Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CM303115040 CLASSROOM … · 2016-03-17 · Hindi. PHYSICS : Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating current Electromagnetic Waves OPTICS : (i) Ray

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Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

TEST DATE : 15 - 03 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM303115040

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 04

Hin

di

PHYSICS : Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating current

Electromagnetic Waves

OPTICS :

(i) Ray optics & optical Instruments

(ii) Wave optics: Nature of Light, Interference, Diffraction &

Polarization)

Modern Physics (Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms

and Nuclei)

Electronic Devices

CHEMISTRY : Redox Reactions

Electrochemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Surface Chemistry

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Coordination Compounds

Environmental Chemistry

Biomolecules

Polymers

Chemistry in Everyday Life

BIOLOGY : Biology in Human Welfare :

(i) Human Health and Disease

(ii) Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

(Domestication of Plants & Animals)

Ecology :

(i) Organisms and Populations

(ii) Ecosystem

(iii) Biodiversity and Conservation

(iv) Environmental Issues

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 15 - 03 - 2016

SYLLABUS – 4

LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD & MLE)

H-1/35

Leader Course/Phase/MLA+B+C+D +E/15-03-2016

1001CM303115040

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. Consider the following figure, a uniform magnetic

field of 0.2 T is directed along the positive x-axis.

What is the magnetic flux through top surface of

the figure

Y

60° 9 cm

Back

Front

10 cm

30°

X

Z

10 cm

4 cm

(1) Zero (2) 0.8 m-wb

(3) 1.0 m-wb (4) – 1.8 m-wb

2. Match the following

Currents r.m.s values

(A) x0 sint (i) x

0

(B) x0 sint cost (ii)

0x

2

(C) x0 sint + x

0 cost (iii)

0x

2 2

(1) (A i), (B ii), (C iii)

(2) (A ii), (B iii), (C i)

(3) (A i), (B iii), (C ii)

(4) None

3. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water

interface at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel

to the surface of water, then the value of g would

be -

Water

Glass

rw =4/3

r

i

(1) (4/3) sin i (2) 1/sin i

(3) 4/3 (4) 1

4. Diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of

sound waves than in the case of light waves because

(1) sound waves are longitudinal

(2) sound is precived by the ear

(3) sound waves are mechanical waves

(4) sound waves are of longer wavelength

1. 0.2 T x- (top surface)

Y

60° 9 cm

Back

Front

10 cm

30°

X

Z

10 cm

4 cm

(1) (2) 0.8 m-wb

(3) 1.0 m-wb (4) – 1.8 m-wb

2. r.m.s (A) x

0 sint (i) x

0

(B) x0 sint cost (ii)

0x

2

(C) x0 sint + x

0 cost (iii)

0x

2 2

(1) (A i), (B ii), (C iii)

(2) (A ii), (B iii), (C i)

(3) (A i), (B iii), (C ii)

(4) None

3. i

g

Water

Glass

rw =4/3

r

i

(1) (4/3) sin i (2) 1/sin i

(3) 4/3 (4) 1

4. (1) (2) (3) (4)

H-2/35

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/15-03-2016

1001CM303115040

5. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of

5 years. Thus for a nucleus in a sample of the

element, the probability of decay in ten years is

(1) 50% (2) 75%

(3) 100% (4) 60%

6. A square loop of side 1m is placed in a

perpendicular magnetic field. Half of the area of

the loop inside the magnetic field. A battery of

emf 10 V and negligible internal resistance is

connected in the loop. The magnetic field changes

with time according to relation

B = (0.01 – 2t) Tesla. The resultant emf in the

loop will be

10V

A

B

C

(1) 1 V (2) 11 V (3) 10 V (4) 9 V

7. The instantaneous values of current and potential

difference in an alternating circuit are i = sin t

and E = 100 cos t respectively. r.m.s. value of

wattless current (in amp) in the circuit is :-

(1) 1 (2) 1

2(3) 100 (4) zero

8. A square card of side length 1 mm is being seen

through a magnifying lens of focal length 10 cm.

The card is placed at a distance of 9 cm from

the lens. Axis is perpendicular to the plane of card.

The apparent area of the card through the lens

is

(1) 1 cm2 (2) 0.81 cm2

(3) 0.27 cm2 (4) 0.60 cm2

9. The metallic surface is illuminated with

monochromatic light of wavelength and

stopping potential for photoelectric current is 5V0.

When the same metallic surface is illuminated

with a light of wavelength , the stopping

potentials is V0. What is the threshold wavelength

for the surface ?

(1) 8

3 (2) 8

(3) 5 (4) 4

5. 5 10 (1) 50% (2) 75%

(3) 100% (4) 60%

6. 1m 10 V B = (0.01 – 2t) Tesla

10V

A

B

C

(1) 1 V (2) 11 V

(3) 10 V (4) 9 V

7.

i = sin t E = 100 cos t

r.m.s.

(1) 1 (2) 1

2(3) 100 (4) zero

8. 1 mm 10 cm

9 cm

(1) 1 cm2 (2) 0.81 cm2

(3) 0.27 cm2 (4) 0.60 cm2

9.

5V0

V0

?

(1) 8

3 (2) 8

(3) 5 (4) 4

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1001CM303115040

10. A gamma ray photon creates an electron positron

pair. If the rest mass energy of an electron is 0.5

MeV and the total kinetic energy of the electron

positron of pair is 0.78 MeV, then the energy of

the gamma ray photon must be :

(1) 0.78 MeV (2) 1.78 MeV

(3) 1.28 MeV (4) 0.28 MeV

11. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is

moving with a uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a

uniform magnetic field B 4.0T directed into

the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 F is

connected as shown in figure. Then

P

Q

A v

× × × ×

× × × × ×

× × × × ×

× × × × ×

B

(1) qA = + 80 C and q

B = – 80 C

(2) qA = – 80 C and q

B = + 80 C

(3) qA = 0 = q

B

(4) Charge stored in the capacitor increases

exponentially with time

12. The self inductance of a choke coil is 10 mH.

When it is connected with a 10V dc source, then

the loss of power is 20 watt. When it is connected

with 10 volt ac source, then loss of power is 10

watt. The frequency of ac source will be

(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz

(3) 80 Hz (4) 100 Hz

13. The resolving power of an astronomical telescope

is 0.2 sec. If the central half portion of the objective

lens is covered, the resolving power will be

(1) 0.1 sec (2) 0.2 sec

(3) 1.0 sec (4) 0.6 sec

14. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed

such that the work function changes from W1 to

W2 (W

2 > W

1). if the current before and after

change are I1 and I

2, all other conditions remaining

unchanged, then (assuming hv > W2)

(1) I1 = I

2(2) I

1 < I

2

(3) I1 > I

2(4) I

1 < I

2 < 2I

1

10.

0.5 MeV

0.78 MeV ,

:

(1) 0.78 MeV (2) 1.78 MeV

(3) 1.28 MeV (4) 0.28 MeV

11. PQ L = 1.0 m

v = 2 m/s

B 4.0T

C = 10 F

P

Q

A v

× × × ×

× × × × ×

× × × × ×

× × × × ×

B

(1) qA = + 80 C q

B = – 80 C

(2) qA = – 80 C q

B = + 80 C

(3) qA = 0 = q

B

(4)

12. 10 mH 10V

dc 20 watt

10 volt ac

10 watt ac

(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz

(3) 80 Hz (4) 100 Hz

13. 0.2 sec

(1) 0.1 sec (2) 0.2 sec

(3) 1.0 sec (4) 0.6 sec

14. W

1 W

2 (W

2 > W

1)

I1 I

2

( hv > W2)

(1) I1 = I

2(2) I

1 < I

2

(3) I1 > I

2(4) I

1 < I

2 < 2I

1

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1001CM303115040

15. In the given circuit

D3

D2

D1

5

10 5 20

10V

The current through the battery is

(1) 0.5A (2) 1 A (3) 1.5 A (4) 2 A

16. Flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance

10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to

the equation 26t 5t 1 . What is the

magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 s ?

(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.8 A

(3) 0.6 S (4) 0.2 A

17. Which of the following electro magnetic waves

are used in telecommunication ?

(1) X - rays (2) Infra red

(3) Micro waves (4) Ultra violet

18. An astronomical telescope has an angular

magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects.

The separation between the objective and the

eye-piece is 36 cm. The final image is formed

at infinity. The focal length fo of the objective

and fe of the eye-piece are

(1) 45 cm and -9 cm (2) 50 cm and 10 cm

(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm (4) 30 cm and 6 cm

19. When a monochromatic point source of light is

at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell,

the cut-off voltage and the saturation current are

respectively 0.6 volt and 18.0 mA. If the same

source is placed 0.6 m away from the

photoelectric cell, then

(1) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt

(2) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt

(3) the saturation current will be 0.6 mA

(4) the saturation current will be 3.0 mA.

20. The current gain of a transistor is 50. The input

resistance of the transistor when used in the

common emitter mode is 1 k . the peak value

of the collector current for an input peak voltage

of 0.01 volt is

(1) 0.01 A (2) 0.25 A

(3) 100 A (4) 500 A

15.

D3

D2

D1

5

10 5 20

10V

(1) 0.5A (2) 1 A (3) 1.5 A (4) 2 A

16. 10 t ()

26t 5t 1

t = 0.25 sec ?

(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.8 A

(3) 0.6 S (4) 0.2 A

17. (1) X - (2) (3) (4)

18. 5

36 cm

(f0)

(fe) :-

(1) 45 cm and -9 cm (2) 50 cm and 10 cm

(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm (4) 30 cm and 6 cm

19. 0.2 m

0.6V

18.0 mA

0.6 m

(1) 0.2V

(2) 0.6 V

(3) 0.6 mA

(4) 3.0 mA 20. 50

1 k

0.01

:-

(1) 0.01 A (2) 0.25 A

(3) 100 A (4) 500 A

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1001CM303115040

21. A current carrying solenoid is approaching a

conducting loop as shown in the figure. The

direction of induced current as observed by an

observer on the other side of the loop will be

v

Observer

(1) Anticlockwise (2) Clockwise

(3) East (4) West

22. At what rate the potential difference between the

plates of a capacitor be changed to set up a

displacement current of 1 A in a capacitor of F?

(1) 10+6 V/s (2) 0.5 × 10+6 V/s

(3) 106 V/s (4) 0.5 × 106 V/s

23. Three waves of equal frequency having amplitudes

10 m, 4 m, 7 m arrive at a given point with

successive phase difference of /2, the amplitude

the resulting wave in m is given by

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

24. A freshy prepared radioactive source of half-life

2 hours emits radiation of intensity which is 64

times the permissible safe level. The minimum

time after which it would be possible to work

safely with the source is :

(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours

(3) 24 hours (4) 128 hours

25. In a semiconductor,

(i) there are no free electrons at 0 K

(ii) there are no free electrons at any temperature

(iii)the number of free electrons increases with

temperature

(iv) the number of free electrons is less than that

in a conductor

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)

26. Three inductances are connected as shown below.

Assuming no coupling, the resultant inductance

will be

L2 = 0.50 H

L3 = 0.50 H

L1 = 0.75

(1) 0.25 H (2) 0.75 H (3) 0.01 H (4) 1 H

21.

v

Observer

(1) (2) (3) (4)

22. 1A F

(1) 10+6 V/s (2) 0.5 × 10+6 V/s

(3) 106 V/s (4) 0.5 × 106 V/s

23. 10 m, 4 m 7 m

/2 (m) (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

24. 2 hours

64

:

(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours

(3) 24 hours (4) 128 hours

25. ,(i) 0 K (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)

26.

L2 = 0.50 H

L3 = 0.50 H

L1 = 0.75

(1) 0.25 H (2) 0.75 H (3) 0.01 H (4) 1 H

H-6/35


1001CM303115040

27. Two transparent slabs have the same thickness.

One is made of material X of refractive index

1.5. The other is made of two material Y and Z

having thickness in the ratio 1 : 2. The refractive

index of Z is 1.6. If a monochromatic parallel

beam passing through the slabs has the same

number of wavelengths inside both, the refractive

of Y is -

t/3

Y Z

x

n = 1.6

n = 1.5

2t/3

t

(1) 1.1 (2) 1.2

(3) 1.3 (4) 1.4

28. The graph showing the dependence of intensity

of transmitted light on the angle between polariser

and analyser is (I0 is intensity of plane polarised light)

(1) I0

45° 90° 135° 180°

I

(2) I0

90°135° 270°

I

45°

180°

(3) I0

45° 90° 135° 180°

I

(4) I0

45° 90° 135° 180°

I

29. When a radioactive isotope 88

Ra228 decays in

series by the emission of 3 alpha particles and

a beta particle, the isotope finally formed is

(1) 84

X228 (2) 86

X222

(3) 83

X216 (4) 83

X215

27.

X 1.5 Y

Z 1 : 2 Z

1.6

Y

t/3

Y Z

x

n = 1.6

n = 1.5

2t/3

t

(1) 1.1 (2) 1.2

(3) 1.3 (4) 1.4

28.

(I0 )

(1) I0

45° 90° 135° 180°

I

(2) I0

90°135° 270°

I

45°

180°

(3) I0

45° 90° 135° 180°

I

(4) I0

45° 90° 135° 180°

I

29. 88

Ra228 3

(1) 84

X228 (2) 86

X222

(3) 83

X216 (4) 83

X215

Key Filling

H-7/35


1001CM303115040

30. The input and the output wave form of a logic

gate is shown in diagram, then identify the logic

gate :-

T1

T1

T1

T2

T2

T2

T3

T3

T3

T4 t

t

t

T4

T4

O

O

O

(A)

(B)

(Y)

(1) AND gate (2) OR gate

(3) NAND gate (4) NOT gate

31. An inductor, L a resistance R and two identical bulbs,

1B and 2B are connected to a battery through a

switch S as shown in the fig. The resistance R is the

same as that of the coil that makes L. Which of the

following statements gives the correct description

of the happenings when the switch S is closed

S

L

R B2

B1

B

(1) The bulb B2 lights up earlier than B

1 and

finally both the bulbs shine equally bright

(2) B1 light up earlier and finally both the bulbs

acquire equal brightness

(3) B2

lights up earlier and finally B1

shines

brighter than B2

(4) B1

and B2 light up together with equal

brightness all the time

32. Bob of a pendulum is left from position P, velocity

of image on mirror M of bob at position Qwr to

bob is -

<

O P

Q

(1) 2 2g (2) 2g (3) 3g (4) 4 g

30. (gate) :-

T1

T1

T1

T2

T2

T2

T3

T3

T3

T4 t

t

t

T4

T4

O

O

O

(A)

(B)

(Y)

(1) AND gate (2) OR gate

(3) NAND gate (4) NOT gate

31. L R 1B

2B S R

L S

S

L

R B2

B1

B

(1) 2B 1B

(2) B1

(3) B2 B

1 B

2

(4) B1 B

2

32. P

Q

<

O P

Q

(1) 2 2g (2) 2g (3) 3g (4) 4 g

H-8/35


1001CM303115040

33. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam

of red light. If the red light is replaced by the

blue light, then

(1) the diffraction pattern remains changed

(2) diffraction bands become narrower and

crowded together

(3) bands become broader and farther apart

(4) bands disappear

34. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom

correspond to increasing values of energy

i.e., EA < E

B < E

C. If

1,

2,

3 are the wavelengths

of radiation corresponding to the transition C to

B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the

following relation is correct ?

(1) 3 =

1 +

2

(2) 1 23

1 2

(3) 1 +

2 +

3 = 0

(4) 32 =

12 +

22

35. The energy band diagrams for three

semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown.

We can then assert that

X Y Z

(1) sample X is undoped while samples Y and

Z have been doped with a third group and

a fifth group impurity respectively

(2) sample X is undoped while both samplesY

and Z have been doped with a fifth group

impurity

(3) sample X has been doped with equal amounts

of third and fifth group impurities while

samples Y and Z are undoped

(4) sample X is undoped while samples Y and

Z have been doped with a fifth group and a

third group impurity respectively

33.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 34. A, B C

EA < E

B < E

C

1,

2,

3

C B, B A C A

?

(1) 3 =

1 +

2

(2) 1 23

1 2

(3) 1 +

2 +

3 = 0

(4) 32 =

12 +

22

35.

X Y Z

(1) X Y Z

(2) X Y Z

(3) X

YZ

(4) X Y

Z

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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1001CM303115040

36. What will be the impedance of the circuit shown

below

75 V iC = 2A

iL = 5A

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 25 (4) 75

37. For a small angled prism, angle of prism A, the

angle of minimum deviation () varies with

the refractive index of the prism as shown in the

graph.

O P

Q

(1) Point P corresponds to = 1/2

(2) Slope of the line PQ = A/2

(3) Slope = A

(4) None of the above statements is true

38. The distance between two coherent sources is

0.1 mm. The fringe-width on a screen 1.2 m away

from the source is 6.0 mm. The wavelength of

light used is

(1) 4000 Å (2) 5000 Å

(3) 6000 Å (4) 7200 Å

39. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is

0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy per

nucleon for helium in MeV ?

(1) 28 (2) 7

(3) 4 (4) 1

40. A 100m long antenna is mounted on a 500m tall

building. The complex can become a transmission

tower for waves with (aprox) -

(1) 400 m (2) 25 m

(3) 150 m (4) 2400 m

36.

75 V iC = 2A

iL = 5A

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 25 (4) 75

37. A

O P

Q

(1) P = 1/2

(2) PQ = A/2

(3) = A

(4)

38. 0.1 mm

1.2 m 6.0 mm

(1) 4000 Å (2) 5000 Å

(3) 6000 Å (4) 7200 Å

39. He 0.0303 a.m.u.

(MeV)

?

(1) 28 (2) 7

(3) 4 (4) 1

40. 100m 500m

(1) 400 m (2) 25 m

(3) 150 m (4) 2400 m

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1001CM303115040

41. An ac voltage source of E = 150 sin 100 t is used

to run a device which offers a resistance of 20

and restricts the flow of current in one directiion

only. The r.m.s. value of current in the circuit

will be

(1) 1.58 A (2) 0.98 A

(3) 3.75 A (4) 2.38 A

42. A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placedat

a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal length

'f2'. A beam of light coming from infinity and

falling on this convex lens concave mirror

combination returns to infinity. The distance 'd'

must equal

(1) f1 + f

2(2) f

1 + f

2

(3) 2f1 + f

2(4) 2f

1 + f

2

43. In Young's double-slit experiment intensity at a

point is 1/4th of the maximum intensity. Angular

position of this point is

(1) 1sin / 2

(2) 1sin / 2d

(3) 1sin / 3d

(4) 1sin / 4d

44. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass

number A as

(1) A2 (2) A

(3) constant (4) 1/A

45. A basic communication system consists of

(A) transmitter

(B) information source

(C) user of information

(D) channel

(E) receiver

Choose the correct sequence in which these are

arranged in a basic communication system :

(1) ABCDE

(2) BADEC

(3) BDACE

(4) BEADC

41. E = 150 sin 100 t

20

r.m.s.

(1) 1.58 A (2) 0.98 A

(3) 3.75 A (4) 2.38 A

42. 'f1' 'd'

'f2'

'd'

(1) f1 + f

2(2) f

1 + f

2

(3) 2f1 + f

2(4) 2f

1 + f

2

43.

1/4th

(1) 1sin / 2

(2) 1sin / 2d

(3) 1sin / 3d

(4) 1sin / 4d

44. 'A'

(1) A2 (2) A

(3) (4) 1/A

45.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

:

(1) ABCDE

(2) BADEC

(3) BDACE

(4) BEADC

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1001CM303115040

46. Formaldehyde is not present as one monomer

in :-

(1) Bakelite (2) Novolac

(3) Orlon (4) Melamine resin

47. Tincture of iodine is :

(1) aqueous solution of I2

(2) alcoholic solution of I2

(3) solution of I2 in aqueous KI

(4) aqueous solution of KI

48. During extraction of copper from copper pyrite,

the flux used for removal of ferrous oxide is.

(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) Coke (4) SiO2

49. Poling process is used when metal contains :-

(1) Impurities have low melting point.

(2) Easily reducible impurities.

(3) Volatile impurities.

(4) Impurity of metal oxide.

50. In which of the following reactions is there a

change in the oxidation number of nitrogen atom ?

(1) 2 NO2 N2 O4

(2) NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH–

(3) N2O5 + H2O 2HNO3

(4) 2 2 3N 3H 2NH

51. During vulcanization of rubber, natural rubber is

heated with sulphur and some other additive to

(1) Increase cross linking

(2) Decrease cross linking

(3) Induce hydrogen bonding

(4) Sulphur is used as monomer

52. The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is–

(1)

OH

CONH2

(2)

OH

NHCOCH3

(3)

Cl

CONH2

(4)

Cl

NHCOCH3

46. (1) (2) (3) (4)

47. (1) I

2

(2) I2

(3) KI I2

(4) KI 48.

(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) Coke (4) SiO2

49. (1) (2) (3) (4)

50.

(1) 2 NO2 N2 O4

(2) NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH–

(3) N2O5 + H2O 2HNO3

(4) 2 2 3N 3H 2NH

51. (1) (2) (3) (4)

52.

(1)

OH

CONH2

(2)

OH

NHCOCH3

(3)

Cl

CONH2

(4)

Cl

NHCOCH3

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53. The geometry possessed by [Ni(CO)4] is

(1) tetrahedral (2) square planar

(3) linear (4) octahedral

54. Adsorption is accompained by

(1) decrease in entropy

(2) decrease in enthalpy

(3) TS for the process is negative

(4) (1), (2) and (3) are correct

55. In the reaction

X – + XO3

– + H+ X2 + H2O, the molar

ratio in which X – and XO3

– react is :

(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2

56. Polymer which has amide linkage is

(1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Terylene

(3) Teflon (4) Bakelite

57. Which of the following represents soap ?

(1) C17H35COOK (2) C17H35COOH

(3) C15H31COOH (4) (C17H35COO)2Ca

58. Ammonia acts as a ligand but ammonium ion does

not form complexes because

(1) NH3 is a gas while NH4+ is in liquid form

(2) NH3 undergoes sp3 hybridisation while NH4+

undergoes sp3d hybridisation

(3) NH4+ ion does not have any lone pair of

electrons

(4) NH4+ ion has one unpaired electron while NH3

has two unpaired electrons.

59. Which of the following ionic substances will be

most effective in precipitating negatively charge

sulphur sol. (All compounds are 100% ionized)?

(1) KCl (2) CaCl2

(3) Na3PO

4(4) Fe

2(SO

4)

3

60. The ratio of equivalent weights of C2H

5OH in the

following reactions is:

(i) 2 5 3C H OH CH CHO

(ii) 2 5 2 5C H OH C H ONa

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3

61. Monomers are converted to polymers by

(1) Hydrolysis of monomer

(2) Condensation between monomers

(3) Combustion of monomers

(4) Hydration of monomers

53. [Ni(CO)4] (1) (2) (3) (4)

54. (1) (2) (3) TS (4) (1), (2) (3)

55. X – + XO3

– + H+ X2 + H2O X

– XO3–

(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2

56. (1) -6,6 (2) (3) (4)

57. (1) C17H35COOK (2) C17H35COOH

(3) C15H31COOH (4) (C17H35COO)2Ca

58. (1) NH3 NH4

+ (2) NH3 sp3 NH4

+ sp3d

(3) NH4

+

(4) NH4+

NH3

59. (negatively charged sulphur sol.)

( 100%

)(1) KCl (2) CaCl

2

(3) Na3PO

4(4) Fe

2(SO

4)

3

60. C2H

5OH

(i) 2 5 3C H OH CH CHO

(ii) 2 5 2 5C H OH C H ONa

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3

61. (1) (2) (3) (4)

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62. Glucose and fructose are ......................... of each

other

(1) homologus

(2) functional group isomers

(3) mirror image isomers

(4) nonisomers

63. The magnitude of magnetic moment (spin only)

of [NiCl4]2– will be

(1) 2.82 B.M. (2) 0

(3) 1.23 B.M. (4) 5.64 B.M.

64. In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in

presence of large excess of water

2RCl H O ROH HCl

(1) Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2.

(2) Molecularity is 2 but order reaction is 1.

(3) Molecularity is 1 but order of reacion is 2.

(4) Molecularity and order of reaction both are 1.

65. The e.m.f. of the following galvanic cells are

represented by E1, E2, E3 and E4. Which of the

following statement is true–

(i) Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu

(ii) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu

(iii)Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu

(iv)Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4

(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2 (4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

66. Indiscriminate use of DDT is undesirable because –

(1) It is harmful

(2) It is degradable

(3) It causes mutation

(4) It is accumulated in food chain

67. Which of the following is not possible in glucose?

(1) (+)-form (2) (–)-form

(3) racemic-form (4) meso form

68. [Co(NH3)Cl(en)2]2+ shows two geometrical

isomers cis and trans. Which of the following

statements is correct ?

(1) trans-isomer will show optical isomerism.

(2) cis-isomer will show optical isomerism.

(3) Both trans and cis-isomers will show optical

isomerism.

(4) Neither cis nor trans-isomer will show optical

isomerism.

62. ...............................(1) (2) (3) (4)

63. [NiCl4]2– (1) 2.82 B.M. (2) 0

(3) 1.23 B.M. (4) 5.64 B.M.

64.

2RCl H O ROH HCl

(1) 2 (2) 2 1 (3) 1 2 (4) 1

65. e.m.f. E1, E2, E3 E4

(i) Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu

(ii) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu

(iii)Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu

(iv)Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4

(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2 (4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

66. DDT –(1) (2) (3) (4)

67. (1) (+)- (2) (–)-(3) (4)

68. [Co(NH3)Cl(en)2]2+

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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69. Radioactive sample (Z = 22) decreases 90% after

10 years. What will be the half life of sample

(1) 5 years (2) 2 years

(3) 3 years (4) 10 years

70. Based on the following information arrange four

metals, A, B, C and D in order of increasing ability

to act as reducing agents–

(I) Only C react with 0.10 M HCl to give H2(g)

(II) When A is added to solution of the other metal

ions, metallic D is formed but not B or C

(1) D < A < C < B (2) A < D < C < B

(3) B < D < A < C (4) D < A < B < C

71. Green house effect is related to –

(1) Cultivation of green plants

(2) Cultivation of vegetables in houses

(3) Global warming

(4) Global green algae

72. Which reagent is used to form glucosazone :-

(1) NH2–NH2 (2) C6H5NH–NH2

(3) NH2–OH (4) NH2NHCONH2

73. [Fe(CN)6]4– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ show different

colours in dilute solution because

(1) CN– is a strong field ligand and H2O is a weak

ligand hence magnitude of CFSE is different

(2) both CN– and H2O absorb same wavelength

of energy

(3) complexes of weak field ligands are generally

colourless

(4) the sizes of CN– and H2O are different hence

their colours are also different.

74. A reaction

2NO + 2H2 N2 + 2H2O

has following mechanism

Step-I : 2NO N2O2

Step-II : N2O2 + H2N2O + H2O

Step-III : N2O + H2N2 + H2O

Which of the following substance is a reaction

intermediate

(1) H2 (2) NO

(3) H2O (4) N2O

69. (Z = 22) 10 90%

(1) 5 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 10

70. A, B, C D (I) C, 0.10 M HCl H2(g) (II) A D B C

(1) D < A < C < B (2) A < D < C < B

(3) B < D < A < C (4) D < A < B < C

71. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72.

(1) NH2–NH2 (2) C6H5NH–NH2

(3) NH2–OH (4) NH2NHCONH2

73. [Fe(CN)6]4– [Fe(H2O)6]

2+

(1) CN– H2O

CFSE

(2) CN– H2O

(3)

(4) CN– H2O 74.

2NO + 2H2 N2 + 2H2O

Step-I : 2NO N2O2

Step-II : N2O2 + H2N2O + H2O

Step-III : N2O + H2N2 + H2O

(1) H2 (2) NO

(3) H2O (4) N2O

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75. If x is specific resistance (in S–1cm) of the

electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the

solution, then m (in S cm2 mol–1) is given by–

(1)1000x

y(2)

y1000

x

(3)1000

xy(4)

xy

1000

76. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution

of –

(1) Soil (2) Water

(3) Noise (4) Air

77. Which of the followings is not a fat soluble vitamin :-

(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D

(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin E

78. Which of the following shows half filled

configuration :-

(1) Cr+3(aq) (2) Mn+2(aq)

(3) Fe+3(aq) (4) All

79. A2 + 2 B 2 AB

[A2] [B] {–d[A2]/dt}

0.1 0.2 1 × 10–2 Ms–1

0.2 0.2 2 × 10–2 Ms–1

0.2 0.4 8 × 10–2 Ms–1

Order of reaction w.r.t. A2 and B are respectively :

(1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 1

(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2

80. Ionisation constant of a weak acid (HA) in terms

of m and m is–

(1)m

am

CK

( )

(2)

2m

am m m

CK

( )

(3)

2m

am m m

C( )K

( )

(4) None of these

81. When huge amount of sevage is dumped into a

river, the BOD will –

(1) Increase (2) Remain unchanged

(3) Slightly decrease (4) Decrease

75. x (S–1cm ) y

m (S cm2 mol–1 )

(1)1000x

y(2)

y1000

x

(3)1000

xy(4)

xy

1000

76. (1) (2) (3) (4)

77. :-(1) A (2) D(3) C (4) E

78.

(1) Cr+3(aq) (2) Mn+2(aq)

(3) Fe+3(aq) (4)

79. A2 + 2 B 2 AB

[A2] [B] {–d[A2]/dt}

0.1 0.2 1 × 10–2 Ms–1

0.2 0.2 2 × 10–2 Ms–1

0.2 0.4 8 × 10–2 Ms–1

A2 B (1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 1

(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2

80. (HA) m m

(1)m

am

CK

( )

(2)

2m

am m m

CK

( )

(3)

2m

am m m

C( )K

( )

(4) None of these

81. BOD (1) (2) (3) (4)

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82. Biuret test is not given by :-

(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates

(3) Polypeptides (3) Urea

83. How many EDTA molecules are required to make

an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion?

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) One (4) Two

84. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is

2 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec–1. If the concentration of the

reactant after 25 sec is 0.5 M, the initial

concentration must have been :

(1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M (3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M

85. The conductivity of a strong electrolytes–

(1) Increases on dilution

(2) Decreases on dilution

(3) Does not change with dilution

(4) None of these

86. In Lassaigne’s test the organic compound is fused

with Na followed by extraction with distilled

water. Which of the following is not the product

of this fusion reaction

(1) NaX (2) NaCN

(3) NaNC (4) Na2S

87. In the concentration of PbS containing ZnS as

impurity the depressant used is–

(1) NaCN (2) ZnSO4

(3) PbSO4 (4) aniline

88. Mg is obtained by

(1) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of MgCl2.

(2) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of MgCl2

taking Hg as cathode.

(3) Electrolysis of molten state of MgCl2.

(4) Electrolysis of alcoholic solution of MgCl2.

89. Mathematical repressentation for t1/4 life for first

order reaction is given by :-

(1) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 4

(2) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 3

(3) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (4/3)

(4) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (3/4)

90. Rusting of iron is catalyzed by which of the

following?

(1) Fe (2) Zn

(3) O2 (4) H+

82. :-(1) (2) (3) (3)

83. Ca2+ EDTA ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

84. 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec–1 25 sec 0.5 M (1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M

(3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M

85. (1) (2) (3) (4)

86. Na (1) NaX (2) NaCN

(3) NaNC (4) Na2S

87. PbS ZnS (1) NaCN (2) ZnSO4

(3) PbSO4 (4) 88. Mg

(1) MgCl2

(2) MgCl2 Hg

(3) MgCl

2

(4) MgCl2

89. t1/4

(1) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 4

(2) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 3

(3) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (4/3)

(4) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (3/4)

90.

(1) Fe (2) Zn

(3) O2 (4) H+

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91. Hepatitis B-vaccine

(1) Produced from yeast with the help of

recombinant-DNA technology

(2) Produced from bacteria with the helps of

recombinant-DNA technology

(3) Produced from viruses, with the help of

biotechnology

(4) Obtained from hepatitis B-virus naturally.

92. Select the correct statement related to allergic

response :

(A) Allergens stimulate formation of IgE

antibody.

(B) Histamine is secreted from mast cells.

(C) Treatment involves use of steroids and

antihistaminic.

(D) Immune system becomes hyposensitive.

(1) Only A, B, D (2) Only A, B, C

(3) Only B, C, D (4) All of these

93. Illustrated below are three diagrams A, B and C

A. B.

C.

Morphine a very effective sedative and painkiller

is extracted from the latex of _______ Papaver

somniferum. ________ is Datura a plant with

hallucinogenic properties. Cannabinoids are

obtained from _______ plant Cannabis sativa

Select the option which correctly fills in the blanks

respectively :-

(1) A, C and B (2) A, B and C

(3) C, B and A (4) C, A and B

91. B-:-

(1)

(2) DNA

(3)

(4) B-

92.

(A)IgE

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B, D (2) A, B, C

(3) B, C, D (4)

93. A, B C

A. B.

C.

_______ ________ _______ :-(1) A, C B (2) A, B C(3) C, B A (4) C, A B

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94. Which one of the following crop varieties

correctly matches with its resistance to a

disease?

Variety Resistance to diseases

(1) Pusa Komal – Bacterial blight

(2) Pusa Sadabahar – White rust

(3) Pusa Swarnim – Tobacco mosaic virus

(4) Pusa Shubhra – Chilli mosaic virus

95. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Thermoregulation is energetically

expensive for many organisms.

(2) Bears goes into hibernation during summer.

(3) Homeostasis is the mechanism of thermo

and osmoregulation.

(4) 99 percent of animals and nearly all plants

cannot maintain a constant internal

environment.

96. Electrostatic precepitators are used for

removing .....(i).........and scrubber can remove

.......(ii).....

(1) (i) SPM; (ii) NO2

(2) (i) Particular matter; (ii) CO

(3) (i) Particulate matter; (ii) SO2

(4) (i) SO2; (ii) Particulate matter

97. The aggregate of processes that determine the

size and composition of any population is known

as

(1) Population dynamics

(2) Population dispersal

(3) Population explosion

(4) Population density

98. The correct sequence of plant community in a

hydrosere is :

(1) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla

Oak Lantana

(2) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla

Pistia Scirpus

(3) Oak Lantana Scirpus Pistia

Hydrilla Volvox

(4) Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus

Lantana Oak

94.

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

95.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 99 %

96. ....(i).............(ii).....(1) (i) SPM; (ii) NO

2

(2) (i) ; (ii) CO

(3) (i) ; (ii) SO2

(4) (i) SO2; (ii)

97.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

98. :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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99. Sedimentary cycle having a small gaseous

component is found in–

(1) Phosphorus (2) Nitrogen

(3) Carbon (4) Sulphur

100. A place was rocky and barren but now there

is a green forest, the sequence of origin is :-

(1) Lichen, Moss, herbs, Shrubs

(2) Moss, lichen, herbs, shrubs

(3) Lichen, Moss, Shrubs, herbs

(4) Shrubs, herbs, moss, lichen

101. What is the source of the following compound?

Options

(1) Papaver somniferum

(2) Claviceps purpurea

(3) Cannabis sativa

(4) Datura

102. Match the columns:

(With reference to innate immunity)

A. Physical i. Skin

B. Physiological ii. Interferons

C. Cytokines iii. Natural killer

cells

D. Cellular iv. Fever, Saliva

Type of barrier Name of barrier

A B C D

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) i iv ii iii

(3) iv i ii iii

(4) iv ii i iii

103. Which of the following is not a pair of

secondary lymphoid organs :-

(1) Peyer's patches and appendix

(2) Lymph nodes and spleen

(3) Bone marrow and thymus

(4) MALT and GALT

99. (1) (2) (3) (4)

100. (1) (2) (3) (4)

101.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. ()

A. i.

B. ii.

C. iii.

D. iv.

A B C D

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) i iv ii iii

(3) iv i ii iii

(4) iv ii i iii

103. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) MALT GALT

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104. Jaya and Ratna are the semi-dwarf varieties of–

(1) Wheat (2) Rice

(3) Cowpea (4) Mustard

105. The process of mineralisation by micro

organisms helps in the release of -

(1) inorganic nutrients from humus.

(2) both organic and inorganic nutrients from

detritus.

(3) organic nutrients from humus.

(4) inorganic nutrients from detritus and

formation of humus.

106. What is B.O.D. ?

(1) The amount of O2 utilised by organisms in

water

(2) The amount of O2 utilised by micro-organisms

for decomposition of organic matter

(3) The total amount of O2 present in water

(4) O2, that is not utilized by fishes

107. exponential growth takes place whenver the

......(i)............ exceeds the ......(ii)....... over a

prolonged period of time.

(1) (i) Birth rate (ii) growth rate

(2) (i) Birth rate (ii) Death rate

(3) (i) Birth rate (ii) immigration

(4) (i) Death rate (ii) Birth rate

108. Biome having maximum rainfall is-

(1) Tropical forests (2) Conferous forests

(3) Deserts (4) Grasslands

109. Net primary productivity is equals to-

(1) NPP - GPP (2) NPP - R

(3) GSP - R (4) GPP - R

110. According to Tilman how species rich

biological community show more stability:-

(1) Plots with more species show less year to

year variation in total biomass

(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher

productivity

(3) Provide resistance to invasions by aline

species

(4) All of these

104. (1) (2)

(3) (4)

105. -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

106. B.O.D. ?

(1) O2

(2) O2

(3) O2

(4) O2

107. (exponential) ......(i)............ , ......(ii).......

(1) (i) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (ii)

(4) (i) (ii)

108.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

109.

(1) NPP - GPP (2) NPP - R

(3) GSP - R (4) GPP - R

110. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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111. Property of contact inhibition is appeared to be

lost in :-

(1) Cancer (2) Malaria

(3) AIDS (4) Dysentery

112. Choose a mismatched option :

(1) Common cold : One of the most infectious

viral disease

(2) Pneumonia : Haemophilus influenzae

infects alveoli of the lungs.

(3) Filariasis : Internal bleeding, muscular

pain, fever and anaemia

(4) Ascariasis : A healthy person acquires

infection through contaminated water,

vegetables and fruits.

113. Match the column

A Inbreeding i.

Mating between genetically

unrelated animals of same

breed

B Outcrossing ii.

Mating between genetically

related animals of same

breed

CCross

breedingiii.

Mating between different

breeds

DInterspecific

hybridisationiv.

Mating between different

species

Breeding type Breeding method

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) i ii iv iii

(3) ii i iii iv

(4) ii i iv iii

114. Match Column-I (crop) with Column-II

(corresponding disease resistant variety) and

select the correct option from the codes given

below–

Column-I Column-II

A. Cowpea (i) Himgiri

B. Wheat (ii) Pusa Komal

C. Chilli (iii) Pusa Sadabahar

D. Brassica (iv) Pusa swarnim

(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)

111. :-

(1) (2)

(3) AIDS (4)

112.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113.

A i.

B ii.

C iii.

D

iv.

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) i ii iv iii

(3) ii i iii iv

(4) ii i iv iii

114. -I-II -I -II

A. (i) B. (ii) C. (iii) D. (iv) (1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)

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115. Standing crop is -

(i) Biomass in a unit area

(ii) Number of living organism in unit area

(iii) Amount of nutrient such as carbon,

nitrogen, calcium in unit area

(iv) Amount of Detritus in unit area

(1) only (i) (2) (i) & (ii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)

116. Which of the following is considered as hotspot

of biodiversity of India ?

(1) Aravali hills (2) Eastern ghats

(3) Western ghats (4) Gangetic plain

117. In a comparative study of grassland ecosystem

and pond ecosystem it may be observed that

(1) The abiotic components are almost similar.

(2) The biotic components are almost similar.

(3) Both biotic and abiotic components are different.

(4) Primary and secondary consumers are similar.

118. Organisms which can survive in the wide range

of temperature are known as-

(1) Stenothermal (2) Eurythermal

(3) Stenohaline (4) Euryhaline

119. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living

material at a particular time called as the–

(1) Standing crop (2) Standing state

(3) Detritus (4) Humus

120. Select the reason that account for greater

biological diversity in tropics?

(i) Tropical latitudes have remained

undistrubed for millions of years.

(ii) Less seasonal environments variations in

tropical area.

(iii) Availability of more solar radiations.

Options

(1) Only i (2) i and ii

(3) i and iii (4) i, ii and iii

121. Biological response modifiers destroy _____

and are _____

(1) Normal cells, nicotine compounds

(2) Neoplastic cells, -interleukins

(3) Neoplastic cells, -interferons

(4) Contact inhibition, non ionising radiations

115. -

(i) (ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)

116. hotspots ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

117. (1)

(2) (3) (4)

118.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. (1) (2) (3) (4)

120. (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) i (2) i ii

(3) i iii (4) i, ii iii121. _____

_____

(1) (2) -

(3) -

(4)

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122. Various diseases can spread through inhaling

droplets/aerosols released by infected person.

From the option given below choose the

diseases that are acquired by this method:-

a. Diphtheria b. Pneumonia

c. Dengue d. Malaria

e. Dysentery f. Chikungunya

(1) d, e, f (2) a, b, c

(3) a & b (4) c & f

123. Which of the following component is

maximum in honey ?

(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose

(3) Fructose (4) Wax

124. Single cell protein can be obtained from–

(1) Bacteria (2) Algae

(3) Fungi (4) All of these

125. Transition zone between two ecosystems or

vegetational regions is termed :-

(1) Ecocline (2) Ecotone

(3) Ecad (4) Barrier

126. Which part of the world has a high density of

organisms :

(1) Deciduous forests (2) Grass lands

(3) Savannahs (4) Tropical rain forest

127. Select the true statement from the following

(a) Biodiversity varies from place to place.

(b) Plants are best conserved in situ, place

where they live naturally.

(c) Endemic species occurs in different

geographical area of the world.

(d) One most important factor in reduction of

biodiversity is population explosion.

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (b), (c), (d), (e) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(4) (a) and (b) are correct only

128. Mammals from colder climates generally have

shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. It

is called-

(1) Allen's law

(2) Mac Arthur's law

(3) Darwin's law of natural selection

(4) Gause's competitive Exclusion Principle

122. :-

a. b. c. d. e. f. (1) d, e, f (2) a, b, c

(3) a b (4) c f123.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

124. (1) (2) (3) (4)

125. (1) (2) (3) (4)

126. :(1) (2) (3) (4)

127. (a) (b)

(c) Endemic

(d)

(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (b), (c), (d), (e) (3) (a), (b) (d) (4) (a) (b)

128.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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129. Decomposers are-

(1) Animals and Monera

(2) Protista and Animalia

(3) Fungi and Plantae

(4) Bacteria and Fungi

130. Read the following statement :-

(i) Maximum leaching effect

(ii) Maximum stratification

(iii) Nearly impossible reforestation

The above given statements is associated with

which of the following biome.

(1) Desert

(2) Tropical rain forest

(3) Grassland

(4) Savana

131. Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many

people in our society is :-

(1) an allergic disorder caused by allergens

present in food

(2) a degenerative disorder, caused by decline

in efficiency of joints.

(3) an auto immune disease, usually occur in

mid age.

(4) an infective disease caused by viral

infection.

132. How many pairings are incorrect ?

A. Antibodies - Chemically glyco protein

B Graft rejection

- Cell mediated immunity

C Gambusia - Feeds on mosquito larvae

D Aedes - Vector of malaria

E Acquired immunity

- Memory based

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) none of these

129.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

130. :-

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

131.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

132.

A –

B –

C –

D –

E –

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Time Management is Life Management

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133. How many statements are related to MOET :

A. Gonodotropins like hormones are used

B. 6 to 8 eggs are produced

C. Embryo transfer may occur at 4-celled stage

D. Used for improvement of quality of silk

E. Requirement of surrogate mothers

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5

134. Which of the following shows the correct

sequence of steps of plant tissue culture?

(1) Sterilization Hardening Selection of

explant Inoculation Regeneration

Plantlet transfer

(2) Selection of explant Inoculation

Regeneration Sterilization Hardening

Plantlet transfer

(3) Selection of explant Sterilization

Inoculation Regeneration Hardening

Plantlet transfer

(4) Hardening Sterilization Selection of

explant Inoculation Regeneration

Plantlet transfer

135. Population density of terrestrial organisms is

measured in terms of individual per

(1) Meter3 (2) Meter

(3) Meter4 (4) Meter2

136. Identify correct statements and select the

suitable option :

(a) Ecology is study of interaction among

organisms and between the organism and

its physical environment.

(b) The organism through natural selection

have evolved adaptation to optimise its

survival and reproduction in its habitat.

(c) Aquatic organisms living in oceans, lakes

and river should never face any water

related problems.

(d) The availability of light on land is closely

linked with that of temperature.

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (c) and (d)

133. MOET

A.

B. 6 8

C. 4-

D.

E.

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5

134.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135.

(1) 3 (2)

(3) 4 (4) 2

136. :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (a), (b) (d)

(3) (a) (b) (4) (a), (c) (d)

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137. Predators are important for a natural ecosystem

because they :

(I) Keep prey population under control.

(II) Helps in maintaining species diversity.

(III) Are used in biological control method.

(IV) Acts as conduits for energy transfer across

trophic level.

(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, IV

(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, III

138. Read the following figure carefully.

PopulationDensity

(N)

(I)+

+ –

–

(B) (D)

(E)

Match the following.

I B E D

(1) Immigration Mortality Natality Emigration

(2) Emigration Natality Immigration Mortality

(3) Immigration Natality Emigration Mortality

(4) Natality Mortality Emigration Immigration

139. The natural ageing of a lake by biological

enrichment of its water is known as-

(1) Eutrophication (2) Biomagnification

(3) Algal bloom (4) Green house effect

140. Study the given below figure carefully and

choose the correct combination of biomes-

(1) A- Desert & B- Temperate forest

(2) D- Temperate forest & E- Coniferous forest

(3) C- Grassland & F- Arctic tundra

(4) B- Desert & D- Tropical forest

137. :(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV)

(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, IV

(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, III

138.

(N)

(I)+

+ –

–

(B) (D)

(E)

I B E D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

139. (1) (2) (3) (4)

140.

(1) A- & B- (2) D- & E- (3) C- & F- (4) B- & D-

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141. Match the column :

A. Filariasis i. Virus

B. Pneumonia ii. Bacteria

C. Common cold iii. Helminth

D. Malaria iv. Protozoan

Disease Pathogen

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) iii i ii iv

142. Malignant malaria is caused by–

(1) Plasmodium vivax

(2) Plasmodium malariae

(3) Plasmodium falciparum

(4) Plasmodium ovale

143. How many fish are fresh water in the following:

Catla, Hilsa, Rohu, Sardine, Common carp,

Mackerel, Pomfret

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

144. In virus-infected plants the apical meristematic

tissue is free of virus because–

(1) The dividing cells are virus resistant

(2) Meristems have anti viral compounds

(3) The cell division of meristems are faster

than the rate of viral multiplication

(4) Viruses cannot multiply within meristem

cell(s)

145. Barnacles growing on back of whale is an

example of :

(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism

(3) Parasilism (4) Amensalism

146. Which of the following statement is not correct

about ecological niche of an organism ?

(1) It represents functional status of a species

in environment.

(2) One niche supports a single species.

(3) Each ecological niche is free from competition.

(4) It represent trophic position of a species.

141.

A. i.

B. ii.

C. iii.

D. iv.

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) iii i ii iv

142.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

143. (1) (2) (3) (4)

144. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

145. :(1) (2) (3) (4)

146.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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147. Response of organism to abiotic stress is

represented by the diagram below. Identify the

statement which is not correct for the figure.

(1) A – Represent organisms which cannot

maintain a constant internal environment.

(2) B – Represent organisms which can maintai

a constant internal environment through

homeostasis.

(3) C – represent organism which have evolved

the ability to regulate, but only over a limited

range.

(4) B – represents organism which suspend

their activity.

148. If in a pond there were 200 plants last year and

through reproduction 80 new plants were

added, then the birth rate per plant per year is-

(1) 08 (2) 80 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8

149. Level of sound which may damage ear drums-

(1) 10 dB (2) 30 dB

(3) 35 dB - 55 dB (4) 150 dB or More

150. Which group of organism are not constituents

of a food chain ?

(a) Grass, Lion, Rabbit, Wolf

(b) Plankton, Man, Fish, Grass hopper

(c) Wolf, Grass, Snake, Tiger

(d) Frog, Snake, Eagle, Grass, Grass hopper

(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)

151. ELISA and Widal tests are used to detect,

respectively:

(1) Hepatitis B and Pneumonia

(2) Typhoid & AIDS

(3) AIDS & Penumonia

(4) AIDS & Typhoid

147.

(1) A –

(2) B – homeostasis

(3) C –

(4) B –

148. 200 80 (1) 08 (2) 80 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8

149. (1) 10 dB (2) 30 dB

(3) 35 dB - 55 dB (4) 150 dB 150.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (a) (c) (2) (c) (d)

(3) (b) (c) (4) (a) (d)

151. ELISA

(1) B

(2) AIDS

(3) AIDS

(4) AIDS

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152. Select the incorrect statement with respect to

cancerous cell

(1) In cancer cell, there is a breakdown of the

regulatory mechanism of cell growth and

differentiation

(2) Cancerous cells grow very rapidly,

invading and damaging the surrounding

normal tissues

(3) Cancerous cells are sloughed from tumors

and reach distant site through blood and

start a new tumor

(4) Cancerous cells never starve the normal

cells by competing for vital nutrients

153. Find out the incorrect statement–

(1) Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl

(birds) used for food or for their eggs.

(2) It is estimated that more than 70% of the

world live stock is found in India alone.

(3) The productivity of livestock in India per

unit is very low.

(4) In-breeding for many many generation may

reduces fertility and productivity.

154. A collection of all the alleles of all the genes

of a crop plant is called–

(1) Germplasm collection

(2) Protoplasm collection

(3) Herbarium

(4) Somaclonal collection

155. Percentage of energy transported from producer

to (primary consumer) herbivores in an ecosystem

is:

(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 10% (4) 15%

156. Find the mismatch pair

(1) Coniferous forest – Taiga

(2) Tundra – Permafrost

(3) Pampas – Europe

(4) Prairies – Canada

152. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

153.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

154.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

155. :

(1) 0% (2) 20%

(3) 10% (4) 15%

156.

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

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157. Competition for food, light and space is most

severe between two.

(1) Distantly related species growing in

different habitat.

(2) Distantly related species growing in same

habitat.

(3) Closely related species growing in different

habitat.

(4) Closely related species growing in same

habitat.

158. Calotropis is adapted against herbivores due to

the presence of-

(1) Poisonous glycosides

(2) Thorns

(3) Nicotine

(4) Both (1) and (2)

159. Which one of the following age pyramids is

representing the increasing human population?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)

160. Choose the correct labeling considering the

given below phosphorus cycle-

(1) C- Detritus; B-Consumers

(2) A-Consumers; C-Producers

(3) C-Rock minerals; E-Soil solution

(4) A-Detritus; D-Soil solution

157.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

158.

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (1) (2) 159.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (2) (3)

160.

(1) C- ; B-

(2) A-; C-(3) C-; E-

(4) A-; D-

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161. Select the incorrect statement in reference to the

given structure

(a) It is produced by B lymphocytes and T

lymphocytes help in it.

(b) It provides active immunity when given

directly

(c) It maintains humoral immune response

(d) It is involved in graft rejection

(1) b, c and d (2) a and c

(3) a and b (4) b and d

162. How many statements are true related to HIV

infection ?

(a) It belongs to group of retro virus

(b) It contains single stranded DNA

(c) Entry into human cells requires CD4

receptor and CXCR4, CCR5 Co-receptors

(d) It reduces number of T-helper cells

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

163. Somaclones are :-

(1) Somatic hybrids

(2) Genetically identical to the original plant

(3) Used to recover disease free plant

(4) Sterile plants

164. Biofortification refers to the development of

crop plants which are–

(1) Resistant to disease

(2) Resistant to insect pests

(3) Having improved nutritional quality

(4) Having improved iron content

161.

(a) B T

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) b, c d (2) a c

(3) a b (4) b d

162. HIV

(a)

(b) DNA

(c) CD4 CXCR4,

CCR5

(d) T-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

163. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

164.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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165. Which of the following is true in case of pond

ecosystem :

(1) Pyramid of energy is always inverted

(2) Pyramid of biomass is always upright

(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright

(4) Pyramid of number is always inverted

166. Match the column and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Mutualism i. Epiphyte

orchid

a. Mango tree

B. Predation ii. Biological

control

b. Mycorrhizae

C. Competition iii. + , + c. Competitive

release

D. Commensalism iv. Barnacle d. Opuntia

(1) A-(ii)-a, B-(i)-c, C-(iii)-b, D-(iv)-d

(2) A-(iii)-b, B-(ii)-d, C-(iv)-c, D-(i)-a

(3) A-(i)-c, B-(iii)-a, C-(ii)-d, D-(iv)-b

(4) B-(iv)-d, B-(ii)-b, C-(i)-a, D-(iii)-c

167. Which of the following place have subzero

temperature :-

(A)High altitude place

(B) Hydrothermal vent

(C) Polar area

(D) Tropical desert

(1) A & C (2) A, B & C

(3) Only C (4) A, B, C & D

168. Green muffler is planting of tree to reduce noise

pollution it is done :-

(1) On waste lands

(2) Along roads

(3) Along canals

(4) On the slopes of hill

169. Tiger and Lion competing for the same

resources cannot co-exist indefinitely. It can be

best explained by-

(1) Allen's law

(2) Mac Arthur's law

(3) Darwin's law of natural selection

(4) Gause's competitive Exclusion Principle

165. :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

166. :-

-I -II -III

A i a

B ii b

C iii +, + c

D iv d

(1) A-(ii)-a, B-(i)-c, C-(iii)-b, D-(iv)-d

(2) A-(iii)-b, B-(ii)-d, C-(iv)-c, D-(i)-a

(3) A-(i)-c, B-(iii)-a, C-(ii)-d, D-(iv)-b

(4) B-(iv)-d, B-(ii)-b, C-(i)-a, D-(iii)-c

167. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A C (2) A, B C

(3) C (4) A, B, C D

168. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

169. (1) (2) (3) (4)

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170. Which of the following cannot cause biomagnification?

(1) CO2 (2) Hg

(3) Lead (4) DDT

171. Transmission of HIV-infection generally does

not occur by :-

(1) sexual contact with an infected person

(2) sharing needles to take intravenous drugs

(3) transfusion of contaminated blood and

blood products

(4) sharing towels with an infected person

172. Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton

are causative agents of :–

(1) Ring worm (2) Elephantiasis

(3) Giardiasis (4) Dysentry

173. Meristem culture is the culture of :–

(1) Axillary or apical shoot meristems

(2) Anthers

(3) Plant seed

(4) Young embryos

174. Ecologically most relevant environmental

factor is :

(1) Temperature (2) Water

(3) Light (4) Soil

175. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those that

(1) Contributing to maximum effect on ecosystem

(2) Present in maximum number

(3) Are most frequent

(4) Having maximum biomass

176. Limnetic zone is –

(1) The shallow water zone around the edge of

lake which supports rooted vegetation

(2) The open water zone beyond the littoral zone

(3) The zone where light does not reach

(4) Both (1) and (2)

177. About succession, which of the following

statement is correct ?

(1) In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to

hydric conditions

(2) In hydrosere, mesic environment progress

to hydric conditions

(3) In hydrosere hydric environment progress

to mesic conditions

(4) Abandoned farm lands show primary

succession

170. (1) CO2 (2) Hg

(3) (4) DDT

171. HIV-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 172.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

173. (1) (2) (3) (4)

174. :(1) (2) (3) (4)

175. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

176. –(1)

(2) (3) (4) (1) (2)

177.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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178. Interactions between Sea anemone and Clownfish is-(1) +, 0 (2) 0, +(3) -, 0 (4) 0, –

179. Given below ecological pyramid can neverbelong to-

(1) Number (2) Biomass(3) Energy (4) Both(1) & (2)

180. Main cause of extinction of species fromtropical area is :-(1) Afforestation(2) Deforestation(3) Pollution(4) Soil erosin

178. leqnzh , sfueksu ,oa Dykmu eNyh dh ikjLifjd fØ;kgS&(1) +, 0 (2) 0, +(3) -, 0 (4) 0, –

179. fn;k x;k ikfjfLFkdh fijSfeM dHkh Hkh lEcfU/kr ugha gksldrk&

(1) la[;k ls (2) tSo Hkkj ls(3) ÅtkZ ls (4) (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa ls

180. m".k dfVcfU/k; {ks=ksa esa iztkfr;ksa ds foyqIr gksus dk dkj.kgS :-(1) oujksi.k(2) ouksa dh gkfu (Deforestation)(3) iznq"k.k(4) e`nk dVko

Your moral dutyis to prove that ALLEN is ALLEN

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

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Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CM303115040 CLASSROOM … · 2016-03-17 · Hindi. PHYSICS : Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating current Electromagnetic Waves OPTICS : (i) Ray