The technology used to

generate KC could also clone an animal from a

freshly processed (16) of beef, says Steven Stice,

an animal scientist at the University of Georgia.

(17) cloned animals cannot legally enter the food

(18), their offspring might soon: later this year the

Food and Drug Administration is (19) to weigh in

on the safety of eating such animals, (20) an

earlier FDA draft deemed unsafe.

This passage was taken from Scientific American, March 2005.

(11) a. butchered b. massacred c. slain d. stabbed (12) a. to b. because c. for d. owing (13) a. carcass b. body c. corpse d. remains (14) a. for b. after c. by d. with (15) a. usually b. physically c. naturally d. intentionally (16) a. cut b. chop c. slice d. portion (17) a. Although b. Despite c. However d. Since (18) a. group b. chain c. pattern d. framework (19) a. known b. seen c. expected d. pending (20) a. that b. who c. what d. which

8

VOCABULARY 21. The sales team was _____ of fresh ideas.

a. bare b. empty c. stripped d. devoid

22. The _____ of rotting fish was unbearable.

a. aroma b. fragrance c. stench d. scent

23. The dentist decided to _____ the decayed

tooth. a. evict b. expunge c. evacuate d. extract

24. Mr. Rivers is on the night _____ next week.

a. shift b. period c. term d. job

25. Unless you respond _____, you might lose the

opportunity. a. promptly b. partially c. adeptly d. placidly

26. William Shakespeare is one of the most _____

dramatists England has known. a. pungent b. prolific c. sprightly d. profuse

27. Medical experts battled to _____ the spread

of the disease. a. amputate b. arrest c. encircle d. sever

28. Most of us found it difficult to _____ what the

speaker was saying. a. declare b. detach c. decipher d. detain

29. A _____ of abuse was heard form the angry

cab driver. a. flow b. stream c. tide d. trickle

30. It took the team two months to _____ across

the desert . a. ply b. venture c. expedite d. trek

9

READING COMPREHENSION This passage was taken from Natural History, Vol. 114, No.9, November 2005. If you could redesign your own head, where would you put your eyes? The question isn’t entirely frivolous. To see in three-dimensions, and so to gauge distances effectively, your two eyes must face forward. But binocular vision comes at a price: it leaves a dangerous blind spot behind the head. That can give you all-around vision, but it diminishes distance perception. The way an animal usually catches its food settles the dilemma. Apes, cats, raptors, and the like that catch live, fast-moving prey tend to have forward-facing eyes. Aardvarks, rabbits, zebras, and other animals that rely on a more sedentary diet have eyes on each side of the head, maximizing their ability to spot lurking dangers. Why then, asked a team of British ornithologists, led by Graham Martin of the University of Birmingham, in England, does Africa’s filter-feeding lesser flamingo have eyes that face forward? After all, the bird feeds with its head upside down, which means that its eyes are pointing backwards. It seems that for lesser flamingos there is more to life than filtering diatoms and algae from the mud. Unlike filter-feeding ducks, which raise self-feeding chicks, lesser flamingos must feed their young for the first ten to twelve weeks of their lives. The task requires accurate delivery of “crop milk” from parent to chick, directly into the chick’s open mouth. Martin’s team suggests that this is possible only with forward-facing eyes.

31. What do we understand from the term

“binocular vision” in line 5 of the text? a. Vision that could lead to blindness b. Vision you get through a pair of

binoculars c. The vision you have when your eyes are

positioned to see ahead d. Vision which allows you to see ahead

and behind

32. Animals with one eye on each side of the head a. are in a better position than other

animals in all respects. b. still see in three-dimensions. c. do not perceive distance as well as those with “binocular vision”. d. have to turn their head left or right in

order to gauge distance.

33. Apes, cats and raptors apparently have forward-facing eyes to enable them a. to depend on a more sedentary diet. b. to measure how far away their prey is. c. to outrun their prey. d. to avoid lurking dangers.

34. The filter-feeding lesser flamingo’s eyes are forward-facing to enable it a. to hold its head upside down. b. to compete against filter-feeding ducks. c. to spot dangers approaching from behind when it is feeding. d. to successfully feed its chicks.

35. The chicks of filter-feeding ducks a. need less “crop milk” from the parent birds. b. are able to feed themselves. c. are fed “crop milk” for a shorter period. d. reject “crop milk” from the parent birds.

10

Practice Test 3

GRAMMAR

1. “Where is the boss this week?” “He’s gone to London, ___ with the Chairman of the company.”

a. where he met b. where he is meeting c. where will he meet d. where is he going to meet

2. “We need to change the company’s image. “Yes. The market has become really_____.”

a. competitive b. competing c. competitor d. competition

3. “When is Tim leaving for the States?” “It is imperative_____ immediately.”

a. his leaving b. that he leave c. he leaves d. him to leave

4. Unless they ____ about the problem at once, it is going to get much worse.

a. will do something b. don’t do something c. doing something d. do something

5. Seldom _____ such a plentiful supply of oranges at this time of the year.

a. you are finding b. you find c. you will find d. do you find

6. “George is looking really well!” “Yes. Since he retired, he has had_____ problems with his health

a. a little b. a few c. few d. little

7. “Is the bride ready to leave for the church?” “She just needs _____.”

a. to have her lipstick applied b. having her lipstick applied c. to have applied her lipstick d. applying her lipstick

8. “Why are you so upset with the dog?” “Do you have any idea_____ to my new shoes?”

a. what did it do b. what was it doing c. what has it done d. what it has done

9. She spoke rudely to the teacher, _____ suspended from school for two days.

a. that got her b. that it got her c. which got her d. which it got her

10. Once we _____ home, the children will be ready for bed. a. are arriving

b. arrive c. will arrive d. are going to arrive

11

CLOZE

News of another “planet” beyond Pluto may

become common. First came Quaoar in 2002 and

then Sedna in 2003. Unlike these two worlds, the

latest (11) announced in July is actually bigger

than Pluto, (12) 50 percent. Designated

2003UB313 and unofficially (13) Xena, the mass

of ice and rock currently (14) three times farther

out than Pluto. Investigators originally

photographed it in 2003 at Palomar

Observatory near Los Angeles, but its strange

(15), tilted nearly 45 degrees off that of nearly

all other planets, (16) its discovery until this

past January. Near-infrared images reveal a

surface of mostly methane ice, (17) similar to

Pluto’s. One or two more planets of (18) size

might dwell within the same distance, says

planetary scientist, Michael Brown of the

California Institute of Technology. An (19)

number of worlds might lurk beyond that,

perhaps (20) from the Kuiper belt or the

hypothesized Oort cloud. “No one has really

probed out to that distance,” he remarks.

This passage was taken from Scientific

American, October 2005.

(11) a. news b. place c. candidate d. planet (12) a. from b. over c. by d. more (13) a. designated b. branded c. announced d. nicknamed (14) a. lays b. lying c. laying d. lies (15) a. revolution b. orbit c. zenith d. radius (16) a. delayed b. expedited c. prompted d. precipitated (17) a. totally b. remarkably c. completely d. absolutely (18) a. likeable b. like c. likely d. alike (19) a. unspoken b. unsaid c. unrelated d. untold (20) a. emitting b. extracting c. deriving d. straying

12

VOCABULARY

. 21. The youth of the country soon _____ the rebel

leader’s revolutionary ideas. a. enhanced b. defected c. protracted d. embraced

22. Advocates of euthanasia claim it is a(n) _____

act. a. human b. humanistic c. humane d. humanity

23. Special equipment accurately measures the

_____ of the missile. a. credibility b. velocity c. voracity d. capacity

24. Three soldiers were _____ wounded.

a. mortally b. lethally c. morally d. rationally

25. Both sides met for talks in the hope of _____

a war. a. inciting b. averting c. deflecting d. developing

26. The opposition party decided to _____ itself

with two other smaller parties. a. alloy b. alliance c. merge d. ally

27. A good manager knows how to treat his

_____. a. subordinates b. inferiors c. equals d. peers

28.Visiting Cape Canaveral was a_____

experience for the youngsters. a. commemorating b. memorable c. commemorative d. remembrance

29. The _____ had been on the run from the

police for months. a. fugitive b. refugee c. captive d. legislator

30. A sudden breeze disturbed the _____ surface

of the lake. a. audacious b. verbose c. tranquil d. bellowing

13

READING COMPREHENSION

This passage was taken from Scientific American, February 2005. Beginning in the 1980s, the average weight of Americans began to soar, and by 2002, 31 percent were classified as obese. Although the reasons for this epidemic remain controversial, researchers have implicated at least four developments: The first is the decrease in energy expenditure throughout the 20th century, following the introduction of automobiles and the replacement of high-energy blue-collar work by low-energy office occupations. The second is the growing affluence of Americans, who could now afford more and better food. The third is the technological transformation of the food industry in the past 30 years that has made available cheap, convenient, high-calorie and tasty foods. The last is the decline through much of the 20th century in extended breast-feeding, which tends to reduce an infant’s chances of obesity in later life. As a consequence of these shifts, the average weight of Americans increased throughout the century. But because many were underweight in the earlier years, the epidemic of obesity did not become apparent until the 1980s, when these historical developments apparently reached critical mass. Dietary fat has not played a major role in the epidemic. Although clinical trials have shown that reducing dietary fat leads to weight reduction, the average amount consumed has declined in recent decades. Heavy television viewing by children is linked to obesity, yet there is no definitive proof of a causal relationship. The decline in smoking and the popularity of eating out – restaurants typically serve extra-large portions – have also been blamed, but the evidence remains contradictory.

31. According to the text,

a. researchers are at a loss to explain why obesity has soared. e. there is disagreement over the percentage of the population classified as obese. f. researchers disagree over when the obesity epidemic began. g. full agreement has not yet been reached on why obesity in America has soared.

32. Which of the following is NOT a development which researchers feel has contributed to the obesity epidemic? a. The population’s need to expend more energy. b. The more extensive use of cars. c. The greater demand for office workers. d. The population’s ability to eat more and better food.

33. Extended breast-feeding of infants is cited as a way a. to increase their tendency to become

obese in later life. b. to overcome a decline in their proper

nutrition. c. to reduce their chances of becoming

obese in later life. d. to make up for a lack of high-calorie and

tasty foods.

34. According to the text, it has taken Americans time to recognize the problem of obesity because a. they refused to accept that they were overweight. b. many of them preferred being underweight. c. a large part of the population were below normal weight in the early 20th century. d. they were waiting for the epidemic to

reach critical proportions.

35. The text maintains that heavy television viewing, the decline in smoking and the popularity of eating out a. are almost certain to contribute to the problem of obesity. b. have been dismissed as factors which

encourage obesity. c. have never been considered as factors

which encourage obesity. d. may or may not contribute to the

problem of obesity.

14

Practice Test 4

GRAMMAR

1. “What did you have for dessert?” “A large bowl of _____.”

a. chilled, delicious fresh fruit salad b. fresh, chilled, delicious fruit salad c. fresh fruit, delicious, chilled salad d. delicious, chilled, fresh fruit salad

2. Hardly _____ without him complaining about something or other.

a. a day goes by b. goes by a day c. does a day go by d. a day has to go by

3. I asked the teacher to explain _____.

a. what meant the word ‘charity’ b. what did mean the word ‘charity' c. what meant ‘charity’ d. what the word ‘charity’ meant

4. The teacher’s suggestion was that the student _____ into the possibility of studying abroad.

a. look b. will look c. looking d. will be looking

5. We got an expert _____ us an estimate for the house we were planning to sell.

a. giving b. to give c. give d. to giving

6. The last question _____ at the interview made me sure I was going to be offered the job.

a. I was asked b. I was asked it c. which I was asked it d. which they asked it

7. After a child _____ to walk, it is necessary to keep fragile or dangerous items out of reach.

a. will begin b. will have begun c. has begun d. is going to begin

8. “What’s troubling you?” “I am wondering _____.”

a. what there will be on the test. b. what will there be on the test c. what the test will there be d. what will there be the test

9. The ______ child woke up when the bedroom door slammed shut.

a. asleep b. sleeping c. slept d. sleeper

10. “What’s going to happen to Paul?” “Well, _____ is that he’ll be suspended from school.”

a. the worst that can happen b. the worse that will happen c. no worse that can happen d. the worst happening

15

CLOZE

In 1835, as he surveyed the flora and fauna of

the Galapagos archipelago, the young Charles

Darwin was (11) by how the shapes of the

giant tortoises, Geochelone nigra, (12) from

island to island. The reptiles’ shells are their

most distinguishing (13), and so served as a

major basis for their original classification

(14) fifteen different taxa (eleven of which

survive today). Now, taxonomists and

evolutionary biologists are taking a second

look at the tortoises for reclassification (15),

this time via DNA. They’ve discovered that

the tortoises of Santa Cruz, one of the main

Galapagos islands, are (16) more diverse than

their shells (17) would suggest.

Michael Russello, an evolutionary

biologist at Yale University, and his

colleagues found that the three populations of

giant tortoises (18) on Santa Cruz do not (19)

one single taxon, as was previously thought.

The populations are distinct enough to be (20)

into at least two taxa – a key factor in their

conservation status.

This passage was taken from Natural History,

Vol. 114, No.9, November 2005.

(11) a. struck b. moved c. touched d. stroked (12) a. convert b. evolve c. vary d. derive (13) a. mole b. mark c. facet d. trait (14) a. by b. into c. of d. between (15) a. purposes b. means c. data d. problems (16) a. whatever b. even c. quite d. that (17) a. singly b. only c. alone d. solely (18) a. residing b. populating c. living d. staying (19) a. compel b. consist c. constrict d. comprise (20) a. halved c. hollowed b. considered d. split

16

VOCABULARY 21. The advice she gave me was _____.

a. expendable b. indispensable c. unavoidable d. tradable

22. For a pensioner, Harry is remarkably full of

_____. a. stance b. vigor c. retention d. obesity

23. We did everything possible to _____ their

wishes. a. extend b. renounce c. gratify d. instill

24. The amphibious vehicle was extremely _____.

a. noxious b. palatable c. portable d. versatile

25. Most of the staff were_____ opposed to the

scheme. a. financially b. obliquely c. harmoniously d. fundamentally

26. The success of their new model has boosted

the _____ of the company. a. prestige b. partiality c. imports d. provisions

27. All students are expected to _____ by the rule

of the school. a. abide b. follow c. represent d. reflect

28. After a(n) _____ career in music, she turned to

philanthropy. a. famous b. devoted c. illustrious d. proud

29. The child was badly _____ when she fell into

a rose bush. a. impaled b. scratched c. pricked d. poked

30. Roses are _____ plants that grow under all

conditions. a. resistant b. brash c. brazen d. hardy

17

READING COMPREHENSION This passage was taken from Scientific American, January 2006. Before the December 2004 event, the Indian Ocean had no tsunami-warning system. Since then, several international groups, coordinated by UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission, have raced to correct the problem. To achieve the monitoring capability that currently exists in the Pacific, the Indian Ocean needs three basin-wide technological components: an improved seismic network to locate large earthquakes, a minimum of five tsunameters to detect tsunami waves as they travel across the open ocean, although 13 are needed to detect a tsunami in less than 30 minutes, and a real-time network of tide gauges near shore. Key steps took place in the past year. Two seismic networks – one entirely new – now report automatically to the national earthquake centers in Indonesia and Malaysia; the latter will soon make its information available to the entire region. Four tide gauges have already been upgraded for tsunami monitoring – including one near Indonesia, which lies closest to tsunami-generating faults. More than 20 additional installations and improvements are scheduled for the coming months. It is unclear how and when the necessary tsuameters can be acquired, and political challenges must be overcome in certain countries before the seismic network can be completed, but UNESCO remain optimistic. If all goes well, a basic monitoring system should be operational by July. Computer models then combine those measurements into accurate warnings. Once warnings are available, they must still be disseminated to people on the coasts. Along most of the Indian Ocean’s 66,000 kilometers of shoreline, the first wave will not arrive for two hours or more – enough time for most people to move inland after an alarm sounds. In places where tsunami waves will strike in an hour or less, an alarm may come too late. Residents must instead recognize natural signs – severe ground shaking and a receding ocean – that often precede an incoming surge. In both cases, swift evacuation to pre-designated safe zones is essential. Local officials have already held practice drills in some parts of Thailand, Sri Lanka and Indonesia that were hit hard in 2004.

31. Since December 2004 UNESCO have worked hard

a. to install a tsunami-warning system in the Indian Ocean.

b. to improve the existing tsunami-warning system in the Indian Ocean. c. to correct the defects in the Indian Ocean’s tsunami-warning system. d. to from an Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission.

32. UNESCO’s hope is to create for the Indian Ocean a tsunami-warning system

a. that relies only on an improved seismic network to locate large earthquakes.

b. that needs no more than five tsunameters. c. that uses past records of tides occurring near shores.

d. to match that of the Pacific Ocean.

33. To date, the only basin-wide technological component that has not been introduced is

a. improved seismic networks. b. tsunameters required to detect tsunami

waves. c. tide gauges to monitor tsunamis. d. national earthquake centers.

34. UNESCO remain optimistic that a seismic network can be completed a. only if the tsunameters are acquired. b. even if only one of the three basin-wide technological components is installed.

c. if political issues do not obstruct their efforts after all the necessary technological components are in place.

d. if there is less seismic activity in the region.

35. Once a tsunami warning is issued, what action is recommended for populations in places expected to be hit in an hour or less? a. To contact local officials for advice b. To evacuate their homes only after the alarm sounds

c. Not to evacuate their homes before the alarm sounds d. To be alert to unusual physical phenomena

18

Practice Test 5

GRAMMAR 1. If she had taken the Miami job,_____ she

a. would have earned much more now. b. will earn much more now. c. would be earning much more now. d. is earning much more now.

2. The problem was considered too _____ for the junior executive to handle.

a. weightless b. weighing c. weighty d. weigher

3. She really gets on my nerves. She_____ her neighbors!

a. will always running down b. is always running down c. is running down always d. is running always down

4. Basic training for soldiers includes_____ rifles.

a. to dismantle and assemble b. dismantling and to assemble c. to dismantle and assembling d. dismantling and assembling

5. “What are you going to do?” “I’ve decided to _____.”

a. do an attempt b. make it a try c. take it a turn d. give it a go

6. Either a fox or dogs _____ at least a dozen chickens.

a. have attacked and killed b. were attacked and killed c. has attacked and killed d. have attacked and killing

7. _____ the poor ticket sales, they had to cancel the concert.

a. Despite b. Because c. Due to d. A result of

8. That’s my brother you can hear _____.

a. is singing b. singing c. has been singing d. he is singing

9. It’s time ______________! It’s a disgrace driving it around town in such a state!

a. you had your car washed b. you are having your car washed c. you to wash your car d. your car be washed

10. Have you seen my keys anywhere? I seem to remember _____ next to the telephone.

a. to put them b. I was putting them c. having put them d. having them put

19

CLOZE For people, it is second nature to refer to a

friend or family member by name, but there is

scant evidence that other animals (11) the same.

Some species do communicate information on the

whereabouts of food (12) the presence of a

predator, and animals can clearly recognize (13)

members of their own group. But even dolphins,

clever as they are, have apparently not invented

tags for one (14).

But spectacled parrotlets, (15) colored Central

and South American birds, (16) be a different

matter. Ralf Wanker and two other biologists at

the University of Hamburg in Germany report

that, in an experimental setting, the birds made

different “contact calls” for (17) members of their

family. Furthermore, they responded more often

(18) recordings of calls that had originally been

directed toward them rather than toward another

family member. That is (19) evidence, say

Wanker and his colleagues, that some nonhuman

species (20) their social companions individually.

(11) a. make b. refer c. do d. perform (12) a. in b. during c. or d. not (13) a. independent b. single c. their d. individual (14) a. each b. another c. other d. the other (15) a. brilliantly b. wholly c. smartly d. instantly (16) a. may b. should c. must d. will (17) a. diverse b. different c. divergent d. deviant (18) a. in b. to c. for d. about (19) a. powerful b. mighty c. strong d. potent (20) a. tag b. designate c. appoint d. label

This passage was taken from Natural History, Vol. 114, No.7, September 2005.

20

VOCABULARY

21. George becomes _____ when he cannot get his way. a. patient b. apologetic c. irritable d. stagnant

22. Much of the Amazon rain forest is being cut down for _____.

a. logs b. timber c. boughs d. bark

23. The explorers are preparing to _____ into the

crater. a. tumble b. deplete c. descend d. lower

24. The petroleum deposits were too small to be

exploited _____. a. positively b. extensively c. largely d. profitably

25. Sue bought some _____ from the bookstore.

a. correspondence b. stationary c. papers d. stationery

26. When winter came, the journey through the mountains became _____. a. random b. perilous c. endangered d. humid

27. The other side needed a little more time to

_____. a. deliberate b. inculcate c. conspire d. recoil

28. The clinic is on the _____ of the town.

a. outskirts b. suburbs c. districts d. peripherals

29. A good manager knows how to _____

responsibilities. a. affirm b. delegate c. negate d. infringe

30. It is rather _____ to have a swimming pool

built. a. expensively b. worthily c. tentatively d. costly

21

READING COMPREHENSION This passage was taken from Natural History,Vol.115, No.8, October 2005. The announcement that some 160 human footprints have been discovered embedded in an ancient layer of volcanic ash near Puebla, Mexico, has stirred the continuing debate about how, and when, people first arrived in the Americas. In spite of disputed evidence and many challenges to the contrary, the consensus among paleoanthropologists is that the first people to set foot on the continent crossed from Siberia into Alaska by about 11,500 years ago. Clovis points, the spearheads that trace their culture, are scattered across North America. But the Mexican footprints have been dated to 40,000 years ago, raising new doubts about the “Clovis-first” theory. Silvia Gonzalez, of Liverpool John Moores University in England, and a team of British, Australian and Mexican paleontologists are studying the find. Children probably made about a third of the human prints, they report. The investigators also discovered about a hundred animal footprints, mostly from dogs, big cats, and what may have been camels, cows, or deer. The discovery is also noteworthy because fossilized footprints are rare. In the present case, they probably formed when people walked along a lakeshore covered with soft ash after the nearby Cerro Toluquilla volcano erupted. When the lake flooded, the imprints were preserved under silt. Where the people came from, and whether they arrived by land or sea, remain open questions.

31. The recent discovery of some 160 human footprints near Puebla, Mexico,

a. has confirmed the validity of the “Clovis-first” theory.

b. has revealed many more Clovis points. c. has made investigators question the

validity of the “Clovis-first” theory. d. has spearheaded investigation of a new

culture. 32. Clovis points are to be found

a. throughout North America. b. concentrated in the region around Puebla. c. where Siberia meets Alaska. d. in the Americas.

33. Paleontologists studying the footprints have reported with near certainty

a. finding footprints made by deer. b. finding footprints made by camels. c. finding footprints made by human adults

and children. d. finding footprints made by cows.

34. We learn from the text that the discovery of the footprints is of special significance

a. because of the fact that human and animal footprints were found together.

b. because its is uncommon to find fossilized footprints.

c. because the footprints give more valuable information than Clovis points

d. because of the large number found in the same place.

35. What is quite certain from the evidence available?

a. Flooding of the area helped preserve the footprints.

b. The footprints were made by people fleeing a volcanic eruption.

c. The evidence tells us the origin of the people who made the footprints.

d. The lakeshore was formed after the eruption of Cerro Toluquilla.

22

Practice Test 1 Practice Test 2 Practice Test 3 Practice Test 4 Practice Test 5 1. b 1. d 1. b 1. d 1. c 2. d 2. b 2. a 2. c 2. c 3. a 3. a 3. b 3. d 3. b 4. c 4. c 4. d 4. a 4. d 5. c 5. c 5. d 5. b 5. d 6. b 6. d 6. c 6. a 6. a 7. a 7. a 7. a 7. c 7. c 8. c 8. c 8. d 8. a 8. b 9. d 9. c 9. c 9. b 9. a 10.d 10.b 10.b 10.a 10.c 11.b 11.a 11.c 11.a 11.c 12.b 12.a 12.c 12.c 12.c 13.c 13.a 13.d 13.d 13.d 14.c 14.b 14.d 14.b 14.b 15.a 15.c 15.b 15.a 15.a 16.a 16.a 16.a 16.b 16.a 17.d 17.a 17.b 17.c 17.b 18.b 18.b 18.b 18.c 18.b 19.c 19.c 19.d 19.d 19.c 20.d 20.d 20.c 20.d 20.d 21.b 21.d 21.d 21.b 21.c 22.b 22.c 22.c 22.b 22.b 23.a 23.d 23.b 23.c 23.c 24.d 24.a 24.a 24.d 24.d 25.c 25.a 25.b 25.d 25.d 26.d 26.b 26.d 26.a 26.b 27.c 27.b 27.a 27.a 27.a 28.a 28.c 28.b 28.c 28.a 29.b 29.b 29.a 29.b 29.b 30.c 30.d 30.c 30.d 30.d 31.d 31.c 31.d 31.a 31.c 32.b 32.c 32.a 32.d 32.a 33.b 33.b 33.c 33.b 33.d 34.a 34.d 34.c 34.c 34.b 35.c 35.b 35.d 35.d 35.a

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

I would like to thank Dr. Philip Holland, Chair, English Department, Anatolia College, for his valuable suggestions and editorial assistance.

Rodney Coules Director, Language & Testing Office

Anatolia College Email: racoules@anatolia.edu.gr

August, 2006

ANSWER KEY