For more materials visit getresult14@wordpress · b) A bomb blast in which around 500 people died and 5000 were injured c) A nuclear plant exploded and the entire city became a radioactive

NABARD BANK OFFICERS EXAM 08

General Awareness

1. Which of the following was the reason owing to which public unrest broke out in Pakistan and an Emergency was declared a few months back? (A) Sudden death of former Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto (B) Announcement of General Elections (C) Appointment of a new Chief of Army in place of General Pervez Musharraf who was very popular leader there. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) All (A), (B) & (C) e) None of these

2. India, Brazil and South Africa made a forum in 2003 which is playing a very significant role in dealing with the issues of common interest of all the three in general and their foreign policies in particular. What is the name of that forum? (The Second Summit of the forum was organized in October 2007 in Pretoria) a) SAGU b) BRICK c) G-20 d) IBSA e) None of these

3. Read the following three statements carefully and answer the question asked immediately after that. (A) Hu Jintao has been reelected the General Secretary of the ruling CPC for the second term till 20 12. (B) Vice-President of the country Zeng Quinghing was removed from the powerful Central Committee of the party. (C) Country is now likely to proceed on a new agenda of progress and development as Jintao is a man of modem and scientific outlook. All these three statements are about the political development in the country known as _______. a) South Korea b) North Korea c) Singapore d) China e) Thailand

4. The midterm review of the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI (for 2007-08) took place is January 2008. Which of the following in true about the same? (A) CRR hiked by 0.5 per cent to make it 7.5% w.e.f. 10th February, 2008. (B) GDP growth outlook at 8.5% for 2007-08. (C) Call and put options are now allowed in imports and exports. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (B) & (C) e) None of these

5. An International Organization with Robert B. Zoellick as its President sanctioned a loan of U.S$ 944 million to India so that it can strengthen its rural finance system, vocational training and improve its water management projects. Which of the following is the name of that organization? a) International Monetary Fund b) Asian Development Bank c) UNESCO

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d) World Bank e) None of these

6. As per the new which appeared in some newspapers/magazines the police with the help of some NGOs rescued some children who had been forced in child labour illegally. Such children are protected under which of the following acts in India? (A) Juvenile Justice Act (B) Child Labour Act (C) Immoral Trafficking Act a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) All (A), (B) & (C) e) None of these

7. As per the new published in the media, India, China and some other countries are trying to grapple with money flooding the economy from a record trade surplus, and swelling of foreign exchange reserves of the country. Why do the Central Banks if such countries have to make special efforts to check the flooding of money and foreign exchange in economy whereas for an ordinary man more money means richness & prosperity? (A) It generates artificial inflation in economy. (B) It makes the Government of that country to revaluate its currency. (C) It creates a situation where rate of interest on loans and advances starts coming down sharply. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) All (A), (B) and (C) e) None of these

8. The Government of India recently established a fund known as National Investment Fund (NIF), which of the following statements is/are true in this regard? (A) This fund is generated through the money received from the sale of equity in State run companies. (B) The fund will help in revival of sick units of the public sector companies of the Government of India. (C) The money deposited in the fund will be used for social welfare schemes. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) All (A), (B) and (C) e) None of these

9. The Government of India is making special efforts to help the farmer community in the country as they are in distress and demand special attention from all of us. Which of the following is correct in this regard? (A) Government of India has announced a substantial hike in minimum support price of wheat for Rabi season. (B) A relief package is announced for the Sugar Industry. (C) An farmers are being given a cash assistance of Rs. 5 lakhs to make them comfortable financially. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Both (A) & (B) d) All (A), (B) and (C) e) None of these

10. Which of the following taxes is collected by the Government on sale of goods and services in the country? a) NAT b) GET


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c) SAT d) VAT e) None of these

11. The N.D. Kumaraswamy Government came into minority in Karnataka because one segment of the coalition government withdrew its support from it in October 2007. Which of the following was the segment? a) SP b) Congress c) BSP d) Telugu Desam e) None of these

12. The newly elected President of which of the following countries took over the charge from her husband who was the President of the country immediately prior to the general presidential elections there? a) Pakistan b) Sri Lanka c) Romania d) Peru e) Argentina

13. The latest European Union Summit took place in which of the following cities in October 2007? a) Brussels b) Paris c) Luxembourg d) Lisbon e) None of these

14. The UN Climate Change Conference 2007 was organized in which of the following places? a) Manila b) London c) Brussels d) Lisbon e) Bali

15. India ranks 128 in the recently published Human Development Index (HDI). The index measures which of the following to decide the rank of a country? (A) Life expectancy (B) Literacy & Education (C) Forex reserves as a percentage of total GDP a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Both (A) & (B) d) All (A), (B) and (C) e) None of these

16. Kevin Rudd recently took over as the Prime Minister of Australia from John Howard. Which of the following policies of John Howard went wrong and against him who otherwise was holding the post since last four terms of four years each? (A) Refusal to ratify Kyoto protocol (B) Policy of hiring and firing workers any time (C) Support to non-democratic government in some countries a) Only (A) b) Both (A) & (B)


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c) Only (C) d) Only (B) e) None of these

17. Many a time we read a term "PPP" in financial newspapers. What is the full of the same as used in financial world? a) Public Per Capita Power b) Per Capita Potential Purchases c) Purchasing Power Parity d) Present Purchasing Power e) None of these

18. 'Crygenic Engines' are being developed indigenously by an Indian organization. These engines are normally used for which of the following purposes? a) Used for space programme b) Used for generating nuclear power c) Used by Railways as they are very fast and fuel efficient d) Used in fighter planes e) None of these

19. The UN has revealed that the emergency phase is now over in Chernobyl where a disastrous accident had taken place in 1986. The affected people there will now be treated as normal and not as victims. What had happened in Chernobyl in 1986? a) A train accident in which about 1000 people had died b) A bomb blast in which around 500 people died and 5000 were injured c) A nuclear plant exploded and the entire city became a radioactive zone d) A powerful earthquake rocked the entire city leaving thousands dead and several thousand injured e) None of these

20. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission constituted recently? a) Vijay Kelkar b) B.K. Chaturvedi c) K.V. Kamath d) A.K. Purwar e) None of these

21. Many a time we read in newspapers about the "Doha Round" of talks. It was related with the talks of which of the following organizations? (I) European Union b) World Trade Organization (WTO) c) International Atomic Energy Agencies (IAEA) d) G-8 talks e) None of these

22. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries? a) Sudan b) Myanmar c) Afghanistan d) Pakistan e) None of these

23. The former President of Mozambique Joaquim Chissano was honored by the first ever international prize to an African leader, the prestigious "Mo Ibrahim Leadership Prize". The Prize was given to him in 2007 October. What was the contribution of Chissano owing to which he was selected for the same? (Pick up the correct statement)


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(A) He was instrumental in bringing peace, reconciliation, stable democracy and economic progress to Mozambique. (B) He played a crucial role in diffusing conflict between India and some western countries over the issue of Iran's nuclear facilities. (C) He played a crucial role in diffusing conflict between India and some western countries over the issue of subsidy to agriculture in WTO conference held in 2007. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) All (A), (B) & (C)

24. Who amongst the following Indian leaders became the second World Leader to receive the British Royal Society's prestigious King Charles II Medal? (Given in October 2007). a) Dr. Manmohan Singh b) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam d) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan e) None of these

25. The "Outstanding Business Leader Award-2007" was given to whom amongst the following in October 2007? a) Lakshmi Mittal b) Sunil Bharti Mittal c) Rahul Bajaj d) Kumar Mangalam Birla e) None of these

26. The Doing Business Report, an international publication, is published every year by which of the following organization(s)? (A) World Bank (B) WTO (C) Reserve Bank of India a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) All (A), (B) & (C)

27. The fourth Military World Games-2007 was organized in which of the following places in India? a) New Delhi b) Hyderabad c) Jaipur d) Bangalore e) Cochin

28. The 47th Open National Athletic Championship 2007 was organized in which of the following places? a) Jamshedpur b) New Delhi c) Lucknow d) Bangalore e) None of these

29. Who amongst the following is NOT a famous Lawn tennis player? a) Roger Federer


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b) Leander Paes c) Svetlana Kuznetsova d) Justin Benin e) Kimi Raikkonen

30. Lot of discussion is going on these days on the, issue of 'Participatory Note' (P Notes) used in financial sector/money market. What is Participatory Note? (Pick up the correct statements.) (A) It is nothing but another name of the banking operation by which banks exchange Indian Rupees into US dollars without depositing a single rupee in the account of the party who are NRIs. The entire operation is carried out by the banks solely on the basis of the credit and goodwill of the NRI party. (B) It is an offshore derivative instrument used by overseas buyers/investors who buy shares of Indian companies listed in Indian Stock Exchanges anonymously. (C) It is nothing but a type of undertaking given to the banks that they should continue investing money in stock markets on behalf of the NRIs and in case the market crashes NRIs will make the losses good without delay. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) All (A), (B) & (C)

31. As we all see every now and then many countries are in the race of launching space shuttles or rockets or satellites. What exactly are the benefits of space programs which otherwise are very costly affairs for the countries? (A) It is nothing but a fun to have a visit to space. It has no real benefit as such. (B) Humanity can be served / benefited by getting data on weather, disaster alerts and/or resource centres connected through satellites. Since earth is no longer place to live we have to find out a place where in the next few years we can shift and survive. Such programs help us in all this. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) None of these

32. As we all see oil prices have a special place in economic folklore. Almost all countries keep an eagle eye on the oil prices in the International market Why is oil so important for' the countries and their economies to survive? (Pick up the correct statements.) (A) Two nastiest global recessions of the recent decades were preceded by huge and sudden rises in prices of oil, first in 1973 and then in 1979. Leaders are scared of their repetition. (B) What makes oil so special is that it is a uniquely dense and portable form of energy. It is not easy to switch to alternatives very quickly, hence any disruptions to supply are damaging for economies. (C) Oil exporting countries are most powerful and violent nations, countries do not want to invite trouble with them. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) All (A), (B) & (C)

33. Which of the following is the name of Tata's small car launched recently? a) Micro b) Sapna c) Nano d) Lakhtakia e) None of these


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34. The House of Representatives of USA recently approved as US $ 50 billion War Funding Bill. If passed it would require President Bush to start withdrawing troops from ______. a) Iraq b) Pakistan c) Sudan d) China e) South Africa

35. The public protest on which of the following issues recently brought the whole of the Finance to a near standstill for the second time in a month? (A) Irregularities in Presidential elections held in 2007. (B) President Sarkozy's plan to reform public sector pensions. (C) France's support to USA on Iraq's rebuilding. a) Only (A) b) Only (C) c) Only (B) d) Both (A) and (B) e) None of these

36. Who amongst the following was adjudged as Miss Earth-Air 2007? a) Pooja Chitgopekar b) Pooja Gupta c) Amruta Patki d) Sarah Jane Dias e) None of these 37. As per the news which appeared in newspapers/magazines thousands of civilians have to flee the fighting in North Kivu province as there is a war going on between the army of the country and rebels of General Laurent Nkunda. This is the story of which of the following countries? a) Congo b) Sudan c) Mozambique d) Argentina e) None of these

38. About 20,000 students demonstrated against plans of President Hugo Chavez to change the constitution of the country. Chavez is the President of _______ a) Sudan b) Congo c) Venezuela d) Poland e) None of these

39. Government of India recently announced its action plan on Sachar Committee Report. What actions are being taken on the report? (A) Government to bear all expenses of poor students who get into top institutions on merit basis. (B) Revision of Madarsa Modernization Programme. (C) Special Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme for minority population. a) Only (A) is correct b) Only (B) is correct c) Both (A) & (B) are correct d) Only (C) is correct e) All (A), (B) & (C) are correct


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40. As we read in the newspapers the 123 Agreement with USA will have strategic implications on India. Which of the following is/are these implications? (A) India will get recognition as a state with advanced nuclear technology. (B) The deal will not be offered to Pakistan. (C) India will be free to develop nuclear weapon for its military purposes. a) Only (A) is correct b) Only (B) is correct c) Both (A) & (B) are correct d) Only (C) is correct e) None is correct

41. The Government of India recently gave its clearance to the new Agriculture scheme which will provide additional central assistance to the agriculture sector. What is/are the main points of this scheme? (A) Public Investment in agriculture sector will be banned. (B) Government will help state governments to achieve the targeted growth rates in agriculture sector. (C) State Government will get Rs. 40,000 crores to provide subsidy to agriculture sector. a) Only (A) is correct b) Only (B) is correct c) Only (C) is correct d) Both (A) & (B) are correct e) None is correct

42. Who amongst the following are the members of BRIC the summit of which was organized recently? (A) India (B) Indonesia (C) Brazil a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) & (B) e) Both (A) & (C)

43. Abuja Declaration was in news a few months back. This is the pact signed between which of the following two nations? a) India-Sudan b) Sudan-China c) India-China d) Nigeria-Nepal e) India-Nigeria

44. USA recently decided to slap few sanctions against Iran which include ouster of Iranian military and banking institutions from US financial system. Why did US resort to such harsh steps against Iran? (A) Iran's alleged support to Pakistan's military rules. (B) Iran's support to terrorism and nuclear programme (C) Iran is against any financial help to Iraq as both are old enemies. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) & (B) e) All (A), (B) & (C)


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45. As reported in the newspapers Aung San Suu 'Kyi has agreed to cooperate with the military ruler of her country. She is a citizen of a) Nepal b) Myanmar c) Brazil d) Indonesia e) Hong Kong

46. India won Future Cup Twenty-20 cricket match held in October 2007 in Mumbai. The match was played against_______. a) Pakistan b) England c) South Africa d) New Zealand e) Australia

47. Who amongst the following is NOT one of the Nobel Prize Winners of 2007? a) Ms. Doris Lessing b) Albert Fert c) Roger B. Myerson d) AI Gore e) Yulia Sindzeyeva

48. Who amongst the following won the Man Booker Prize 2007? a) K. Narayana Kurup b). Eric S. Maskin c) Mario R. Capecchi d) Anne Enright e) None of these

49. Who amongst the following was made the Chairman/Chairperson of the National Land Reforms Commission? a) Somnath Chatterjee b) Manmohan Singh c) Smt. Sonia Gandhi d) Murli Deora e) None of these

50. The prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace Disarmament and Development for 2006 was recently conferred upon a) Prof. Wangari Maathai b) Mr. Kevin Rudd c) Mr. Ratan Tata d) Mr. Mahmoud Abbas e) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (51-55) : What should con1e in place of the question mark(?) in the following questions? 51. [(58)2 X (48)2] ÷ ? = 2152.96 a) 60 b) 2500 c) 50 d) 3600 e) None of these


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52. 7432 ÷ 92.9 * 18.5 =? a) 1450 b) 1600 c) 1480 d) 1560 e) None of these

53. 99 * 21 - = 1968 a) 1367631 b) 111 c) 1366731 d) 1367 e) None of these

54. 9634 X ÷ ? =28.902

a) 115 b) 95 c) 110 d) 120 e) None of these

55. 19.99 X 9.9 + 99.9 =? a) 129.79 b) 297.801 c) 1009 d) 296.91 e) None of these

Directions (56-60) : What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following number series? 56. 354 180 64 21 10.2 ? a) 5.6 b) 8. 7 c) 3.8 d) 1.7 e) None of these

57. 4.5 18 2.25 ? 1.6875 33.75 a) 27 b) 25.5 c) 36 d) 40 e) None of these

58. 59.76 58.66 56.46 52.06 ? 25.66 a) 48.08 b) 46.53 c) 43.46 d) 43.26 e) None of these

59. 36 157 301 470 ? 891 a) 646 b) 695


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c) 639 d) 669 e) None of these

60. 14 70 350 ? 8750 43750 a) 1570 b) 875 c) 1750 d) 785 e) None of these

61. The ratio of the number of students studying in schools A, Band C is 6 : 8 : 7 respectively. If the number of students studying in each of the schools is increased by 20%, 15% and 20% respectively, 'what will be the new ratio of the number of students in schools A, Band C? a) 18 : 23 : 21 b) 12 : 18 : 17 c) 18:21:17 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

62. On a test consisting of 75 questions carrying one mark each, Samir answered 75% of the first 40 questions correctly. What approximate percent on the other 35 questions does he need to answer correctly to score 80% on the entire test? a) 90 b) 75 c) 86 d) 60 e) 58

63. Out of three numbers the sum of the first and the second numbers is 73 and the sum of second and the third numbers is 77. The sum of the third and thrice the first number is 104. What is the third number? a) 25 b) 39 c) 48 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

64. 50 people consume 350 kgs. of rice in 30 days. In how many days will 35 people consume 50 kgs. of rice? a) 2 days b) 3 days c) 5 days d) 7 days e) None of these

65. Krishna has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 81 and total number of animal legs is 234, how many goats does Krishna have? a) 45 b) 24 c) 36 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Directions (66-70) : Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below.


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A survey conducted on 1800 villages shows that 25% of the total villages have only adequate water supply. 15% of the total numbers have proper supply of electricity only. 7% of the total numbers of villages have only proper education facilities. 12% of the total numbers of villages have telecommunication services only. 1. 6% of the total number of villages has proper health care services only. 6% of the total numbers of villages have adequate water as well as supply of electricity. 8% of the total numbers of villages have adequate supply of water, supply of electricity as well as health care services. 5% of the total numbers of villages have proper supply of electricity, telecommunication services as well as health care services and 6% of the total numbers of villages have all the facilities.

66. How many villages in all have adequate water supply? a) 702 b) 450 c) 594 d) 810 e) None of these

67. How many villages-in all have adequate supply of water as well as electricity? a) 360 b) 108 c) 720 d) 972 e) None of these

68. How many villages in all do not have proper supply of electricity a) 720 b) 850 c) 920 d) 1080 e) None of these

69. How many villages have only proper education facilities? a) 108 b) 126 c) 234 d) 216 e) None of these

70. How many villages have all the facilities? a) 90 b) 126 c) 144 d) 106 e) None of these

Directions (71 -75) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Quantity of Rice produced by various states over the years (Quantity in Tonnes)

States Years

2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

A 1500 1480 1620 1700 1540 1650

B 1250 1190 1400 1450 1320 1380

C 1160 1190 1310 1300 1340 1360

D 1520 1500 1480 1590 1630 1580

E 1440 1350 1430 1280 1380 1400


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F 1600 1620 1510 1610 1580 1590

71. In which state has the production of rice increased continuously over the years? a) A b) B c) D d) E e) None of the States

72. In which year was the production of rice the highest in all the states together? a) 2007 b) 2002 c) 2005 d) 2006 e) None of these

73. Which state produced the lowest quantity of rice over the years? a) E b) D c) C d) A e) None of these

74. What is the respective ratio of the average quantity of rice produced by State D to the average quantity of rice produced by State F over the years? a) 69: 79 b) 310 : 317 c) 138 : 155 d) 276 : 317 e) None of these

75. Rice produced by State C in the yea 2005 is approximately what percent of the rice produced by state A in the same year? a) 82 b) 72 c) 88 d) 76 e) 69

Directions (76-80) : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below. Number of Buildings constructed, demolished and redeveloped across various cities in a year


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76. What is the difference between the total constructions (constructed, demolished and redeveloped) in City Q and City T? a) 125 b) 180 c) 175 d) 200 e) None of these

77. What is the average number of buildings demolished across the cities? a) 100 b) 125 c) 132 d) 115 e) None of these

78. The total number of buildings constructed across the cities is approximately what percent of the total number of buildings redeveloped across the cities? a) 73 b) 74 c) 88 d) 79 e) 85

79. What is the approximate average number of constructions (constructed, demolished and redeveloped) in the City R? a) 156 b) 122 c) 198 d) 216 e) 208

80. What is the respective ratio of the number of buildings demolished in City T to the ' number of buildings redeveloped in City P? a) 7 : 12 b) 3 : 5 c) 2 : 3 d) 1 : 2

0

50

100

150

200

250

300

350

P Q R S T

Nu

mb

er

of

Bu

ild

ings

Cities

Constructed

Demolished

Redeveloped


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e). None of these

Directions (81-85) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Number of Literates in various cities over the years

M - Males, F - Females

Years 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005

Cities M F M F M F M F M F

U 15000 25000 18550 20000 18590 25000 25000 25500 28000 28800

V 12500 9200 14680 10520 16000 11000 16850 13680 16920 14360

W 18660 17380 18950 18000 18980 19000 19500 19250 19580 19600

X 14200 14350 14280 14500 15250 15000 15390 15250 16000 16200

V 9700 8320 9990 8540 9870 8820 10200 10000 10520 10300

81. What is the total number of male literates in City W over the years? a) 97650 b) 95670 c) 99280 d) 96570 e) None of these

82. What is the total number of literates across the cities in the year 2005? a) 180280 b) 182000 c) 188050 d) 180500 e) None of these

83. What is the difference between the total number of female literates across the cities in the year 2002 and the year 2004? a) 11850 b) 12000 c) 11500 d) 12800 e) None of these

84. What is the respective ratio of literates of City X in the year 200 I to the literates of the same city in the year 2003? a) 581:624 b) 64 : 75 c) 571 : 605 d) 84 : 131 e) None of these

85. What is the average number of female literates across the cities in the year 2005? a) 18725 b) 15872 c) 17582 d) 17852 e) None of these

Directions (86-90) : Study the following Pie-Graph carefully and answer the questions given below : A survey conducted on 5800 villagers staying in various villages

and having various favourite fruits Favourite Fruits


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People staying in various villages

86. Mango is the favourite fruit of 50% of the people from Village C. People having their favourite fruit as Mango from Village C form approximately what per cent of the people having their favourite fruit as mango from all the villages together? a) 48 b) 53 c) 61 d) 57 e) 45

87. 20% of the people from Village D have banana as their favourite fruit and 12% of the people from the same village have guava as their favourite fruit. How many people from that village like other fruits? a) 764 b) 896 c) 874 d) 968 e) None of these

88. How many people in all have custard apple as their favourite fruit?

22%

21%

32%

25%A B C

D

22%

21%

32%

25%

A

B

C

D


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89. 50% of the people from Village B have banana as their favourite fruit. How many people from other villages have the same favourite fruit? a) 1160 b) 551 c) 1020 d) 609 e) None of these

90. What is the total number of people having their favourite fruit as apple and grapes together? a) 1334 b) 1286 c) 1300 d) 1420 e) None of these

91. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'GAMBLE' be arranged? a) 720 b) 840 c) 360 d) 420 e) None of these

92. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction is increased by 150%, the

resultant fraction is . What is the original fraction?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

93. Pratibha covers a distance of 24 kms at the speed of 8 kms/hr. and a distance of 18 kms at the speed of 9 kms/hr. Further she covers a distance of 12 kms at the speed of 3 kms/hr. What is her average speed in covering the whole distance? a) 8 kms/hr. b) 5.5 kms/hr. c) 3 kms/hr. d) 6 kms/hr. e) None of these

94. The mean of the marks obtained by 100 students is 60. If the marks obtained by one of the students were incorrectly calculated as 75, whereas the actual marks obtained by him were 65, what is the correct mean of the marks obtained by the students? a) 59 b). 58.50 c) 50


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d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

95. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the numbers is 36. What is the difference between the two digits of the number? a) 6 b) 4 c) 3 d) Cannot be determined· e) None of these

Directions (96-100) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

96. 388 ÷ 0.8 ÷ 0. 7 =? a) 681 b) 654 c) 693 d) 670 e) 700

97. * = ? a) 470 b) 482 c) 521 d) 530 e) 496

98. 1875 ÷ 35 x 3242 ÷ 48=? a) 3525 b) 3618 c) 3641 d) 3591 e) 3636

99. = ? a) 35 b) 42 c) 22 d) 29 e) 45

100. 15.28 * 12.36 + 41.17 * 21.34 = ? a) 125 b) 1098 c) 1132 d) 1032 e) 1068

English Language Directions (101-110) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.


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Economists have rightly emphasized the risks to globalization from economic and financial instability. But they have ignored environmental destruction, and the resulting global warming which is now the central global concern. Fast growing middle income nations, such as China, Malaysia, and India have a big stake in globalization-and therefore; in confronting this environmental danger. Their rise has been tied to globalization. They have doubled their trade in the past decade, and by liberalizing commercial policies, have also helped others gain. To China, Indonesia as well as India, environmental outcomes have a special significance. They possess 60% of the world's freshwater resources, 60% of the forests, much of the coral reefs and valuable biodiversity. But they also face massive degradation of air, forest, land, freshwater and marine resources, with the rise in population adding up to the high cost. The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide reached 379 parts per million in 2005 compared to a pre-industrial level of 280 ppm. Scientists concur that to avoid massive climate instability the change in global temperature ought not to be more than 2°C above pre-industrial levels. To secure that outcome with some certainty, the concentration on carbon dioxide needs to stay below 400 ppm. Rich countries like the United States, Japan and European nations are by far the most responsible for this and other greenhouse gas emissions in per capita terms. So they must ·propel mitigation measures to improve energy efficiency and, protect the environment. But middle income countries now account for half of all emissions, and they would not want to emulate the poor example set by rich countries.

In Brazil, China and India, air and water pollution is severely impairing people's health and productivity in the workplace with a direct impact on growth prospects. Moreover, globalization has speeded the spillover of these damages. Growth fuelled by energy-intensive industry, urban crowding, and deforestation has added to atmospheric concentrations of carbon, warming land and ocean and bringing extreme weather. In turn, climate change threatens to erode coastlines and provoke droughts and floods, in rich countries and poor. A clear link is emerging between deforestation and soil degradation on the one side, and the fastest rising natural disasters, which are floods and wind storms, on the other. Societal benefits of abating high levels of emissions far outweigh the costs of doing so. Yet economist and policy makers have not drawn the implication of this calculus for the reform agenda, be it in trade, energy or infrastructure. Sadly, the costs of such neglect are large. Also, no country, rich or poor, has enough motivation to confront global problems alone. Because only a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would accrue to countries taking action, while others could have a free ride. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the horizon of politicians interest. Such situations call for collective action, even if they are not easy when· many diverse countries are involved.

The crucial question is how best countries might participate in collective measures to mitigate environmental threats to growth. One opening involves avoiding deforestation. Cutting down forests accounts for a fifth of the emissions, more than those' from all transportation. By protecting their forests, countries can reduce carbon emissions in the markets for tradable emissions in the atmosphere, paving the way for new markets tor tradable emission permits that would compensate them for the protection. Whether and how quickly the environment is accorded top priority will determine the future of the world economy. 101. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage? a) Pollution from vehicles is the single greatest cm1tributor to global warming. b) The rise of middle income countries has doubled the levels of greenhouse gas emissions. c) China and India have the motivation but not sufficient influence to implement environmental reform. d) Urban crowding has resulted in extreme weather conditions. e) To reduce climate instability global temperature should be just below or at pre-industrial levels.

102. The author's main objective in writing the passage is to a) exhort scientists to provide feasible solutions to stop climate change. b) warn politicians not to disregard the threat of economic instability while focusing on environmental challenges. c) coerce middle income countries into taking some initiative in bringing about environmental reform. d) criticizing the citizens of rich countries for not pressurizing their governments to do more to protect the environment. e) urge countries to take the threat of global warming seriously and to take necessary steps to address the problem.

103. Which or the following is NOT an impact of global warming? (A) Countries have begun to invest heavily in the alternative energy industry. (B) Productivity of the workforce has diminished on account of the failing health of the employees. (C) Rich countries have undertaken research to prevent natural disasters despite deforestation. a) Only (A)


19

b) Both (A) and (C) c) Both (B) and (C) d) Only (C) e) None of these

104. What role should the US play in slowing down environmental destruction? a) Compromise on funding of scientific research into alternative energy sources. b) Create a forum for nations to arrive at a consensus on how to deal with environmental threats. c) Bring pressure on middle income countries to draft an environmental policy. d) Restrict trade with countries not complying with universal measures to combat global warming. e) None of these

105. According to the author why are politicians reluctant to formulate environmental reform? (A) The expenditure on implementing environmental reform does not justify the benefits. (B) Economic stability is a more pressing concern for countries today. (C) The impact of these policies will only be felt in the long run which does not benefit them politically. a) Only (C) b) Both (A) and (B) c) Only (A) d) All (A), (B) and (C) e) None of these

106. According to the author which of the following is a likely outcome of neglecting environmental reform? a) Globalization will take place at a faster pace because of few restrictions. b) Politicians in many countries will be voted out of power for neglecting these reforms. c) Poor countries rather than rich ones will bear the brunt of natural disasters. d) Potential for future economic growth is threatened. e) Concentration of carbon will reach pre-industrial levels.

107. Which of the following is a means to reduce the environmental threat to growth? (A) Governments should conduct a cost benefit analysis of various environmental protection measures and implement those which are cost efficient. (B) Participation of all countries in arriving at a consensus on measures necessary to combat environment al challenges to growth. (C) Scientists not economists should determine the risks. To globalization. a) None b) Only (B) c) Both (A) and (B) d) All (A), (B) and (C) e) None of these

108. What is the view of scientists on the correct climate change? (I) Rich countries are solely responsible for global warming. b) Pre-industrial levels of carbon concentration are unachievable. c) Control ling rise in global temperature is possible by maintaining carbon concentration below a certain level. d) Massive climate instability is unavoidable and the focus should be on measures to cope with the fallout. e) None of these

109. What impact has globalization had on India? a) It has exacerbated the fallout of environmental degradation. b) Its economic benefits are not felt by all its citizens. c) India has ignored infrastructure development. d) Professionals have left to seek better employment in foreign countries.


20

e) None of these

110. Which of the following factors has contributed to global warming? (A) Failure to provide incentives to poor countries to implement environmental policies. (B) Sanctioning tradable emission permits. (C) Environmental policies adopted by rich countries have not been successful 'in middle income countries. a) None b) Both (A) and (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (C) e) None of these

Directions (111-113) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 111. Abating a) relaxing b) alleviating c) varying d) intensifying e) contracting

112. Stake a) perspective b) chance c) support d) gamble e) share

113. Provoke a) cause b) inspire c) exasperate d) irritate e) tempt

Directions (114-115) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 114. Propel a) sanction b) collapse c) discourage d) abhor e) deplete

115. Emulate a) copy b) fake c) replace d) originate e) rival


21

Directions (116-125) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

116. In accordance with the byelaws a)/ he has to take on as b)/ chairman of the committee with effect c)/ from the first of next month. d)/ No error e).

117. The bank's staff is a)/ opposed to the takeover b)/ because they are convinced that c)/ they will lose their jobs. d)/ No error e).

118. It was a great honour a)/ and privilege to witness b)/ the high level meetings between c)/ Chinese and India's leaders. d)/ No error e).

119. Identifying, nurturing and a)/ developing an employee's talent is b)/ among the most important task c)/ of Human Resource Development department. d)/ No error e).

120. Despite all our efforts during a)/ the past few months there remain b)/ lots of work to do before c)/ the project can be launched. d)/No error e).

121. Many residents claim a)/ that the company has b)/ taken the ir land c)/ without adequate compensating d)/ No error e).

122. The industrialist has donated a)/ large sums of money to b)/ scientific organizations to develop c) / environmentally friendly fuels. d)/ No error e)

123. Corruption costs the economy about a)/ three per cent of the GOP every year b)/ what is almost equal to c)/ the amount spent on education. d)/ No error e).

124. This magazine is a good a)/ source of information on b)/ current events and is c)/ also reasonably price. d)/ No error e)

125. These protests are because a)/ of the government's plans to b)/ raise the retirement age c)/ of public sector employees. d)/ No error e)

Directions (126-130): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. 13elow each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers a), b), c), d) and e). Find out which pair of words can be tilled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

126. The report ________ that the Indian I.T. industry will earn over hundred billion dollars in ________ in the next decade. a) revealed, volume b) states, services c) predicts, future d) estimated, capital e) forecasts, revenue

127. The government should appoint a panel of experts and _________ their advice on how to ___________ technical education in India. a) interpret, reform b) seek, better c) solicit, mitigate d) heed, uplifted e) implement, renew


22

128. The company along with its foreign partners needs to work ______ to determine the financial _________ of the joint venture. a) diligently, nature b) cohesively, compliance c) concretely, feasible d) together, viability e) jointly, incentive

129. His speech ______ the need for the media to play an important role to bring _______ on social evils. a) reflected, pressure b) communication, attention c) stressed, focus d) addressing, emphasis e) convinced, light

130. They have finally succeeded in _________ the management to hold _______discussions on issues pertaining to employee benefits. a) compelling, intensive b) recommending, committed c) imposing, 'Competitive d) entrusting, intricate e) threatening, lately

Directions (131-135) : Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark e) as the answer.

131. She has inherited the company from her father and will have to work hard to prove her worthy. a) proving its worth b) to prove her worthy c) to prove her worth d) as proof of its worth e) No correction required

132. Importantly recognizing that foreign banks in India today control more than fifteen per cent of the banking business. a) Important to recognize b) The importance of recognizing c) Importantly recognition d) It is important to recognize e) No correction required

133. It is unfair to expect myself to take a decision in this matter because. I am unaware of the exact nature of the transaction. a) my taking on b) myself taken c) me to take d) I have taken e) No correction required

134. Company policy does not permit employees to engage this kinds of deals. a) in this kind


23

b) in these kinds c) with this kind d) for these kinds e) No correction required

135. The majority of investors attending the conference is interested in furthering their investments in Asia. a) were interested in b) are interested to c) have shown interest d) being interested about e) No correction required

Directions (136-140) : Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) Other factors are important in determining whether a stock market decline causes an economic set back. (B) We tend to associate a stock market crash with an economic slump. (C) The two most important factors are the impact on the banking sector and policy response to the crash. (D) That is because we have seen such a link several times in the past. (E) But there is no automatic link between the stock market crash and the economic downturn, say experts. (F) For example the Great Depression followed the Great Crash of 1929 in the U.S.

136. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence alter rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

137. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

138. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F

139. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E 140. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C


24

d) D e) E

Directions (141-150) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A factor that air passengers give little thought to but which is a serious threat to air safety is (141) maintenance. In the current global airline boom competition is (142), which compels airlines to (143) costs and (144) output. In India with a scat capacity considerably (145) of the demand all airlines practice severe cost cutting to (146). Faced with having to cut costs to the bone and maximize aircraft utilization a surprising number of airlines may cut (147) on aircraft maintenaii1ce, even at the (148) of compromising safety. While commercial aircraft are (149) to take much punishment, for example, pilots flying into thunderstorms there is a limit to the punishment that even the toughest aircraft can take when profitability takes (150) over safety.

141. a) expedient b) incessant c) routine d) laborious e) poor

142. a) optimize b) intense c) destined d) guarantee e) profitable

143. a) falsify b) lavish c) minimize d) incline e) ration

144. a) depress b) productive c) curb d) available e) maximize

145. a) ahead b) less c) more d) saturated e) above

146. a) invest b) survive c) live


25

d) appraise e) reinforce

147. a) out b) taxes c) across d) corners e) short

148. a) claim b) formality c) reminder d) strain e) risk

149. a) designed b) unable c) rotated d) originally e) standard 150. a) encouragement b) influence c) precedence d) cover e) guard

Reasoning Ability

151. Four of the following five are alike in a ce1tain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? a) Clove b) Cinnamon c) Pepper d) Cardamom e) Apricot

152. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

153. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR using each letter only once? a) None b) One c) Two


26

d) Three e) More than three

154. Pointing to a photograph Rasika said "He is the grandson of my grandmother's only son." How is the boy in photograph related to Rasika? a) Son b) Nephew c) Brother d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

155. In a certain code 'open the door' is written as 'ka te jo', 'door is closed' is written as 'jo pa ma' and 'this is good' is written as 'Ia ra pa'. What is the code for 'closed'? a) ma b) pa c) jo d) ka e) None of these

Directions (156-160) : These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions. 7 D 5 # A B 1 % K $ 4 E J F 3 * 2 H I @ L 6 Q U © 9 M T 8 W

156. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four

157. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? a) K41 b) *HF c) #B5 d) M8© e) LQI

158. Which of the following pairs of elements has the second element, immediately followed by the first element? a) 5# b) MT c) $4 d) 3F e) @L

159. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a consonant? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three


27

160. What will come in place of question mark (s) in the following series based on the above arrangement? A#D $KI 3FE ? a) @12 b) *HI c) H2@ d) HIL e) None of these

Directions (161-165): In each of the questions below arc given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts,

161. Statements: Some shoes are socks. All socks are towels. All towels are bed sheets. No bed sheet is blanket. Conclusions: I. No towel is blanket. II. Some shoes are towels. III. Some shoes are bed sheets. a) Only I and II follow b) Only II and III follow c) Only I and III follow d) All follow e) None of these

162. Statements: Some fruits are flowers. Some flowers are buds. No bud is leaf. All leaves are plants. Conclusions: I. No plant is bud. II. Some plants are flowers. III. Some buds are fruits. a) None follows b) Only I follows c) Only II and III follow d) Only III follows e) None of these

163. Statements: Some pearls are gems. Some gems are diamonds. All diamonds are rings. All rings are bangles. Conclusions: I. Some bangles are rings. II. All rings are diamonds. III. All diamonds are bangles.


28

a) Only I follows b) Only I and II follow c) Only I and III follow d) All follow e) None of these

164. Statements: All chairs are table. All tables are telephones. All telephones are cell phones. No cell phone is computer. Conclusions: I. All cell phones are tables. II. Some chairs are computers. III. No chair is computer. a) Only I follows b) Only II follows c) Only III follows d) Only either II or III follows e) None of these

165. Statements: Some rocks are hills. All hills are mountains. All mountains are rivers. No river is canal. Conclusions: I. All rocks are rivers. II. Some hills are canals. III. Some rivers arc canals. a) Only I follows b) Only II and III follow c) Only I and III follow d) Only II follows e) None follows

Directions (166-170) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions, Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani, Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting around a circle facing the

centre, Savita is second to the right to Anjali, but is not a neighbour of Amita, Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita, Jyoti is second to the right of Rani and fourth to the left of Meeta.

166. Who is second to left of Anjali? a) Radhika b) Rani c) Amita d) Meeta e) None of these

167. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha? a) Jyoti b) Radhika c) Meeta d) Jyoti or Radhika


29

e) None of these

168. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani? a) To the immediate right of Anjaii b) To the immediate left of Anjali c) To the immediate right of Savita d) Next to Jyoti e) None of these

169. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Nisha? a) Jyoti and Meeta b) Radhika and Meeta c) Savita and Jyoti d) Radhika and Jyoti e) None of these

170. Who is the immediate left of Savita? a) Jyoti b) Anjali c) Rani d) Meeta e) None of these

Directions (171-175): In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given, The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered, The operation of number progresses from left to right Rules: (i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be divided by the second one, (ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied, (iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are to be added, (iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number, (v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect square. the first number is to be divided by the second number,

171. 16 7 25 m 23 22 If 'm' is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row? a) 132 b) 88 c) 122 d) 78 e) None of these

172. 97 45 71 48 8 11 What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows? a) 68 b) 19 c) 147 d) 64


30

e) None of these

173. 125 64 33 282 X 39 If 'x' is resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row? a) 45 b) 42 c) 39 d) 36 e) None of these

174. 84 14 13 360 24 17 What is the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row? a) 100 b) 46 c) 56 d) 90 e) None of these

175. 24 7 81 X 27 19 If 'x' is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row? a) 87 b) 114 c) 4 d) 6 e) None of these

Directions (176-180) : Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below it. Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different cities Chennai , Bangalore,

Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneswar not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counselor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.

A is a Pharmacist and practices in Bhubaneswar. D practices in Bangalore but is not a Doctor of an Artist. The one who practices in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a Counselor and does not practice in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practices in Ahmedabad. F practices in Chennai but is not an artist. C practices in Mumbai.

176. What is D's profession? a) Doctor b) Professor c) Engineer d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

177. Who is the Professor? a) B b) C c) D d) E e) None of these


31

178. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct? a) Pharmacist - Jaipur b) Engineer - Chennai c) Doctor - Bangalore d) Artist - Mumbai e) None of these

179. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur? a) B b) G c) C d) B or G e) None of these

180. Who is the Doctor? a) D b) B c) C d) B or C e) None of these

Directions (181-185) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer a) if only I follows Give answer b) if only II follows. Give answer c) if either I or II follows. Give answer d) if neither I nor II follows. Give answer e) if both l and II follows.

181. Statement: Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas. Courses of Action: I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for maintenance of vehicles. II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.

182. Statement: Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country. Courses of Action: I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class. II. Government should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.

183. Statement: Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities. Courses of Action: I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their workplaces. II. Government should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.

184. Statement: Increasing levels of air pollution is creating health hazards for people living in the cities. Courses of Action: I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts of the cities. II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to run on CNG.

185. Statement: Large numbers of college students are found to be focusing more on fashion than on studies.


32

Courses of Action: I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable .clothes and accessories. II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don't find time for other things like fashion.

Directions (186-190) : Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relations between these two statements. Mark answer (I) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect. Mark answer b) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect. Mark answer c) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes. Mark answer d) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes. Mark answer e) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common causes.

186. A : Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by private vehicles. B : A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries tor many children.

187. A : The city observed lowest temperature of the decade accompanied by heavy tog during the week. B : Most of the flights from city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers.

188. A: In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified youth. B: Many youth are not able to get jobs up to their expectations.

189. A : During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city. B : Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.

190. A : During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles. B : Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.

Directions (191-195): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued.

Problem Figures Answer Figures 191.

a) b) c) d) e)

192.

a) b) c) d) e)

193.


33

a) b) c) d) e) 194.

a) b) c) d) e) 195.

a) b) c) d) e)

Directions (196-200) : In each of the following questions in four out of the five figures, element I is related to element II in the same particular way. Find out the figure in which the element I is not so related to element II.

196.

a) b) c) d) e) 197.

a) b) c) d) e)

198.

a) b) c) d) e)

199.

a) b) c) d) e)

200.

a) b) c) d) e)


34

ANSWERS

Q.1 E

Q.2 D

Q.3 D

Q.4 B

Q.5 D

Q.6 B

Q.7 D

Q.8 D

Q.9 C

Q.10 D

Q.11 E

Q.12 E

Q.13 D

Q.14 E

Q.15 C

Q.16 B

Q.17 C

Q.18 A

Q.19 C

Q.20 A

Q.21 B

Q.22 A

Q.23 A

Q.24 C

Q.25 B

Q.26 A

Q.27 B

Q.28 A

Q.29 E

Q.30 B

Q.31 B

Q.32 B

Q.33 C

Q.34 A

Q.35 C

Q.36 A

Q.37 A

Q.38 C

Q.39 B

Q.40 E

Q.41 B

Q.42 E

Q.43 E

Q.44 B

Q.45 B

Q.46 E

Q.47 E

Q.48 D

Q.49 B

Q.50 A

Q.51 D

Q.52 C

Q.53 A

Q.54 E

Q.55 B

Q.56 B

Q.57 A

Q.58 D

Q.59 E

Q.60 C

Q.61 A

Q.62 C

Q.63 E

Q.64 E

Q.65 C

Q.66 D

Q.67 B

Q.68 D

Q.69 B

Q.70 E

Q.71 E

Q.72 A

Q.73 C

Q.74 B

Q.75 D

Q.76 C

Q.77 B

Q.78 D

Q.79 E

Q.80 A

Q.81 B

Q.82 A

Q.83 E

Q.84 C

Q.85 D

Q.86 D

Q.87 E

Q.88 C

Q.89 B

Q.90 A

Q.91 A

Q.92 C

Q.93 D

Q.94 E

Q.95 B

Q.96 C

Q.97 E

Q.98 B

Q.99 A

Q.100 E

Q.101 D

Q.102 E

Q.103 E

Q.104 B

Q.105 A

Q.106 D

Q.107 C

Q.108 C

Q.109 E

Q.110 A

Q.111 B

Q.112 E

Q.113 A

Q.114 C

Q.115 D

Q.116 B

Q.117 A

Q.118 D

Q.119 C

Q.120 E

Q.121 D

Q.122 D

Q.123 C

Q.124 D

Q.125 B

Q.126 E

Q.127 B

Q.128 D

Q.129 C

Q.130 A

Q.131 C

Q.132 D

Q.133 C

Q.134 A

Q.133 A

Q.136 B

Q.137 D

Q.138 E

Q.139 A

Q.140 C

Q.141 E

Q.142 B

Q.143 C

Q.144 E

Q.145 A

Q.146 B

Q.147 D

Q.148 E

Q.149 A

Q.150 C

Q.151 E

Q.152 C

Q.153 C

Q.154 B

Q.155 A

Q.156 B

Q.157 C

Q.158 D

Q.159 D

Q.160 A

Q.161 D

Q.162 A

Q.163 C

Q.164 C

Q.165 E

Q.166 A

Q.167 A

Q.168 C

Q.169 E

Q.170 D

Q.171 E

Q.172 A

Q.173 B

Q.174 B

Q.175 D

Q.176 C


35

Q.177 A

Q.178 D

Q.179 B

Q.180 E

Q.181 B

Q.182 E

Q.183 A

Q.184 D

Q.185 B

Q.186 B

Q.187 A

Q.188 C

Q.189 E

Q.190 E

Q.191 E

Q.192 E

Q.193 E

Q.194 B

Q.195 A

Q.196 C

Q.197 E

Q.198 B

Q.199 D

Q.200 B


36

NABARD BANK - 09

TEST - I GENERAL AWARENESS Q.1. From which space centre Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) successfully launchedRISAT-2 and ANUSAT satellites by PSLV-C12. a) SatishDhawan Space Centre b) Kennedy Space Centre c) Ames Space Centre d) Pasadena Space Centre e) None of these

Q.2. Russia has signed an agreement with which country to build four additional atomic reactors? a) Japan b) India c) Spain d) Poland e) None of these

Q.3. China recently launched "Yaogan 5", a remote sensing --------- a) Missile b) Rocket c) Satellite d) Aircraft e) None of these

Q.4. In howmany crucial sectors India and Spain signed a trade agreement that is expected to boostbilateral ties? a) 3 b) 7 c) 5 d) 6 e) None of these

Q.5. In which Valley Pakistani President Asif Ali Zardari signed a regulation imposing Islamic sharialaw? a) Kashmir b) Sindhu c) Swat d) Both 2 and 3 e) None of these

Q.6. What is the full form of FATA? a) Federally Administered Tribal Areas b) Financial Administration Trade Area c) Federation Association Trade Administration d) Federal Administration Tribal Areas e) None of these


37

Q.7. Who became the first Indian women shooter to win silver in the world cup 2009? a) HeenaSidhu b) Kiran c) Meena Verma d) Hemlata e) None of these

Q.8. Who is the author of the book 'Agricultures cannot wait"? a) N.P. Menon b) Bhavabhuti c) Shobha De d) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan e) None of these

Q.9. India's steel Production Capacity is reaching 124 million tones by the year ------- a) 2009-10 b) 2010-11 c) 2011-12 d) 2012-2013 e) None of these

Q.10. Which country provided 470 Electronic VotingMachines (EVMs) to the Election Commission ofNepal to help conduct the Forthcoming by - elections? a) Pakistan b) Japan c) India d) Sri Lanka e) None of these

Q.11. Raja J. Chelliah who passed away recently was a famous -------- a) Economist b) Journalist c) Poet d) Author e) None of these

Q.12. Who is the Ambassador of India to Brazil? a) B.S. Prakash b) V.R.S. Natarajan c) Pradeep Kumar d) N.K. Rao e) None of these

Q.13. When is the "World Earth Day" celebrated? a) 22nd April b) 23rd April c) 24th April


38

d) 25th April e) None of these

Q.14. SEBI is related to Securities market, which is a ---- a) Statutory body b) Advisory body c) Constitutional body d) Non-statutory body e) None of these

Q.15. When was the SAARC established? a) On December 8,1984 b) On January 1, 1984 c) On December 8,1985 d) On January 1,1985 e) None of these

Q.16. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on "Full Convertibility on Rupee" in ---- a) Current Account b) Capital Account c) Both in current as well as in capital account d) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) e) None of these

Q.17. NIKKEI is related to a) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share market b) Name of Japanese Central Bank c) Japanese name of country's planning commission d) Foreign Exchange market of Japan e) None of these

Q.18. Project 'Sankalp' is associated with the elimination of --------- a) Illiteracy b) Polio c)Unemployment d) AIDS/HIV e) None of these

Q.19. What is stagflation? a) Inflation with growth b) Deflation with growth c) Inflation often deflation d) Inflation with depression e) None of these

Q.20. The headquarters of Asian Development Bank (ADB) is at ---- a) Singapore b) Manila


39

c) Hong Kong d) Tokyo e) None of these

Q.21. 'Closed Economy is that economy in which a) Only export takes place b) Money supply is fully controlled c) Deficit Financial takes place d) Neither export nor import takes place e) None of these

Q.22. LIC of India was established in --- a) 1897 b) 1950 c) 1956 d) 1965 e) None of these

Q.23. Health Insurance Business is associated with --- a) LIC b)UTI c)GIC d) State Trading Corporation e) None of these

Q.24. In which year and by whom Ashray Bima Yojana was launched? a) 2000, LIC b) 2001, GIC c) 2001, LIC d) 2000 GIC e) None of these

Q.25. Which Institution provides long run finance to industries a)UTI b) LIC c)GIC d) All of these e) None of these

Q.26. Who suggested to established an 'Insurance Regulation Authority' a) Dendekar Committee b) Malhotra Committee c) Khusro Committee d) Rangrajan Committee e) None of these

Q.27. Which of the following rate is not determined by Reserve Bank of India? a) Bank rate


40

b)CRR c) SLR d) PLR e) None of these

Q.28. Themeeting of G-8 and G-5 AgricultureMinisters was held in----------- a) Italy b) Iran c) Pakistan d) Japan e) None of these

Q.29. Which committee was constituted by the Tamil Nadu government to ensues into the policeaction on the Madras High Court campus? a) B.N. Krishna Committee b) Sundaradevan Committee c) Sabharwal Committee d) Ashok Mehta committee e) None of these

Q.30. The amount of grantwhich India has announced for providing humanitarian relief to civilians beingevaluated from the conflict zone in northern Sri Lanka is- a) 50 crore b) 75 crore c) 100 crore d) 150 crore e) None of these

Q.31. The world's largest exporter of gas is. ............. a)Oman b) Saudi Arabia c) Qatar d) United Arab Emirates e) None of these

Q.32. Shakti Samanta who passed away recently was a famous------------ a) Author b) Filmmaker c) Politician d) Poet e) None of these

Q.33. India will get Boeing P-8I, a long range aircraft from- a) Japan b) Russia c) U.S.A d) France e) None of these


41

Q.34. Which of the following is correct -? I. Change -I which impacted the moon recently is china’s first lunar probe. II. Change I was launched into space on October 24,2007 a) Both (I) and (II) are correct b) (I) correct c) (II) Correct d) None Correct e) None of these

Q.35. Which country won the ICC women's world cup recently? a) England b) Australia c) India d) China e) None of these

Q.36. Who is the first women to fly a MIG-35? a) Preeti Pandey b) VijayaVerma c) Suman Sharma d) Deep Shikha Sharma e) None of these

Q.37. TaufikHidayat is related to which of the following sport? a) Chess b) Table Tennis c) Badminton d)Golf e) None of these

Q.38. Who amongst the following was appointed as the caretaker Prime Minister of Fiji? a) RatuJosefa b) Frank Bainimarama c) LaiseniaQarse d) AndrayRajoelina e) None of these

Q.39. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of------------------ a) Music b) Sports c) Literature d) Film e) None of these

Q.40. What is the full form of LCIA, which has recently opened its branch at New Delhi? a) Law commission for International Aribiteration b) Luxembourg court of International Administration


42

c) London Commission for internationalAdjudication d) London Court of International Aribiteration e) None of these

Q.41. The China's People’s Liberation Army (PLA) celebrated the 60th anniversary of its– a)Navy b) Air force c) Military force d) Both a) & b) e) None of these

Q.42. Who is the chief minister of Andhra Pradesh? a) Raj Shekhar Reddy b) Vinayak Naidu c) K.Narayanan d) ShrikantGodbole e) None of these

Q.43. Who is the author of the novel ‘Empire of the Sun'? a) J.G. Ballard b) ChetanBhagat c) AslamNadim d) NavtejSharna e) None of these

Q.44. Which of the following IT companies is buying sun microsystems in a deal of $ 7.4 billion? a) Infosys b) Oracle Corp c)Wipro d) IBM e) None of these

Q.45. Which of the following countries has expelled IAEA inspectors–? a) North Korea b) Israel c) Libya d) Iran e) None of these

Q.46. Which of the following is India's first university exclusively for Social Sciences and Humanities? a) GyaniZail Singh University b) Ambedkar University c) TERI University d) Purvanchal University e) None of these

Q.47. TheWorld Development Report 2009 was released recently this report is published every year by? a) Asian Development Bank


43

b)World Bank c) International Monetary Fund d) United Nations Organization e) None of these

Q.48. The Govt. of India has decided to declare which of the following river as a National River? a) Yamuna b) Gomti c)Ganga d) Kaveri e) None of these

Q.49. Stephen Harper, who was recently in news is the---------? a) President of New Zealand b) Prime Minister of Australia c) PrimeMinister of Sweden d) Prime Minister of Canada e) None of these

Q.50. Which of the following is a correctly matched? a) Bank Rate 6% b) Repo Rate 4.75% c) CRR 5.5 d) SLR 24% e) None of these

TEST - II ENGLISH LANGUAGE Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain phrases in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Anyone who forms his own opinions and beliefs will feel that he owes no responsibility to themajority for his conclusions. If he is a genuine lover of truth, if he is inspired by a passion for seeing things as they are and a detestation of holding ideas which do not conform to facts, he will be wholly independent of the acquiesce of those around him. When he proceeds to apply his beliefs in the practical conduct of life, the position is different. There are then good reasons why his attitude should be less rigid the society in which he is placed is an ancient and composite growth. The people from whom he dissents have not come by their opinions and institutions by a process of mere haphazard. These opinions and customs all had their origin in a certain real or supposed fitness. They have a certain depth of root in the lives of a proportion of the existing generation. Their fitness for satisfying needs may have misplaced, and their congruity with one another may have come to an end. That is only one side of the truth. The most passionate propagandist cannot penetrate to them.

In common language we speak of a generation as something possessed of a kind of exact unity,with all its parts and members homogeneous. Yet plainly it is not this. It is a whole, but a whole in a state of constant flux, its factors and elements are eternally shifting. It is not one, but many generations. Each of the seven ages of man is neighbour to all the rest. The column of the veterans is already sinking into the last abyss, while the column of the newest recruits is forming.


44

To its tradition, the tendency and its possibilities, only a proportion of each can have nerveenough to grasp the banner of a new truth and endurance to bear it along rugged and un trodden ways.

Then we must remember the substance of which life is made. We must consider what an over-whelming preponderance of the most persistent energies and most concentrated interests of a society must be absorbed between material cares and the solitude of the affections. It is obviously unreasonable to lose patience and quarrel with one’s time because it is tardy in throwing off its institutions and beliefs, and slow to achieve the transformation which is the problem in front of it. Men and women have to live. The task for most of us is hard enough to make us well pleased with even such imperfect shelter as we find in daily use and customs. To insist on a whole community beingmade at once to submit to the supremacy of new practices and ideas that have just begun to acclaim themselves to themost advanced speculative intelligence of the time. This, even if it were a possible process, would do much to make life impracticable and to hurry on social dissolution.

Q.51. The overnight changes in social settings are not desirable because it will—— a) retard the progress b) lead to social disintegration c) give vitality to social life d) make a society too narrow to survive e) None of these

Q.52. The hard task according to author is to —— (A) change the society (B) earn a living (C) change according to times a) Only A and C b) Only B and C c) Only A and B d) Only A e) Only C

Q.53. The problems which is discussed in the passage reflects — a) realist attitude of the author b) the pessimistic views expressed by a group of people. c) a doctrinaire that explains the role of culture d) making good use of genuine lover of truth e) None of these

Q.54. Which of the following best describes the phrase apply his beliefs in the practical conduct of life as used in the passage? a) To indoctrinate what he believes b) To denounce what he believes c) To preach what is practiced d) To practice what is preached e) None of these

Q.55. According to author a generation, which is heterogeneous, should be perceived as a) sum total of the parts of the subsystem


45

b) a whole which is not a total of the parts c) fragmented group of people d) individual inter linkages connected through synergy e) None of these

Q.56. According to the passage, which of the following is true? a) Impatience of intellectuals with practical problems is the source of progress b) Day to day concerns dominates the life of most people c) Intellectuals are the leaders of social transformation d) Social change will be slow in the absence of effective leaders. e) None of these

Q.57. According to passage from which of the following do the customs and traditions originate? a) Ignorance of events happening around b) Leadership prevailing in the contemporary society c) Social utility of the societal set up d) Conflicts of individuals living in society e) None of these

In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correctmeaning of idiomatic expression and mark the number of that meaning as your answer in the answersheets. If you do not find any correct answer, mark e), i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Q.58. runs down a) squandering away b) amounts to c) incurring d) taking chance to meet e) None of these

Q.59. stand over (1 ) vindicate b) postpone c) enduring d) support e) None of these

Q.60. knocked up a) get exhausted b) die in an accident c) wandered about d) sold at an auction e) None of these

Q.61. make over a) prove b) decipher c) discover


46

d) give in charity e) None of these

Q.62. work on a) solve b) influence c) excite d) apply force to e) None of these

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answeris e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, it any.)

Q.63. a) Selling peanuts b) on the road is c)the only means of earning d)in respect of most of the people. e)No error

Q.64. a)Her talk was b) judged bymany c) as one of the most important talks d) given in the seminar. e)No error

Q.65. a) The boy who was guilty with b) having stolen the cell phone c) came out d) with the truth. e)No error

Q.66. a) She is the teacher b) whom I know c) has helped my son d) in the examination. e)No error

Q.67. a) You cannot demand b) all your articles c) unless you do not d) give advance notice. e)No error


47

Q.68. a) We insisted, but neither b) Lona nor her assistant c) are ready to d) work on Sunday. e)No error

Q.69. a) There is just not enough b) time in my unit to sit round c)talking about how we feel d) about each other. e)No error

Q.70. a) The act will be passed b) with a comfortable majority if all c)the partisans of d) her group favour it. e)No error

Q.71. a) Hardly had I b) entered the airport c) than I met d) my cousin Tilak. e)No error

Q.72. a) An anti-terrorism cell is opened b) by the town police c)three months ago d)as a precautionarymeasure. e)No error

Q.73. a) The artist who was giving b) detailed description of c)the sculptures was d) speaking fluently French. e)No error

Q.74. a) Martin would attempt b) to open the umbrella c)when her spectacles slipped off d) and fell down.


48

e)No error

Q.75. a) If you had not b) reached so quickly, c) we might well d) have had a disaster. e)No error

Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark e) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

Q.76. She had created problems even when she was on training while she was still waiting to take full charge of her duties. a) she has been waiting b) she had been still c) she would have still d) she has still to wait e) No correction required

Q.77. The director insisted on his orders being carried out with the letter. a) for the letter b) to the letter c) by the letter d) into the letter e) No correction required

Q.78. He admired the speedwith which Koti completed thework and appreciating the method adopted by him a) appreciate the method being adopted b) appreciated the method adopted c) appreciate the method of adoption d) appreciate the adoptingmethod e) No correction required

Q.79. Unless I get some break, I should not be able to do any more work. a) shall not be able b) should be unable c) shall not be unable d) should not be unable e) No correction required

Q.80. Some people have a habit of wearing their heart on their sleeves. a) bearing their heart on their sleeves. b) wearing heart on their sleeves c) wearing their heart on sleeves. d) bearing their heart on their sleeve


49

e) No correction required

Q.81. Your plea that you were thorough ignorant of the consequences cannot be accepted. a) had thorough ignorance b) were thoroughly ignorance c) had thoroughly ignorant d) were thoroughly ignorant e) No correction required

Q.82. I had met him after the party where he had been given an inspiring speech. a) when he had b) where he would have c) in which he was given d) where he had e) No correction required

Q.83. Because of scientific progress, we expect to live better than our parents have. a) should expect to live better than our parent b) expect to live as good as our parents live c) expect to live better than our parents did d) expected to live better than -our parents e) No correction required

Q.84. I cannot put up with that nasty fellow. a) put up b) put at c) put on with d) put up in e) No correction required

Q.85. It is useless to run away from every danger, risksmust not be taken. a) no risks must be b) any risk must be c) although risks must be d) some risks must be e) No correction needed

In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as a), b), c) and d). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence, Find out the word that is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark e), i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer. Q.86. After severelrounds of discussions the Manager accented to our proposal. a) several b) discussions c) accented d) proposal e) All correct


50

Q.87. The indefatigable zeal and fearlessness with which the youth worked rejoiced me beyond a) indefatigable b)fearlessness c)rejoiced d)measure e)All correct

Q.88. He slipped away in the night and reached there in the morning. a)slipped away b) night c) reached d) morning e)All correct.

Q.89. He let the laugher wash away the tension and then held up her hand. a) laugher b) away c) tension d) held e)All correct

Q.90. The author also advocated fresh vegetables and fruits as naturel diet of aged peoples. a) advocated b) vegetables c) fruits d) naturel e)All correct

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

It is a pity that we do not have good books on insurance written by Indian authors (91) to thesteady growth of literature on the subject in other countries especially, the U.S.A. whose insurance laws and (92) are very much similar to those of our country. And students studying in our colleges and themillions of insurance employees appearing for various insurance examinations have to depend (93) on books written by foreign authors. As these books mainly deal with the problems of insurance industry of foreign countries the (94) of the insurance scene in India and the various legal (95) and insurance procedures remains very weak. To (96) the insurance employees and the college students who have opted for (97) courses in insurance with different aspects of theory and practice of insurance we should have good and (98) textbooks. The book under review written by V. M. R. Nair himself an experienced and (99) expert on insurance law based on leading Indian cases will be found very useful by students of insurance sector as a (100) guide to the principles of insurance.

Q.91. a)paving b)corresponding c)following


51

d)emphasize e)correcting

Q.92. a)process b)product c)notes d)currency e)procedures

Q.93. a)slightly b)upon c)still d)at e)until

Q.94. a)prove b)search c)application d)understanding e)acknowledge

Q.95. a)law b)aspects c)experts d)books e)loop

Q.96. a)equip b)arm c)decorate d)promote e)load

Q.97. a)optional b)expensive c)tough d)deep e)specialized

Q.98. a)authentic b)voluminous


52

c)many d)prompt e)shining Q.99. a)consulting b)qualified c)rich d)merchant e)tired

Q.100. a)learned b)powerful c)ready d)comprehensive e)prescribed

TEST- III QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q.101. = 756 *67 +804 a) 195112 b) 250047 c) 226981 d) 274625 e) None of these

Q.102. 0.3 + 3 + 3.33 + 3.3 + 3.03 + 333 =? a) 375.66 b) 345.99 c) 375.93 d) 355.96 e) None of these

Q.103. (73425 - 33267 - 22418 - 17650) × ? a) 10165 b) 9785 c) 8370 d) 9450 e) None of these

Q.104. -76 × 33 + 221 =? a) -2287 b) -19304 c) 2287 d) 19304


53

e) None of these

Q.105. (34.12)2 - 7396 =? a) 1080.1744 b) 1078.1474 c) 1078.1744 d) 1080.1474 e) None of these

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? Q.106. 15 25 40 130? 2560 a) 500 b) 520 c) 490 d) 480 e) None of these

Q.107. 186 94 48 25? 7.75 a) 13.5 b) 14.8 c) 12.5 d) 14 e) None of these

Q.108. 124 112 176 420 1488? a) 8568 b) 7140 c) 5712 d) 6150 e) None of these

Q.109. 384 381 372 345 264? a) 23 b) 25 c) 43 d) 24 e) None of these

Q.110. 282 286 302? 402 502 a) 366 b) 318 c) 326 d) 338 e) None of these

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below: Annual Income of Various Individuals over the years (Income in Lac Rupees)


54

Years Individuals

A B C D E F

2002 5.50 3.20 4.80 6.35 6.15 3.50

2003 5.65 3.25 4.85 6.55 6.25 3.65

2004 5.7 3.725 4.95 7.155 6.425 3.75

2005 6.20 4.25 5.10 7.35 7.15 4.0

2006 6.50 4.50 5.20 7.40 7.25 4.25

2007 6.75 5.0 5.25 7.48 7.285 4.80

2008 7.0 5.35 5.30 8.0 7.30 5.10

Q.111. What is the approximate average monthly income of A over the years? a) Rs 44,762 b) Rs. 48,348 c) Rs. 53,216 d) Rs. 51,245 e) Rs. 42,102

Q.112. What is the respective ratio of the annual income of B to that of C in the year 2005? a) 6:5 b) 6 : 7 c) 5 : 6 d) 7:6 e) None of these

Q.113. What is the difference between the total annual income of all the individuals in the year 2003 and total annual income of all the individuals in the year 2007? a) Rs. 7,36,500/- b) Rs. 6,45,400/- c) Rs. 6,36,500/ d) Rs. 7,43,300/- e) None of these

Q.114. The annual income of E in the year 2004 is approximately what percent of the average annual income earned by E over the years? a) 98 b) 86 c) 88 d) 94 e) 91

Q.115. What is the average annual income of F over the years? a) Rs. 4,16,000/-


55

b) Rs. 4,25,000/- c) Rs. 4,01,500/- d) Rs,. 4,15,500/- e) None of these

Q.116. Asha’s monthly income is 60% of Deepak’s monthly income and 120% of Maya’s monthly income. What is Maya’s monthly income if Deepak’s monthly income is Rs, 78,000/-? a) Rs 39,000/- b) Rs. 42,000/- c) Rs. 36,000/- d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.117. The sum of 5 numbers is 924. The average of first two numbers is 201.5 and the average of last two numbers is 196. What is the third number? a) 133 b) 129 c) 122 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.118. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FINANCE’ be arranged? a) 5040 b) 2040 c) 2510 d) 4080 e) None of these

Q.119. The profit earned after selling a wrist watch for Rs. 4,080/- is the same as loss incurred after selling the same wrist watch for Rs. 3,650/-. What is the cost price of the wrist watch? a) Rs. 3,785/- b) Rs. 3,800/- c) Rs. 3,775/- d) Rs. 3,865/- e) None of these

Q.120. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 240% and the denominator of the fraction is

decreased by 50%, the resultant fraction is 2 . What is the original fraction?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions below it. Number of students (Males & Females) passed out from various Colleges in a year.


56

(Number in thousands)

Q.121. What is the average number of students (Males & Females) passed out from all the collegestogether? a) 38000 b) 48000 c) 42000 d) 51000 e) None of these

Q.122. The number of Females passed out from college C is approximately what percent the total number of Females passed out from all the colleges together? a) 28 b) 30 c) 36 d) 25 e) 40

Q.123. What is the difference between the total number of students passing out from college A and the total number of students is passing out from college E? a) 20,500 b) 21,000 c) 10,500 d) 10,000 e) None of these

Q.124. What is the respective ratio of the total number of Males to the total number of Females passed out from all the colleges together? a)19:23 b)18:25 c) 23:19


57

d) 25:18 e) None of these

Q.125. The number of Males passing out from colleges A and B together is what percent of the number of females passing out from colleges C and D together? a) 45 b) 40 c) 35 d) 50 e) None of these

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) Q.126. 7428 ÷ 346 × 12 =? a) 256 b) 251 c) 258 d) 247 e) 266

Q.127. 15.2% of 726 × 12.8% of 643 =? a) 9110 b) 9088 c) 9100 d) 9096 e) 9082

Q.128. (36.14)2 - (21.28)2 =? a) 888 b) 853 c) 846 d) 871 e) 865

Q.129. * a) 150 b) 180 c) 190 d) 200 e) 196

Q.130. 496 ÷ 0.6 × 0.5 =? a) 413 b) 595 c) 148 d) 1653 e) 498


58

Q.131. 40% of 60% of th of a number is 504. What is 25% of th of that number?


Q.132. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 9. What is the difference between the two digits of the number? a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.133. In a class there are 32 boys and 28 girls. The average age of the boys in the class is 14 years and the average age of the girls in the class is 13 years. What is the average age of the whole class? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 13.50 b) 13.53 c) 12.51 d) 13.42 e) None of these

Q.134. In a test consisting of 80 questions carrying one mark each, Arpita answers 65% of the first 40 questions correctly.What percent of the other 40 questions does she need to answer correctly to score 75% on the entire test? a) 60 b) 80 c) 75 d) 40 e) None of these

Q.135. Manisha invests an amount of Rs. 39,300/- for 4 years at the rate of 4 p. c. p. a. What amount of approximate compound interest will she obtain at the end of 4 years? a) Rs. 6,675/- b) Rs. 6,650/- c) Rs. 6,288/- d) Rs. 6,356/- e) Rs. 6,450/-

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Price per kilogram (in Rs.) at which 5 different Farmers sell 6 different products


59

Products Farmers

P Q R S T

Rice 20 15 20.5 24 22

Wheat 18 16 15 15.5 20

Jowar 16.5 15 18 20 15

Bajra 15 14 14.5 13.5 12

Maize 13 14 12.5 12 14.5

Sugarcane 10 8 11.5 10.5 8

Q.136. What is the difference between the average price of per kg. of Maize sold by all the farmers and the average price of per kg. of Sugarcane sold by all the farmers? a) Rs. 3/- b) Rs. 4.5/- c) Rs. 4.2/- d) Rs. 3.6/- e) None of these

Q.137. What is the respective ratio of the total price (per kg.) of all the products sold byQ to those sold by R? a) 41 : 43 b) 43 : 48 c) 43 : 46 d) 41 : 48 e) None of these

Q.138. If farmer Q sells 14 kgs. of Wheat, 21 kgs. of Jowar and 30 kgs.of Sugarcane, what will be his total earning? a) Rs. 699/- b) Rs. 779/- c) Rs. 650/- d) Rs. 786/- e) None of these

Q.139. If farmer P sells 50 kgs. of rice and farmer S sells 60 kgs. of wheat, what is the difference in amount by either of the farmers in selling their products? a) Rs. 70/- b) Rs. 65/- c) Rs. 80/- d) Rs. 85/- e) None of these

Q.140. If each farmer sells 100 kgs. of Jowar and 50 kgs. of Bajra, which farmer will earn the most? a) P b) R c) S d) Q e) T


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Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it. Number of Students studying in Various Colleges from Various Faculties

(Number in thousands)

Q.141. What is the difference between the total number of students studying in college H and those studying in college K? a) 16100 b) 15800 c) 16300 d) 16700 e) None of these

Q.142. What is the total number of students studying in all the colleges together? a) 520900 b) 520700 c) 610200 d) 510800 e) None of these

Q.143. What is the respective ratio of the students from the faculty of Science from colleges H and I together to the students from the same faculty from colleges J and K together? a) 43:45 b) 41 : 43 c) 45:43 d) 43:41 e) None of these

Q.144. The number of students from the faculty of Science from college I are approximately what percent of the total number of students studying in that college? a) 34 b) 37 c) 29 d) 31 e) 39


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Q.145. What is the average number of students from the faculty of Commerce from all the colleges together? a) 36825 b) 38655 c) 35625 d) 36585 e) None of these

Q.146. 12 children can complete a piece of work in 21 days. Approximately, how many children will be required to complete the same piece of work in 15 days? a) 24 b) 14 c) 22 d) 17 e) 20

Q.147. Mangesh spends 17% of his monthly income in travelling. He spends 25% of his monthly income on house hold expenses and spends 36% of his monthly income on families’ medicalexpenses. He has remaining amount of Rs. 10,032/- as cash with him. What is Mangesh’sannual income? a) Rs. 5,50,300/- b) Rs. 5,36,500/- c) Rs,5,47,200/- \ d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.148. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 3248.Which is the larger number? a) 58 b) 62 c) 56 d) 60 e) None of these

Q.149. The average marks of 65 students in a class was calculated as 150. It was later realized that the mark of one of the students was calculated as 142, whereas his actual marks were 152.What is the actual averagemarks of the group of 65 students? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a)151.25 b)150.15 c)151.10 d)150.19 e) None of these

Q.150. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 575.What is the sum of the next set of the consecutive odd numbers? a) 615 b) 635 c) 595 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these


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TEST - IV REASONINGABILITY Q.151. In a certain code DESPAIR is written as TFEQSJB. How is NUMERAL written in that code? a) OVNFMBS b) NVOFSBN c) NVOMFBS d) NVOFMBS e) None of these

Q.152. If it is possible tomake only onemeaningful word with the first, second, sixth and tenth letters of the word DISCLAIMER, which of the following will be the third letter from the left? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such words can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer. a) I b) R c) D d)X e) Y

Q.153. How many such digits are there in the number 27561493 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number? a)None b)One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

Q.154. If ‘yellow’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘green’, and ‘green’ is called violet’, what is the colour of clear sky? a) Green b) Violet c) Yellow d) Red e) None of these

Q.155. It was 9.35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9.25 a.m. Reena’s watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus? a) 5 minutes b) 10 minutes c) 15 minutes d) 25 minutes e) None of these

Q.156. Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers? 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3 a) 2 b) 3


63

c) 4 d) 5 e) None of these

Q.157. Howmanymeaningful English words can be formed with the letters EDOM using each letter only once in each word? a)None b)One c) Two d) Three e) Morethanthree

Q.158. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) Nephew b) Cousin c)Mother d) Brother e) Sister

Q.159. Howmany pairs of letters are there in the word SECURITY each of which has as many alphabets between them as there are in the English alphabetical series? a)None b) Two c) Three d) Four e) More than four

Q.160. In a certain code STAR is written as 5$ *2 and TORE is written a $32@. How is OATS written inthat code? a) 3*5$ b) 3* $5 c) 3$*5 d) 35*$ e) None of these

In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q.161. Statements Some doctors are lawyers. All teachers are lawyers. Some engineers are lawyers. All engineers are businessmen. Conclusions . I. Some teachers are doctors. II. Some businessmen are lawyers. III. Some businessmen are teachers. IV. Some lawyers are teachers.


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a) None follow b) Only II follows c) Only III follows d) Only II and IV follow e) None of these

Q.162. Statements : All plastics are glasses. Some sponges are glasses. All sponges are clothes. All clothes are liquids. Conclusions : I. All liquids are sponges. II. Some plastics are clothes. III. All glasses are plastics. IV. All liquids are clothes. a) None follows b) Only either II or IV follows c) Only IV follows d) Only III and IV follow e) None of these

Q.163. Statements:All sands are beaches. All shores are beaches. Some beaches are trees. All trees are hotels. Conclusions: I. Some shores are hotels. II. All beaches are shores. III. Some beaches are hotels. IV. Some sands are trees. a) None follows b) Only II follows c) Only either I or III follows d) Only IV follows e) None of these

Q.164. Statements:All parrots are pigeons. Some crows are pigeons. Some sparrows are crows. All sparrows are koels. Conclusions: I. Some koelsare crows. II. Some parrots are crows. III. Some sparrows are pigeons. IV. No crow is a parrot. a) Only I follows b) Only III follows c) Only I and either II or IV follow d) Only either I or III follows e) None of these

Q.165. Statements : All chairs are tables. All tables are cushions. Some cushions are trolleys. All trolleys are lamps. Conclusions :


65

I. Some lamps are tables. II. Some trolleys are chairs. III. Some cushions are lamps. IV. All chairs are cushions. a) Only I follows b) Only III and IV follow c) Only either I or II follows d) All follow e) None of these

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits second to the left of D who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits third to the right of B who sits second of the right of G.

Q.166. Who sits between D and C? a) Only B b) Only C and A c) Only G d) Only E e) Only G and E

Q.167. Who sits second to the right of E? a) B b) F c) G d) C e) None of these

O.168. What is the position of A with respect to H? a) Third to the left b) Third to the right c) Second to the left d) Second to the right e) Fourth to the left

Q.169. Four of the following five are alike based upon their seating arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a)CH b) FG c) DA d) BE e) GB

Q.170. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person? a) DB b) EH


66

c) FA d)GD e) None of these

These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions. 8 # B 2 © E K 7 % 5 A I $ G D 9 4 U * C 6 H @ 1 3

Q.171. How may such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also followed by a symbol? a)None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Morethanthree

Q.172. Which of the following should replace the question mark(?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? 2EK,%A1, G94,? a) *6H b) UC6 c) *CH d) *6@ e) None of these

Q.173. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of seventeenth from the left end of the arrangement? a) $ b) G c) A d) D e) None of these

Q.174. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end? a)% b) K c) * d) C e) None of these

Q.175. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediatelypreceded by a number and also immediately followed by a letter? a)None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Morethanthree


67

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow: ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. ‘P - Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.

Q.176. How is T related to S in the expression T × R + V ÷ S’? a) Sister b)Mother c) Aunt d) Uncle e) None of these

Q.177. How is T related to S in the expression T × R ÷ V - S’? a) Father b) Sister c) Daughter d) Aunt e) None of these

Q.178. How is S related to T in the expression T + R – V + S’? a) Uncle b) Nephew c) Son d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.179. Which of the following means that ‘S is the husband of T’? a) T * R- V + S b) T–R ÷ V × S c) T - R + V ÷ S d) T ÷ R × V + S e) None of these

Q.180. How is V related to T in the expression ‘T ÷ R + V × S’? a) Aunt b) Nephew c) Niece d) Uncle e) None of these

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and – Give answer a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.


68

Give answer b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer c) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, Give answer d) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer e) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.181. How is A related to B? I. A is sister-in-law of C who is the daughter-in-law of B who is the wife of D. II. B is the mother of A’s son’s only uncle’s son.

Q.182. Amongst A, B, C, D, E and F each are having a different height, who is the shortest? I. C is shorter than only B. II. A is taller than only D and F.

Q.183. Point X is in which direction with respect to Y? I. Point Z is at equal distance from both point X and point Y. II. Walking 5 km. to the East of point X and taking two consecutive right turns after walking 5 kms. before each turn leads to point Y.

Q.184. How is ‘must’ written in a code language? I. ‘you must see’ is written as ‘la pa ni’ and ‘did you see’ is written as ‘joni pa’ in that code language. II. "you did that" is written as’ pa sijo’ in that code language.

Q.185. On which day of the week does Arti’s birthday fall? I. Sonu correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls after Wednesday but before Sunday. II. Raj correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls before Friday but after Tuesday.

Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes ormay be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer a) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. Mark answer b) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. Mark answer c) if both the statements I and II are independent causes. Mark answer d) if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. Mark answer e) if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Q.186. I. Computer education has been made compulsory for all the classes by many schools. II. The current jobmarket prefers computer literate workforce.

Q.187. I. The standard of education in evening colleges of the State has been deteriorating. II. The standard of school education has been fast deteriorating in the State.

Q.188. I. All domestic airlines increased the fares in all sectors with immediate effect.


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II. Railways increased the fare of all its classes with immediate effect.

Q.189. I. The prices of fruits and vegetables fell substantially over the last few days. II. The quality of fruits and vegetables improved considerably over the last few days.

Q.190. I. Recent floods in the area changed the nutritional contents of the soil. II. Farmers in the area switched over to cultivating rice instead of wheat.

In the following questions, the symbols #, $,%, * andare used with the following meaning as illustrated below : ‘A # B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’ ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller nor equal to B’. ‘A%B’means ‘A is neither smaller nor greater than B’. ‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater nor equal to B’. ‘A@ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’, Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly, Mark answer a) if only conclusion I is true. Mark answer b) if only conclusion II is true. Mark answer c) if either conclusion I or II is true. Mark answer d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Mark answer e) if both conclusions I and II are true.

O.191. Statements : A # B, B % C, C * D Conclusions : I. C @ AII. A # D

Q.192. Statements : P $ Q,Q @ S, S % R Conclusions : I. P @ R II. R $ Q

Q.193. Statements : W * X, X # Y, Y $ Z Conclusions : I. W * Z II. W @ Z

Q.194. Statements : G @ H, H $ J, J % K Conclusions : I. K * G II. J * G

Q.195. Statements : N @ M, M $ P, P # T Conclusions : I. T # N II. P * N

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends studying seven different branches of engineering,


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NamelyMechanical, Chemical, Electrical, Electronics, Civil, Computers and Aeronautical Engineering, not necessarily in this order. Each of them studies in three different colleges, X, Y and Z. Not less than two study in any college. D studies Electrical engineering in College X. The one who studies Chemical Engineering does not study in college Z. F studies Aeronautical engineering in college Y with only B. A does not study in college X and does not study Civil engineering. E studies Computer engineering and does not study in college X. G studies Electronics engineering but not in college X. None in college X studies Mechanical or Civil engineering.

Q.196. Which of the following group represents the persons studying in college Z? a) D,B b) C, E, G c) A,G d) G, E, A e) None of these

Q.197. In which of the following colleges does C study? a)X b) Y c) Z d) Either X or Z e) Cannot be determined

Q.198. Which of the following combinations is correct? a) A– Civil –Z b) B– Chemical –Y c) C– Chemical–Z d) G– Electronics –Y e) None of these

Q.199. B studies in which of the following branches of engineering? a) Chemical b) Mechanical c) Civil d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.200. Who studies Chemical engineering? a) B b) C c) E d) A e) None of these

ANSWERS on next page


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Q.1 C

Q.2 E

Q.3 B

Q.4 D

Q.5 A

Q.6 D

Q.7 C

Q.8 B

Q.9 E

Q.10 A

Q.11 D

Q.12 E

Q.13 B

Q.14 A

Q.15 C

Q.16 D

Q.17 B

Q.18 C

Q.19 A

Q.20 E

Q.21 D

Q.22 C

Q.23 A

Q.24 B

Q.25 E

Q.26 D

Q.27 E

Q.28 B

Q.29 E

Q.30 A

Q.31 C

Q.32 D

Q.33 B

Q.34 C

Q.35 B

Q.36 D

Q.37 A

Q.38 E

Q.39 C

Q.40 B

Q.41 A

Q.42 B

Q.43 D

Q.44 C

Q.45 E

Q.46 C

Q.47 A

Q.48 E

Q.49 E

Q.50 D

Q.51 B

Q.52 A

Q.53 A

Q.54 D

Q.55 E

Q.56 B

Q.57 E

Q.58 E

Q.59 E

Q.60 E

Q.61 D

Q.62 B

Q.63 D

Q.64 D

Q.65 A

Q.66 B

Q.67 C

Q.68 C

Q.69 B

Q.70 D

Q.71 B

Q.72 A

Q.73 D

Q.74 A

Q.75 A

Q.76 E

Q.77 B

Q.78 B

Q.79 A

Q.80 E

Q.81 D

Q.82 D

Q.83 C

Q.84 E

Q.85 D

Q.86 A

Q.87 E

Q.88 A

Q.89 A

Q.90 D

Q.91 B

Q.92 E

Q.93 C

Q.94 D

Q.95 B

Q.96 A

Q.97 E

Q.98 A

Q.99 B

Q.100 D

Q.101 B

Q.102 E

Q.103 D

Q.104 A

Q.105 C

Q.106 E

Q.107 A

Q.108 B

Q.109 E

Q.110 D

Q.111 D

Q.112 C

Q.113 C

Q.114 D

Q.115 E

Q.116 A

Q.117 B

Q.118 E

Q.119 D

Q.120 C

Q.121 C

Q.122 B

Q.123 E

Q.124 A

Q.125 D

Q.126 C

Q.127 E

Q.128 B

Q.129 E

Q.130 D

Q.131 D

Q.132 C

Q.133 B

Q.134 E

Q.135 A

Q.136 D

Q.137 E

Q.138 B

Q.139 A

Q.140 C

Q.141 D

Q.142 B

Q.143 C

Q.144 A

Q.145 E

Q.146 D

Q.147 E

Q.148 A

Q.149 B

Q.150 E

Q.151 D

Q.152 E

Q.153 B

Q.154 E

Q.155 A

Q.156 C

Q.157 D

Q.158 B

Q.159 C

Q.160 B

Q.161 D

Q.162 A

Q.163 E

Q.164 C


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Q.165 B

Q.166 A

Q.167 B

Q.168 D

Q.169 C

Q.170 E

Q.171 C

Q.172 A

Q.173 E

Q.174 B

Q.175 C

Q.176 E

Q.177 B

Q.178 D

Q.179 C

Q.180 A

Q.181 D

Q.182 D

Q.183 B

Q.184 A

Q.185 E

Q.186 B

Q.187 D

Q.188 D

Q.189 E

Q.190 A

Q.191 A

Q.192 D

Q.193 C

Q.194 E

Q.195 B

Q.196 D

Q.197 A

Q.198 E

Q.199 C

Q.200 B


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NABARD BANK OFFICER EXAM 09

General Awareness 1. In the present context of socioeconomic development the concept of "Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs" is popularly known as the concept of- a) Sustainable Development b) Uniform growth c) Target-driven Growth d) No risk- No growth e) Social Viability

2. Which of the following statements about the agricultural sector in economy of India is/are correct? (A) Agricultural growth has reduced poverty of the people locally and, through its external effects also in many other parts of the country. (B) Food and nutrition security in the country has increased substantially. (C) The area of cultivation has increased in recent past as agriculture has become a full time employment for the people, which was not so a few years back. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & B only e) All A, B & C

3. In recent years it has been recognized increasingly that a large segment of the rural population is out of the reach of the formal banking services. Which of the following is the name of the concept floated to bring most of these rural in the net of financial and banking services? a) Corporate Governance b) Financial Inclusion c) Wealth Creation d) Credit Management e) Risk Management

4. As we all know that the present pattern of agricultural growth has resulted in a variety of environmental degradation of soil, water, air and biodiversity. Which of the following is/are the main practice(s) of the present pattern of agriculture, which has given birth to such degradation? (A) Excess use of chemical inputs in the form of fertilizers, pesticides/insecticides and boosters. (B) Abandonment of traditional practices built over several milletmia. (C) Continuous flogging of land through multiple cropping. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & C only e) All A, B & C

5. As we all know the per capita of food availability is far better in the country these days and it has also reduced our dependence on imports of most of the food commodities. Which of the following are the agriculture related things on which we are still dependent on imports largely? (A) Wheat (B) Sugar (C) Edible oils (D) Pulses a) Only A & B both b) Only C & D both


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c) Only A, C & D d) Only B, C & D e) All A, B, C & D

6. As we all know migration of people from one place to the ·other has always been a topic of interest to economists and social scientists. Which of the following migrations is called a historical one and is often referred as "Mother of All Migrations in the Word"? a) Intercontinental migration from Europe to America and beyond. b) Migration of agricultural labour from Bihar and UP to various states in India. c) Migration of Keralites to Gulf countries. d) Migration of Gujaratis to USA and UK after outbreak of plague, communal riots, and several major earthquakes in state. e) None of these

7. As per the recent research reports published in papers/journals more than half of all child deaths are associated with malnutrition. Which of the following is/are the major reasons of malnutrition in India? (A) Low birth weight because of poor nutritional status of the mother. (B) High levels of disease caused by poor hygienic conditions and polluted water. (C) Improper feedi.ng practices. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

8. The Agro processing sectors in India has shown a positive growth in recent past. What is/are the major factors which has/have contributed to this growth in this sector? (A) There is a change in consumption pattern. Food budget is allocated to high value Commodities like raw fruits, vegetables and livestock etc. (B) Growth in export .demands for high value and processed food items. Hence for people are taking up that business (C) More and more people are migrating to cities and urban areas where demand for processed food is high. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

9. The phenomena of the decline howsoever initiated or instigated occurred in some measures of aggregate economic activity and causing cascading declines in GDP and other key measures of "economic activity" in the terms of economics is called - a) terminal growth b) recession c) business cycle d) deflation e) domino effect

10. As we all know Govt. of India has given much attention to improve the Public Health in the country. Way so much attention is given to improve the same, which in the opinion of general public is a personal goal and should be an individual effort? (A) Poor public health conditions take economic toll in various ways. (B) Govt. wish to invest in it because it wants to prevent diseases-rather than treat them (C) If the general health of the people in a country is weak investors do not wish to invest in that country. Even tourists also do not want to visit the land.


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a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

11. The Govt. of India is giving much importance to the development of "Special Economic Zones" these which of the following statement(s) is/are 'TRUE' about the features of the Special Economic Zones? (A) Special Economic Zones refer to areas within a country where some of the economic laws and restrictions of the land are relaxed (B) Special Economic Zones are being developed to given an opportunity to the weaker section of society who did not have enough opportunities to develop financially and economically. (C) In India development of Special Economic Zones started way back in 1980 when first such project was launched in Karnataka. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) AII A, B & C e) None of these

12. India has several major dams almost in all states. Which of the following was/were the reasons for which these dams were built? (A) Flood control and water supply (B) Relocate the population (C) Power generation (D) Irrigation facilities a) Only A& B b) Only C & D c) Only A, C & D d) AII B, C & F e) None of these

13. Which of the following concepts is not a major concept frequently referred in the economic literature of Dr. Amartya Sen the Nobel Prize winner Economist? a) Positive freedom b) Negative freedom c) Corporate ethic d) Capability to function e) Welfare economics

14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana? (A) The Yojana was launched in the year 1955 with the aim to connect each and every village with the National Highway. (B) The Yojana was to be completed by the year 2000. But only 60% job is done so far. (C) The fund for the Yojana were arranged by a loan from the Asian Development Bank, which sanctioned an amount of Rs.1,20,000 lakh crore that time. India has availed 95% of that amount but job done is only 60% a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

15. Which amongst the following organizations make major credit policies for the regional Rural Banks (RRBs)? a) NABARD


76

b) Asian Development Bank c) Word Bank d) State Bank of India e) None of these

16. As we all know Govt. of India has launched many schemes for the welfare of the workers from unorganized sectors As per recent estimates about what percent of all workforce in India is engaged in informal or unorganized sector? a) 50% b) 90% c) 70% d) 80% e) 60%

17. Which of the following is/are true about the Indira Awas Yojana of the Govt. of India? (A) The scheme was the sub-scheme of the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) (B) The scheme was launched to provide housing accommodation to rural people Below Poverty Line (BPL) only (C) Under the scheme the allotment of the house is done in the name of the female members of the household in the joint ames of the husband and wife. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Al! A, B & C e) None of these

18. As we all know Govt. gives enough emphasis on the development of Small Scale Industry (SSI) Sector. What is the role of SSI sector in a developing economy like Indian Economy? (A) SSI sector plays an important role in development of economy as around 40 percent of the GDF comes from this sector (B) SSI absorbs surplus labour and helps in equitable distribution of income. (C) Approximately 35% of total exports of India comes from Small Industrial Sector. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) AII A, B & C e) None of these

19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA)? (A) NREGA was enacted first to provide job to rural people only but now people in urban areas can also avail the jobs under it (B) NREGA is applicable in all districts of the country now. (C) NREGA was initially provided a 100 days job but now the number of days is increased to 150. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

20. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about National Food For Work Programme (NFFWP) of the Govt. of India. (A) NFFWP was launched to provide additional resources to most backward 150 districts of India. (B) The beneficiary of the NFFWP is required to work for 5 days a week for at least 10 weeks at a stretch (C) The beneficiaries of NFFWP are paid their wages in the form of Wheat and Rice for their work. The payment of ration is done to them daily at 6.30 p.m. or immediately after the day's work is over which should be latest by 9.30 p.m.


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a) Only A b) Only B c) Both B & C d) AII A, B & C e) None of these

21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are now the pmt of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA)? (A) Eraduari Mam Grane Sadak Yojena (B) Relocate the population (C) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana a) Only A b) Only B c) Both B & C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

22. Micro creditor micro finance is a novel approach to banking with the poor. In this approach bank credit is extended to the poors through - a) Self Help Groups b) Anganwadees c) Cooperative Credit Societies d) Reserve Bank of India e) Small Industries Development Bank

23. Which of the following is/are the major problems of rural indebtedness? (A) Indian Earner borrows year after year but is not in a position to clear off its loans. (B) The size of the loans taken by the Indian fanners is too large whereas his agricultural output is not large enough to pay off his debt. (C) Most of the farmers are still taking loans from the informal sources who charge a very high rate of interest. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A & B e) All A, B & C

24. The concept of Micro finance was launched in which of the following countries initially? a) Bangladesh b) India c) Egypt d) Israel e) Sri Lanka

25. Which of the following is NOT an institutional credit agency? a) Cooperative Society b) Money Lender c) Commercial Banks d) Regional Rural Banks e) Government Agencies

26. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) gets some amount of its funds from which of the following organizations for its various schemes? (A) World Bank (B) Bank of America


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(C) IDA a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A& B e) All A, B & C

27. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in the year- a) 1970 b) 1982 c) 1977 d) 1980 e) 1975

28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE about the activities of the NABARD? (A) NABARD has the responsibility to inspect RRBs and Cooperative Banks. (B) NABARD maintains Research and Development Fund to promote research in agriculture and rural development. (C) NABARD is a wing of Planning Commission of India. a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A & B only d) Only C e) All A, B & C

29. The Union Budget for 1995-96 proposed the creation of RIDF in NABARD, with a corpus of Rs. 2,000 Crores. What is the full form of RIDF? a) Rural India decoration Forum b) Research and Industrial Development Forum c) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund d) Research and Industrial Development Fund e) None of these

30. Which of the following statements about the NABARD is/are TRUE- (A) NABARD has a dual role to play as it is an apex body and a refinance institution. (B) NABARD services as a refinance institution for all kinds of production and investment credit to agriculture and cottage and village industries. (C) NABARD accepts short term deposits from the public like any other bank to improve its capital base a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Only A & B e) All A, B & C

31. Head Office of the National Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development (NABARD) is located in - a) Delhi b) Hyderabad c) Mumbai d) T+H+L e) None of these

32. India's first transgenic crop was- a) Sugarcane b) Brinjal


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c) Bt. Cotton d) Potato e) None of these

33. India and some other countries raised strong objection on a major issue in the meetings of the World Trade Organization (WTO). What was the issue? a) Use of genetically modified crops b) Pro viding subsidy to agro -products c) Method of deciding cost of crude oil by OPEC members d) Use of Hydrogen as alternative fuel in future e) None of these

34. Who amongst the following is the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award 2008? a) Dr Prakash & Mandakini Amte b) Dr. Amartya Sen c) Ms Barkha Dutt d) Dr. M.S. Ahluwalia e) None of these

35. Which of the following is the organization, which is the apex body in cooperative sector and deals in procurement distribution export and import of selected agricultural commodities? a) NAFED b) NABARD c) SIDBI d) EXIM Bank e) None of these

36. Mahesh Bhupati and Sania Mirza won their first Grand Slam Title together when they defeated their opponents in- a) Wimbledon Open b) Australian Open c) Davis Cup Final d) US Open e) Wightman Cup Final

37. Which of the following states in India is at the top in the list of those who availed credit through Self Help Groups (SHGs)? a) Andhra Pradesh b) Goa c) Arunachal Pradesh d) West Bengal e) Kerala

38. Which of the following is the amount Govt. of India has sanctioned to provide relief to farmers so that they may come out of their debt? a) Rs. 10000 crore b) Rs. 20000 crore c) Rs. 30000 crore d) Rs. 40000 crore e) None of these

39. Which of the following is/are the goals of the Bharat Ninnan? (A) To bring additional one crore hectares under assured irrigation. (B) To provide cooked -food to about 12 core children in their school itself.


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(C) To construct 60 lakh additional houses for rural poors. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Only A& B e) Only A & B Both

40. As we all know flood is a major natural calamity in India. Which of the following statements is I are true about various aspects of flood and flood management in India (A) Out of total geographical area of 329 million hectare about 40 million hectare is prone to flood. (B) Till 2007 about 18 million hectare area was provided with protection against floods by way of construction of embankments, drainage channel and raising of platforms. (C) Since installation of a flood forecasting system in 2004 no major flood has taken place in India. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & B Only e) Only B & C Both.

41. Which of the following as an easy way of providing credit to the farmer community? a) Kisah Credit Card b) Indira Vikas Patra c) National Savine Certificates d) Loan against gold e) None of these

42. India recently test tired a new surface to surface missle called- a) Meghavarna b) Columbus c) Antariksha d) Pawan e) Shourya

43. The Summit of Leaders of the G-20 was organized in November 2008 in- a) Paris b) Tokyo c) Washington DC d) London e) Milan

44. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Between the Assassinations"? a) Daniellc Steel b) Anita Desai c) Aravind Adiga d) NandanNilekani e) A.rundhati Roy

45. Who amongst the following is the winner of Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for the year 1995? (The Award was given in November 2008.) a) Mr. Albert Bayona b) Ms. Mallika Sarabhai c) Dr. Romila Thapar d) Dr. Mohammed El Baradei


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e) Mr. Hosni Mubarak

46. Which Film got the Golden Peacock Award in the 39th International Film Festival of India held in December 2008? a) Good Night b) Akasa Kusum c) The gong of the Sparrow d) Tulpan e) None of these

47. Who amongst the following is the Union Minister for Home Affairs at present? a) Mr. Sharad Pawar b) Mr. Lalu Prasad Yadav c) Mr. P. Chidambaram d) Mr. Shivraj Patil e) None of these

48. Mr. Shivraj Singh Chauhan is the new Chief Minister of which of the following states where elections were held in December 2008? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Mizoram c) Delhi d) Madhya e) None of these

49. Ms. M. C. Marykom won a Gold Medal for India in an international sports event is basically a- a) Table Tennis player b) Boxer c) Badminton player d) Marathon runner e) Golfer

50. Mr. John Key whose name was in news is the Prime Minister of- a) Australia b) United Kingdom c) Canada d) France e) New Zealand

English Language (Q. 51-57): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain phrases in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Anyone who forms his own opinions and beliefs will feel that he owes no responsibility to the majority for his conclusions. If he is a genuine lover of truth, if he is inspired by a passion for seeing things as they are and a detestation of holding ideas which do not conform to facts, he will be wholly independent of the acquiesce of those around him. When he proceeds to apply his beliefs in the practical conduct of life, the position is different. There are then good reasons why his attitude should be less rigid. The society in which he is placed is an ancient and composite growth. The people from whom he dissents have not come by their opinions and institutions by a process of mere haphazard. These opinions and customs all had their origin in a certain real or supposed fitness. They have a certain depth of root in the lives of a proportion of the existing generation. Their fitness for satisfying needs may have misplaced, and their congruity with one another may have come to an end. That is only one side of the truth. The most passionate propagandist cannot penetrate to them.

In common language we speak of a generation as something possessed of a kind of exact unity with all its part-s and members homogeneous. Yet plainly it is not this. It is a whole but a whole in a state of constant flux, its factors and


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elements are eternally shifting. It is not one, but many generations. Each of the seven ages of man is neighbour to all the rest. The column of the veterans is already sinking into the last abyss, while the column of the newest recruits is forming. To its tradition, the tendency and its possibilities, only a proportion of each can have nerve enough to grasp the banner of a new truth and endurance to bear it along rugged and un trodden ways.

Then we must remember the substance of which life is made. We must consider what an overwhelming preponderance of the most persistent energies and most concentrated interests of a society must be absorbed between material cares and the solitude of the affections. It is obviously unreasonable to lose patience and quarrel with one's time because it is tardy in throwing off its institutions and beliefs and slow to achieve the transformation which is the problem in front of it. Men and women have to live. The task for most of us is hard enough to make us well pleased with even such imperfect shelter as we find in daily use and customs. To insist on a whole community being made at once to submit to the supremacy of new practices and ideas that have just begun to acclaim themselves to the most advanced speculative intelligence of life time. This, even If it were a possible process, would do much to make life impracticable and to hurry on social dissolution.

51. The overnight changes in social settings are not desirable because it will- a) retard the progress b) lead to social disintegration c) give vitality to social life d) make a society too narrow to survive e) None of these

52. The hard task according to author is to- (A) change the society (B) earn a living (C) change according to times a) Only A and C b) Only Band C c) Only A and B d) Only A e) Only C

53. The problems which is discussed in the passage reflects- a) realist attitude of the author b) the pessimistic views expressed by a group of people. c) a doctrinaire that explains the role of culture d) making good use of genuine lover of truth e) None of these

54. Which of the following best describes the phrase apply his beliefs in the practical conduct of life as used in the passage? a) To indoctrinate what he believes b) To denounce what he believes c) To preach what is practiced d) To practice what is preached e) None of these

55. According to author a generation which is heterogeneous, should be perceive as a) sum total of the parts of that subsystem b) a whole which is not a total of the parts c) fragmented group of people d) individual inter linkages connected through synergy e) None of these


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56. According to the passage which of the following is true? a) Impatience of intellectuals with practical problems is the source of progress b) Day to day concerns dominates the life of most people c) Intellectuals are the leaders of social transformation d) Social change will be slow in the absence of effective leaders. e) None of these

57. According to passage from which of the following do the customs and traditions originate? a) Ignorance of events happening around b) Leadership prevailing in the contemporary society c) Social utility of the societal set up d) Conflicts of individuals living in society e) None of these

(Q. 58-62) : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings· are given. Find out the correct meaning of idiomatic expression and mark the number of that meaning as your answer in the answer sheets. If you do not find any correct answer, mark e), i.e. None of these as your answer.

58. runs down a) squandering away b) amounts to c) incurring d) taking chance to meet e) None of these

59. stand over a) vindicate b) postpone c) enduring d) support e) None of these

60. knocked up a) get exhausted b) die in an accident c) wandered about d) sold at an auction e) None of these

61. make over a) prove b) decipher c) discover d) give in charity e) None of these

62. work on a) solve b) influence c) excite d) apply force to e) None of these


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(Q. 63-75) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is e). (Ignore errors of punctuation it any.)

63. Selling peanuts a)/ on the road is b)/the only means of earning c)/ in respect of most of the people d). No error e)

64. Her talk was a)/ judged by many b)/ as one of the most important talks (3 )/ given in the seminar d). No error e)

65. The boy who was guilty with a)/ having stolen the cell phoneb)/ came out c)/with the truth d). No error e)

66. She is the teacher a)/ whom I know b)/ has helped my son c)/ in the examination d). No error e)

67. You cannot demand a) all your articles b)/ unless you do not c)/ give advance notice d). No error e)

68. We insisted, but neither a)/ Lona nor her assistant b)/ are ready to c)/ work on Sunday d). No error e)

69. There is just not enough a)/ time in my unit to sit round b)/ talking about how we feel c)/ about each other d). No error e)

70. The act will be passed a)/ with a comfortable majority if all b)/ the partisans of c)/ her group favours it d). No error e)

71. Hardly had I a)/ entered the airport b)/ than I met c)/ my cousin Tilak d). No error e)

72. An anti terrorism cell is opened a)/ by the town police b)/ three months ago c)/ as a precautionary measure d). No error e)

73. The artist who was giving a)/ detailed description of b)/ the sculptures was d)/ speaking fluently French. No error e)

74. Martin would attempt a)/ to open the umbrella b)/ when her spectacles slipped off c)/ and fell down. d)No error e)

75. If you had not a)/ reached so quickly, b)/ we might well (3 )/ have had a disaster d). No error e)

(Q. 76-85): Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in boldtype to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark e) i.e. No correction required as the answer.

76. She had created problems even when she was on training while she was still waiting to take full charge of her duties. a) she has been waiting b) she had been still c) she would have still d) she has still to wait e) No correction required

77. The director insisted on his orders being carried out with the letter. a) for the letter b) to the letter c) by the letter d) into the letter e) No correction required 78. He admired the speed with which Koti completed the work and appreciating the method adopted by him. a) appreciate the method being adopted b) appreciated the method adopted


85

c) appreciate the method of adoption d) appreciate the adopting method e) No correction required·

79. Unless I get some break I should not be able to do any more work. a) shall not be able b) should be unable c) shall not be unable d) should not be unable e) No correction required

80. Some people have a habit of wearing their heart on their sleeves. a) bearing their heart on their sleeves. b) wearing heart on their sleeves c) wearing their heart on sleeves d) bearing their heart on their sleeve e) No correction required

81. Your plea that you were thorough ignorant of the consequences cannot be accepted. a) had thorough ignorance b) were thoroughly ignorance c) had thoroughly ignorant d) were thoroughly ignorant e) No correction required

82. I had met him after the party where he had been given an inspiring speech. a) when he had b) where he would have c) in which he was given d) where he had e) No correction required

83. Because of scientific progress, we expect to live better than our parents have. a) should expect to live better than our parent b) expect to live as good as our parents live c) expect to live better than our parents did d) expected to live better than our parents e) No correction required

84. I cannot put up with that nasty fellow. a) put up b) put at c) put on with d) put up in e) No correction required

85. It is useless to run away from every danger, risks must not be taken. a) no risks must be b) any risk must be c) although risks must be d) some risks must be e) No correction required


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(Q. 86-90) : In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These -are numbered as a), b), c) and d). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark e). i.e. All correct as your answer.

86. After several a) rounds of discussions b) the Manager accented c) to our proposal. d) All correct e)

87. The indefatigable a) zeal and fearlessness b) with which the youth worked rejoiced c) me beyond measure d) All correct.

88. He slipped a) away in the night b) and reached c) there in the morning d). All correct e)

89. He let the Iaugher a) wash away b) the tension c) and then held up her hand d). All correct e)

90. The author also advocated a) fresh vegetable b) and fruits c) as natural diet of aged peoples. d) All correct e)

(Q. 91-100): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

It is a pity that we do not have good books on insurance written by Indian authors (91) to the steady growth of literature on the subject in other countries specially, the U.S.A. whose insurance laws and (92) are very much similar to those of our country. And students studying in our colleges and the millions of insurance employees appearing for various insurance examinations have to depend (93) on books written by foreign authors. As these books mainly deal with the problems of insurance industry of foreign countries the (94) of the insurance scene in India and the various legal (95) and insurance procedures remains very weak. To (96) the insurance employees and the college students who have opted for (97) courses in insurance with different aspects of theory and practice of insurance we should have good and (98) textbooks. The -book under review written by V. M. R. Nair himself an experienced and (99) expert on insurance law based on leading Indian cases will be found very useful by students –of insurance sector as a (100) guide to the principles of insurance.

91. a) paving b) corresponding c) following b) corresponding e) correcting

92. a) process b) product c) notes d) currency e) procedures

93. a) slightly b) upon c) still d) at e) until 94. a) prove b) search


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c) application d) understanding e) acknowledge

95. a) law b) aspects c) experts d) books e) loop

96. a) equip b) arm c) decorate d) promote e) load

97. a) optional b) expensive c) tough d) deep e) specialized

98. a) authentic b) voluminous c) many d) prompt e) shining

99. a) consulting b) qualified c) rich d) merchant e) tied

100. a) teamed b) powerful c) ready d) comprehensive e) prescribed

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (101 -105) : What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following questions?

101. = (756 * 67) ÷ 804 a) 195112 b) 250047


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c) 226981 d) 274625 e) None of these

102. 0.3 + 3 + 3.33 + 3.3 + 3.03 + 333 =? a) 375.66 b) 345.99 c) 375.93 d) 355.96 e) None of these

103. (73425 - 33267 - 22418 - 17650) * =? a) 10165 b) 9785 c) 8370 d) 9450 e) None of these

104. -76 X 33 + 221 =? a) -2287 b) -19304 c) 2287 d) 19304 e) None of these

105. (34. 12)2 - = ? a) 1080.1744 b) 1078.1474 c) 1078.714 d) 1080.1474 e) None of these

Directions (106-110) : What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following number series?

106. 15 25 40 130 ? 2560 a) 500 b) 520 c) 490 d) 480 e) None of these

107. 186 94 48 25 ? 7.75 a) 13.5 b) 14.8 c) 12.5 d) 14 e) None of these

108. 124 112 176 420 1488 ? a) 3568 b) 7140 c) 5712 d) 6150


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e) None of these

109. 386 381 372 345 264 ? a) 23 b) 25 c) 43 d) 24 e) None of these

110. 286 285 302 ? 402 502 a) 356 b) 318 c) 326 d) 338 e) None of these

Directions (111-120) : Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below. Annual Income of Various Individuals over the years (Income in Lac Rupees)

Years Individuals

A B C D E F

2002 5.50 3.20 4.80 6.35 6.15 3.50

2003 5.65 3.25 4.85 6.55 6.25 3.65 2004 5.7 3.725 4.95 7.155 6.425 3.75

2005 6.20 4.25 5.10 7.35 7.15 4.0 2006 6.50 4.50 5.20 7.40 7.25 4.25 2007 6.75 5.0 5.25 7.48 7.285 4.80

2008 7.0 5.35 5.30 8.0 7.30 5.10

111. What is the approximate average monthly income of A over the years? a) Rs. 44,762 b) Rs. 48,384 c) Rs. 53,216 d) Rs. 51,245 e) Rs. 42,102

112. What is the respective ratio of the annual income of B to that of C in the year 2005? a) 6 : 5 b) 6 : 7 c) 5: 6 d) 7 : 6 e) None of these

113. What is the difference between the total annual income of all the individuals in the year 2003 and total annual income of all the individuals in the year 2007? a) Rs. 7,36,500/- b) Rs. 6,45,400/- c) Rs. 6,36,500/- d) Rs. 7,43,300/- e) None of these

114. The annual income of E in the year 2004 is approximately what percent of the average annual income earned by E over the years?


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a) 98 b) 86 c) 88 d) 94 e) 91

115. What is the average annual income of F over the years? a) Rs. 4,16,000/- b) Rs. 4,25,000/- c) Rs. 4,01,500/- d) Rs. 4,15,500/- e) None of these

116. Asha's monthly income is 60% of Deepak's monthly income 120% of Maya's monthly income. What is Maya's monthly income if Deepak's monthly income is Rs. 78,000/- ? a) Rs. 39,000/- b) Rs. 42,000/- c) Rs. 36,900/- d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

117. The sum of 5 numbers is 924. The average of first two numbers is 201.5 and the average of last two numbers is 196. What is the third number? a) 132 b) 129 c) 132 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

118. In now many different ways can the letters of the word 'FINANCE' be arranged? a) 5040 b) 2040 c) 2510 d) 4080 e) None of these

119. The profit earned after selling a wrist watch for Rs. 4,080/- is the same as loss incurred after selling the same wrist watch for Rs. 3,650/-. What is the cost price of the wrist watch? a) Rs. 3, 785/- b) Rs. 3, 800/- c) Rs. 3,775/- d) Rs. 3,865/- e) None of these

120. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 240% and the denominator of the traction is decreased by 50%, the

resultant fraction is 2 . What is the original fraction?

a)

b)

c)

c)

e) None of these


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Directions (121-125) : Study the following table carefully and answer the question below it. Number of students (Males & Females) passed out from various Colleges in a year. (Number in thousands)

121. What is the average number of students (Males & Females) passed out from all the colleges together? a) 38000 b) 48000 c) 42000 d) 51000 e) None of these

122. The number of Females passed out from college C is approximately what percent the total number of Females passed out from all the colleges together? a) 23 b) 30 c) 36 d) 25 e) 40

123. What is the difference between the total number of students passing out from college A and the total number of students passing out from college E? a) 20,500 b) 21,000 c) 10,500 d) 10,000 e) None of these

124. What is the respective ratio of the total number of Males of the total number of Females passed out from all the colleges together? a) 13 : 23 b) 18 : 25 c) 23 : 19 d) 25 : 18 e) None of these

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

A B C D E

Nu

mb

er o

f St

ud

ents

Males

Females


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125. The number of males passing out from colleges A and B together is what percent of the number of Females passing out from colleges C and D together? a) 45 b) 40 c) 35 d) 50 e) None of these

Directions (126-130) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

126. 7428 ÷ 346 * 12 =? a) 256 b) 251 c) 258 d) 247 e) 266

127. 15.2% of 726 x 12.8% of 643 =? a) 9110 b) 9088 c) 9100 d) 9096 e) 9082

128. (36.14)2- (21.28)2 =? a) 888 b) 853 c) 846 d) 871 e) 865

129. X = ? a) 150 b)180 c) 190 d) 200 e) 196

130. 496 + 0.6 X 0.5=? a) 413 b) 595 c) 148 d) 1653 e) 498

131. 40% of 60% of th of a number is 504. What is 25% of 5th of that number?



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132. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 9. What is the difference between the two digits of the number? a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

133. In a class there are 32 boys and 28 girls. The average age of the boys in the class is 14 years and the average age of the girls in the class is 13 years. What is the average age of the whole class? a) 13.50 b) 13.53 c) 12.51 d) 13.42 e) None of these

134. In a test consisting of 80 questions carrying one mark each, Arpita answers 65% of the first 40 questions correctly What percent of the other 40 questions does she need to answer correctly to score 75% on the entire test? a) 60 b) 80 c) 75 d) 40 e) None of these

135. Manisha invests an amount of Rs. 39,300/- for 4 years at the rate of 4 p. c. p. a. What amount of approximate compound interest will she obtain at the end of 4 years? a) Rs. 6,675/- b) Rs. 6,650/- c) Rs. 6,288/- d) Rs. 6,356/- e) Rs. 6,450/-

Directions (136-140) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Price per kilogram (in Rs.) at which 5 different Farmers sell 6 different products

Products Farmers

P Q R S T

Rice 20 15 20.5 24 22 Wheat 18 16 15 15.5 20 Jowar 16.5 15 18 20 15 Bajra 15 14 14.5 13.5 12 Maize 13 14 12.5 12 14.5

Sugarcane 10 8 11.5 10.5 8

136. What is the difference between the average price of per kg. of Maize sold by all the farmers and the average price of per kg. of Sugarcane sold by all the farmers? a) Rs. 3/- b) Rs. 4.5/- c) Rs. 4.2/-

d) Rs. 3.6/- e) None of these


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137. What is the respective ratio of the total price (per kg.) of all the products sold by Q to those sold by R? a) 41 : 43 b) 43 : 48 c) 43:46 d) 41:48 e) None of these

138. If farmer Q sells 14 kgs. of Wheat, 21 kgs. of Jowar and 30 kgs. of Sugarcane, what will be his total earning? a) Rs. 699/- b) Rs. 779/- c) Rs. 650/- d) 786/- e) None of these

139. If farmer P sells 50 kgs. of rice and farmers sells 60 kgs. of wheat, what is the difference in amount by either of the farmers in selling their products ? a) Rs. 70/- b) Rs. 65/- c) Rs. 80/- d) Rs. 85/- e) None of these

140. If each farmer sells 100 kgs. of Jowar and 50 kgs, of Bajra, which farmer will earn the most? a) F b) R c) S d) Q e) T

Directions (141-145) : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it. Number of Students studying in Various Colleges from Various Faculties

141. What is the difference between the total number of students studying in college H and those studying in college K?

51.2

62

44

30

40

50

30

56

36.533

60

25

0

10

20

30

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142. What is the total number of students studying in all the colleges together? a) 520900 b) 520700 c) 610200 d) 510800 e) None of these

143. What is the respective ratio of the students from the faculty of Science from colleges H and I together not the students from the same faculty from colleges J and K together? a) 43:45 b) 41:43 c) 45:43 d) 43:41 e) None of these

144. The number of students from the faculty of Science from college I are approximately what percent of the total number of students studying in that college? a) 34 b) 37 c) 29 d) 31 e) 39

145. What is the average number of students from the faculty of Commerce from all the colleges together? a) 36825 b) 38655 c) 35625 d) 36585 e) None of these

146. 12 children can complete a piece of work in 21 days. Approximately, how many children will be required to complete the same piece of work in 15 days? a) 24 b) 14 c) 22 d) 17 e) 20

147. Mangesh spends 17% of his monthly income in travelling. He spends 25% of his monthly income on household expenses and spends 36% of his monthly income on family’s medical expenses. He has remaining amount of Rs. 10, 032/- as cash with him. What is Mangesh's annual income? a) Rs. 5,50,300/- b) Rs. 5,36,500/- c) Rs. 5,47,200/- d) Cannot be determined e) None of these


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148. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 3248. Which is the larger number? a) 58 b) 62 c) 56 d) 60 e) None of these

149. The average marks of 65 students in a class was calculated as 150. It was later realized that the marks of one of the students was calculated as 142, whereas his actual marks were 152. What are the actual average marks of the group of 65 students? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 151.25 b) 150.15 c) 151.10 d) 150.19 e) None of these

150. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 575. What is the sum of the next set of the consecutive odd numbers? a) 615 c) 595 b) 635 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Reasoning Ability

151. In a certain code DESPAIR is written as TFEQSJB. How is NUMERAL written in that code? a) OVNFMBS b) NVOFSBN c) NVOMFBS d) NVOFMBS e) None of these

152. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, sixth and tenth letters of the word DISCLAIMER which of the following will be the third letter from the left? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer and if more than one such words can be made, given 'Y' as the answer a) I b) R c) D d) X e) Y

153. How many such digits are there in the number 27561493 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

154. If 'yellow' is called 'red', 'red', is called 'blue', 'blue', is called 'white', 'white', is called 'black', 'black' is called 'green', and 'green' is called 'violet, what is the colour of clear sky? a) Green b) Violet


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c) Yellow d) Red e) None of these

155. It was 9.35 a.m. in Rakhi's watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9.25 a.m. Reena's watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus? a) 5 minutes b) 10 minutes c) 15 minutes d) 25 minutes e) None of these

156. Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers? 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3 a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) None of these

157. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters EDOM using each letter only once in each Word? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

158. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) Nephew b) Cousin c) Mother d) Brother e) Sister

159. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SECURITY each of which has as many alphabets between them as there are in the English alphabetical series? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

160. In a certain code STAR is written as 5$*2 and TORE is written as $32@. How is OATS written in that code? a) 3*5$ b) 3*$5 c) 3$*5 d) 35*$ e) None of these


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Directions (161-165) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known for. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

161.Statements: Some doctors are lawyers. All teachers are lawyers. Some engineers are lawyers. All engineers are businessmen. Conclusions: I. Some teachers are doctors. II. Some businessmen are lawyers. III. Some businessmen are teachers. IV. Some lawyers are teachers. a) None follows b) Only II follows c) Only III follows d) Only II and IV follow e) None of these

162. Statements: All plastics are glasses. Some sponges are glasses. All sponges are clothes. All clothes are liquids. Conclusions: I. All liquids are sponges. II. Some plastics are clothes. III. All glasses are plastics. IV. All liquids are Clothes. a) None follows b) Only either II or IV follows c) Only IV follows d) Only III and IV follow e) None of these

163. Statements: All sands are beaches. All shores are beaches. Some beaches are trees. All trees are hotels. Conclusions: I. Some shores are hotels. II. All beaches are shores. III. Some beaches are hotels. IV. Some sands are trees. a) None follows b) Only II follows c) Only either I or III follows d) Only IV follow e) None of these

164. Statements: All parrots are pigeons. Some crows are pigeons. Some sparrows are crows. All sparrows are koels. Conclusions: I. Some koels are crows. II. Some parrots are crows. III. Some sparrows are pigeons. IV. No crow is a parrot. a) Only I follows b) Only III follows


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c) Only l and either II or IV follow d) Only either I or III follows e) None of these

165. Statements: All chairs are tables. All tables are cushions. Some cushions are trolleys. All trolleys are lamps. Conclusions: I. Some lamps are tables. II. Some trolleys are chairs. III. Some cushions are lamps. IV. All chairs are cushions. a) None I follows b) Only III and IV follow c) Only either I or II follows d) All follow e) None of these

Directions (166-170) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Hare eight friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits second to the left

of D who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits third to the right of B who sits second of the right of G

166. Who sits between D and C? a) Only B b) Only C and A c) Only G d) Only E e) Only G and E

167. Who sits second to the right of E? a) B b) F c) G d) C e) None of these

168. What is the position of A with respect to H? a) Third to the right b) Third to the right c) Second to the left d) Second to the right e) Fourth to the left

169. Four of the following five are alike based upon their seating arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) GH b) FG c) DA d) BE e) GB 170. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person? a) DB b) EH


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c) FA d) GO e) None of these

Directions (171-175) : These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement Study it carefully and answer the questions. 8 # B 2 © E K 7 % 5 A 1 $ G D 9 4 U * C 6 H @ 1 3

171. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also followed by a symbol? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these

172. Which of the following should replace the question mark in the following series based on the above arrangement? 2EK %A1 G94 ? a) *6H b) UC6 c) *CH d) *6@ e) None of these

173. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of seventeenth from the left end of the arrangement? a) $ b) G c) A d) D e) None of these

174. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end? a) % b) K c) * d) C e) None of these

175. How many such symbols are there, in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a letter? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these

Directions (176-180) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow: 'P + Q' means 'P is son of Q'. 'P x Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. 'P- Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.


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176. How is T related to S in the expression 'T X R + V ÷ S? a) Sister b) Mother c) Aunt d) Uncle e) None of these

177. How is T related to Sin the expression 'T X R + V - S? a) Father b) Sister c) Daughter d) Aunt e) None of these

178. How is S related to T in the expression 'T X R - V + S? a) Uncle b) Nephew c) Son d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

179. Which of the following means that 'S is the husband of T’? a) T x R – V + S b) T – R + V x S c) T – R + V ÷ S d) T x R – V + S e) None of these

180. Which of earter T in the expression T + ' R + V X S'? a) India b) Nephew c) Niece d) Uncle e) None of these

Directions (181-185) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered l and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer a) if the data in Statement l alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer b) if the data In Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement l alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer c) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer d) if the data in both the Statements l and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer e) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

181. How is A related to B? I. A is sister-in-law of C who is the daughter-in-law of B who is the wife of D. II. B is the mother of A's son's only uncle's son.

182. Amongst A, B, C, D, E and F each are having a different height, who is the shortest? I. C is shorter than only B. II. A is taller than only D and F.


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183. Point X is in which direction with respect to Y? !. Point Z is at equal distance from point X and point Y. II. Walking 5 km. to the East of point X and taking two consecutive right turns after walking 5 kms. before each turn leads to point Y.

184. How is 'must' written in a code language? I. 'you must see' is written as 'Ia pa ni' and 'did' you see' is written as jo in pa' in that code language II. 'you did that' is written as 'pa is jo' in that code language'

185. On which day of the week does Arti's birthday fall? I. Sonu correctly remembers that Arti's birthday falls after Wednesday but before Sunday. II. Raj correctly remembers that Arti's birthday falls before Friday but after Tuesday.

Directions (186-190)· : ·Below in each question are given tow statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer a) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. Mark answer b) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. Mark answer c) if both the statements I and II are independent causes. Mark answer d) if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. Mark answer e) if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

186. I. Computer education has been made compulsory for all the classes by many schools. II. The current job market prefers computer literate workforce.

187. I. The stander of education in evening colleges of the State has been deteriorating. II. The standard of school education has been fast deteriorating in the State.

188. I. All domestic airlines increased the fares in all sectors with immediate effect. II. Railways increased the fare of all its classes with immediate effect.

189. I. The prices of fruits and vegetables fell substantially over the last few days. II. The prices of fruits and vegetables improved considerably over the last few days.

190. I. The in after switched geo the nuvrhional contents of the soil. b) The in after switched over to cultivating rice instead of wheat.

Directions (191-195): In the following questions, the symbols#, $, %, * and@ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below. 'A # B' means 'A is not greater than B'. 'A $ B' means 'A is neither smaller nor equal to B'. 'A % B' means 'A is neither smaller nor greater than B'. 'A * B' means 'A is neither greater nor equal to B'. 'A @ B' means 'A is not smaller than B'.


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Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements 'to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Mark answer a) if only conclusion I is true Mark answer b) if only conclusion II is true. Mark answer c) if either conclusion I or II is true. Mark answer d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Mark answer e) if both conclusions I and II are true.

191. Statement: A # B, B % C, C * D Conclusions: I. C@A II. A#D

192. Statements P $ Q, Q @ S, S % R Conclusions: l. P@R II. R $ Q

193. Statements W * X, X # Y, Y $ Z Conclusions: I. W * Z II. W@ Z

194. Statements G @ H, H $ J, J % K Conclusions: I. K*G II. J * G

195. Statements N @ M, M $ P, P # T Conclusions: l. T#N Il. P*N

Directions (196-200) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends studying seven different branches of engineering, namely Mechanical,

Chemical, Electrical Electronics, Civil, Computers and Aeronautical Engineering, not necessarily in this order. Each of them studies in three different colleges, X, Y and Z. Not less than two study in any college. D studies Electrical engineering in College X. The one who studies Chemical Engineering does no study in college Z. F studies Aeronautical engineering in college Y with only B. A does no studies in college X and do not study Civil engineering. E studies Computer engineering and does not study in college X. G studies Electronic engineering but not in college X. None in college X studies Mechanical or Civil engineering.

196. Which of the following group represents the persons studying in college Z? a) D B b) C, E, G c) A, G d) G, E, A e) None of these


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197. To which of the following colleges does C study? a) X b) Y c) Z d) Either X or Z e) Cannot be determined

198. Which of the following combinations is correct? a) A-Civil-Z b) B- Chemical-Y c) C- Chemical- Z d) G-Electronics- Y e) None of these

199. Four dies in which of the following branches of engineering? a) Chemical b) Mechanical c) Civil d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

200. The o a) drag and drop b) cut and paste c) D d) A e) None of these

ANSWERS

Q.1 A

Q.2 D

Q.3 B

Q.4 E

Q.5 B

Q.6 A

Q.7 D

Q.8 D

Q.9 D

Q.10 A

Q.11 A

Q.12 C

Q.13 E

Q.14 E

Q.15 A

Q.16 D

Q.17 D

Q.18 D

Q.19 B

Q.20 A

Q.21 C

Q.22 A

Q.23 E

Q.24 A

Q.25 B

Q.26 C

Q.27 B

Q.28 C

Q.29 C

Q.30 D

Q.31 C

Q.32 B

Q.33 B

Q.34 A

Q.35 A

Q.36 B

Q.37 A

Q.38 E

Q.39 D

Q.40 D

Q.41 C

Q.42 E

Q.43 C

Q.44 C

Q.45 E

Q.46 D

Q.47 C

Q.48 D

Q.49 B

Q.50 E

Q.51 B

Q.52 E

Q.53 A

Q.54 D

Q.55 B

Q.56 E

Q.57 C

Q.58 E

Q.59 D

Q.60 E

Q.61 D

Q.62 B

Q.63 B

Q.64 B

Q.65 A

Q.66 B

Q.67 C

Q.68 C

Q.69 E

Q.70 D

Q.71 C

Q.12 A


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Q.73 D

Q.74 A

Q.75 C

Q.76 E

Q.77 B

Q.78 B

Q.79 A

Q.80 E

Q.81 D

Q.82 D

Q.83 D

Q.84 E

Q.85 D

Q.86 A

Q.87 A

Q.88 A

Q.89 A

Q.90 A

Q.91 B

Q.92 E

Q.93 C

Q.94 C

Q.95 B

Q.96 A

Q.97 A

Q.98 A

Q.99 A

Q.100 D

Q.101 B

Q.102 E

Q.103 D

Q.104 A

Q.105 C

Q.106 E

Q.107 A

Q.108 B

Q.109 E

Q.110 D

Q.111 D

Q.112 C

Q.113 C

Q.114 D

Q.115 E

Q.116 A

Q.117 B

Q.118 E

Q.119 D

Q.120 C

Q.121 C

Q.122 B

Q.123 E

Q.124 A

Q.125 D

Q.126 C

Q.127 E

Q.128 B

Q.129 D

Q.130 A

Q.131 D

Q.132 C

Q.133 B

Q.134 E

Q.135 A

Q.136 D

Q.137 E

Q.138 B

Q.139 A

Q.140 C

Q.141 D

Q.142 B

Q.143 C

Q.144 A

Q.145 E

Q.146 D

Q.147 C

Q.148 A

Q.149 B

Q.150 E

Q.151 D

Q.152 A

Q.153 B

Q.154 E

Q.155 A

Q.156 C

Q.157 C

Q.158 C

Q.159 C

Q.160 B

Q.161 D

Q.162 A

Q.163 A

Q.164 C

Q.165 B

Q.166 A

Q.167 B

Q.168 A

Q.169 C

Q.170 B

Q.171 C

Q.172 A

Q.173 E

Q.174 B

Q.175 D

Q.176 E

Q.177 B

Q.178 D

Q.179 C

Q.180 C

Q.181 C

Q.182 D

Q.183 B

Q.184 A

Q.185 E

Q.186 B

Q.187 E

Q.188 E

Q.189 B

Q.190 A

Q.191 A

Q.192 D

Q.193 C

Q.194 E

Q.195 B

Q.196 D

Q.197 A

Q.198 E

Q.199 C

Q.200 B


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For more materials visit getresult14@wordpress · b) A bomb blast in which around 500 people died and 5000 were injured c) A nuclear plant exploded and the entire city became a radioactive