Flight Planning Exam 3

Flight Planning Exam 3, 60 questions 1. The highest obstacle on a navigation leg is 8900ft amsl. Calculate the

minimum flight level using IFR semi-circular levels given the QNH of 985mb, a required safety margin of 2000ft, track 060º M, and ISA conditions. Assume 1mb = 30ft.

(a) FL 90 (b) FL100 (c) FL110 (d) FL130

2. The MOCA of an airway segment is 5500ft. Given a QNH of 993mb and

ISA conditions, calculate the minimum safe semi-circular flight level for a course of 245ºM. (Assume 1mb=30ft)

(a) FL50 (b) FL60 (c) FL70 (d) FL80

3. The still air distance in a descent from FL240 is 103nm and the time

taken is 21 minutes. What is the ground distance covered if the mean wind component during the descent is 33kts tail wind?

(a) 103nms (b) 114nms (c) 92nms (d) 136nms

4. Referring to Chart ED6, Danger Area ED(R-130) (N4830 E00930) is

active:

(a) Between 14000ft and 18000ft amsl, activated by NOTAM. (b) From surface to 14000ft permanently. (c) From surface to 14000ft or 18000ft, activated by NOTAM. (d) From surface to 18000ft permanently.

5. Referring to Chart ED6, the magnetic heading required for the direct

track between KARLSRUHE VOR/DME (N4900 E00835) and SULZ VOR (N4823 E00839) assuming a TAS of 160kts and a wind of 300/25kts is:

(a) 170ºM (b) 183ºM (c) 176ºM (d) 180ºM

Bristol Groundschool Flight Planning Exam 3

6. Referring to Chart ED6, the navigation aid at MENGEN airfield (N4803 E00922) is:

(a) VOR (b) VOR/DME (c) DME (d) NDB

7. Referring to the SEP example aircraft planning charts, calculate the

maximum range at FL95, assuming ISA conditions and full throttle at 2100RPM.


8. Referring to the MEP example aircraft planning charts, calculate the

fuel used and time required to climb from an airfield at 3500ft amsl (OAT +15ºC) to a cruising altitude of 11000ft (OAT 0ºC). Assume a take off mass of 4750lbs.

(a) 12½ mins / 7lbs (b) 18 mins / 42lbs (c) 12½ mins / 7US gallons (d) 18mins / 7US gallons

9. Referring to the MEP example aircraft planning charts, the ground

distance covered in a descent from 16000ft (OAT 0ºC) to an airfield at sea level (OAT +25ºC), assuming a mean wind component of 40kts head wind, is:


10. Referring to the MRJT example aircraft planning charts (FIG 4.3.6), the

fuel required for an alternate, ground distance 375nms, wind component –50kts, and a landing mass of 44000kgs is:

(a) 2550kgs (b) 2350kgs (c) 2000kgs (d) 2150kgs


11. An aircraft flying from A to B requires a trip fuel of 74 US gallons. At the half way point it has used 45 US gallons. The diversion and reserve fuel required at B is 20 US gallons. The total fuel at departure was 98 US gallons. The aircraft:

(a) must return to the point of departure. (b) may proceed to destination. (c) does not have enough fuel to continue and must proceed to an

en route diversion. (d) may continue, but only if he gets permission to use diversion

and reserve fuel. 12. Which of the following statements are true concerning taxy fuel?

(i) It is the amount expected to be used prior to take off. (ii) An allowance for local conditions (length of taxy, anticipated

delays) should be taken into account (iii) An allowance for delays or extra taxying is included in the

contingency fuel. (iv) It should include the fuel required to get airborne.

(a) i (b) i and iii (c) i and ii (d) i, ii, and iv

13. When completing an ATS Flight Plan, an intended change in flight

rules from IFR to VFR over beacon ‘BRS’ should be indicated by:

(a) ITEM 8 I / V (b) ITEM 8 Y (c) ITEM 8 I ITEM 15 …..BRS VFR (d) ITEM 8 Y ITEM 15 …...BRS VFR

14. Under ITEM 9 of an ATS Flight Plan, the letter ‘M’ inserted for wake

turbulence category indicates:

(a) An aircraft with planned take off mass greater than 7000 kgs and less than 136000kgs

(b) An aircraft with a certified maximum take off mass greater than 7000 kgs and less than 136000kgs

(c) An aircraft with a regulated take off mass greater than 7000 kgs and less than 136000kgs

(d) An aircraft with planned take off mass less than 136000kgs


15. An aircraft cruising at FL310 at M0.78 is planning to change level to FL 350 at a point on the 050ºR / 74nm DME from the WAL VOR / DME beacon. The cruising mach is to remain unchanged. This should be entered in ITEM 15 of the ATS flight plan as:

(a) WAL050074/M078F350 (b) WAL050/074/M078F350 (c) WAL050074/F350 (d) WAL/050/074/M078/F350

16. A flight plans to cross the LONDON(EGTT) / FRANCE(LFFF) UIR

boundary at 1130Z. Block time is planned at 1010Z. This should be entered on an ATS flight plan as:

(a) ITEM 15…./LFFF1130/… (b) ITEM 15…..EGTT/LFFF0120…. (c) ITEM 18 EET/LFFF1130 (d) ITEM 18 EET/LFFF0120

17. Prior to a VFR flight for which an ATS flight plan has been submitted,

the flight plan should be re-submitted or amended if a delay in departure occurs in excess of:

(a) 20 mins (b) 30 mins (c) 1 hr (d) 10 mins

18. When on an IFR flight under an ATS flight plan, inadvertent changes

from the plan must be reported to the appropriate ATS unit.. Which of the following statements are true?

(i) if the TAS varies or is expected to vary by ±5% from that

indicated in the plan it must be reported. (ii) if the ETA at a significant reporting point is likely to change by 3

minutes or more from that already notified it must be reported. (iii) an inadvertent deviation in position need not be reported as

long as planned track is regained within 3 minutes. (iv) in an emergency there is no need to inform ATC of any required

changes.

(a) i (b) i and ii (c) i, ii and iii (d) i, ii, iii and iv

19. When a flight under an ATS flight plan lands at an aerodrome other

than the intended destination, the destination field must be informed:

(a) as soon as possible, but prior to the estimated arrival time. (b) as soon as possible, but within 30 minutes of ETA. (c) As soon as possible, but before the total endurance time has

elapsed. (d) There is no need to as the diversion field will do it.


20. Referring to Chart ED6, the magnetic course and distance between

KEMPTEN VOR/DME (N4745.8 E01021.0) and DINKESBUHL VORTAC (N4908.6 E01014.3) are:

(a) 97nm 358º (b) 83nm 358º (c) 97nm 178º (d) 83nm 178º

21. Refer to chart 5AT(HI). Given an initial true track between KEFLAVIK

(N6400 W02240) and THULE (N7632 W06814) of 330ºT, the initial Grid track would be:

(a) 330ºG (b) 353ºG (c) 319ºG (d) 307ºG

22. Refer to chart ED6. The * attached to the MEMMINGEN (N4759

E01015) CLASS D & E airspace means:

(a) Special military rules (b) Activated by NOTAM (c) Part-time operation (d) Daylight hours only

23. Refer to the MEP example aircraft planning charts. Calculate the mean

ground speed achieved during a descent from FL 170 (OAT -5º) to an airfield at 5000ft amsl (OAT +10ºC) assuming a mean wind component of +30kts.

(a) 181kts (b) 190kts (c) 173kts (d) 205kts

24. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, the most likely

significant weather encountered when overhead PARIS (N4900 E00200)at FL 330 is:

(a) Isolated embedded CB, moderate airframe icing and clear air

turbulence. (b) A westerly jetstream of 160kts, moderate airframe icing. (c) A westerly jetstream of 160kts, moderate occasionally severe

turbulence. (d) A westerly jetstream of 130kts, light occasionally moderate

clear air turbulence.


25. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, on a flight from ANKARA (N40 E033) direct to ABU DHABI (N25 E54) at FL290, the most likely significant weather encountered en route is:

(a) Isolated Cumulus clouds. (b) Initially, no significant weather, for the second half of the route

isolated CB with associated precipitation. (c) Initially, no significant weather, for the second half of the route

isolated embedded CB with associated moderate to severe icing and turbulence.

(d) Isolated embedded CB with Moderate or Severe Turbulence and icing throughout the route.

26. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, overhead

MOSCOW (N56 E37), which of the following statements are true:

(i) There is no significant weather. (ii) There is a NE jetstream at 130kts. (iii) The tropopause is at FL300. (iv) The freezing level is at FL30.

(a) i (b) i and ii (c) i and iv (d) i and iii

27. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, overhead

BANGKOK (N14 E101) which of the following statements is true:

(a) Isolated embedded CBs from surface to FL 450; light, occasionally moderate turbulence and icing.

(b) Light, occasionally moderate airframe icing. (c) Isolated embedded CBs up to FL 450; moderate or severe

turbulence and icing. (d) Isolated embedded CB above FL450; moderate or severe

turbulence and icing. 28. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex B, overhead DUBAI

(N26 E050) significant weather is:

(a) A westerly jetstream of 140kts, moderate turbulence. (b) A westerly jetstream of 120kts, light turbulence. (c) A westerly jetstream of 120kts, moderate turbulence. (d) A westerly jetstream of 120kts, severe turbulence

29. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex B, on a flight from

LONDON (N51 W000) to MADRID (N40 W004) at FL310, the significant weather is:

(a) A mean headwind of 140kts, moderate turbulence. (b) A mean headwind of 140kts, light turbulence. (c) A mean headwind of 140kts, isolated embedded CB. (d) A mean headwind of 40kts, moderate turbulence.


30. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex B, details of volcanic ash from Mt Etna (N37.7 E015.0) would be found in:

(a) NOTAMS (b) Computer flight plans. (c) Actual and forecast weather reports. (d) SIGMETS

31. Given the following forecast for EGBB, what is the worst visibility

forecast for an arrival at 0830Z?

EGBB 231026Z 231812 32005KT 9999 BKN020 TEMPO 1821 8000 BKN012 BECMG 2124 5000 TEMPO 0009 1500 BR BKN002 PROB40 0009 0500 FG BECMG 1012 9999 NSW BKN020=

(a) 8000m (b) 5000m (c) 1500m (d) 500m

32. The following forecast for EGKK is valid for the time period:

EGKK 231039Z 231812 24010KT 9999 -RADZ SCT010 BKN020 BECMG 1822 7000 PROB40 TEMPO 1822 BKN005 BECMG 2024 33004KT BECMG 2202 3000 BR BKN010 PROB40 0208 0300 FG BKN001 BECMG 0811 8000 NSW BKN012=

(a) 23rd 1039Z to 23rd 1812Z (b) 23rd 1812Z to 24th 0100Z (c) 23rd 1812Z to 23rd 2401Z (d) 23rd 1800Z to 24th 1200Z

33. Given the following forecast for EGKK, the most likely conditions for an

arrival at 0300Z on the 24th are:

EGKK 231039Z 231812 24010KT 9999 -RADZ SCT010 BKN020 BECMG 1822 7000 PROB40 TEMPO 1822 BKN005 BECMG 2024 33004KT BECMG 2202 3000 BR BKN010 PROB40 0208 0300 FG BKN001 BECMG 0811 8000 NSW BKN012=

(a) 3000m in mist, broken cloud at 1000ft (b) 300m in fog, broken cloud at 100ft (c) 7000m, broken cloud at 500ft (d) Light rain/drizzle, scattered at 1000ft, broken at 2000ft


34. Given the following forecast for EHAM, the most likely conditions for an arrival at 0900Z are:

EHAM 231043Z 231812 26009KT 4000 BR -DZ SCT006 BKN012 BECMG 1922 2500 BKN004 BECMG 2201 VRB03KT 0800 BCFG BKN003 PROB40 0308 0300 FG VV001 BECMG 0709 3500 BR SCT004 BKN006 BECMG 0912 10008KT 9999 NSW SCT018 SCT025=

(a) 3500m in mist, broken cloud at 400ft (b) Better than 10 kms with no significant weather (c) 300m in fog. (d) 3500m in mist, scattered cloud at 400ft., broken at 600ft

35. Given the following forecast. The worst weather conditions forecast for

an arrival at LFPO at 2330Z on the 23rd are:

LFPO 230500Z 231206 23015G25KT 9999 SCT018 BKN030 PROB30 TEMPO 1217 6000 -SHRA SCT014TCU BKN018 BECMG 1820 24012KT SCT030 SCT050 BECMG 2023 CAVOK BECMG 0104 17005KT TEMPO 0306 6000=

(a) Light rain showers (b) 6000m (c) CAVOK (d) Scattered clouds at 3000ft

36. Referring to chart E(LO)1, on the section of airway between DEAN

CROSS (N5443 W00320) and NEW GALLOWAY (N5511 W00410), the following statement is true:

(a) MEA FL70, MOCA 5500ft (b) MEA FL70, MORA 3900ft (c) MEA FL80, MORA 4200ft (d) MEA FL80, MORA 3900ft

37. Referring to chart E(LO)1, the grid MORA at AMMAN (N5150.4

W00359.9) on airway G1 is:

(a) 3000ft (b) 2900ft (c) 4100ft (d) 4200ft

38. Referring to the STAR charts for Amsterdam Schipol, on a DENUT

arrival for Rwy 27, IAS overhead DENUT should be:

(a) 240kts max (b) 280 – 300kts (c) 250kts (d) 220kts


39. Referring to the SID charts for Amsterdam Schipol, on an ARNEM departure Rwy 27, the following speed profile is correct:

(a) Max 250kts IAS below FL100 (b) Max 220kts until tracking 138º inbound to SCHIPOL NDB ‘NV’,

then max 250kts below FL100 (c) Max 220kts (d) Max 250kts

40. Referring to the AMSTERDAM SCHIPOL JAA minimums chart and/or

the appropriate approach chart, the DH and minimum RVR for an ILS approach Rwy 27, CAT D aircraft, are:

(a) 200ft 800m (b) 188ft 800m (c) 200ft 550m (d) 188ft 550m

41. Referring to the London Heathrow STAR charts, on a LAM3A arrival,

when LAM VOR is unserviceable the clearance limit is to:

(a) SABER (b) BRASO (c) TAWNY (d) LON VOR

42. Referring to the London Heathrow SID charts, on a MID 2K departure

from Rwy 09L, the initial turn should be made at:

(a) 1.5 DME LON (b) 2.0 DME LON (c) 1.5 DME LON and above 580ft (d) 2.0 DME LON and above 580ft.

43. Referring to the London Heathrow terminal charts, the airport

elevation is:

(a) 92ft (b) 80ft (c) 77ft (d) 75ft

44. Referring to the London Heathrow Approach charts for Rwy 09L, the

missed approach procedure is:

(a) Climb straight ahead to 3000ft then left turn to OCKHAM VOR (b) Climb straight ahead to 3000ft then left turn inbound to

OCKHAM VOR 067ºR (c) Climb straight ahead to 3000ft then left turn to EPSOM NDB (d) Climb straight ahead to 3000ft then as directed by ATC max

185kts


45. Referring to the Munich approach charts, the touchdown elevation for Rwy 26L is:

(a) 1486ft (b) 1670ft (c) 1470ft (d) 1570ft

46. Referring to the Munich STAR chart 10-2, when arriving from the

North on a flight from the UK, the expected STAR for Rwy 26R would be:

(a) RDG 1R (b) ALB 3R (c) ALB 3T (d) Radar vectors from ATC

47. Refer to chart E(HI)5, overhead LIMOGES (N4549 E00102) at FL330,

ATC would be contacted on the following frequency:

(a) 126.85 (b) 133.57 (c) 112.1 (d) 133.1

48. The purpose of a missed approach point is:

(a) That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.

(b) That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure decision altitude is not infringed.

(c) That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure decision height is not infringed.

(d) That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure OCA is not infringed.

49. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, calculate the fuel used and

time taken during an en route climb from an airfield at 6000ft amsl to FL330 given a brake release weight of 56000kgs and ISA +17ºC conditions.

(a) 15 mins 1300kgs (b) 20mins 1600kgs (c) 15mins 1150kgs (d) 20mins 1400kgs


50. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, the TAS for Long Range Cruise, FL310, at a gross weight of 49000kgs at ISA -17ºC will be:

(a) 450kts (b) 433kts (c) 416kts (d) 420kts

51. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, calculate the fuel required for a

navigation leg C to D given the following information:

Mach 0.74 cruise FL310 Mass at C 54500kg ISA +20ºC Nautical ground miles C – D 553nms Mean wind component –33kts


52. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, the ground distance covered

during a descent from FL330 to SL, assuming an ‘economy descent profile’, landing weight 51000kgs and a mean wind component of +25kts is:


53. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, calculate the critical fuel

reserve required given the following data:

Weight at critical point 55000kgs Distance from CP to diversion airport 675nms Mean wind component +25 kts Temperature conditions ISA +20ºC



54. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, determine the area of operation, in nautical air miles, given the following data:

EROPS clearance 120mins LRC operations Diversion point mass 55000kgs


55. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, determine the fuel and time

required for an In Flight Diversion (LRC), one engine inoperative, given the following data:

Diversion distance 750nms Wind component 40kts tail Cruise level FL180 Weight at point of diversion 55000kgs ISA conditions

(a) 4650kgs 100mins (b) 5200kgs 135mins (c) 5200kgs 105mins (d) 4650kgs 130mins

56. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, when tankering fuel o a sector,

calculate the percentage surplus burn given the following information:

Trip distance 1800NAM Cruise level FL350 Landing weight 52000kgs Long range cruise

(a) 11.0% (b) 18.4% (c) 21.3% (d) 15.9%

57. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, determine the break even fuel

price at destination that would justify tankering fuel on a leg A to B given the following information:

Trip distance 2100NAM Cruise level FL330 Landing weight 45000kgs Long range cruise Price of fuel at departure field 120 cents / gallon

(a) 150 cents / gallon (b) 135 cents / gallon (c) 140 cents / gallon (d) 145 cents / gallon


58. Given the following information, calculate the time from A to the Point

of Equal Time. Leg Distance A to B 595nm TAS 230kts Mean wind comp A to B +38kts

(a) 45mins (b) 1hr 30mins (c) 1hr 17mins (d) 55mins

59. Calculate the distance from the departure point to the Point of Safe

Return given the following data:

Total fuel at departure 12600kgs Fuel required on return for Div/Res 1500kgs Fuel consumption 2900 kgs / hour TAS 438kts Outbound wind component -39kts

(a) 990nm (b) 870nm (c) 830nm (d) 790nm

60. The distance from point of departure to the Point of Safe Return is

greatest in a:

(a) Tail wind (b) Still wind (c) Head wind (d) Cross wind


Intentionally Blank


Annex A


Annex B


Flight Planning Exam 3, 60 questions, 3 hours A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A B C D 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40


Intentionally Blank


Answers

1 d 21 b 41 c 2 d 22 c 42 c 3 b 23 d 43 b 4 c 24 c 44 d 5 b 25 c 45 c 6 d 26 d 46 a 7 a 27 c 47 b 8 c 28 c 48 a 9 c 29 a 49 d

10 a 30 d 50 c 11 c 31 d 51 d 12 c 32 d 52 d 13 d 33 a 53 c 14 b 34 d 54 d 15 a 35 c 55 d 16 d 36 c 56 b 17 c 37 d 57 d 18 b 38 b 58 d 19 b 39 b 59 c 20 b 40 c 60 b


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Flight Planning Exam 3