FEEDBACK FROM FEB 2002 ATPL EXAMS This has been changed as little as possible. Correct answers where possible marked with an asterisk*.

Instruments 73 Questions, 79 marks, 5 questions on FMS/ADC inputs etc. No questions on altimeter or temperature correction calculations. Q. What is the definition of Density Altitude?

a) Pressure altitude corrected for the ambient density * b) … c) Pressure altitude corrected for the relative density altitude d) Temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the mean

temperature and ISA Q. What is the definition of Pressure Altitude?

a) … b) … c) … d) …

Q. What happens if the static source in an altimeter becomes blocked?

a) It stops when the blockage occurred.* b) It under reads c) It over reads d) Gradually reduces to 0

Q. An aircraft is fitted with 2 altimeters of which one is not corrected for pressure error. What does this result in?

a) At high TAS it will under read b) At high TAS it will over read c) Nothing because the ADC will compensate for it* (probably) d) …

Q. What happens at 50 ft RA?

a) The glideslope is disconnected and the aircraft continues to descend * b) The glideslope and localiser are disconnected and the aircraft continues to

descend c) The Rate of Descent is relative to the RA d) …

Q. How is lag reduced in a IVSI?

a) A return spring b) Accelerometers * (possibly, depending on the other answers) c) … d) …

Q. When on approach to landing, 650 ft RA displays:

a) The aircraft height above the runway b) The aircraft height above the ground c) The height from the ground to the lowest wheel* d) …

Q. The Machmeter is subject to:

a) Position / Instrument error* b) Density error c) Density and Temperature error d) Temperature error

Q. At low altitude a RA works on the principle of:

a) [Something to do with Doppler] b) [Something to do with Pulse Transmission] c) [FM measuring frequency differences] * d) …

Q. At a constant CAS what happens to the Mach No. if the temperature increases?

a) It increases b) It decreases c) It increases relative to ISA d) It stays the same*

Q. How does a fuel flow meter work?

a) … b) … c) … d) …

Q. How can you increase the rigidity of a gyroscope?

a) Concentrate the mass near the spin axis at a high RPM b) Concentrate the mass at the periphery at a high RPM * c) Concentrate the mass near the spin axis at a low RPM d) Concentrate the mass at the periphery at a low RPM

Q. What does this imply – [It then shows 2 diagrams, one of an ADI with the cross hairs to the left and above the centre, and a HSI with the cross hairs centered]? (see instruments feedback for the diagram)

a) The aircraft is experiencing a crosswind from the left * b) The aircraft is experiencing a crosswind from the right c) The aircraft is left of the desired track d) The aircraft is right of the desired track

Q. If the CWS is activated and the pilot initiates a manoeuvre in roll, when it is released the aircraft will:

a) Maintain the attitude it is in at the moment it is released * b) Go back to the original auto-pilot settings c) Maintain the new track and attitude d) …

Q. What is used to measure the pressure in a Low Pressure Fuel Pump

a) Bourdon Tube b) Aneroid Capsule c) Bellows * d) Differential Pressure

Q. In an altimeter, what pressure is fed to the capsule and the case?

a) Static / Dymanic b) Static / Static c) Static / Vacuum d) Vacuum / Static *

Q. At 35,000 ft OAT is –40oC. What is the LSS?

a) 594 kts * b) 601 kts c) 574 kts d) 582 kts

Q. The speed at which sound is transported through the air is dependant on:

a) Density b) Pressure c) Density and Temperature d) Temperature *

Q. What does the blue line on the ASI of a light twin indicate?

a) Vyse * b) Vmca c) Vlo d) …

Q. What does the green arc on an ASI indicate?

a) Vs1 – Vne b) Vs1 – Vlo c) Vs1 – Vno* d) Vso – Vno

Q. Yaw dampers used to prevent Dutch Roll use:

a) Ailerons … b) Rudders relative to MN c) Ailerons … d) Rudders relative to angular velocity about the yaw axis*

Q. A laser gyro is:

a) 2 cavities around a mirror b) 2 laser beams* c) … d) 2 spin axis gyro

Q. An aircraft travels from 5 o S to 5 o N on 360 o T. Apparent wander is:

a) Depends on E/W Groundspeed b) –5 o c) 0o * d) +5o

Q. An aircraft lands on a southerly direction in the Northern hemisphere. The DI will:

a) Oscillate about 180 o b) Doesn’t change* c) Increases d) Decreases

Q. An aircraft turns from SW to SE in the northern hemisphere. When should the pilot stop the turn?

a) 140 o b) 115 o* (the examiners say roll out 20º before hdg) c) 130 o d) 155 o

Q. An aircraft takes off on a runway with a QDM of 045 o. What will the compass show?

a) Stays on 45 o if the wings are held level b) Stays on 45 o c) Shows less than 45 o* (if a DRMC) d) Shows more than 45 o

Q. A fuel mass di-capacitance system works on the principal of:

a) The same as air and inversely proportional to density b) The same as air and proportional to density c) Twice as air and inversely proportional to density d) Twice as air and proportional to density *

(No, I don’t know what is meant by di-capacitance!) Q. A RA is shown as:

a) Hollow white or cyan diamond b) Solid red square * c) Solid white or cyan diamond d) Red solid circle

Q. TCAS interprets intruders with no Mode C as:

a) TA only * b) RA in the horizontal axis c) RA in the vertical axis d) RA in the horizontal and vertical axis

Q. Auto-trim helps:

a) Relieve control forces on the elevator b) Keep trim in line with aircraft attitude * c) Relieve servo-actuator forces d) …

Q. A gyro will experience 15.04 o drift per hour at:

a) 45 o N/S b) 30 o N/S c) 0 o N/S d) 90 o N/S*

Q. Which is a valid TCAS command (pick 2 from the list below)?

a) CLIMB CLIMB* b) LEFT LEFT c) RIGHT RIGHT d) DESCEND DESCEND*

Q. What is the period of a Schuler Loop oscillation?

a) 48 seconds b) 48 mins c) 84 mins* d) 84 seconds

Q. When must a 2 axis auto-pilot be fitted?

a) VFR or IFR single pilot b) Multipilot aircraft c) IFR or Night Single Pilot* d) Aircraft over 5.7 tonnes

Q. If the RA fails during an autoland approach:

a) The DH flashes b) An audio alert sounds * c) DH flashes and an audio alert is sounded d) Stops showing the height *

(not answerable, queried with the CAA) Q. [The 5% above the stall margin question] Q. If you select Alt Acquisition:

a) The A/P maintains IAS using elevator control b) The A/T maintains TAS using power c) The A/T maintains IAS using power* (probably) d) The A/P maintains TAS using elevator control

(queried with the CAA) Q. An A/P that can continue to complete a full auto-land with a single failure is called:

a) Fail Redundant b) Fail Passive c) Fail Operational* d) Fail Safe

Q. [Question regarding FADEC inputs (choose from a list of 6) one of which was automatic start up] Q. Aircraft turns through 360 o at constant bank and pitch angle. The AH shows:

a) The correct indication* b) Pitch up too little bank c) Pitch up too much bank d) Pitch up correct bank

Q. Vlo is:

a) … b) Max speed with gear down c) Max speed the gear can be lowered or raised* d) …

Q. The Stall warner uses:

a) Angular vane* b) [something I didn’t think was relevant but can’t remember what] c) Differential pressure d) …

Q. [GYROS INSTRUMENT SUPPLEMENT Q15] Q. On the ground in a left turn a turn-indicator will show:

a) Needle straight / Ball left b) Needle straight / Ball right c) Needle left / Ball left d) Needle left / Ball right*

Q. When must a FDR stop?

a) … b) After the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under it’s own power* c) At the end of the landing roll d) …

Human Performance & Limitations 53 Questions, 53 marks Q. A pilot on an approach to a narrower runway than normal may feel he is higher than he actually is and may:

a) Too low an approach and undershoot* b) … c) Too high an approach and overshoot d) ..

Q. [GAS Syndrome – Alert, Vigilance, Exhaustion] Q. What is the composition of air?

a) 78% Nitrogen, 21 % Oxygen, 0.9% CO2, 0.03 Rare gas b) 78% Nitrogen, 21 % Oxygen, 0.03 % CO2, 0.9% Rare gas* c) … d) …

(correct if you consider argon a rare gas as it makes up most of this percentage) Q. When flying a night flight at 10,000ft a pilot may feel a reduction in their visual ability. If this happens the pilot should:

a) Apply oxygen* b) … c) Turn down the instrument lights d) …

General Navigation 61 Questions, 90 marks 6 Questions on IRS’s. 3 Questions on identifying certain symbols – VOR, unlit obstacle and a lighted vessel. 2 Questions on FMS. 1 Question on PRS. 1 Question on PET. 3 or 4 questions on speed reductions, 2 on Rates of Descent Q. What axis does a gyro drift in?

a) Vertical and Horizontal b) Vertical* c) … d) Horizontal

(depends on the exact wording, it drifts in the horizontal plane about the vertical axis) Q. What does 5 hours 50 minutes 20 seconds change of long represent?

a) 81.38 b) 75.00 c) 80.05 d) 87.58*

[I really didn’t understand this question but I’m sure this is exactly what it asked – any explanation you’ve got for me would be appreciated] (We think its a time to arc question, we get 87.58º or 87º35’. None of the feedback answers included this so I have modified answer (d) to agree) Q. A chart distance represents 120 nm at 15 o S on a direct Mercator. What earth distance does the same chart distance represent at 10 o N?

a) 118.3 b) 124.5 c) 122.3* d) 117.7

Q. What’s the approximate diameter of the Earth?

a) 40,000 km* b) 18,400 km c) 6,600 km d) 13,200 km

Q. Which statement is correct concerning Ring Laser Gyros?

a) It doesn’t suffer from ‘lock in’ and is unaffected by the earth’s gravitational force

b) Is not necessarily fixed to true north but takes along time to erect c) Is not necessarily fixed to true north and is quick to erect* d) …

Q. Where is the scale correct on a Lamberts?

a) At the P of O b) … c) Between the standard parallels d) At the standard parallels*

Q. The sun rises at 50 o N 25 o E on the 25th January at 0254 UTC. What time does it rise at 50 o N 40 o W?

a) 0254 UTC b) 2154 UTC c) 0714 UTC* d) 0514 UTC

Q. If an IRS fails in flight it provides:

a) Attitude and heading b) Attitude only * c) Attitude and Navigation information d) ....

(but it might fail completely and give nothing) Q. The IRS position is NORMALLY updated

a) by the crew over a VOR or NDB b) during startup or turnaround * (the procedure in (a) is only for the brave) c) .... d) ....

Q. If an IRS loses its position mid-flight it must

a) Not be used in Nav mode* b) … c) Re-set in flight d) Turned off

(unless the missing answer says ‘position can be re-entered in flight by the pilot as it passes over a significant feature such as a VOR’. Overall, I doubt it does. This question is asking about a failure of the NAV mode and asking you to recognise it can still be used in ATT) Q. The FMS on a 737-400 provides

a) Auto navigation & manual performance b) Auto navigation & auto performance* c) ... d) ...

Flight Planning 60 Questions, 66 marks, map questions listed at the top of the paper Q. [SEP I – Time/Fuel/Distance to climb] Q. [SEP I (23@2300, FL75, ISA =10 o C, Fuel flow (GPH) and TAS] No MEP I Questions Q. [MRJT – LRC, 53000 Kgs, FL310 - % fuel penalty] Q. [MRJT – Short distance cruise climb] Q. [MRJT – Alternate planning] Q. [MRJT – 3 or use of the en-route climb tables, all at ISA –10 o] Q. [MRJT – LRC, 35,000ft, Start mass 40 tonnes, end mass 31 tonnes – what NAM distance has been covered] Q. [MRJT – LRC – Fuel burn calculations (1 or 2 questions) Q. [MRJT – Descent at 0.74 M / 250 IAS from FL350 to FL50] Q. [MRJT] – In flight diversion, one engine – what’s the lowest FL that can be flown if your fuel is 5000 Kg

a) FL170 b) FL220 c) FL250 d) …

No fuel tankering, CP, PSR or PET calculations VFR Chart ED6 – 4 questions, 1 magnetic course, 1 magnetic course and distance 2 identifying radio aids. LO + HI charts – 12 questions Q. What is the best routing from Clacton to Dinard if above FL245

a) CLN – UR12 … b) CLN – UB29 – LAM – UR1 – ORTAC – UR14 – DIN c) CLN – UB29 – LAM – UA34 – LILAN – UR9 – DIN d) CLN – UR12 …

Q. The initial great circle track is 177 o Grid. An aircraft routes from A - 80N170W to B - 75N010W. What is the great circle track at B in o Grid.

a) 357 o b) 177 o* (did they say grid? its the same, that’s the whole point) c) 172 o d) 183 o

Q. What is the definition of ‘H’ with reference to wake turbulence?

a) Certified landing mass of greater than 136 tonnes b) … c) Certified take-off mass of greater than 136 tonnes* d) …

Q. What is the definition of Y in ITEM 8 of a flight plan?

a) … b) … c) … d) …

Q. What code in ITEM 10 do you put in if you have Mode A (4 digits – 4096 codes) and Mode C?

a) A b) C c) S d) …

Q. If a flight plan is filed prior to departure the departure time stated on the flight plan should be for:

a) When the aircraft is overhead its first point b) When the aircraft leaves the apron c) … d) As it takes off

Q. How should a change of speed to 280 kts and a change of level to FL080 at [VOR NAME] be entered on a flight plan?

a) [VOR NAME] / N0280F080 b) [VOR NAME] / F080N0280 c) [VOR NAME] / K0280FL080 d) [VOR NAME] / FL080N028

Q. What do you put in the destination aerodrome section if it doesn’t have an ICAO Airport Identifier? a) //// b) ZZZZ c) XXXX d) YYYY

Q. If a SELCAL code is prescribed by the authority under which item should it be entered?

a) OTHER INFO b) ROUTE c) EQUIPMENT d) …

Q. What can a pilot do in flight with reference to a flight plan?

(i) Open an IFR Flight Plan (ii) Close an IFR Flight Plan (iii) Close a VFR Flight Plan (iv) Cancel a FVR Flight Plan

a) 1,2 b) 1,2,3,4 c) … d) …

Q. Can an IFR Flight Plan be changed to a VFR Flight Plan in flight?

a) No b) Yes by informing ATC with the words “Cancelling my IFR Flight Plan” c) Yes d) Yes but only with permission from ATC

[Couple of questions relating to STAR’s and a couple of ILS questions] Q. What range is MSA on ILS charts applicable to ?

a) 20 b) 25 c) 15 d) 10

Q. [Calculation of NAM from 450 NGM, TAS of 460 and a tailwind of 50 kts]

Mass & Balance 29 Questions, 39 Marks, 1 worth 4, 2 worth 3, 2 worth 2. Roughly 6 questions on mass definitions. No questions on SEP I from the loading manual Q. On entry into the cruise, to protect the buffet boundary 1.3 Vs is used. If CAS is 180kts and the A/C mass is increased from 120,000 Kgs to 135,000 Kgs, what will happen to Vs?

a) Speed increases to 191 kts, drag is increased and range decreases * b) Speed increases to 191 kts, drag is decreased and range increases c) Remains constant because the Angle of Attack hasn’t changed d) Speed increases to 202 kts, ……………?

(We complained to the CAA about this one, its outside the syllabus) Q. Where is the datum for BA calculations?

a) Between the nose and the tail b) Always at the firewall c) Between the Leading Edge and Trailing Edge of the wing d) A specified point but not necessarily between the nose and tail*

Q. What axis is the C of G located on?

a) Lateral b) Longitudinal* c) Horizontal d) Vertical

(almost meaningless, the CG is described as a position along the longitudinal axis) Q. The C of G is:

a) Always parallel to the A/C vertical b) Governed by the distribution of mass along the aircraft* c) Always at right angles to the flight path d) Parallel to the gravity force

Q. Which of the following is correct?

a) The maximum landing mass is governed by structural and performance limits [plus something else]* (probably)

b) The MZFM is governed by the payload carried c) ……. d) …….

Q. The MZFM is:

a) A fixed value stated in the ops manual* b) A variable value governed by the traffic load c) A fixed value……..* d) A variable value ………

(Its a fixed value stated in the Aircraft Flight Manual, we would know it as the tech manual, provided by the manufacturers. This could be seen as part of the Ops Manual but, if the AFM was mentioned I would go for that) Q. Refer to MEP I. Given the following information: 100 USG Block Fuel 55 USG Trip Fuel 6lbs density What is the moment of fuel burnt off? 55 x 6 = 330, from page 14 the arm is 93.6 inches, 330 x 93.6 = 30888 pound inches Q. Refer to Annex B (partially completed load and trim sheet). What is the ZFM and load index?

a) 47600 kgs, 50.7 b) 47600 kgs, 20.2 c) 48000 kgs, 50.7 d) 48000 kgs, 20.2

Q. What is the max compartment running load of the aft section of the forward compartment hold (of the MRJT1) ?

a) 13.15 b) 13.12* c) 14.65 d) 7.18

Q. Given a floor loading of 750 Kg/m2, what’s the smallest permissible area for a load of 600 Kgs?

a) 40 cm x 200 cm* b) 30 cm x 300 cm c) 20 cm x 300 cm d) 30 cm x 400 cm

Q. The maximum compartment load and centroid is:

a) 835.5, 3062 Kgs* b) 421.5, 2059 Lbs c) 835.5, 6736.4 Kgs d) 421.5 3529.8 Kgs

Q. The forward hold centroid is:

a) 367.9* b) … c) … d) …

Q. If an aircraft has a MTOM of 48,000, a landing mass of 44,000 and a ZFM of 36,000, Fuel [???], what’s the actual take off mass?

a) 48,400 b) 48,000 c) 47,600 d) 51,300

(not enough info in the feedback to answer this) Q. Length of MAC = 1m Forward Hold = +0.5m Aft Hold = -2.5m A/C Mass = 2200 kgs What mass must be moved to take the MAC from 25% to 40&

a) 110kg* b) … c) … d) …

Q. The BEM of an aircraft is:

a) The mass of the a/c plus special equipment and unusable fuel.* (probably, see p2 of the manual)

b) … c) … d) …

Q. [Lists start up conditions for a 2hr flight including fuel and oil consumption and their Specific Gravities] How much has the moment moved?

a) … b) … c) … d) …

Q. What happens if you move the C of G from the aft limit towards the forward limit?

a) Range is increased b) Decreased endurance* c) … d) …

Q. What governs the MZFM?

a) The structural limits of the wings* b) … c) … d) …

Q. Who’s responsibility is it the check that the DOM is correct?

a) The person compiling the weighing schedule b) The operator* (probably) c) The commander d) The national authority

Q. Aircraft included in fleet mass calculations must be weighed:

a) At the re-issue of the aircraft C of A b) Every 9 years* c) Every 4 years d) After a major modification

Q. An aircraft has a MTOM, MZFM and a MLM of 3500 lbs. The DOM is 2000 lbs, there is 550 lbs of fuel of which 50 lbs is used for taxi. What payload can be carried?

a) 1050 lbs b) 1000 lbs* c) 1500 lbs d) 950 lbs

Q. If the weight of fuel on board an aircraft is 15,400 Kgs but is accidentally entered into the load sheet as 14,500 Kgs, what will be the result?

a) The take-off roll will be shorter b) The speed of ‘un-stick’ will be higher than expected* c) V1 will increase d) V2 will decrease

Q. [Your practice exam number 4, question 7 – 50 fat people at check-in]