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MODEL QUESTION
B a n k P O
General Awareness 1. The former Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High
Court, , assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes. 1) MM Punchhi 2) KG Balakrishnan 2) Jiwan Narayan Reddy 4) Makani Narayana Rao 5) None of these
2. The former Chief Justice of India, , took over as the sixth Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). 1) SR Pandian 2) SH Kapadia 3) KG Balakrishnan 4) Vinod Rai 5) None of these
3. They are called Alpha Hawks, andthey have been specially trained to fight Naxalites in their strongholds in l)Jharkhand 2) Maharashtra 3)Orissa 4) West Bengal 5) None of these
4. Which of the following statements are true about this year's French Open? A. Rafael Nadal avenged last year's shock defeat—his
only loss ever at Roland Garros—by crushing Robin Soderling 6-4,6-2,6-4 to claim his 5th French Open title and 7th Grand Slam title
B. Nadal is only the second man after Bjorn Borg (who finished with 6) to win 5 French Opens.
C. He also regained the World No. 1 ranking from Roger Federer, who remains one week short of equalling Pete Sampras's record of a total of286 weeks as the top-ranked player.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) All the above 5) None of these
5. The Centre on Jun 11 raised more than as the 16-day auction of Broadband Wireless Access (BWA) spectrum came to an end. l)Rs 12,000 cr 2) Rs26,300 cr 3) RsRs 38,600 cr 4) Rs 49,200 cr 5) None of these
6. The Mukesh Ambani-led RIL entered the telecom arena on Jun 11, announcing a acquisition of Infotel that only hours earlier emerged as the sole winner of pan-India broadband spectrum. l)Rs2,200-cr 2)Rs4,800-cr 3)Rs6,100-cr 4) Rs 8,000-cr 5) None of these
7. Name the Indian agency whose team has travelled to the United States to interrogate the Mumbai terror attacks suspect, David Coleman Headley, and which was provided with seven days' access to him between Jun 3 and 10. 1) National Investigation Agency 2) Central Bureau of Investigation 3) Research and Analysis Wing 4) Intelligence Bureau 5) None of these
8. In its first legal intervention in the Bhopal gas tragedy case, the government formed a five-member committee of legal experts to study various aspects of the lower court's judgment. 1) Chhattisgarh 2) MP 3) Chhattisgarh 4) UP 5) None of these
9. The Union government has appointed retired IAS officer Wilfred Lakara and former state Director General of Police Rajiv Ranjan Prasad as advisors for , which was placed under President's rule. l)Manipur 2)Meghalaya 3)Goa 4) Jharkhand 5) None of these
10. Benigno Aquino III has been appointed as the new President of
1) Thailand 2) Singapore 3) The Philippines 4) Myanmar 5) None of these
11. Name the former banker who has been appointed chairman of interim pension regulator PFRDA. l)Dhanendra Kumar 2) Yogesh Agarwal 3) Hari Narayan 4) CV Bhave 5) None of these
12. After roping as its first institutional partner in the unique identification (UID) project, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is looking at banks as its partners in the project. 1) LIC 2) Bajaj Allianz 3) ICICI Prudential 4) SBI Life 5) None of these
13. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has slapped a penalty of on Manmohan Sherry, well-known film producer and former chairman of media company Adlabs Films, for allegedly violating SEBI's insider trading norms in 2006. l ) R s l c r 2 ) R s 2 c r 3 )Rs3c r 4) Rs 4 cr 5) None of these
14. The government on Jun 9 said that it would list public sector companies on the stockmarkets overthe next five years. The move would generate about Rs 1.5 lakh cr. in revenues for the government. 1)20 2)25 3)30 4)35 5) None of these
15. Name the state govt which returned to Gujarat the Rs 5 cr the Narendra Modi govt had given for the state being devastated by flood in 2008. 1) Bihar 2) UP 3) West Bengal 4) Karnataka 5) None of these
16. The United Nations Security Council slapped new sanctions on a defiant , in a bid to coerce the West Asian nation to halt its suspect nuclear fuel activities. 1) Pakistan 2) Libya 3) Iran 4) North Korea 5) None of these
17. Chief Election Commissioner of India Navin Chawla met the first voter of independent India, , at Kalpa
20. Who has been presented the Next Step Foundation 2010 Award at the House of Commons in London? 1) Keith Vaz 2) Virendra Sharma 3) Navnit Dholakia 4) M Veerappa Moily 5) None of these
21. Spain has won the FIFA World Cup by defeating 1) Brazil 2) The Netherlands 3) Germany 4) Paraguay 5) None of these
22. How many Indian companies have made the cut on the list of the World's 500 largest companies compiled by Fortune magazine? 1)4 2)8 3)12 4)16 5) None of these
23. Julia Gillard has been appointed as the prime minister of 1) Belgium 2) Fiji 3) New Zealand 4) Australia 5) None of these
24. Who among the following has won the Asia Cup Cricket held in Sri Lanka recently? 1) Pakistan 2) India 3) Sri Lanka 4) Bangladesh 5) None of these
25. Bhopal gas disaster happened in 1)1982 2)1983 3)1984 4)1985 5) None of these
26. Name the Brazilian coach who has been sacked over its World Cup quarter-final exit. l)Dunga 2)Maradona 3)Ronaldo 4) Rivaldo 5) None of these
27. Who among the fol lowing has won the Polish presidential poll? 1) Donald Tusk 2) Bronislaw Komorowski 3) Jaroslaw Kaozynski 4) Lech Kaczynski 5) None of these
28. Rafael Nadal has won the men's singles title in the Wimbledon final by defeating 1) Roger Federer 2) Robin Soderling 3) Tomas Berdych 4) Andy Murray 5) None of these
29. India's Leander Paes and Cara Black of beat South African Wesley Moodie and Lisa Raymond of the US 6-4,7-6 (5) to win the Wimbledon mixed doubles title 1) South Africa 2) Zimbabwe 3) Spain 4) Belgium 5) None of these
30. Which is India's longest-running bribe scam in a defence purchase? 1)F-16 2)Arjun 3) Fairfax 4)Bofors 5) None of these
31. Name the former spiritual mentor of the Shiite militant group Hezbollah who was branded a "terrorist" by Washington and who died recently. 1) Mohammed Hussein Fazlallah 2) Ayattollah Khomeini 3) Sheikh Ragheb Harb 4) Nasrallah 5) None of these
32. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) hiked the short-term indicative interest rates (repo and reverse repo rates) by
basis points to mitigate rising inflation and inflationary pressures. 1)25 2)50 3)75 4)100 5) None of these
33. UK-based Royal Bank of Scotland (RBS) has announced sale of its retail and commercial banking business in India worth $ 1.8 b (about Rs 8,500 cr) to British banking major 1) Standard Chartered Bank 2) Barclays Bank 3)HSBC 3) Deutsche Bank 5) None of these
34. Defending champion won her fourth Wimbledon crown, beating Russia's Vera Zvonareva 6-3, 6-2. The victory took her to 13 Grand Slam singles titles, past Billie Jean King and sixth in the all-time list. 1) Venus Williams 2) Serena Williams 3) Dinara Safina 4) Svetlana Kuznetsova 5) None of these
35. Name the first woman President in Central Asia who was sworn in Kyrgyzstan, three weeks after bloody ethnic violence in the country's southern regions claimed hundreds of lives. 1) Rosa Otunbayeva 2) Asho Parpola 3)NikkiHaley 4) Julia Gillard 5) None of these
36. Which of the following is a difference between Direct and Indirect Marketing?
1) Direct Marketing is to the Bank's employees; Indirect is to outsiders.
2) Direct Marketing is to outsiders; Indirect is to the employees.
3) Direct Marketing is to the Bank's owners; Indirect is to outsiders
4) Direct Marketing is to other Banks' employees; Indirect is to outsiders.
5) None of these 37. Transaction Marketing means
1) Marketing only to strangers 2) Mere selling of goods 3) Doing banking transactions 4) All of the above 5) None of these
38. In Marketing it is necessary to identify 1) Potential sellers 2) Selling employees 3) Potential products and services 4) Key existing and potential customers 5) All of the above
39. An NRI is an easy target for effective marketing because 1) he likes Indian goods 2) he does not like Indian goods 3) he is easily approachable 4) it is cheaper to contact NRIs 5) there are special products designed for NRIs
40. A DSA helps in 1) Boosting direct sales 2) Contacting customers on the Net 3) Indirect Marketing 4) Direct Telemarketing 5) None of these
41. Marketing is required for 1) Boosting production 2) Boosting sales 3) Boosting profits 4) Improving customer service 5) All of the above
42. A cold call is 1) The best way to do Marketing 2) A last resort for Marketers 3) Marketing at random 4) All of the above 5) None of these
43. What menu is selected in order to print ? 1) Edit 2) Special 3) File 4) Tools 5) None of these
44. The name a user assigns to a document is called a(n) 1) filename 2) program 3) record 4) data 5) None of these
45. A is an electronic device that processes data converting it into information.
1) processor 2) computer 3) case 4) stylus 5) None of these
46. are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use. 1) Control words 2) Reserved words 3) Reserved keys 4) Control structures 5) None of these
47. Which of the following are the two types of output devices? 1) Monitor and printer 2) Storage disks (floppy, CD) 3) Keyboard and mouse 4) Windows 2000, Windows NT 5) None of these
48. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is 1) dragging 2) dropping 3) right-clicking 4) shift-clicking 5) None of these
49. A(n) is a program that makes the computer easier to use. 1) operating system 2) application 3) utility 4) network 5) None of these
50. Connections to the Internet using a phone line and a modem are called connections. 1) digital 2) dial-up 3) broadband 4) dish 5) None of these
English Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
National integration is aproblem that has been considered to be of vital importance all over the world. This is of special significance to our country. Leaders like Abraham Lincoln and President Kennedy fell victims to bullets of assassins in their efforts to bring about greater unity among the people and greater integration of the various parts of the country.
Many social reformers believed that integration of a country could survive on the foundation of faith, brotherhood and co-operation. The conditions in India were diversified with factors like caste system, colour, etc. It wasn't an easy task to bring about the brotherhood feeling among our people in India. Hindu rulers, though professing the same faith, were divided among themselves.
The division was perpetuated by later Muslim rulers. But during British rule the policy of divide and rule became a cause of conflict.
The dynamism of Sardar Patel led independent states to become integral part of the Indian Union. This was the first step towards national integration. Today national Integration remains a distant goal. Love for power, craze for riches, and religious and linguistic fantasia make integration impossible. Under these circumstances a need for National Integration is greatly felt.
To achieve this, one must be made to understand that the evils that result in the economic, social, religious and
political divisions must be rooted out. They should also understand the emphasis of truth, that ideologies may differ, but that they should not be vehicles for prevention of the achievement of unity. The ideal of universal brotherhood should underline the teachings of all religions. The process of introspection should be cultivated from the grassroots level. Children at school must be taught the values of integration and its advantages. Young minds should be taught the values of national integration and its advantages. 51. The killers of Abraham Lincoln and Kennedy
1) wanted to rule the country themselves. 2) opposed the idea of national integration. 3) wanted to destabilise the government. 4) wanted to support militancy. 5) challenged the government.
52. Abraham Lincoln and Kennedy were the advocates of 1) non-violence 2) unity among all the countries of the world 3) peace and harmony in the world 4) national integration 5) None of these
53. Why was it considered a difficult task to drive home the sense of fraternity among Indians? 1) because Indians were opposed to any change in the
social system 2) because Indians lacked the sense of fraternity 3) because Indians were less educated 4) because Indians opposed the western philosophy of
life 5) None of these
54. Which of the following is seen as the first step towards national integration in our country? 1) All the independent states coming under one umbrella 2) Muslim rulers coming on a single platform 3) Britishers establishing their control all over India 4) People coming together after the end of the British rule 5) None of these
55. Which of the following has not been seen as an obstacle to the idea of national integration? (i) hunger of power (ii) going mad after wealth (iii) craze for higher education (iv) religious intolerance 1) Only (i) and (iii) 2) Only (ii) and (iv) 3) Only (iii) 4) Only (iv) 5) None of the above
56. Why is the need for national integration greatly felt today? 1) because people are opposed to Sardar Patel's idea of
the Indian Union 2) because Abraham Lincoln and Kennedy sacrificed
their lives for it 3) because lust for power and wealth, and religious and
language-related barriers have created division within the nation
4) because India wants to emerge as a superpower 5) None of these
57. What would be the benefit of teaching the values of integration and its advantages at school level?
1) It would help in inculcating a sense of unity and amity among children of different sects and backgrounds.
2) It would motivate children to adopt a sacred lifestyle. 3) It would become the guideline for teachers to provide social lessons to children.
4) It would ultimately result in all religions becoming a single religion.
5) None of these 58. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage? 1) Sardar Patel supported the idea of international integration.
2) The British tried their best for national integration in India.
3) In terms of national integration, Hindu rulers were not united.
4) Muslim rulers supported the idea of national integration.
5) None of these 59. Give a suitable title to the passage.
1) Religious tolerance 2) Importance of national integration 3) National unity and the world 4) Unity among people 5) Social evils: A burden-on the society Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is the
opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage. 60. VITAL
1) general 2) average 3) trivial 4) secondary 5) normal
61. DIVERSIFIED 1) unified 2) justified 3) fixed 4) assembled 5) adjusted
62. PERPETUATED 1) prolonged 2) captured 3) weakened 4) halted 5) sidelined Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is the same
in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 63. PROFESSING
1) preaching 2) adhering 3) witnessing 4) utilising 5) worshipping
64. DISTANT l)away 2) abroad 3) above 4) heavenly 5) far
65. CRAZE 1) greed 2) hunger 3) lust 4) demand 5) dream Directions (Q. 66-70): In the following questions, the
first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer. 66. 1. The government is pleased as punch
P. has begun to deliver as is evident Q. in tariffs for domestic and
R. that its telecom liberalisation 5. from the sharp reduction 6. international long-distance calls. 1)PQRS 2)SRQP 3)RSQP 4)RPSQ 5)QRPS
67. 1. If Hindi has to be made the link language, P. its demerits should first be Q. listed out and rectified after which R. can prepare a comprehensive 5. the authorities concerned 6. policy to implement it. 1)PQRS 2)RSPQ 3)QRPS 4)SPQR 5)PQSR
68. 1. The strange thing about P. four decades ago Q. they-started R, these schools is that 5. the syllabus with which 6. has never undergone any change. 1)RSQP 2)SRQP 3)QRPS 4)RQSP 5)PRSQ
69. 1. Her parents constantly reminded her of P. telling her to be silent Q. the need of the hour R. and at times lovingly 5. at times admonishing her 6. and maintain her dignity. 1)PQRS 2)QSRP 3)SRPQ 4)PSRQ 5)RQSP
70. 1. One hopes that the latest P. placing the rights of women Q. of being seen in terms of R. verdict does not fall into the trap 5. anything else but that of 6. at par with that of men. 1)QRSP 2)SQPR 3)PRSQ 4)RSQP 5)RQSP Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.) 71. 1) The parents and their child 12) was asked to sit while/3
from across the table I A) a warm smile flashed. /5)No err 72. 1) No sooner had/ 2) they come home/ 3) the mother/4
lashed at them./ 5) No error 73. 1) Within a week the principal 12) sent the parents a lette
/3) which was stating that /4) their girls had bee admitted. /5) No error
74. 1) The hall was 12) spacious enough 12) for the picnic party I A) to live. /5) No error
75. 1) It is time 12) the authorities /3) have banned ragging/ 4) in the educational institutions. /5) No error Directions (Q. 76-85): In each of the following sentem
there are two blankspaces. Below each sentence there arefiv pairs ofwords denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find o which pair of words can be filled upintheblanksinthe senten in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 76. The renaissance spirit of of the mysterious
unknown world has become a of the past. 1) exploration, phenomenon 2) transparency, story
77.
78.
79.
3) unfolding, question 4) visualising, memory 5) displaying, subject When the of our Constitution defined a India, they tried their best to put in checks and balances to protect our minorities. 1) forefathers, tolerant 2) leaders, just 3) architecture, social 4) caretakers, divine 5) framers, secular Man's enemies are within himself and can be by
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
2) conquered, introspection 4) surrendered, loving
_ telecom is doomed to failure, 89.
1) controlled, force 3) caught, passion 5) driven, generosity Since any effort to _ the solution may lie outside the legal system, in policy decisions by the government. 1) license, alternative 2) regulate, ultimate 3) operate, single 4) open, final 5) regularise, hardly In a democracy where the poor and the disadvantaged are the majority, no government can their . 1) sustain, demands 2) challenge, issues 3) fulfil, needs 4) change, fortune 5) ignore, interests The of bad economic policies are felt
2) focus, instantly 4) burdens, drastic
1) outcome, alarming 3) effects, immediately 5) genre, shakingly r
The respect given to women in a society is an of the state of society's . 1) iota, goal 2) emblem, degeneration 3) effort, progress 4) index, development 5) idea, empowerment Because of lack of awareness, they often fall to middlemen who a major share from these poor people. 1) victim, force 2) helpless, snatch 3) dumb, demand 4) diverted, grab . 5) prey, extort This has the concerned agencies to take appropriate to promote consumer interests. 1) sensitised, measures 2) angered, actions 3) challenged, determination 4) caused, direction 5) raised, guard This organisation has played a role in the of
5) None of these 87. If we give him this concession, it will be the thin end of
the wedge. 1) the least we could do for them 2) the beginning of further concessions 3) inadequate for their needs 5) a compromise on principles 5) None of these
88. Enemy soldiers fell upon the platoon as soon as it crossed the border. 1) attacked 2) happened to see 3) accidentally met 4) overpowered 5) None of these The manager fought tooth and nail to save his firm. 1) with tricks 2) with weapons 3) persistently 4) with corruption 5) None of these
90. The pedestrian had a hair-breadth escape from a street accident. 1) lucky 2) quick 3) easy 4) narrow 5) None of these Directions (Q. 91-100): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of wh h has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words a re suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
A little less than five years ago, the government of India 9J. a set of 92 that 93 in an 94 of reforms for the IT sector. Within India, these reforms have not yet 95 to the grassroots level, though smaller towns and cities and many villages, especially in South India, have been 96 by public and private participation in e-governance and have some experience of online transactions. On the 97 the Internet's 98 as a 99 tool has been most 100.
economic empowerment of women. 1) just, era 2) pioneering, sphere 3) silent, significance 4) drastic, realm 5) unique, policy Directions (Q. 86-90): In the following questions four
alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it as your answer. If none of the alternatives are correct, mark 5), ie None of these, as your answer. 86. He faced the music for reporting to his boss late.
1) faced pleasure 2) faced reprimand 3) faced opposition 4) faced punishment
91. 1) activated 2) proposed 3) finalised 4) initiated 5) dedicated
92. 1) measures 2) directions 3) planning 4) panels 5)agenda
93. i; developed 2) assumed 3) envisioned 4) flourished 5) ushered
94. 1) aura 2) environ 3) era 4) ultimately 5) area
95. 1) realised 2) merged 3) rooted 4) percolated 5) bestowed
96. 1) benefited 2) governed 3) supported 4j supplemented 5) involved
97. 1) basis 2) account 3) whole 4) above 5) average
98. 1) programme 2) utility 3) idea 4) success 5) revolution
99. 1) computer 2) software 3) electronic 4} technology 5) communication
100. 1) divulged 2) utilised 3) common 4) appreciating 5) soothing
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. 101-105): What will be the value in the
place of question mark (?)?
1)70 2)80 3)90 4)100 5)110 110. 537x 5 3 62 x 51.1 = 5 7 9 = ?
1).004 2) .008 3)1.02 4)1.04 5)1.08 111. In a class the average age of 25 students is 12 years.
When five students left the class the average age became 11 years. What is the average age of the students who left the class? 1)12 years 2) 10 years 3) 14 years 4) 15 years 5) 16 years
112. The ratio of the age of the father to that of the son is 2 : 1 . 5 years earlierthe ratio was 11:5 . What is the the present age of the son?
1)20 years 2) 25 years 3) 30 years 4) 3 5 years 5) 40 years
113. If the sum of three consecutive even numbers is three less than 30% of 150, what is the middle number? 1)10 2)12 3)14 4)16 5)18
114. A and B entered into a partnership with their capital in the ratio 7 : 5. At the end of 10 months A withdraws his capital. If they receive the profits in the ratio 7 : 2, find how long B's capital was used. 1) 4 months 2) 8 months 3)12 months 4) 10 months 5) None of these
115. If the annual decreases in the population of a town is 4% and the present population is 8 lakhs, what will be the population after two years 1)713510 2)72680 3)737280 4)747870 5)825400 Directions (Q. 116-120): What should come in the place
of (?) in the following number series? 116.1, 3, 9, 21 , 41 , ?
1)61 2)71 3)66 4)76 5)81 117.50, 97, 140, 181, 218, 249, 278, ?
1)291 2)294 3)298 4)301 5)309 118. 1, 3, 6, 10.5, 17.25, ?
1)21.5 2)24.325 3)27.375 4)29.455 5) None of these
119.4, 13, 21 , 47, 89, 183, 361, ? 1)577 2)627 3)677 4)697 5)727
120.1, 2.5, 5, 8.5, 14, 21.5, 33, 46.5, 64, ? 1)83.5 2)84.5 3)85.5 4)86.5 5)87.5 Directions (Q. 121-125): Each question is followed by
two statements I and II. Answer each question using the following option
(A) If the question can be answered by using statement (I) alone but can't be answered by statement (II) alone.
(B) If the question can be answered by statement (II alone but can't be answered by statement (I) alone
(C) If both statement I and II are required to answer th question.
(D) If the answer can be found by using either of th two statements alone.
(E) If both statements even together are not sufficien 121. What is the value of a two-digit number?
(I) The sum of its two digits is 8. (II) The difference between the two digits is 6. 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
122. Ifx + y + z = 15, what is the value of 'z ' ? ( l ) x = 4 ( H ) x - y = -l 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
123. What is the area of a square? (I) The perimeter is 16 cm (II) The side of the square is 4 cm. 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
124. What is the value of a two-digit number?
1)2185 2)2195. 3)2205 4)2215 5) None of these 103. 1624 + 0.75 x 336 + 0.35 x 2840 - ? = 2840 x .25
1)2110 2)2130 3)2145 4)2150 5) None of these
104. [(244) 3 ÷(61)2 - 4 ] ÷ ? = 3 1)1300 2)1340 3)1380 4)1420 5)1450
105. 13.6%of 170-136%of 170 = -52.02 x ( ? ) 2
1)1 2)2 3)3 4)4 5)5 Directions (Q. 106-110): What approximate value should
come in place of (?) 106. 539%of799.959+ 136%of 1639.96-1311 =?
1)5210 2)5220 3)5230 4)5240 5)5250
107. 7 3 x (49) 4 ÷ 7 5 +117649 = ? ? + 7 ?
1)5 2)6 3)7 4)8 5)9 108. (3.75) 2x 17.5 + 11.5-7 = 200
1)56.5 2)59.5 3)62.5 4)64.5 5) None of these
(I) The sum of the two digits is 8.
(II) The ratio of the two digits is 3 : 1.
1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E '.
125. What is the rate of simple interest?
(I) Total interest is Rs 440.
(II) The money is invested for 2 years.
1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
Directions (Q. 126-130): In the following table the
number of cars sold by five dealers A, B, C, D and E is given
for six years 2001 to 2006. Answer following questions based
on the table.
Year→
Dealer ↓ 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
A 305 190 360 282 290 283
B 210 201 300 260 199 264
C 120 100 104 116 135 145
D 222 180 317 251 280 214
E 406 416 430 443 446 463
126. What is the difference between the average number of
cars sold by A and that by D?
1)40 2)41 3)42 4)43 5)44
127. The no. of cars sold by Dealer C in 2001 is what percentage
of the number of cars sold by B in the year 2003 ?
1)40% 2)60% 3)80% 4)120% 5) None of these
128. The no. of cars sold by Dealer A in year 2004 is what
percentage more than that sold by D in year 2002?
131. What is the total amount of money (in Rs) he spent on
Rent and Clothes?
1)1.8 lakhs 2) 2.4 lakhs 3) 2.8 lakhs
4) 3.2 lakhs 5) None of these
132. What is the difference (in Rs) between the amount he
spent on Food and that on Transportation?
1) 86 thousand 2) 88 thousand 3) 1.08 lakh
4) 1.12 lakhs 5) None of these
133. The amount spent on Other items is what percentage of
that spent on food?
1)30% 2)36% 3)40% 4)44% 5)48%
134. The amount spent on Rent is what percentage more than
the amount he saves?
1)20% 2)40% 3)60% 4)80% 5)100%
135. What is the ratio of the amount spent on Transportation
and Clothes together to the amount spent on Food?
1 )4 :5 2 ) 5 : 4 3 ) 5 : 6 4 ) 6 : 5 5 )1 :1
Directions (Q. 136-140): Following line graph shows
the percentage profit of two companies Aand B in the period
of 2004 to 2009.
136. If the total expenditure of Company A in year 2005 is Rs
80 lakhs then what is its income (in Rs) in that year.
1) 96 lakhs 2) 98 lakhs 3) 100 lakhs
4) 102 lakhs 5) 104 lakhs
137. In which year was the difference of the percentage profit
for the two companies maximum?
1)2004 2)2005 3)2006 4)2008 5)2009
138. If the income of 'A' in 2008 and ' B ' in 2006 are the same,
ie Rs 70 lakhs, then what is the total expenditure (in Rs)
of 'A' in 2008 and ' B ' in 2006 together?
1)102 lakhs 2) 104 lakhs 3) 105 lakhs
4) 106 lakhs 5) 108 lakhs
139. If the expenditures of Aand B in the year 2005 are Rs 50
lakhs and 75 lakhs respectively, what is the ratio of their
profits?
1 )1 :2 2 ) 2 : 1 3 ) 2 : 3 4 ) 3 : 2 5 ) 1 : 1
140. If the income of 'A' in the year 2009 isRs 100 lakhs, what
is the expenditure o f ' B ' (in Rs) in the same year?
1) 84 lakhs 2) 79 lakhs 3) 95 lakhs
4)81.5 lakhs 5) None of these
141. In how many ways can 5 boys and 4 girls be seated in a
4)60% 5) None of these
129. What is the ratio of the no. of cars sold by all the five
dealers in the year 2005 to the no. of cars sold by Dealer
C in all the six years
1)13:7 2 )14 :9 3 ) 1 5 : 8 4 ) 1 6 : 9 5)17:13
130. In all the five dealers the no. of cars sold by which dealer
is increasing throughout the six years?
1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
Directions (Q. 131-135): The following pie-chart shows
the percentage distribution of the annual income of a person.
Answer these questions based on this pie-chart. His total
annual income is Rs 8 lakhs.
143. A man can row a boat 10 km/hr in still water. When the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, it takes 30 hours to row to a certain place and come back. How far is the place? 1) 160 km 2) 153 km 3) 126km 4) 172 km 5) None of these
144. Two trains start at the same time from Delhi and Pune and proceed towards each other at the rate of 80 km/h"1
and 90 km/h"1 respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 200 km more than the other. Find the distance between Delhi and Pune. 1)3200 km 2)3400 km 3) 3600 km 4) 3800km 5)4000km
145. It takes 20 hours for a man to complete a journey by a car. If he drives the first half at the speed 60 kmh"1 and the second half at 40 kmh ' , what is the total distance? 1)720 km 2) 820 km 3) 860 km 4) 960 km 5) None of these
146. A certain number of men can do a work in 20 days. If there were 4 more men, they. would finish it in 4 days less. How many men are there? l)12men 2)14men 3)16men 4)18men 5)20men
147. A boy buys an item with 40% discount on the labelled price. He sold that item with 35% profit on the labelled price. What was his per cent profit on the price he bought? 1)62.5% 2)75% 3)96% 4) 125% 5) None of these
148. If a certain sum of money amounts to Rs 4500 in 5 years at the rate of 5% per annum, what is the sum? l)Rs4200 2)Rs4000 3)Rs3600 4)Rs3200 5) None of these
149. If an amount of money grows upto Rs 4500 in 2 yrs and up to Rs 5000 in 3 years on compound interest, what is the sum? l)Rs3250 2)Rs3470 3)Rs3575 4) Rs 3645 5) None of these
150. The wages for 40 women amount to Rs 3200 in 24 days. How many men must work for 15 days to receive Rs 4800? The daily wages of a man is double that of a woman. 1)32 2)36 3)42 4)48 5)50
Test of Reasoning 151. "If you want to get rid of struggle with clothes while
washing, use 'x ' washing powder, the no. 1 washing powder and marked with ISI." —An advertisement of 'x ' washing powder company If the above statement is true then which of the following
has been assumed while making the statement? 1) Most of the people use washing machine. 2) Powder 'x ' is available at every store of every city. 3) No other washing powder has been adorned with ISI
mark. 4) Many people desire convenience and comfort while
washing clothes. 5) Most people are not reluctant to struggle with clothes
while washing it. 152. 'XYZ' publishing company has published various books
for the competitive examination 'z ' but in spite of shortage of books for the examination 'z ' it has not sold even 1000 copies of each book. Each of the following, if true, could explain this except: 1) The books do not deal with all the topics of the papers
of examination 'z ' . 2) The books consist of many printing mistakes. 3) The prices of the books are too high to be purchased
by the students. 4) 'XYZ' company already made a huge profit last year
when it had sold various books aimed at competition 'M' .
5) Marketing network of 'XYZ' company for the books aimed at competition ' z ' is not favourable.
153. In order to be appointed as a faculty member in a School of Banking, one has to get at least 75% marks in interview. In order to be an applicant for the interview one should be between 25 yrs and 30 yrs of age and have qualified in the written examination for PO at least three times or worked as a Probationary Officer in the nationalised banks or a manager in any scheduled bank. Then which of the following is definitely true if 10 persons have been selected as faculty members? 1) 10 members got 7 5 % marks in the interview. 2) 10 members had applied for the post mentioned. 3) 10 members have qualified the written examination
for PO at least 10 times together. 4) Some of the selected candidates are Probationary
row.so that they are at alternate places.'' 1)144 2)1440 3)2880 4)288 5) None of these
142. A bag contains 4 blue, 5 green and 6 red balls. 3 balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability that balls drawn contain exactly 2 green balls?
Officers in nationalised banks. 5) None of these
154. "In what is believed to be one of the worst disasters involving the Indian Air Force's MiG-21, eight persons are reported to be killed and 16 injured when the fighter jet crashed into a bank building in a busy commercial area of Basti Adda of Jalandhar. Investigation is going on." — A news report Which of the following can be hypothesised for the above information? 1) The Mig-24 wasflying at more than 5,000 ft. 2) The pilot was flying over thickly populated urban
areas. 3) The pilot of Mig-21 was on a training sortie. 4) The engine of the fighter jet failed in the sky. 5) None of these
155. "If you are lagging behind your compet i tors in competitive examinations, buy our Magical Book Series prepared for every competition and get a book of strategies free to succeed for every competitive exam." —An advertisement of ' A B C company. If the above statement is t rue then which of the following has not been assumed while making the statement? 1) Magical Book Series of company ' A B C is available
in the market. 2) It is possible to prepare a Magical Book Series for
every competition. 3) 'Free book' is likely to attract more customers. 4) Most competitors do not desire to lag behind in
attaining their desired goals. 5) Most competitors are aware of the strategies to
succeed for every competition. Directions: (Q. 156-162): Use the following two se
ries of elements (alpha-number-symbol) to answer these questions. Every two-digit number (given in brackets) is to be treated as a single number.
S and if no such word can be formed, answer is M. 1)S 2)M 3 ) E 4 ) U 5) None of these
159. If all the elements of series I are reversed, and the second half of series II is reversed, then which of the following pairs of elements represents seventh to the right of seventeenth element from the left of series I; and third to the left of sixth to the right of thirteenth element from the right of series II respectively? 1)Q,L 2)7,1 3)E, (11) 4 ) R , C 5)None of these
160. Which of the following groups of elements will come in the place of the question mark in the series of elements given below?
156. Four of the following five groups of elements are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
157. If each symbol has a value of zero, and each alphabet has a value equivalent to double the numeral that immediately precedes it or the value of 5 if it is not immediately preceded by a numeral, what will be the sum of the values of the first 10 elements of series I and the last 10 elements of series II? 1) 122 2)89 3) 112 4)33 5) None of these
158. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the 9th and 24th elements of series I along with 3rd, 4th, 23rd and 31 st elements of series II (using each element only once), the third letter of the word would be your answer- If more than one such word can be formed, your answer would be
161. It series I and series II are combined m the same order to make a mega series, ie • is followed by +, then which of the following elements will be exactly midway between 'y ' and ' z ' in the mega series? Where 'y ' represents the element which is exactly midway between the fifth element from the left and the sixth element from the right of series I. And 'z ' represents the element which is exactly midway between the eighth element from the left and the fifth element from the right in series II.
162. What is the sum of the number of numbers in the first series which are immediately followed by a letter and immediately preceded by a number, and the number of symbols in series II which are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter? l )None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) None of these
163. How many pairs of letters are there in the word CATACLYSMIC which have number of letters between them one less than in the English alphabet? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these
164. By following a certain logic OCTOBER is written as OCtObEr and NOVEMBER is written as nOvEMbEr. How is FEBRUARY written in that logic? 1) ffibruAry 2) FEbrUArY 3) fEbrUArY 4) fEbrUarY 5) None of these
165. In a certain code REFERENDUM is written as HZZRBUCHDS and SIMULATION is written as ITEXXOSOHT. How is STONEMASON written in that code language? l)ITOEJLHQST 2)ITOEKHLQST 3)ITPEJHLQST 4) ITOEJHLQST 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 166-170): In each of the following questions a statement is given followed by four courses of action. A course of action is taken for improvement, follow-up etc. Read the statement carefully and select the correct answer. 166. Statement: Franchisees of X coaching institute, a reputed
coaching institute for Bank POs, have failed to fulfil the desired expectation of policy-makers of the X coaching institute.
Courses of action: I. All the franchisees should be called for a meeting. II. Policy-makers should contemplatively look into the
matter and take proper action to eliminate loopholes in the policies concerned.
III. A team should be sent to all the franchises to supervise their standard of teaching as well as infrastructure.
IV Criteria of allotting franchise should be revised and any harmful relaxation should be stopped.
1) All follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only II, III and IV follow 4) Only II and IV follow 5) None of these
167. Statement: The Indian Railways owns 4.23 lakh hectares of land, making it perhaps the second largest land owner in the country. Out of these 4.23 lakh hectares, 0.2 lakh hectares is under encroachment. Now, Rail Bhawan plans to generate some money with the surplus land. Courses of action: I. Railways should lease out surplus land in urban
areas to developers for commercial plazas and multiplexes.
II Railways should plan to offer surplus land in rural areas to plantation companies on a revenue-sharing basis.
III. Railways should sell the surplus land to the weaker sections of society on 'concessional rate'.
IV The authorities concerned should seek the help of the police to drive away encroachers after sending a prior notice to them.
1)AU follow 2) Only I, II and IV follow 3) Only III and IV follow 4) Only I and II follow 5) None of these
168. Statement: "Mishaps of MiG-21 have increased these days. Another mishap of MiG-21 took place in city X recently." — A report in a newspaper about the Indian Air Force Courses of action: I. The Indian Air Force should temporarily ground its
fleet. II. MiG-21 and other such aircraft should be discarded
and advance versions of aircraft should be acquired immediately.
III. An enquiry committee should be set up to find out the causes of the frequent mishaps of MiG-21.
IV Only trained pilots should be permitted to take the responsibility of MiG-2 Is.
1)Only I and II follow 2)Allfollow 3) Only I, II and III follow 4) Only I and III follow 5) None of these
169. Statement: Bikes of company X witnessed a tremendous growth last year due to attractive offers for customers, viz 0% finance scheme, etc. Now it has decided to enter the rural markets in a full-fledged way. Courses of action: I. The company should provide bikes in rural areas
on subsidised price. II. Price of the bikes should be kept low in comparison
with the bikes of other companies used in rural areas.
III. A survey should be conducted to survey the choices and requirements (regarding bikes) of rural people as well as tropical climate of the area.
IV 0% finance scheme should be initiated by X company only for customers of rural areas.
1) All follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only, II, III and IV follow 4) Only III follows 5) None of these
170. Statement: Intelligence agencies have warned of a new spell of jehad in state X and there is a threat of increase in cross-border terrorism. Courses of action: I. The Central Government should instruct CM of state
X to take appropriate action. II. Additional company of forces should be sent to X
if there is a demand for it. III. Security forces on border areas of state X should
be kept on high alert. IV Government should issue a threat to those countries
which are spreading cross-border terrorism in India. 1) All follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only II, III and IV follow 4) Only III and IV follow 5) None of these Directions (Q. 171-175): Below is given a passage fol
lowed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2) if the inference is 'p robably t rue ' though not 'definitely true' in the light ofithelScts given.
3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4) if the inference is 'probably false' though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given.
5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts.
It is not only the consumer goods companies who are betting on rural India, but cement-makers' fortunes are also tied to the rural economy now. The recent spurt in cement despatches witnessed by major cement producers has been triggered by rural India. Last fiscal even as the country was mired in industrial slowdown, northern and eastern India, which are heavily dependent on agriculture income, showed above national average growth in cement demand. Last year, the cement despatches for domestic consumption increased by 9.6 per cent to 99.02 million tonnes. However, in states like West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh—both major producers of paddy—the growth in demand was around 15 per cent. In contrast more urbanised states like Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Kerala showed negative ornegligible growth. Expectations are rife that the cement demand from rural areas and small towns would increase further as the recently announced reforms in the
agricultural sector gathers steam and agricultural production gets diversified towards cash crops. 171. Cement demand varies from small town to city. 172. There is more cement work in rural India. 173. The more the paddy production the more the demand of
cement. 174. Consumer goods companies have more sales in rural
areas than in big cities. 175. Rural economy has nothing to do with the growth in
demand of cement. Directions (Q. 176-180): In making decisions about
important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "Strong" arguments and "Weak" arguments insofar as they relate to the question. "St rong" arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. "Weak" arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Instructions: Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong. Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong. Give answer (3) if either I or II is strong. Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong; and Give answer (5) if both I and II are strojig.
176. Statement: Should there be a ban on ultrasound checkup to detect the gender of the child in the womb?
Arguments: I. Yes. It will hamper the sex ratio. II. No. This will supress the freedom of the human beings.
177. Statement: Should there be compulsory education till matriculation for every citizen of India?
Arguments: I. Yes. Lack of education is the root cause of every evil, viz poverty, unemployment, etc. II. No. It will be a violation of human rights.
178. Statement: Should there be punishment in India for those who have more than two children?
Arguments: I. Yes. It is very much desirable because there is no other way to control population growth, which is hampering the development of the country on every front. II. Yes. If we want to be a developed country like China, we should follow it.
179. Statement: Should there be a ban on using mobile phones while driving vehicles?
Arguments: I. No. This will affect the basic purpose of keeping a mobile phone. II. Yes. Doing two works simultaneously should not be permissible.
180. Statement: Should there be a ban on surnames which reflect the caste and religion of persons?
Arguments: I. Yes. This move will encourage communal harmony, which is very much desirable in secular states like India.
II . No. It is against our old social customs and traditions.
Directions (Q. 181-185): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons in an organisation. Each of them is a fan of XYZ model of pen of Reynolds company. But each likes different colours of pen, viz Black, White, Blue, Green, Red and Yellow. The ages of the persons are also different. Now study the following clues:
1 The Oldest person does not like blue or white. II. The youngest person does not like black or red. III. 'C likes yellow and only one person is older than him. IV 'A' likes white colour and is older than 'E ' but
younger than F. V ' B ' likes black and is younger than 'A' but older
than 'E ' . VL ' D ' likes blue and 'E ' likes red.
181. How many persons are older than D? l )one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) None of these
182. How many persons are younger than F? l )one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) None of these
183. The oldest among them prefers the pen of 1) red colour 2) black colour 3) green colour 4) yellow colour 5) None of these
184. One who prefers black pen wants to change his/her pen with the pen of a person who is older than him. Then how many options of colours are there before him? l ) two 2) three 3) four 4) He has no such option. 5) None of these
185. Which of the following combinations is not correct? 1) A - White - Older than B, E and D 2) B—Black—Olde r than E and D 3) D — Blue — Younger than A, B and E only 4) E — Red — Older than D only
5) C—Yellow -— Younger than F only Directions (Q. 186-190): In these questions, certain
symbols have been used to indicate relationships between elements as follows:
'A * B' means 'A is either equal to or greater than B ' . ' A $ B ' means 'A is equal to BV ' A £ B ' means 'A i s either equal to or smaller than B ' . ' A & B' means 'A is smaller than B' and. 'A @ B' means 'A is greater than B ' . In each question, four statements showing relationships
have been given, which are followed by two conclusions I & II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely t rue.
M a r k answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. M a r k answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. M a r k answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true. M a r k answer (4) if neither I nor II is true and; M a r k answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
186. Statements: H & G , K$S, S*J, K$H Conclusions: I. J & G II. J&K
187. Statements: L$M, N£M, N@J, R$J Conclusions: I. L*R II. N£L
188. Statements: G$P, P*Q, Q*S, P@T Conclusions; I. G@T II. S£G
189. Statements: N@L, MSN, R&L, L*D Conclusions: I. M$D II. M*D
190. Statements: t $ S , U&T, S*W, V$S Conclusions: I. W&T II. T$W Directions (Q. 191-195): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while.the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements 1 and II together are necessary to answer the question.
191. Who among A, B, C, D and E is the tallest? L A and B are taller than D and E but shorter than C. II A is taller than B, D and E but not the tallest.
192. In which direction is P from Q? L P is towards north of R. JL P, Q, S, T, U and V are on a straight line and P is at the
extreme left while U is at extreme right. 193. What does 'yari' indicate in a certain code language?
I. In that code language "teri meriyari" means "good business partner"; and "yari dostikya " means "fair weather partner".
II. In that code language "teri men dushmani" means "do good business".
194. How is ' P ' related to 'R '? I. 'L' is the son o f ' P ' ; W is the wife of 'L ' , who is the
grandfather of S, who is the only sister of K, who is the son of R.
II. P and R are neither the daughter nor the wife and neither the sister nor the mother of any one in the family.
195. How many sons does ' S ' have? I. One of his sons says, "I have half as many brothers as
sisters." One of his daughters says, "When my eldest sister was not at home I found I had equal number of brothers and sisters present with me to play."
II. The ratio of the sons and daughters of S was 2 : 3 before the birth of Rama, Kiran, Suman and Kanchan. The birth of these four persons resulted in equal increase in the number of sons and daughters and now the ratio became 3 : 8 .
Directions (Q. 196-200): These questions are based on the following statements:
A cube of side 10 cm is coloured red with a 2-cm-wide green strip along all the sides on all the faces. The cube is cut
into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Now answer the following questions based on the above
information. 196. How many cubes have three green faces each?
1)0 2)4 3)6 4)8 5)Noneofthese 197. Howmany cubes have one face red and adjacent face green?
1)0 2)4 3)6 4)8 5) None of these 198. How many cubes have at least one face coloured?
1)25 2)50 3)98 4)100 5) None of these 199. How many cubes are without any colour?
1)0 2)1 3)8 4)27 5) None of these 200. How many cubes have at least two green faces each?
1)8 2)44 3 )63 4)71 5) None of these Directions (Q. 201-210): Read the following informa
tion carefully and answer the questions given below. Directorate-General Border Security Force invites appli
cations from male candidates for the post of Head Constable (Radio Operator). The following criteria are needed for a candidate to be selected. The candidate
1) should have passed matric or equivalent with 60% marks.
2) should have a two-year ITI certificate in Radio and TV/Electronics.
3) should be between 18 years and 23 years as on 1 Aug 2010 in case of a candidate belonging to general category. Upper age limit shall be relaxable in respect of SC/ST candidates by 5 years and OBC candidates by 3 years.
4) should fulfil the following Physical and Medical criteria:
(i) He should have a height of at least 170 cm, 168 cm, 169 cm and 165 cm if he belongs to North, South, East and West region respectively.
(ii) He should have minimum distant vision of 6/6 and 6/ 9 in both eyes without correction, i.e. without wearing glasses. He must pass high-grade colour vision test.
(iii) He must not have knock knee, flat feet or squint in eyes.
However, if a candidate fulfils all these criteria except (a) 1) above but has passed 10 + 2 examination with at
least 50% marks, then his case may be referred to back-up file, and considered later for appointment.
(b) 2) above but has a three-year diploma certificate in Radio and TV/Electronics, then his case should be mentioned in priority list.
(c) 3) above but is an ex-serviceman not more than 35 years, he should be selected.
On the basis of the above criteria and information provided below, decide the course of action in each case. Please note that you are NOT to assume any data other than thos described. However, you may treat the candidate as "Gen eral Category" if his category is not explicitly mentioned a SC/ST/OBC. Only male candidates have sent applications. These cases are given to you as on 1st Aug, 2010.
Mark your answer 1) If the candidate is to be selected but not from the
priority list. 2) If the candidate is not to be selected. ' ^ 3) If the candidate is selected according to the priority
list. 4) If the candidate is to be considered later for
appointment. 5) If the data given about the candidate are inadequate
to make a decision. 201. Satyaprakash is an ex-serviceman. He is 30 years old. He
has a two-year ITI certificate in the relevant field. He belongs to North region and his height is 170 cm. He fulfils the other required medical and physical criteria. He is an intell igent student and has gotten 6 2 % marks in matriculation.
202. Rakesh K Yadav has done a three-year diploma in electronic engineering. He has secured 69% marks in matriculation. His date of birth is 1st August 1991. He has no ITI certificates. His height is 168 cm. He belongs to the West region. He has the required minimum distant vision without correction. He fulfils the other required medical and physical criteria.
203. Amresh Kumar has succeeded to get more than 59% marks in matriculation and the same percentage of marks in 10 + 2 examination. He is an ST candidate. His date of birth is 2 Aug 1982. He has the certificate of ITI in the required field. He belongs to the West region and his height is 169 cm. He fulfils other physical and medical criteria.
204. Abhishek Gupta is 20 years old. He has a two-year ITI certificate in Radio and TV. He has gotten 60% marks in matriculation. His height is 168 cm. He has minimum distant vision of 6/6 and 6/9 in both eyes without correction. He has passed high-grade colour vision test. He is not suffering from problems such as knock knee, flat feet or squint in eyes.
205. Bhavesh Kr Jha is 24 years old. He is an OBC candidate. He has a two-year certificate of ITI. He secured 67% marks in matric. He is 168 cm tall. He belongs to the North region. He fulfils other required physical and medical criteria.
206. Himanshu Rajoria has a good academic record. He has done a three-year diploma course in electronic engineering after passing 10+2 and matriculation with 60% and 65% respectively. He has no physical and medical disability. He is an ST candidate. His date of birth is 7 Aug 1982.
207. Prabhat Ranjan has done matriculation and 10 + 2 with 75% marks. His date of birth is 31 Dec 1988. He has done a three-year diploma course in Radio and TV engineering. He belongs to the North region and has the height according to stipulated norms. He is not suffering from any physical disorder. He is medically fit for the job.
208. Bhuwan Chandra failed to get even 5 5 % marks in matriculation but succeeded in getting the same percentage of marks in 10 + 2 and 10+2 + 3 level. He has done a three-year diploma course too in electronic engineering. His date of birth is 11 July 1987. He is physically fit for the job and fulfils the stipulated medical norms.
209. Vishal Choudhary is a candidate of over twenty years.
His academic record is exemplary because of full marks in each subject and in each examination. Last year when he finished his three-year diploma course in electronic engineering he was very pleased because he repeated the same pe r fo rmance as the prev ious one in matriculation. He is confident of being selected for the post because he fulfils physical and medical norms regarding height, feet, knee and eye.
210. Bankim Anand got less marks in matriculation than Vishal Choudhary. He is 22 years old. He fulfils all the required physical and medical norms. Directions (Q. 211-215): In each of the questions below
are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be t rue even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 211. Statements: All players are spectators.
Some spectators are theatres. Some theatres are dramas.
Conclusions: I. Some dramas are spectators. II. Some players are dramas. III. Some theatres are players. IV. All spectators are players.
1) Only II follows 2) None follows 3) Only II and IV follow 4) Only I and III follow 5) All follow
212. Statements: Some buckets are water. All water is paper. Some papers are woods.
Conclusions: I. Some woods are water. II. Some buckets are woods. III. Some papers are buckets. IV. Some woods are buckets.
1) None follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows 4) Only IV follows 5) Only II, III and IV follow
213. Statements: Some rings are phones. Some phones are computers. Some computers are stations.
Conclusions: I. Some stations are rings. II. Some phones are stations. HI. Some computers are rings. IV. All rings are stations.
1) None follows 2) Only I and II follow 3) Only I, II and III follow 4) Only II and III follow 5) All follow
214. Statements: All leaves are ink. No ink is brush. All cakes are brushes.
Conclusions: I. Some cakes are leaves. II. Some ink is cake. III. Some ink is leaf. IV. Some cakes are brushes.
1) All follow 2) Only I and II follow
P O S E T - I
3) Only II and III follow 4) Only III and IV follow 5) None of these
215. Statements: All needles are threads. All threads are boxes.
All trees are boxes. Conclusions: I. No needle is a tree.
II. Some trees are threads. III. Some boxes are needles. IV. Some trees are needles.
Directions (Q. 216-220): The first figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the second figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would replace the question mark.
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Directions (Q. 221-225): Each of the following series consists of seven figures, two of which at the ends are unnumbered. One of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Find out the figure
1) Only either I or IV follows 2) Only either I or IV and II follow 3) Only III follows 4) None follows 5) Only either I or IV and III follow
